6c051 Contracting UREs Volume 1

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1. (010) The first six positions of a procurement instrument identifier (PIID) represent the

Explanation

The first six positions of a procurement instrument identifier (PIID) represent the Department of Defense (DOD) Activity Address Code (DODAAC). This code is used to identify the specific DOD activity or office that is responsible for the procurement. The DODAAC is an alphanumeric code that consists of six characters, and it is unique to each DOD activity or office. Therefore, the first six positions of the PIID are used to indicate the DODAAC, allowing for easy identification and tracking of procurement activities within the Department of Defense.

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About This Quiz
6c051 Contracting UREs Volume 1 - Quiz

This quiz, titled '6C051 Contracting UREs Volume 1', assesses knowledge in government contracting. It covers topics such as forms of acts by Congress, small business aid, principal-agent relationships,... see moreand authority types. Essential for learners in government procurement roles. see less

2. (010) What type of contracting instrument would have the letter "P" in the ninth position of the procurement instrument identifier (PIID)?

Explanation

A purchase order is a type of contracting instrument that would have the letter "P" in the ninth position of the procurement instrument identifier (PIID). The PIID is a unique identifier assigned to each procurement instrument, and the letter "P" in this position indicates that it is a purchase order.

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3. (005) Which position is responsible for managing small business and other socio-economic programs?

Explanation

The Director of Business Operations (DBO) is responsible for managing small business and other socio-economic programs. This position oversees the operational aspects of the business, including financial management, budgeting, and resource allocation. They are also responsible for developing and implementing strategies to support small businesses and promote socio-economic growth. The DBO plays a crucial role in ensuring the success and sustainability of these programs within the organization.

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4. (006) Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?

Explanation

The customer is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request. This means that the customer is responsible for clearly articulating what they need or want to purchase, including any specific details or specifications. The customer's description will serve as the basis for the purchase request and will guide the contractor, contract specialist, and contracting officer in fulfilling the customer's requirements.

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5. (001) What is meant by the term "competent" in regards to a contracting party?

Explanation

The term "competent" in regards to a contracting party refers to their mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. This means that the individual must have the mental ability and understanding to comprehend the obligations and consequences of entering into a contract. It is important for a contracting party to be competent as it ensures that they are fully aware of their rights and responsibilities, and can make informed decisions regarding the contract.

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6. (006) Prior to receiving a contract award, contractors must be registered in

Explanation

Contractors must be registered in the System for Award Management (SAM) prior to receiving a contract award. SAM is a government-wide database that consolidates information about companies doing business with the federal government. It is used by federal agencies to search for potential contractors, verify their eligibility, and manage their contracts. By being registered in SAM, contractors ensure that their information is up to date and accessible to government agencies, increasing their chances of being awarded contracts.

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7. (001) What agency's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?

Explanation

The Small Business Administration (SBA) is the correct answer because its objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses. The SBA offers resources, loans, and support for entrepreneurs and small business owners to help them start, grow, and succeed in their ventures. It provides assistance in various areas such as business planning, financing, government contracting, and disaster recovery. Through its programs and services, the SBA aims to promote the growth and development of small businesses, which play a vital role in the economy.

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8. (001) Express actual authority is created by

Explanation

Express actual authority is created when the principal explicitly communicates their authority to the agent through either written or oral means. This means that the principal clearly and directly conveys their expectations and permissions to the agent, giving them the authority to act on their behalf. It is important for the principal to use explicit language to avoid any confusion or misunderstandings regarding the scope of the agent's authority. This type of authority is based on the principal's direct communication and is different from authority that may arise from information flowing from third parties or from the agent's conduct.

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9. (001) An offeror's withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a

Explanation

When an offeror withdraws their offer before it is accepted, it is referred to as a revocation. This means that the offer is no longer valid and cannot be accepted by the offeree. Termination refers to the end of a contract, cancellation is the act of voiding a contract, and breach of contract occurs when one party fails to fulfill their obligations under the contract. However, in this scenario, the offeror is simply withdrawing their offer, making revocation the correct answer.

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10. (004) Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated through

Explanation

Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated through Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities. These facilities generate revenue through various means such as fees, charges, and sales to support programs and services for military personnel and their families. These funds are separate from taxpayer dollars and are used to enhance the quality of life for the military community.

