6c051 Contracting UREs Volume 1

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  • 1/76 Questions

    (001) What agency’s objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?

    • Small Business Administration (SBA).
    • General Services Administration (GSA).
    • United States Department of Labor (DOL).
    • Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled.
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '6C051 Contracting UREs Volume 1', assesses knowledge in government contracting. It covers topics such as forms of acts by Congress, small business aid, principal-agent relationships, and authority types. Essential for learners in government procurement roles.

6c051 Contracting UREs Volume 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (001) Express actual authority is created by

    • Explicit language, written or oral, from the principal to the agent

    • Information that flows from the third-party to the agent.

    • Information that flows from the agent to the third-party

    • The principal’s tolerance of the agent’s conduct.

    Correct Answer
    A. Explicit language, written or oral, from the principal to the agent
    Explanation
    Express actual authority is created when the principal explicitly communicates their authority to the agent through either written or oral means. This means that the principal clearly and directly conveys their expectations and permissions to the agent, giving them the authority to act on their behalf. It is important for the principal to use explicit language to avoid any confusion or misunderstandings regarding the scope of the agent's authority. This type of authority is based on the principal's direct communication and is different from authority that may arise from information flowing from third parties or from the agent's conduct.

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  • 3. 

    (001) What is meant by the term “competent” in regards to a contracting party?

    • Having an unsound mind.

    • Ensuring business is not conducted with minors.

    • Having the ability to recognize defective corporations

    • Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.

    Correct Answer
    A. Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.
    Explanation
    The term "competent" in regards to a contracting party refers to their mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. This means that the individual must have the mental ability and understanding to comprehend the obligations and consequences of entering into a contract. It is important for a contracting party to be competent as it ensures that they are fully aware of their rights and responsibilities, and can make informed decisions regarding the contract.

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  • 4. 

    (005) Which position is responsible for managing small business and other socio-economic programs?

    • Contracting superintendent.

    • Contracting squadron commander

    • Director of business operations (DBO).

    • Management analysis and support flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Director of business operations (DBO).
    Explanation
    The Director of Business Operations (DBO) is responsible for managing small business and other socio-economic programs. This position oversees the operational aspects of the business, including financial management, budgeting, and resource allocation. They are also responsible for developing and implementing strategies to support small businesses and promote socio-economic growth. The DBO plays a crucial role in ensuring the success and sustainability of these programs within the organization.

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  • 5. 

    (006) Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?

    • Customer.

    • Contractor.

    • Contract specialist

    • Contracting officer (CO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer.
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request. This means that the customer is responsible for clearly articulating what they need or want to purchase, including any specific details or specifications. The customer's description will serve as the basis for the purchase request and will guide the contractor, contract specialist, and contracting officer in fulfilling the customer's requirements.

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  • 6. 

    (006) Prior to receiving a contract award, contractors must be registered in

    • Wide Area Workflow (WAWF).

    • Federal Business Opportunities (FBO).

    • System for Award Management (SAM).

    • Online Representations and Certifications Application (ORCA).

    Correct Answer
    A. System for Award Management (SAM).
    Explanation
    Contractors must be registered in the System for Award Management (SAM) prior to receiving a contract award. SAM is a government-wide database that consolidates information about companies doing business with the federal government. It is used by federal agencies to search for potential contractors, verify their eligibility, and manage their contracts. By being registered in SAM, contractors ensure that their information is up to date and accessible to government agencies, increasing their chances of being awarded contracts.

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  • 7. 

    (010) The first six positions of a procurement instrument identifier (PIID) represent the

    • Fiscal year

    • Type of instrument.

    • Sequential count for that specific contract type

    • Department of Defense (DOD) Activity Address Code (DODAAC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Defense (DOD) Activity Address Code (DODAAC).
    Explanation
    The first six positions of a procurement instrument identifier (PIID) represent the Department of Defense (DOD) Activity Address Code (DODAAC). This code is used to identify the specific DOD activity or office that is responsible for the procurement. The DODAAC is an alphanumeric code that consists of six characters, and it is unique to each DOD activity or office. Therefore, the first six positions of the PIID are used to indicate the DODAAC, allowing for easy identification and tracking of procurement activities within the Department of Defense.

