6c071 Vol 1 Analysis

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1. (011) Who is required to receive job safety training?

Explanation

Job safety training is required for all government personnel, including civilian personnel, military personnel, and contractor personnel. This training ensures that all individuals working for the government are aware of and equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to maintain a safe work environment.

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Contracting Quizzes & Trivia

This 6C071 Vol 1 Analysis quiz evaluates understanding of source selection methods, proposal instructions, and evaluation factors in government contracting. It targets skills in adhering to proposal guidelines... see moreand differentiating proposals effectively. see less

2. (008) What procedure is available for use by contractors and the government to resolve issues in controversy?

Explanation

Alternative Dispute Resolution is a procedure that is available for use by both contractors and the government to resolve issues in controversy. It is a method of resolving disputes outside of the traditional court system, such as through mediation or arbitration. This allows the parties involved to come to a mutually agreeable solution without going through the lengthy and costly process of litigation.

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3.  (009) Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) is generally best suited for

Explanation

Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) is generally best suited for non-complex minor construction projects estimated at less than $100K. This means that SABER is most appropriate for smaller construction projects that are relatively simple and do not require extensive design work. Cost-type contracts and small projects requiring extensive design are not the best fit for SABER.

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4. (005) What action might a contract officer (CO) take if an untimely request for a debriefing was received?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the CO may decline to provide the debriefing. This means that if a request for a debriefing is received after a certain deadline or timeframe, the CO has the option to refuse to provide the debriefing. There may be valid reasons for the CO to decline such as the request being untimely or not meeting the necessary requirements for a debriefing.

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5. (001) What action must be taken if a proposal exceeds established page limitations stated in the solicitation?

Explanation

If a proposal exceeds the established page limitations stated in the solicitation, the correct action to take is to remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal. This means that any pages that go beyond the specified page limit should be removed from the proposal. This ensures that the proposal complies with the stated requirements and allows for fair evaluation and comparison with other proposals.

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6. (006) Which of the following is used to update and post the percentage completed to the appropriate time interval on the progress schedule?

Explanation

A progress report is used to update and post the percentage completed to the appropriate time interval on the progress schedule. This report provides information on the progress made on a project, including the tasks completed, the percentage of completion, and any issues or challenges encountered. By regularly updating and posting this information on the progress schedule, project managers and stakeholders can track the project's progress and make informed decisions regarding resource allocation and scheduling adjustments.

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7. (012) What is not a benefit of the Self-Inspection Program?

Explanation

The Self-Inspection Program offers several benefits, including identifying training needs, allowing for immediate corrective actions, and promoting effective levels of standardization. However, it does not dissolve the need for other compliance inspections. Other compliance inspections may still be necessary to ensure that all regulations and standards are being met and to provide an external perspective on the organization's compliance efforts. The Self-Inspection Program is a valuable tool for internal monitoring and improvement, but it does not replace the need for external inspections.

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8. (003) In noncompetitive negotiations, which price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government's analysis?

Explanation

In noncompetitive negotiations, the objective price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government's analysis. This position takes into account various factors such as market research, cost analysis, and other relevant data to determine a fair and reasonable price. It aims to find a balance between the government's needs and the contractor's capabilities, ensuring that the price is neither too high nor too low. By using the objective price position, the government can negotiate a price that is considered fair and reasonable for both parties involved.

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9. (001) A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is given what color/rating?

Explanation

A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is given a blue rating. This suggests that the proposal is outstanding and surpasses expectations.

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10. (002) Which of the following factors affect comparability during price analysis?

Explanation

Differences in quantities or size can affect comparability during price analysis because when comparing prices, it is important to ensure that the quantities or sizes being compared are similar. If there are significant differences in quantities or sizes, it can distort the comparison and make it difficult to determine the true cost or value of the items being analyzed. Therefore, it is important to consider and account for any differences in quantities or sizes when conducting price analysis.

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11. (009) How is pricing established in Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) contracts?