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11. (003) A government action may be protested by

Explanation

A government action may be protested by an interested party because they have a direct stake or concern in the outcome of the action. This could include individuals or organizations who would be directly affected by the government action, such as competitors, stakeholders, or members of the public who have a vested interest in the matter. These interested parties may choose to protest the government action in order to voice their concerns, protect their rights, or seek a different outcome.

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12. (004) What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?

Explanation

The Anti-Deficiency Act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available. This act prohibits federal agencies from spending more money than has been appropriated by Congress, ensuring that funds are used responsibly and in accordance with the approved budget. Violating this act can result in penalties and legal consequences for the organization.

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13. (004) Operations and maintenance (O&M) and military personnel (MILPERS) funds are both categorized as what type of appropriation?

Explanation

Operations and maintenance (O&M) and military personnel (MILPERS) funds are categorized as annual appropriations. Annual appropriations provide funding for a specific fiscal year and must be spent within that year. This type of appropriation is typically used for ongoing expenses such as salaries, maintenance, and day-to-day operations. Unlike no-year appropriations, which have no expiration date, annual appropriations are time-limited and require reauthorization each year. Continuing and multiple-year appropriations, on the other hand, provide funding for multiple fiscal years.

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14. (009) Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as

Explanation

Architect-engineering services contracts are contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services. This type of contract combines both architectural and engineering services, and is often required for projects that involve both disciplines. Value engineering contracts, professional services contracts, and engineering design services contracts do not specifically refer to the combination of architectural and engineering services, making them incorrect answers.

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15. (005) Which flight is responsible for managing the government purchase card (GPC) program?

Explanation

The flight responsible for managing the government purchase card (GPC) program is "Plans and programs." This flight is in charge of overseeing the overall plans and programs within the organization, which includes managing the GPC program. They are responsible for ensuring that the program is properly implemented and adheres to government regulations and guidelines.

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16. (004) How many years are military construction appropriations available for expenditure?

Explanation

Military construction appropriations are available for expenditure for a period of 5 years. This means that the funds allocated for military construction projects can be used within a span of 5 years before they expire. After the 5-year period, any unspent funds will no longer be available for use and may need to be returned or reallocated.

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17. (007) Which indefinite-delivery contract may be used when the government cannot predetermine, above a specified minimum, the precise quantities of supplies or services that will be required during the contract period?

Explanation

The indefinite-quantity contract is used when the government cannot determine the exact quantities of supplies or services that will be needed during the contract period, as stated in the question. This type of contract allows for flexibility in the quantities ordered, as long as they meet a specified minimum. It is suitable for situations where the government's requirements may vary over time or are uncertain. The other options, definite-quantity and required-quantity contracts, do not provide the same level of flexibility in meeting changing requirements.

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18. (003) What document provides findings, recommendations, and any additional information necessary to assist the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in determining the merits of a protest?

Explanation

The document that provides findings, recommendations, and any additional information necessary to assist the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in determining the merits of a protest is the Statement of Facts. This document presents a detailed account of the facts relevant to the protest, including the actions taken by the government agency and the contractor involved. It helps the GAO understand the context and background of the case, allowing them to make an informed decision on the protest.

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19. (001) Which statement about the offeree is correct?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only the intended offeree can accept the offer." This means that the offeror cannot direct the offer to a class of people or to the public, intending for any member of the class or the public to have the power to accept. Instead, there is always one specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested. Therefore, only this intended offeree can accept the offer.

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20. (003) If the contracting officer (CO) decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor?

Explanation

The correct answer is "As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal." This means that once the contracting officer (CO) decides that the contractor should be compensated for a claim, the amount will be paid to the contractor without any delay or waiting for any appeal process. This ensures that the contractor receives their compensation promptly and avoids any unnecessary delays in payment.

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21. (001) If the offeror expresses time, place, and means of communication

Explanation

The answer suggests that if the offeror specifies a time, place, and means of communication for acceptance, then only those specific conditions will be considered as acceptance. Any changes to the time, place, or means of communication can only be made by the offeree. Additionally, it implies that the offeree can choose a different time, manner, or condition for acceptance if they wish. It also states that the offeree can communicate their acceptance orally, even if the offeror communicated their offer in writing.