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  • 8. 

    (010) What type of contracting instrument would have the letter “P” in the ninth position of the procurement instrument identifier (PIID)?

    • Automated request for quotation.

    • Manual request for quotation.

    • Facilities contract.

    • Purchase order.

    Correct Answer
    A. Purchase order.
    Explanation
    A purchase order is a type of contracting instrument that would have the letter "P" in the ninth position of the procurement instrument identifier (PIID). The PIID is a unique identifier assigned to each procurement instrument, and the letter "P" in this position indicates that it is a purchase order.

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  • 9. 

    (001) An offeror’s withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a

    • Revocation.

    • Termination

    • Cancellation

    • Breach of contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. Revocation.
    Explanation
    When an offeror withdraws their offer before it is accepted, it is referred to as a revocation. This means that the offer is no longer valid and cannot be accepted by the offeree. Termination refers to the end of a contract, cancellation is the act of voiding a contract, and breach of contract occurs when one party fails to fulfill their obligations under the contract. However, in this scenario, the offeror is simply withdrawing their offer, making revocation the correct answer.

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  • 10. 

    (003) A government action may be protested by

    • An interested party

    • The next low bidder.

    • All responsible bidders.

    • The next low small business bidder.

    Correct Answer
    A. An interested party
    Explanation
    A government action may be protested by an interested party because they have a direct stake or concern in the outcome of the action. This could include individuals or organizations who would be directly affected by the government action, such as competitors, stakeholders, or members of the public who have a vested interest in the matter. These interested parties may choose to protest the government action in order to voice their concerns, protect their rights, or seek a different outcome.

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  • 11. 

    (004) Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated through

    • Taxpayer dollars.

    • The Appropriations Act.

    • Enabling and Procedural Acts.

    • Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities.
    Explanation
    Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated through Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities. These facilities generate revenue through various means such as fees, charges, and sales to support programs and services for military personnel and their families. These funds are separate from taxpayer dollars and are used to enhance the quality of life for the military community.

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  • 12. 

    (004) What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?

    • Procurement Act

    • Anti-Deficiency Act.

    • Misappropriations Act.

    • Continuing Appropriations Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-Deficiency Act.
    Explanation
    The Anti-Deficiency Act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available. This act prohibits federal agencies from spending more money than has been appropriated by Congress, ensuring that funds are used responsibly and in accordance with the approved budget. Violating this act can result in penalties and legal consequences for the organization.

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  • 13. 

    (004) Operations and maintenance (O&M) and military personnel (MILPERS) funds are both categorized as what type of appropriation?

    • Annual.

    • No-year.

    • Continuing.

    • Multiple-year.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual.
    Explanation
    Operations and maintenance (O&M) and military personnel (MILPERS) funds are categorized as annual appropriations. Annual appropriations provide funding for a specific fiscal year and must be spent within that year. This type of appropriation is typically used for ongoing expenses such as salaries, maintenance, and day-to-day operations. Unlike no-year appropriations, which have no expiration date, annual appropriations are time-limited and require reauthorization each year. Continuing and multiple-year appropriations, on the other hand, provide funding for multiple fiscal years.

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  • 14. 

    (003) What document provides findings, recommendations, and any additional information necessary to assist the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in determining the merits of a protest?

    • Statement of Facts

    • Contracting officer’s final decision

    • Contractor’s Representation & Certifications

    • Staff Judge Advocate’s legal recommendation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Statement of Facts
    Explanation
    The document that provides findings, recommendations, and any additional information necessary to assist the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in determining the merits of a protest is the Statement of Facts. This document presents a detailed account of the facts relevant to the protest, including the actions taken by the government agency and the contractor involved. It helps the GAO understand the context and background of the case, allowing them to make an informed decision on the protest.