Explanation

In Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) contracts, pricing is established using unit price guides and coefficients. This means that there are predetermined prices for different units of work, and these prices are adjusted using coefficients based on factors such as location, labor rates, and material costs. This method allows for consistent and standardized pricing across different projects and simplifies the process of determining costs.

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12. (009) What option does a contract officer (CO) have to expedite fiscal year-end requirements reserved for Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) when funding is not yet available?

Explanation

A contract officer (CO) can expedite fiscal year-end requirements for Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) by obtaining a no-cost or hold harmless agreement and processing up to the point of award. This means that the CO can continue with the contracting process, including soliciting bids and evaluating proposals, without actual funding being available. However, a formal agreement must be in place to ensure that the contractor will not incur any costs or be held liable until funding is received. This allows the CO to move forward with the procurement process while waiting for funding to become available.

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13. (011) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Acquisition Professional Development Program?

Explanation

The correct answer is "It requires members to quickly attain the highest possible certification." This is not a characteristic of the Acquisition Professional Development Program. The program is designed to be a progressive program of training and education, and it allows members to use Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) course work to receive business hour credits. Both military and civilians occupying acquisition coded contracting positions must meet education and training standards.

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14. (005) Post-award debriefings must include

Explanation

Post-award debriefings must include the government's evaluation of the significant weaknesses in the offeror's proposal. This means that the government must provide feedback on the areas where the offeror's proposal fell short or had significant weaknesses. This information is important for the offeror to understand why their proposal was not selected and to improve their future proposals. It also promotes transparency and fairness in the procurement process by providing the offeror with a clear understanding of the evaluation criteria and how their proposal was assessed.

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15. 002) What type of exchange does not allow for responses to identified weaknesses, but allows offerors to address apparent minor or clerical errors?

Explanation

Clarifications are a type of exchange in the procurement process where the government can seek limited information to clarify aspects of a proposal or to correct minor errors or discrepancies. Unlike discussions, clarifications do not allow for negotiations or the opportunity to address weaknesses in the proposal. Instead, they are used to ensure that the proposal is complete and accurate. This allows the government to make a more informed decision without reopening the competition or engaging in extensive negotiations.

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16. . (003) It may become necessary to walk away from negotiations when

Explanation

Walking away from negotiations when a reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal is a valid reason because it implies that the terms of the deal are unfavorable or not beneficial. Making a decision based on what a reasonable person would consider is a practical approach to ensure that one does not enter into an agreement that may result in negative consequences or unfavorable outcomes.

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17. (001) Which section of a request for proposal (RFP) provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation?

Explanation

Section L of a request for proposal (RFP) typically provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation. This section may include information on the format, content, and submission requirements for the proposals. It guides the offerors on how to structure their proposals and what specific information needs to be included.

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18. (001) An offeror's technical volume is used by offerors to

Explanation

An offeror's technical volume is used to address how it intends to meet the government's requirement. This volume provides a detailed explanation of the offeror's approach, methodology, and technical solutions to fulfill the requirements specified by the government. It outlines the offeror's understanding of the project and their proposed plan to successfully execute it. By addressing how they intend to meet the government's requirement, the offeror demonstrates their capability and suitability for the contract.

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19. (001) Price or cost to the government

Explanation

Price or cost to the government must be evaluated in every source selection. This means that when the government is selecting a source for a particular procurement, they must consider the price or cost associated with each potential source. This evaluation ensures that the government is making a cost-effective decision and getting the best value for their money. It is a crucial factor in determining the most suitable source for the procurement.

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20. (001) Offerors without a record of relevant past performance will receive what performance confidence rating?

Explanation

Offerors without a record of relevant past performance will receive an "Unknown Confidence" performance confidence rating. This means that there is no information available to assess their past performance and determine their level of confidence.

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21. (008) What type of change improperly exceeds the scope of a procurement and is one which could not have been reasonably anticipated by offerors?

Explanation

A cardinal change refers to a type of change that goes beyond the original scope of a procurement and could not have been reasonably anticipated by the offerors. It is a significant change that fundamentally alters the nature of the contract and the obligations of the parties involved. This type of change is considered improper because it exceeds the boundaries of the original agreement and may require renegotiation or amendment of the contract terms.