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22. (001) What is the name given to the exchange of promises?

Explanation

Consideration is the name given to the exchange of promises in a contract. It refers to something of value that is exchanged between the parties involved, such as money, goods, or services. Consideration is an essential element of a legally binding contract, as it signifies that each party is giving something up and receiving something in return. This exchange of promises ensures that the contract is fair and enforceable by law.

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23. (001) In the principal-agent relationship, which party is the contractor?

Explanation

In the principal-agent relationship, the contractor is considered the third party. The principal-agent relationship involves two parties: the principal, who delegates authority to an agent to act on their behalf, and the agent, who carries out tasks and makes decisions on behalf of the principal. However, the contractor is a separate entity that is not directly involved in the principal-agent relationship, but rather provides goods or services to one or both parties involved. Therefore, the correct answer is third party.

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24. (007) What must be documented in the case that the contracting officer (CO) doesn't give each awardee fair opportunity?

Explanation

If the contracting officer (CO) does not provide each awardee with a fair opportunity, a justification for exemption must be documented. This is necessary to explain the reason behind not giving each awardee a fair chance and to justify the decision. The justification for exemption serves as a record of the CO's decision and provides transparency and accountability in the procurement process.

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25. (008) Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard Form

Explanation

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26. (001) When no time is stated, an offer continues

Explanation

When no time is stated, an offer continues until the expiration of a reasonable time. This means that the offer remains open for a period that is considered reasonable under the circumstances. The length of this reasonable time can vary depending on factors such as the nature of the offer, the subject matter, and any industry standards or norms. It is important to determine what would be considered reasonable in a particular situation to understand how long the offer will remain open.

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27. (009) What option does the government have if an architect-engineer's (A-E) design, drawing, or specifications contain errors or deficiencies?

Explanation

If an architect-engineer's design, drawing, or specifications contain errors or deficiencies, the government has the option to require the contractor to make corrections under the original contract at no cost to the government. This means that the contractor will be responsible for fixing any mistakes or deficiencies without any additional cost to the government.

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28. (003) After accrual of a claim, what is the maximum amount of time within which contractor claims must be submitted to the contracting officer (CO), unless contracting parties agreed to a shorter period of time?

Explanation

Contractor claims must be submitted to the contracting officer (CO) within six years after accrual of a claim, unless the contracting parties have agreed to a shorter period of time. This means that contractors have a maximum of six years to submit their claims for any issues or disputes that arise during the course of the contract. It is important for contractors to be aware of this time limit and ensure that they submit their claims within the specified timeframe to protect their rights and interests.

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29. (005) Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent?

Explanation

The contracting superintendent is responsible for advising the commander on enlisted issues, managing the self-inspection program, and serving as a military career advisor. However, appointing contracting officers is not one of their functions. This task is typically carried out by higher-level personnel or contracting officers themselves.

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30. (006) A contracting officer's (CO) responsibility includes

Explanation

The responsibility of a contracting officer (CO) includes ensuring that contractors receive equitable treatment. This means that the CO must ensure that all contractors are treated fairly and without bias in the procurement process. This includes providing equal opportunities for all contractors to compete for contracts, evaluating their proposals objectively, and awarding contracts based on fair and transparent criteria. By ensuring equitable treatment, the CO promotes competition, fairness, and integrity in the procurement process.

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31. (006) What is a purpose of the customer education program?

Explanation

The purpose of a customer education program is to develop open lines of communication. This means that the program aims to foster a better understanding between the company and its customers, allowing for effective communication and feedback. By educating customers about the company's products or services, their benefits, and how to use them, the program helps to establish a strong and transparent relationship. This can lead to increased customer satisfaction, loyalty, and ultimately, business growth.

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32. (008) The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) is to

Explanation

Simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) aim to reduce administrative costs and burdens for both the government and contractors. By streamlining the acquisition process, SAP allows for quicker and more efficient procurement of goods and services. This helps to eliminate unnecessary paperwork and bureaucracy, saving time and resources for all parties involved. Ultimately, the goal is to make the acquisition process easier and more cost-effective, benefiting both the government and contractors.