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  • 15. 

    (004) How many years are military construction appropriations available for expenditure?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    Military construction appropriations are available for expenditure for a period of 5 years. This means that the funds allocated for military construction projects can be used within a span of 5 years before they expire. After the 5-year period, any unspent funds will no longer be available for use and may need to be returned or reallocated.

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  • 16. 

    (005) Which flight is responsible for managing the government purchase card (GPC) program?

    • Plans and programs.

    • Commodities.

    • Acquisition.

    • Specialized.

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans and programs.
    Explanation
    The flight responsible for managing the government purchase card (GPC) program is "Plans and programs." This flight is in charge of overseeing the overall plans and programs within the organization, which includes managing the GPC program. They are responsible for ensuring that the program is properly implemented and adheres to government regulations and guidelines.

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  • 17. 

    (007) Which indefinite-delivery contract may be used when the government cannot predetermine, above a specified minimum, the precise quantities of supplies or services that will be required during the contract period?

    • Requirements.

    • Definite-quantity.

    • Required-quantity.

    • Indefinite-quantity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Indefinite-quantity.
    Explanation
    The indefinite-quantity contract is used when the government cannot determine the exact quantities of supplies or services that will be needed during the contract period, as stated in the question. This type of contract allows for flexibility in the quantities ordered, as long as they meet a specified minimum. It is suitable for situations where the government's requirements may vary over time or are uncertain. The other options, definite-quantity and required-quantity contracts, do not provide the same level of flexibility in meeting changing requirements.

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  • 18. 

    (009) Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as

    • Value engineering contracts.

    • Professional services contracts

    • Engineering design services contracts

    • Architect-engineering services contracts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Architect-engineering services contracts.
    Explanation
    Architect-engineering services contracts are contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services. This type of contract combines both architectural and engineering services, and is often required for projects that involve both disciplines. Value engineering contracts, professional services contracts, and engineering design services contracts do not specifically refer to the combination of architectural and engineering services, making them incorrect answers.

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  • 19. 

    (001) In the principal-agent relationship, which party is the contractor?

    • Agent

    • Principal

    • Third party

    • Agent and third party.

    Correct Answer
    A. Third party
    Explanation
    In the principal-agent relationship, the contractor is considered the third party. The principal-agent relationship involves two parties: the principal, who delegates authority to an agent to act on their behalf, and the agent, who carries out tasks and makes decisions on behalf of the principal. However, the contractor is a separate entity that is not directly involved in the principal-agent relationship, but rather provides goods or services to one or both parties involved. Therefore, the correct answer is third party.

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  • 20. 

    (001) Which statement about the offeree is correct?

    • The offeror may not direct the offer to a class of person or to a public intending that any member of the class of public have the power to accept.

    • The intended offeree means in all cases there is one, and only one, specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested.

    • The offeror may not direct the offer to more than one person.

    • Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Only the intended offeree can accept the offer." This means that the offeror cannot direct the offer to a class of people or to the public, intending for any member of the class or the public to have the power to accept. Instead, there is always one specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested. Therefore, only this intended offeree can accept the offer.

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  • 21. 

    (001) If the offeror expresses time, place, and means of communication

    • Only that time, place, or means constitutes acceptance

    • Only the offeree may change the time, place, or means of communication

    • A different time, manner, and other condition for acceptance may be chosen.

    • The offeree may communicate orally, even if the offeror communicated in writing

    Correct Answer
    A. Only that time, place, or means constitutes acceptance
    Explanation
    The answer suggests that if the offeror specifies a time, place, and means of communication for acceptance, then only those specific conditions will be considered as acceptance. Any changes to the time, place, or means of communication can only be made by the offeree. Additionally, it implies that the offeree can choose a different time, manner, or condition for acceptance if they wish. It also states that the offeree can communicate their acceptance orally, even if the offeror communicated their offer in writing.