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22. (011) Which of the following responsibilities is not identified in AFI 64–102, Operational Contracting Program, as a function to be overseen by the contracting squadron superintendent?

Explanation

The correct answer is Competition advocate. AFI 64-102, Operational Contracting Program, identifies several responsibilities to be overseen by the contracting squadron superintendent, including unit training, self-inspection program, and enlisted personnel career advisor. However, it does not mention the responsibility of competition advocate as a function to be overseen by the contracting squadron superintendent.

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23. (012) What process is used to request relief from deployment taskings due to extenuating circumstances?

Explanation

Reclama is the process used to request relief from deployment taskings due to extenuating circumstances. It allows individuals to submit a formal request for exemption or relief from a specific task or duty. This process is typically used when there are valid reasons that prevent an individual from fulfilling their deployment obligations, such as medical issues or personal emergencies.

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24. (012) Functional experts assigned to the exercise evaluation team are made up of

Explanation

The functional experts assigned to the exercise evaluation team are chosen based on their qualifications and expertise within their respective units. These individuals are considered the most qualified unit personnel to assess and evaluate the exercise. They have the necessary knowledge and experience to provide accurate feedback and recommendations for improvement. The selection of the most qualified unit personnel ensures that the evaluation process is thorough and effective in identifying strengths and weaknesses in the exercise.

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25. (003) What document is used to support the price agreement in all negotiated awards not based on adequate price competition?

Explanation

The Price Negotiation Memorandum is used to support the price agreement in all negotiated awards not based on adequate price competition. This document outlines the details of the negotiations, including the rationale for the price agreed upon. It provides a record of the negotiation process and helps to ensure that the price is fair and reasonable.

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26. (011) How might the overall quality of awards packages be improved?

Explanation

By involving people in the process of creating awards packages, it allows for a more collaborative and inclusive approach. This ensures that different perspectives and ideas are considered, leading to a higher quality end result. It also promotes transparency and fairness, as everyone has the opportunity to contribute and provide input. This approach can help identify and address any potential biases or errors, ultimately improving the overall quality of the awards packages.

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27. (011) Which of the following is an example of an extra-organizational stressor?

Explanation

An extra-organizational stressor refers to external factors that can cause stress in an individual's life, which are not directly related to their work or organization. Financial issues are a prime example of an extra-organizational stressor as they can significantly impact an individual's well-being and cause stress irrespective of their work environment. Deployments, increased workload, and network downtime, on the other hand, are more likely to be considered organizational stressors as they directly relate to work and the functioning of the organization.

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28. (002) Technical analysis of offeror proposals should

Explanation

The correct answer is to examine the types and quantities of materials proposed. This is because when conducting a technical analysis of offeror proposals, it is important to evaluate the materials that each offeror is proposing to use. This analysis helps to determine if the materials are suitable for the project and if they meet the required specifications. It also allows for a comparison of the different offerors' proposed materials, which can help in making a decision on the most suitable offer.

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29. (006) Which of the following is a contractor entitled to when the government fails to provide timely submittal approval?

Explanation

When the government fails to provide timely submittal approval, a contractor is entitled to both time and money. This means that the contractor can request an extension of the project timeline and also seek compensation for any additional costs incurred due to the delay caused by the government's failure to provide timely approval.

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30. (007) What type of Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) report is used at the end of the first 12 month option period on a 5 year contract?

Explanation

The correct answer is Annual interim report. This report is used at the end of the first 12 month option period on a 5 year contract. It provides an assessment of the contractor's performance during the first year of the contract and serves as an interim evaluation before the final report is issued at the end of the contract.

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31.  (003) When evaluating proposal revisions in a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection

Explanation

When evaluating proposal revisions in a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection, the evaluation criteria established in the Request for Proposal (RFP) must be used. This means that the government cannot deviate from the criteria outlined in the RFP and must compare the proposals against each other based on these criteria. The government is not allowed to request final proposal revisions from any offerors and can only make tradeoffs between cost/price and non-cost/price factors.