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33. (010) Supplemental procurement instrument identifier (PIID) are used to identify

Explanation

Supplemental procurement instrument identifiers (PIID) are used to identify amendments to solicitations. Amendments are changes or modifications made to the original solicitation documents, such as extending the deadline, clarifying requirements, or addressing any other updates or revisions. The use of a supplemental PIID helps to track and differentiate these amendments from the original solicitation, ensuring that all interested parties are aware of the changes and can respond accordingly.

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34. (001) Estoppel means to prevent

Explanation

Estoppel refers to the legal principle that prevents a party from asserting a fact or claim that is inconsistent with a position they previously took. This means that if a party has made a certain statement or taken a certain position in the past, they cannot later contradict themselves and assert something different. Estoppel ensures consistency and prevents parties from unfairly changing their position to gain an advantage in a legal dispute.

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35. (004) The two most common types of funding documents are the

Explanation

The correct answer is DD Form 448 and AF Form 9. This is because the question asks for the two most common types of funding documents, and DD Form 448 and AF Form 9 are the options that include both DD and AF forms. The other options only include forms from either the Department of Defense or the Air Force, but not both.

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36. (004) What appropriation category may be used to fund minor military construction projects under $1,000,000?

Explanation

Minor military construction projects under $1,000,000 can be funded through the Operations and maintenance (O&M) appropriation category. This category is specifically designated for the maintenance and upkeep of existing military facilities and infrastructure. It covers costs such as repairs, renovations, and minor construction projects that are necessary to maintain the functionality and operational readiness of military installations. Therefore, O&M is the appropriate category to fund these types of projects.

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37. (001) For a contract to be enforceable, its terms must be clear enough to permit

Explanation

The correct answer is that the courts must be able to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party. This is because the courts are responsible for resolving disputes and enforcing contracts. If the terms of a contract are not clear, it becomes difficult for the courts to determine the intent of the parties involved and to enforce the contract accordingly. Therefore, clear and unambiguous terms are necessary for a contract to be enforceable.

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38. (001) As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is

Explanation

A contract that violates a statute is considered unlawful, void, and will not be enforced. This means that if a contract goes against the laws set by a statute, it is not legally binding and will not be upheld by the courts. This rule applies regardless of whether or not the contract is challenged within 120 days.

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39. (004) What appropriations account code identifies operations and maintenance (O&M) funds?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3400. This appropriations account code identifies operations and maintenance (O&M) funds.

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40. (003) When an agency receives notice of a protest from the Government Accountability Office (GAO) within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately

Explanation

When an agency receives notice of a protest from the Government Accountability Office (GAO) within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract. This is because the protest raises concerns about the validity or fairness of the contract, and it is necessary to halt performance until the protest is resolved. Terminating the contract may also be an option if the protest raises serious issues that cannot be resolved.

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41. (001) Which of these is an example of rejecting an offer?

Explanation

Proposing a counter offer is an example of rejecting an offer because it involves suggesting different terms or conditions than those initially proposed. By proposing a counter offer, the person is indicating that they are not willing to accept the original offer as it stands and are instead suggesting a different agreement. This shows a rejection of the initial offer while still leaving room for negotiation and potential agreement on new terms.

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42. (003) The two most common techniques of alternative dispute resolutions (ADR) are

Explanation

Mediation and arbitration are the two most common techniques of alternative dispute resolution (ADR). Mediation involves a neutral third party facilitating communication and negotiation between the parties involved in a dispute to reach a mutually acceptable agreement. Arbitration, on the other hand, involves a neutral third party making a binding decision after hearing the arguments and evidence presented by both parties. Both techniques aim to resolve disputes outside of the traditional court system, but they differ in the level of control the parties have over the outcome.

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43. (005) Whose job is it to ensure the local contracting program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and Air Force instructions (AFIs)?

Explanation

The contracting squadron commander is responsible for ensuring that the local contracting program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and Air Force instructions (AFIs). This role involves overseeing and managing the contracting operations within the squadron, making strategic decisions, and ensuring compliance with all relevant guidelines and instructions. The director of business operations (DBO) may have a broader oversight role, but the contracting squadron commander specifically focuses on the contracting program's effectiveness and compliance. The plans and programs flight chief and contracting superintendent may have related responsibilities but do not have the primary responsibility for ensuring the program's effectiveness and compliance.