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  • 22. 

    (001) What is the name given to the exchange of promises?

    • Detriment.

    • Sufficiency.

    • Acceptance

    • Consideration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Consideration.
    Explanation
    Consideration is the name given to the exchange of promises in a contract. It refers to something of value that is exchanged between the parties involved, such as money, goods, or services. Consideration is an essential element of a legally binding contract, as it signifies that each party is giving something up and receiving something in return. This exchange of promises ensures that the contract is fair and enforceable by law.

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  • 23. 

    (003) If the contracting officer (CO) decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor?

    • With final contract payment.

    • With the next scheduled contract payment.

    • As soon as possible after resolution of any appeal.

    • As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal." This means that once the contracting officer (CO) decides that the contractor should be compensated for a claim, the amount will be paid to the contractor without any delay or waiting for any appeal process. This ensures that the contractor receives their compensation promptly and avoids any unnecessary delays in payment.

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  • 24. 

    (007) What must be documented in the case that the contracting officer (CO) doesn’t give each awardee fair opportunity?

    • The contract

    • Memo for Record.

    • Justification for exemption.

    • Email to contractor stating why they were excluded.

    Correct Answer
    A. Justification for exemption.
    Explanation
    If the contracting officer (CO) does not provide each awardee with a fair opportunity, a justification for exemption must be documented. This is necessary to explain the reason behind not giving each awardee a fair chance and to justify the decision. The justification for exemption serves as a record of the CO's decision and provides transparency and accountability in the procurement process.

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  • 25. 

    (001) When no time is stated, an offer continues

    • Until the expiration of a reasonable time.

    • Until acceptance takes place.

    • Indefinitely

    • For 30 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. Until the expiration of a reasonable time.
    Explanation
    When no time is stated, an offer continues until the expiration of a reasonable time. This means that the offer remains open for a period that is considered reasonable under the circumstances. The length of this reasonable time can vary depending on factors such as the nature of the offer, the subject matter, and any industry standards or norms. It is important to determine what would be considered reasonable in a particular situation to understand how long the offer will remain open.

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  • 26. 

    (003) After accrual of a claim, what is the maximum amount of time within which contractor claims must be submitted to the contracting officer (CO), unless contracting parties agreed to a shorter period of time?

    • 30 days.

    • 180 days.

    • Two years

    • Six years

    Correct Answer
    A. Six years
    Explanation
    Contractor claims must be submitted to the contracting officer (CO) within six years after accrual of a claim, unless the contracting parties have agreed to a shorter period of time. This means that contractors have a maximum of six years to submit their claims for any issues or disputes that arise during the course of the contract. It is important for contractors to be aware of this time limit and ensure that they submit their claims within the specified timeframe to protect their rights and interests.

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  • 27. 

    (005) Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent?

    • Advising the commander on enlisted issues.

    • Managing the self-inspection program

    • Appointing contracting officers (CO).

    • Military career advisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Appointing contracting officers (CO).
    Explanation
    The contracting superintendent is responsible for advising the commander on enlisted issues, managing the self-inspection program, and serving as a military career advisor. However, appointing contracting officers is not one of their functions. This task is typically carried out by higher-level personnel or contracting officers themselves.

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  • 28. 

    (006) A contracting officer’s (CO) responsibility includes

    • Developing requirements for customers.

    • Ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment

    • Providing advice to legal specialists as appropriate.

    • Entering funding documents into the Automated Business Support System (ABSS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment
    Explanation
    The responsibility of a contracting officer (CO) includes ensuring that contractors receive equitable treatment. This means that the CO must ensure that all contractors are treated fairly and without bias in the procurement process. This includes providing equal opportunities for all contractors to compete for contracts, evaluating their proposals objectively, and awarding contracts based on fair and transparent criteria. By ensuring equitable treatment, the CO promotes competition, fairness, and integrity in the procurement process.

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  • 29. 

    (006) What is a purpose of the customer education program?