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32. (009) Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) contracts normally authorize the inclusion of minimum design in task orders up to

Explanation

Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) contracts typically allow for the inclusion of minimum design in task orders up to 35%. This means that when issuing a task order under a SABER contract, the contracting officer can require a minimum level of design work to be included in the task order, up to a maximum of 35% of the total work. This allows for flexibility in the contract and ensures that the necessary design work is included while still leaving room for additional design work to be added if needed.

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33.  (010) What strategic sourcing tool is used to assess data such as money spent, type of contracts used, size of purchase, item(s) purchased, etc?

Explanation

Spend analysis is the correct answer because it is a strategic sourcing tool that is used to assess data such as money spent, type of contracts used, size of purchase, item(s) purchased, etc. It helps organizations understand their spending patterns and identify opportunities for cost savings and process improvements. By analyzing spending data, organizations can make informed decisions about their procurement strategies and supplier relationships.

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34. (012) Which of the follow priorities is assigned to students that do not occupy an acquisition coded position?

Explanation

Students that do not occupy an acquisition coded position are assigned Priority 4.

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35. (013) How often must the contracting squadron commander brief the installation commander on government purchase card violations, suspended accounts, and surveillance results?

Explanation

The contracting squadron commander must brief the installation commander on government purchase card violations, suspended accounts, and surveillance results at least quarterly. This ensures that the installation commander is kept informed about any violations or issues related to government purchase cards and can take appropriate action if necessary. Regular briefings also help in maintaining accountability and transparency in the use of government purchase cards.

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36. (003) The inability to compromise may be avoided by

Explanation

Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise is a strategy that can help avoid the inability to compromise. By setting an initial position that is flexible and open to negotiation, it creates space for finding common ground and reaching a mutually agreeable solution. This approach acknowledges that compromise is necessary and demonstrates a willingness to work towards a resolution. It encourages open communication and collaboration, making it more likely to find a middle ground that satisfies both parties.

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37. (001) Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one proposal from another by

Explanation

Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one proposal from another by using discriminators. This means that the evaluation factors are designed to identify unique and distinguishing characteristics or features of each proposal. By using discriminators, the evaluation process can effectively compare and differentiate between different proposals, allowing for a fair and objective assessment of each one's strengths and weaknesses. This helps the evaluators in making an informed decision and selecting the most suitable proposal for the given requirements.

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38. (008) When a protest is received before award, a contract may not be awarded unless

Explanation

A contract may not be awarded when a protest is received before award unless it is justified in writing for urgent and compelling reasons and approved at a level above the contracting officer (CO). This means that if a protest is received, the CO cannot proceed with the contract award unless there are urgent and compelling reasons that are documented in writing and approved by someone higher in authority than the CO. This ensures that the protest is properly considered and evaluated before any contract is awarded.

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39. (013) All of the following are responsibilities of the Quality Assurance Program Coordinator except

Explanation

The Quality Assurance Program Coordinator is responsible for various tasks, such as supporting multi-functional teams, assisting with the evaluation of contractor Quality Control Plans, and providing initial and recurring training to contracting officer representatives (COR). However, their responsibility does not include acting as a liaison between contractors and the wing commander.

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40. (013) Which of the following is not an internal management control of the government purchase card program?

Explanation

The establishment of grade requirements for cardholders is not an internal management control of the government purchase card program. Internal management controls are designed to ensure the proper and efficient operation of a program, and typically involve processes and procedures that help prevent fraud, waste, and abuse. Grade requirements for cardholders, on the other hand, are related to the qualifications and eligibility criteria for individuals to hold a specific position or rank within an organization. While grade requirements may be important for other aspects of the organization, they do not directly impact the internal management controls of the government purchase card program.

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41. (006) A preconstruction orientation

Explanation

A preconstruction orientation may be used to issue the Notice to Proceed because it allows the government to provide contractors with important information regarding the project, such as project scope, schedule, and any specific requirements. This orientation serves as a formal communication between the government and the contractors, ensuring that both parties are on the same page before work begins. By issuing the Notice to Proceed during the preconstruction orientation, the government can officially authorize the contractors to start work on the project.