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44. (004) The Bona-Fide Need Rule requires current year funds be obligated

Explanation

The Bona-Fide Need Rule states that funds must be obligated in the same year that the government plans to use the supplies or services. This means that the funds cannot be carried over to the next year and must be used for their intended purpose within the current fiscal year. This rule ensures that government funds are used efficiently and effectively to meet mission requirements and avoid unnecessary accumulation of funds.

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45. (001) Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government contracting?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts, and appropriations acts." This answer identifies the different forms of acts that Congress uses to control government contracting. Enabling acts provide the legal authority for government agencies to enter into contracts, procedural acts establish the rules and regulations for the contracting process, authorization acts give permission for specific contracts or programs, and appropriations acts provide the funding for the contracts.

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46. (003) Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer's (CO) final decision on claims exceeding $500,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?

Explanation

The Air Force Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer's final decision on claims exceeding $500,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor. They ensure that the decision is legally sound and in compliance with relevant laws and regulations.

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47. (003) Upon learning of an appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA), the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A. The DFARS is a set of regulations that supplements the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) and provides additional guidance for defense acquisitions. Appendix A specifically pertains to contract appeals and provides rules and procedures for the ASBCA. Therefore, when faced with an appeal to the ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in DFARS, Appendix A.

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48. (004) What type of payment is made for partial delivery of commercial items?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Delivery" because when a partial delivery of commercial items is made, payment is typically made for the delivered portion. This means that the buyer pays for the items that have been delivered, rather than paying in advance or based on the progress of the delivery. Performance-based payment refers to a payment structure that is based on meeting specific performance criteria, which is not applicable in this scenario.

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49. (001) A characteristic of implied authority is that it is

Explanation

Implied authority refers to the authority that is not explicitly stated but is necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority. This means that while the authority may not be explicitly spelled out in oral or written form, it is still understood and accepted as necessary for fulfilling the express authority. In other words, implied authority covers minor details that are essential for executing the main authority. It is not created by explicit language but rather inferred based on the context and requirements of the situation.

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50. (004) The funding document authorizing the purchase of the required service or supply must be signed by the

Explanation

The correct answer is "signature authority." In order for the funding document to be valid and authorize the purchase of the required service or supply, it must be signed by the individual or entity with the authority to do so. This person or entity is known as the signature authority. The contracting officer (CO) may be involved in the procurement process, but they are not specifically responsible for signing the funding document. The customer is not mentioned as having the authority to sign the funding document.

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51. (001) What occurs when someone other than the contracting officer (CO) tries to make an agreement without the authority?

Explanation

When someone other than the contracting officer (CO) tries to make an agreement without the authority, it is considered an unauthorized commitment. This means that the person does not have the proper authorization or power to enter into a contract on behalf of the organization. Unauthorized commitments can create legal and financial risks for the organization and may require further actions such as ratification or contract dispute resolution.

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52. (003) Protests are made to

Explanation

Protests can be made to either the appropriate agency or the Government Accountability Office (GAO). This means that individuals or organizations who have concerns or complaints about a particular agency's actions or decisions can choose to address their grievances either directly with the agency itself or with the GAO. This provides flexibility for the protesters to decide which avenue they believe will be most effective in resolving their issues.

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53. (003) What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement of the contracting parties?

Explanation

When a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement of the contracting parties, the contractor may submit a claim under the Disputes clause. The Disputes clause is a standard provision included in government contracts that provides a mechanism for resolving disputes between the contractor and the government. It allows the contractor to submit a written claim to the contracting officer, who will then review and make a decision on the claim. If the contractor is not satisfied with the decision, they may further pursue the matter through the appropriate legal channels.

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54. (009) What is the statutory limitation on the contract fee for architect-engineer (A-E) services and fees for the preparation of designs, plans, drawings, and specifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is six percent of the project's estimated cost to complete construction. This limitation applies to the contract fee for architect-engineer (A-E) services and fees for the preparation of designs, plans, drawings, and specifications. This means that the maximum fee that can be charged for these services is six percent of the total estimated cost to complete the construction project.

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55. (004) Where would a contracting officer (CO) find guidance on the use of a military interdepartmental purchase request (MIPR)?

Explanation

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56. (004) What must the contracting officer (CO) issue to the contractor to show that funds are available?