    • Develop open lines of communication.

    • Increase quantity of contract requirements.

    • Ensure customers follow the chain of command.

    • Teach how to get started as a government contractor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop open lines of communication.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a customer education program is to develop open lines of communication. This means that the program aims to foster a better understanding between the company and its customers, allowing for effective communication and feedback. By educating customers about the company's products or services, their benefits, and how to use them, the program helps to establish a strong and transparent relationship. This can lead to increased customer satisfaction, loyalty, and ultimately, business growth.

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  • 30. 

    (008) The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) is to

    • Promote full and open competition

    • Promote inefficiencies in government contracting

    • Ease the process of acquiring goods and services through interservice acquisitions

    • Reduce administrative costs and the administrative burden on the government and contractors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce administrative costs and the administrative burden on the government and contractors.
    Explanation
    Simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) aim to reduce administrative costs and burdens for both the government and contractors. By streamlining the acquisition process, SAP allows for quicker and more efficient procurement of goods and services. This helps to eliminate unnecessary paperwork and bureaucracy, saving time and resources for all parties involved. Ultimately, the goal is to make the acquisition process easier and more cost-effective, benefiting both the government and contractors.

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  • 31. 

    (008) Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard Form

    • 32

    • 252

    • 1442

    • 1449

    Correct Answer
    A. 1449
  • 32. 

    (009) What option does the government have if an architect-engineer’s (A-E) design, drawing, or specifications contain errors or deficiencies?

    • Require contractor make corrections under the original contract at no cost to the government.

    • Require contractor make corrections at an additional cost to the government.

    • Contracts for corrections and charges expense to the original contractor.

    • Make necessary corrections at the government’s own expense.

    Correct Answer
    A. Require contractor make corrections under the original contract at no cost to the government.
    Explanation
    If an architect-engineer's design, drawing, or specifications contain errors or deficiencies, the government has the option to require the contractor to make corrections under the original contract at no cost to the government. This means that the contractor will be responsible for fixing any mistakes or deficiencies without any additional cost to the government.

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  • 33. 

    (001) Estoppel means to prevent

    • The government from acting as an agent for the contractor.

    • Contractors from filing a claim based on apparent authority.

    • A party from taking action which the party is legally entitled to take.

    • A party from asserting a fact or claim inconsistent with a position that party previously took.

    Correct Answer
    A. A party from asserting a fact or claim inconsistent with a position that party previously took.
    Explanation
    Estoppel refers to the legal principle that prevents a party from asserting a fact or claim that is inconsistent with a position they previously took. This means that if a party has made a certain statement or taken a certain position in the past, they cannot later contradict themselves and assert something different. Estoppel ensures consistency and prevents parties from unfairly changing their position to gain an advantage in a legal dispute.

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  • 34. 

    (010) Supplemental procurement instrument identifier (PIID) are used to identify

    • Follow-on contracts.

    • Corrections to Forms 9.

    • Amendments to solicitations.

    • Standard Form (SF) 44 purchases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Amendments to solicitations.
    Explanation
    Supplemental procurement instrument identifiers (PIID) are used to identify amendments to solicitations. Amendments are changes or modifications made to the original solicitation documents, such as extending the deadline, clarifying requirements, or addressing any other updates or revisions. The use of a supplemental PIID helps to track and differentiate these amendments from the original solicitation, ensuring that all interested parties are aware of the changes and can respond accordingly.

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  • 35. 

    (001) For a contract to be enforceable, its terms must be clear enough to permit

    • The government to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party

    • Each contractor to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party.

    • The courts to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party.

    • Each party to interpret its own duties and obligations to be performed.

    Correct Answer
    A. The courts to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the courts must be able to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party. This is because the courts are responsible for resolving disputes and enforcing contracts. If the terms of a contract are not clear, it becomes difficult for the courts to determine the intent of the parties involved and to enforce the contract accordingly. Therefore, clear and unambiguous terms are necessary for a contract to be enforceable.