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42. (006) Contractor progress schedules are reviewed to make sure

Explanation

Contractor progress schedules are reviewed to ensure that the length of time allotted for each task is reasonable based on the task being performed. This is important because if the time allocated for a task is too short, it may hinder the contractor's ability to meet the target performance progress. On the other hand, if the time allocated is too long, it may lead to unnecessary delays and inefficiencies. Therefore, reviewing the length of time allotted for each task helps to ensure that the schedule is realistic and achievable.

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43. (009) Payments against Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) task orders are typically based upon

Explanation

The correct answer is a percentage of completion for projects of 60 calendar days or longer. This means that payments for SABER task orders are typically based on the percentage of the project that has been completed. For projects that are 60 calendar days or longer, the payment is determined based on the progress made in completing the project. This allows for more flexibility in making payments as the project progresses, rather than waiting for the entire project to be physically completed.

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44. (011) Providing career advice to enlisted personnel requires all of the following except

Explanation

The correct answer is "encouraging on duty study time for promotions during downtime." This is because providing career advice to enlisted personnel does not involve encouraging on duty study time for promotions during downtime. While it is important to become familiar with personnel programs, encourage membership in professional organizations, and discuss the pros and cons of separating from the Air Force, promoting on duty study time is not a necessary aspect of providing career advice.

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45. (011) Contracting Level I certification is identified by what special experience identifier (SEI)?

Explanation

Contracting Level I certification is identified by the special experience identifier (SEI) 129. This means that individuals who hold this certification have met the requirements and demonstrated the necessary skills and knowledge in contracting at the entry-level. The SEI 129 indicates that the individual has completed the necessary training and has gained the required experience to perform contracting duties at this level.

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46. (012) A designator determining detailed manpower and logistical support requirements that describes necessary personnel, skill levels, numbers, and equipment required for deployments is called a

Explanation

A unit type code is a designator that determines detailed manpower and logistical support requirements for deployments. It describes the necessary personnel, skill levels, numbers, and equipment required. It helps in identifying and organizing the resources needed for specific missions or operations.

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47. (012) Which unit management program assists units in determining whether or not they are in compliance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies?

Explanation

The self-inspection program assists units in determining whether or not they are in compliance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies. This program allows units to conduct their own inspections and assessments to identify any areas of non-compliance and take corrective actions. It helps units to proactively ensure that they are following all the necessary rules and regulations, and avoid any potential penalties or legal issues. The other options, exercise evaluation program, special interest item program, and compliance inspection program, do not specifically focus on assisting units in determining compliance with laws, regulations, and policies.

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48. (012) When you as a supervisor, schedule a goal oriented plan for subordinate training, it builds confidence for the trainee by

Explanation

Scheduling a goal-oriented plan for subordinate training helps build confidence for the trainee by achieving each particular goal. By setting specific goals, the trainee can focus on accomplishing each one, which provides a sense of progress and achievement. This can boost their confidence and motivation as they see themselves making tangible progress towards their overall training objectives.

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49. (013) The Air Force Contracting Officer test

Explanation

The Air Force Contracting Officer test is required for warrants above the simplified acquisition threshold. This means that individuals who want to hold a contracting officer warrant that allows them to handle contracts exceeding a certain dollar amount must pass this test. The test consists of 50 questions and is timed, but it does not specify whether it is an open or closed book test. To pass the test, candidates must score a minimum of 75%. Passing this test guarantees a limited contracting officer warrant up to $5M.

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50. (005) Which of the following may be disclosed when conducting a preaward debriefing?

Explanation

During a preaward debriefing, the rationale for eliminating the offeror from the competition may be disclosed. This means that the procuring agency can provide an explanation to the offeror as to why their proposal was not selected. This can help the offeror understand the weaknesses in their proposal and improve for future opportunities. However, the number of offerors, the identity of other offerors, and the ranking of the offeror in comparison with others are typically not disclosed during a preaward debriefing to maintain confidentiality and protect the competitive nature of the procurement process.