Explanation

The contracting officer (CO) must issue a notice in writing to the contractor to show that funds are available. This written notice serves as official documentation that confirms the availability of funds for the contractor to proceed with the project or contract. Verbal messages or other forms such as Air Force Form 9, Request for Purchase, may not provide the necessary legal assurance or proof of fund availability.

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57. (007) Within the multiple award contract (MAC) the contracting officer (CO) must provide each awardee a fair opportunity to be considered for each order issued exceeding

Explanation

Within a multiple award contract (MAC), the contracting officer (CO) is required to provide each awardee a fair opportunity to be considered for each order issued exceeding $3,500. This means that for any order above this threshold, the CO must give all awardees a chance to compete for the contract, ensuring fairness and competition among the contractors.

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58. (003) Which Federal Acquisition Regulation Part prescribes actions required upon receipt of protests?

Explanation

Part 33 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation prescribes actions required upon receipt of protests. This part outlines the procedures and steps that must be followed when a protest is received, including the timeframes for submitting and responding to the protest, the responsibilities of the contracting officer, and the process for resolving the protest. It is important for contracting officers to be familiar with Part 33 in order to handle protests efficiently and effectively.

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59. (003) How many days does Government Accountability Office (GAO) have to issue its recommendation on a protest?

Explanation

The Government Accountability Office (GAO) has 100 days to issue its recommendation on a protest. This time frame allows the GAO to thoroughly review the protest, gather relevant information and evidence, and make an informed decision. It also provides the parties involved with a reasonable amount of time to present their arguments and evidence. The 100-day period strikes a balance between ensuring a timely resolution of the protest and allowing for a comprehensive review of the case.

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60. (009) What clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project so that construction costs will not exceed a specified amount due to a funding limitation?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Design within funding limitations clause." This clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project in a way that ensures the construction costs do not exceed a specified amount due to funding limitations. This clause would outline the specific requirements and constraints that the contractor must adhere to in order to stay within the allocated budget for the project.

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61. (001) What is meant by adequate consideration?

Explanation

Adequate consideration refers to a fair bargain in the exchange. It means that the consideration offered in a contract is of sufficient value to induce the other party to perform their obligations. In other words, both parties are receiving something of value that is proportionate to what they are giving up. This ensures that the contract is not one-sided or unfair to either party.

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62. (007) Once approved, the justification for exception to fair opportunity must be posted

Explanation

The correct answer is within 14 days after placing an order exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT). This is because according to the given information, the justification for exception to fair opportunity must be posted within 14 days after placing an order exceeding the SAT.

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63. (001) What are the two types of mistakes that the law recognizes as excusing performance?

Explanation

The law recognizes two types of mistakes that can excuse performance: unilateral with knowledge and bilateral. Unilateral mistake with knowledge refers to a situation where one party makes a mistake but is aware of it, while bilateral mistake occurs when both parties are mistaken about an important fact. In both cases, the law recognizes that the mistake significantly affects the parties' ability to fulfill their obligations, and therefore excuses their performance.

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64. (002) For competitive acquisitions conducted without discussion, approval by the clearance approval authority is needed for the source selection authority (SSA) to

Explanation

For competitive acquisitions conducted without discussion, the source selection authority (SSA) needs approval from the clearance approval authority in order to make the decision to award. This means that before the SSA can finalize and announce the award, they must obtain the necessary approval from the clearance approval authority. This ensures that the decision to award is made in accordance with the established procedures and guidelines, and helps maintain transparency and fairness in the acquisition process.

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65. (001) The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the

Explanation

The elements of equitable estoppel include the government knowing or should have known the true facts, the government intending that the contractor rely on their acts, and the contractor not knowing and should not have known the true facts. The only element that is not included in the elements of equitable estoppel is that the contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government.

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66. (008) The Service Contract Labor Standards (SCLA) apply to all services exceeding

Explanation

The Service Contract Labor Standards (SCLA) apply to all services exceeding $2,500. This means that if the cost of a service contract is $2,500 or more, the SCLA regulations will be applicable. These regulations ensure that workers employed under service contracts are paid fair wages and benefits, and are provided with safe working conditions. Services contracts below this threshold are not subject to the SCLA requirements.