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  • 36. 

    (001) As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is

    • Lawful if not challenged with 120 days.

    • Unlawful, void, and will not be enforced.

    • Lawful only to the party who made the offer.

    • Unlawful but may be enforced under some situations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unlawful, void, and will not be enforced.
    Explanation
    A contract that violates a statute is considered unlawful, void, and will not be enforced. This means that if a contract goes against the laws set by a statute, it is not legally binding and will not be upheld by the courts. This rule applies regardless of whether or not the contract is challenged within 120 days.

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  • 37. 

    (003) When an agency receives notice of a protest from the Government Accountability Office (GAO) within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately

    • Begins consolidating a complete report.

    • Provides a 30-day cancellation notice to the contractor.

    • Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.

    • Suspends performance for 60 days, then processes a contract cancellation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.
    Explanation
    When an agency receives notice of a protest from the Government Accountability Office (GAO) within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract. This is because the protest raises concerns about the validity or fairness of the contract, and it is necessary to halt performance until the protest is resolved. Terminating the contract may also be an option if the protest raises serious issues that cannot be resolved.

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  • 38. 

    (004) The two most common types of funding documents are the

    • Department of Defense (DD) Form 1588 and DD Form 448.

    • Air Force (AF) Form 9 and AF Form 55.

    • DD Form 448 and AF Form 9.

    • AF Form 988 and AF Form 911.

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 448 and AF Form 9.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 448 and AF Form 9. This is because the question asks for the two most common types of funding documents, and DD Form 448 and AF Form 9 are the options that include both DD and AF forms. The other options only include forms from either the Department of Defense or the Air Force, but not both.

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  • 39. 

    (004) What appropriation category may be used to fund minor military construction projects under $1,000,000?

    • Research, development, test and evaluation (RDT&E)

    • Operations and maintenance (O&M).

    • Military construction (MILCON).

    • Procurement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations and maintenance (O&M).
    Explanation
    Minor military construction projects under $1,000,000 can be funded through the Operations and maintenance (O&M) appropriation category. This category is specifically designated for the maintenance and upkeep of existing military facilities and infrastructure. It covers costs such as repairs, renovations, and minor construction projects that are necessary to maintain the functionality and operational readiness of military installations. Therefore, O&M is the appropriate category to fund these types of projects.

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  • 40. 

    (004) What appropriations account code identifies operations and maintenance (O&M) funds?

    • 3300

    • 3400

    • 3500

    • 3600

    Correct Answer
    A. 3400
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3400. This appropriations account code identifies operations and maintenance (O&M) funds.

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  • 41. 

    (001) Which of these is an example of rejecting an offer?

    • Allowing the acceptance period to expire

    • Having no intention of being bound.

    • Proposing a counter offer

    • Delaying performance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proposing a counter offer
    Explanation
    Proposing a counter offer is an example of rejecting an offer because it involves suggesting different terms or conditions than those initially proposed. By proposing a counter offer, the person is indicating that they are not willing to accept the original offer as it stands and are instead suggesting a different agreement. This shows a rejection of the initial offer while still leaving room for negotiation and potential agreement on new terms.

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  • 42. 

    (003) The two most common techniques of alternative dispute resolutions (ADR) are

    • Mitigation and controversy hearings.

    • Mediation and controversy hearings.

    • Mitigation and arbitration.

    • Mediation and arbitration

    Correct Answer
    A. Mediation and arbitration
    Explanation
    Mediation and arbitration are the two most common techniques of alternative dispute resolution (ADR). Mediation involves a neutral third party facilitating communication and negotiation between the parties involved in a dispute to reach a mutually acceptable agreement. Arbitration, on the other hand, involves a neutral third party making a binding decision after hearing the arguments and evidence presented by both parties. Both techniques aim to resolve disputes outside of the traditional court system, but they differ in the level of control the parties have over the outcome.

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  • 43. 