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51. (002) Which of the following is true when determining the competitive range?

Explanation

When determining the competitive range, it is important to limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will allow for an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals. This means that only the top-rated proposals should be included in the competitive range, ensuring that the selection process focuses on the most qualified and competitive firms. Including only the top-rated proposals helps to streamline the evaluation process and make a more informed decision.

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52. . (005) Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that

Explanation

Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that no further questions are permissible. This means that after the debriefing session, the offerors are not allowed to ask any more questions or seek further clarification regarding the evaluation or decision-making process.

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53. (008) A contractor may submit a claim

Explanation

A contractor may submit a claim within 6 years after accrual of a claim. This means that the contractor has up to 6 years from the time the claim first arises to submit their claim for consideration. After this time period, the contractor may no longer be eligible to submit their claim. This allows the contractor a reasonable amount of time to gather any necessary documentation or evidence to support their claim before submitting it for review.

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54. (012) What information is provided in Part II of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)?

Explanation

Part II of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) provides information about the duties, tasks, and references related to the specific career field. It outlines the responsibilities and job functions that individuals in the career field are expected to perform. It also includes references to additional resources and materials that can be used for further learning and development in the field.

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55. (003) The overall objective of negotiations is to

Explanation

The overall objective of negotiations is to negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance. This means that the negotiations aim to find a contract that not only meets the government's requirements but also encourages the contractor to perform their best and deliver high-quality results. By providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance, the government can ensure that they are getting the best value for their money and achieving their objectives effectively. The objective is not to obtain the lowest price possible or negotiate a contract below what the government believes is reasonable, but rather to focus on performance incentives.

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56. (006) Contractor progress schedules are required

Explanation

Contractor progress schedules are required when contracts exceed the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT) and the performance period is greater than 60 days. This means that for construction contracts that are below the SAT or have a performance period of 60 days or less, progress schedules are not required. However, for contracts that exceed the SAT and have a longer performance period, it is necessary to have progress schedules to track the contractor's progress and ensure timely completion of the project.

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57.  (008) When is a contractor required to certify a claim?

Explanation

A contractor is required to certify a claim when it exceeds $100,000. This means that for any claim made by a contractor that is below $100,000, certification is not required. However, for claims that exceed this threshold, the contractor must provide a certification. This certification is a formal declaration that the claim is accurate and supported by appropriate documentation. It ensures that the contractor is held accountable for the validity of their claim and helps to maintain transparency and integrity in the contract process.

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58. (012) Which of the following unit type codes represents an equipment package?

Explanation

The correct answer is XFFK4. The unit type code XFFK4 represents an equipment package.

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59. (006) When a preconstruction orientation is held, offerors must be informed of significant matters including all of the following except

Explanation

During a preconstruction orientation, offerors are informed of significant matters related to the project. This includes contracting authority, statutory matters such as labor standards, and a review of performance and payment bonds. However, the review of the pricing schedule is not included in the information provided during the orientation.

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60. (003) When a deficiency is found in an offeror's proposal, the government must

Explanation

When a deficiency is found in an offeror's proposal, the government must identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal. This means that the government will inform the offeror of the deficiency and give them a chance to make necessary corrections or improvements to their proposal. This allows the offeror to address any weaknesses or shortcomings in their initial submission and potentially still be considered for award.

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61. (006) Which of the following clauses allows for time extensions in the event of a delay due to fire, flood, or labor strikes?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Default clause. The Default clause allows for time extensions in the event of a delay due to fire, flood, or labor strikes. This clause is typically included in contracts to address unforeseen circumstances that may cause delays in the project timeline. It provides a mechanism for the parties involved to agree on an extension of time to compensate for the delay caused by these specific events.

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62. (008) All of the following are options available to contractors upon receipt of the contract officer's (CO) final decision except

Explanation

Contractors have several options available to them upon receipt of the contracting officer's (CO) final decision, including appealing to the US Court of Federal Claims within 12 months, appealing to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals within 90 days, and seeking assistance from a third party using Alternate Dispute Resolution. However, accepting the CO's final decision "as is" is not one of the available options.