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67. (008) The Davis-Bacon and Related Acts apply to construction contracts in excess of

Explanation

The Davis-Bacon and Related Acts apply to construction contracts in excess of $2,000. This means that if a construction contract is worth $2,000 or more, the Davis-Bacon and Related Acts will be applicable. These acts require contractors and subcontractors to pay prevailing wages to laborers and mechanics working on federal government construction projects. Therefore, any construction contract below $2,000 would not fall under the scope of these acts.

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68. (008) The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a continental United States (CONUS) vendor for use overseas is

Explanation

The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a continental United States (CONUS) vendor for use overseas is $10,000. This means that overseas cardholders can make supply purchases up to $10,000 from CONUS vendors without having to go through a formal procurement process. This threshold allows for streamlined and efficient purchasing for overseas cardholders while ensuring that appropriate controls are in place for larger purchases.

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69. (004) What part of the federal acquisition regulation (FAR) determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments?

Explanation

Part 32 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments. This part specifically addresses contract financing, including progress payments, and provides guidance on when and how they should be used. It outlines the requirements, procedures, and limitations associated with progress payments, ensuring that they are used appropriately and in accordance with federal regulations.

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70. (006) The Prompt Payment Act requires that final payment of construction contracts be made within

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 days of acceptance by the government. The Prompt Payment Act is a federal law that requires the government to make timely payments to contractors for goods and services provided. In the context of construction contracts, the Act stipulates that the final payment should be made within 30 days of acceptance by the government. This means that once the government has accepted the completed construction project, they have 30 days to make the final payment to the contractor.

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71. (003) How long after receiving the contracting officer's (CO) final decision does the contractor have to appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA)?

Explanation

After receiving the contracting officer's final decision, the contractor has 90 days to appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA).

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72. (008) Performance-based acquisition

Explanation

Performance-based acquisition provides contractors the latitude to meet contract objectives. This means that instead of dictating specific processes or methods, the government allows contractors the flexibility to determine how they will achieve the desired outcomes. This approach recognizes that contractors are experts in their field and can use their knowledge and expertise to deliver the required results. It also promotes innovation and efficiency, as contractors are empowered to find the most effective and efficient ways to meet the contract objectives.

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73. (001) Which situation would preclude a ratification?

Explanation

The situation that would preclude a ratification is when the government does not obtain a benefit from the performance. Ratification is the act of approving or confirming an unauthorized commitment after it has been made. In order for a commitment to be ratified, the government must have received a benefit from the performance. If no benefit is obtained, ratification would not be possible.

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74. (002) Business clearance for noncompetitive contract actions is the approval to

Explanation

Business clearance for noncompetitive contract actions refers to the approval given to initiate negotiations with a specific contractor. This approval allows the contracting officer to engage in discussions and negotiations to determine the terms and conditions of the contract. It is the first step in the procurement process for noncompetitive contracts, enabling the contracting officer to explore potential options and reach an agreement with the selected contractor.

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75. (007) When acquiring commercial items, the contracting officer (CO) uses a

Explanation

The correct answer is FFP or fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract. When acquiring commercial items, the contracting officer (CO) can use either a firm-fixed-price (FFP) contract or a fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract. These types of contracts provide a predetermined price for the goods or services being acquired, with the possibility of adjustments based on changes in economic factors such as inflation or labor costs. This allows for a certain level of flexibility while still maintaining a fixed price for the contract.

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76. (007) The two forms of fixed-price incentive contracts are

Explanation

The correct answer is firm target and successive targets. In a firm target contract, the contractor agrees to complete the work for a fixed price, regardless of the actual costs incurred. Successive targets refer to a series of specific goals or milestones that the contractor must achieve within a specified timeframe. This type of contract provides incentives for the contractor to meet or exceed the targets and can be beneficial when the scope of work is uncertain or subject to change. Fixed fee and award fee contracts involve different types of payment structures and are not the correct forms of fixed-price incentive contracts mentioned in the question.

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(004) The Bona-Fide Need Rule requires current year funds be obligated
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(001) A characteristic of implied authority is that it is
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(003) Protests are made to
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(003) Which Federal Acquisition Regulation Part prescribes actions...
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(008) Performance-based acquisition
(001) Which situation would preclude a ratification?
(002) Business clearance for noncompetitive contract actions is the...
(007) When acquiring commercial items, the contracting officer (CO)...
(007) The two forms of fixed-price incentive contracts are
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