    (005) Whose job is it to ensure the local contracting program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and Air Force instructions (AFIs)?

    • Director of business operations (DBO).

    • Contracting squadron commander.

    • Plans and programs flight chief.

    • Contracting superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting squadron commander.
    Explanation
    The contracting squadron commander is responsible for ensuring that the local contracting program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and Air Force instructions (AFIs). This role involves overseeing and managing the contracting operations within the squadron, making strategic decisions, and ensuring compliance with all relevant guidelines and instructions. The director of business operations (DBO) may have a broader oversight role, but the contracting squadron commander specifically focuses on the contracting program's effectiveness and compliance. The plans and programs flight chief and contracting superintendent may have related responsibilities but do not have the primary responsibility for ensuring the program's effectiveness and compliance.

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  • 44. 

    (001) Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government contracting?

    • Permissive acts, administrative acts, and legal acts.

    • Enabling acts, procedural acts, and permissive acts.

    • Permissive acts, administrative acts, and appropriations acts

    • Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts, and appropriations acts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts, and appropriations acts.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts, and appropriations acts." This answer identifies the different forms of acts that Congress uses to control government contracting. Enabling acts provide the legal authority for government agencies to enter into contracts, procedural acts establish the rules and regulations for the contracting process, authorization acts give permission for specific contracts or programs, and appropriations acts provide the funding for the contracts.

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  • 45. 

    (004) The Bona-Fide Need Rule requires current year funds be obligated

    • Prior to expiration of the funds.

    • As necessary to meet mission requirements.

    • For the purpose the funds are authorized for

    • In the same year the government will use the supplies or services.

    Correct Answer
    A. In the same year the government will use the supplies or services.
    Explanation
    The Bona-Fide Need Rule states that funds must be obligated in the same year that the government plans to use the supplies or services. This means that the funds cannot be carried over to the next year and must be used for their intended purpose within the current fiscal year. This rule ensures that government funds are used efficiently and effectively to meet mission requirements and avoid unnecessary accumulation of funds.

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  • 46. 

    (003) Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer’s (CO) final decision on claims exceeding $500,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?

    • Functional area chief

    • US Court of Federal Claims

    • Air Force Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate

    • Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate
    Explanation
    The Air Force Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer's final decision on claims exceeding $500,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor. They ensure that the decision is legally sound and in compliance with relevant laws and regulations.

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  • 47. 

    (003) Upon learning of an appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA), the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in

    • Air Force Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (AFFARS), Appendix AA.

    • Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A.

    • AFFARS, Appendix CC

    • DFARS, Appendix C.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A. The DFARS is a set of regulations that supplements the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) and provides additional guidance for defense acquisitions. Appendix A specifically pertains to contract appeals and provides rules and procedures for the ASBCA. Therefore, when faced with an appeal to the ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in DFARS, Appendix A.

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  • 48. 

    (001) A characteristic of implied authority is that it is

    • Spelled out in oral or written authority when referring to minor details

    • Necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority.

    • Created by explicit language either in writing or orally.

    • Defined in specific terms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority.
    Explanation
    Implied authority refers to the authority that is not explicitly stated but is necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority. This means that while the authority may not be explicitly spelled out in oral or written form, it is still understood and accepted as necessary for fulfilling the express authority. In other words, implied authority covers minor details that are essential for executing the main authority. It is not created by explicit language but rather inferred based on the context and requirements of the situation.

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  • 49. 

    (004) What type of payment is made for partial delivery of commercial items?

    • Performance-based.

    • Progress.

    • Advance.

    • Delivery.

    Correct Answer
    A. Delivery.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Delivery" because when a partial delivery of commercial items is made, payment is typically made for the delivered portion. This means that the buyer pays for the items that have been delivered, rather than paying in advance or based on the progress of the delivery. Performance-based payment refers to a payment structure that is based on meeting specific performance criteria, which is not applicable in this scenario.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 24, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Antonio Ortega

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