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63. (011) The unit personnel management roster (UPMR) lists available positions, personnel assigned, and

Explanation

The unit personnel management roster (UPMR) is a document that lists available positions, personnel assigned, and projected gains and losses. This means that it provides information on the expected increase or decrease in personnel within the unit. By having this information, the unit can effectively plan for any changes in personnel and ensure that all positions are adequately filled.

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64. (005) All of the following actions can help eliminate the potential for protests, except

Explanation

This answer is correct because ensuring all of an offeror's questions are answered actually helps to eliminate potential protests. By addressing all of the offeror's concerns and providing clear and comprehensive answers, it reduces the likelihood of misunderstandings or dissatisfaction that could lead to protests. The other actions mentioned, such as providing timely debriefings, documenting exclusions, and using source selection documents for debriefing material, also contribute to transparency and fairness in the procurement process, further reducing the potential for protests.

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65. (009) Contractor costs such as overhead, profit, design cost, bond premiums, and General &Administrative (G&A) expenses are

Explanation

Contractor costs such as overhead, profit, design cost, bond premiums, and General & Administrative (G&A) expenses are negotiated into coefficients. This means that these costs are factored into the coefficients used in pricing the contract. The coefficients represent a percentage or multiplier that is applied to the base cost of the project to account for these additional costs. By negotiating these costs into coefficients, the contractor can ensure that they are adequately compensated for their expenses while still providing a competitive price for the project.

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66. (001) Common aspects of past performance relevancy include all of the following except

Explanation

The common aspects of past performance relevancy include complexity, dollar value, and similarity of service/support. These factors are typically considered when evaluating a contractor's past performance. However, the number of contracts performed is not directly related to the relevancy of past performance. It may indicate experience, but it does not necessarily reflect the contractor's ability to perform a specific type of service or support.

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67. (007) An evaluation of contractor performance must be prepared for orders placed against Federal Supply Schedules (FSS) and that exceed what dollar threshold?

Explanation

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68. (008) A statement of facts must be prepared by the contract officer (CO) within how many business days after receiving notification of a protest to the Government Accountability Office (GAO)?

Explanation

The correct answer is 10 days. After receiving notification of a protest to the Government Accountability Office (GAO), the contract officer (CO) must prepare a statement of facts within 10 business days. This statement of facts includes all relevant information and documentation related to the protest. It is an important step in the protest process to ensure that all parties involved have a clear understanding of the facts and can make informed decisions.

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69. 008) When submitting the contract officer's (CO) statement of facts to the Government Accountability Office (GAO), which of the following documents should not be included as supporting documentation?

Explanation

When submitting the contract officer's (CO) statement of facts to the Government Accountability Office (GAO), legal reviews should not be included as supporting documentation. Legal reviews are internal evaluations conducted by legal professionals to assess the legality and compliance of the contract. While they are important for the CO's decision-making process, they are not typically required to be included as supporting documentation when submitting the statement of facts to the GAO. The other options, such as the source selection plan, abstract of bids or offers, and proposal analysis documents, are more relevant and necessary for the GAO's review of the contract.

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70. (012) Final approval authority for enlisted members to attend any Level III training course resides with

Explanation

The correct answer is AFCFM. AFCFM stands for Air Force Career Field Manager. The final approval authority for enlisted members to attend any Level III training course resides with the AFCFM. This means that the AFCFM has the authority to approve or deny requests for enlisted members to attend Level III training courses. The other options listed, such as DAU, Unit commander, and MAJCOM commander, do not have the final approval authority for Level III training courses.

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71. (001) Which of the following is true regarding awards made without discussions?

Explanation

The correct answer states that the government may hold discussions at any time regardless of the RFP instructions. This means that even if the RFP explicitly states that discussions will not be held, the government still has the authority to hold discussions if they deem it necessary. This highlights the flexibility and discretion that the government has in the procurement process.

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72. (002) Which of the following methods is not used in support of price analysis?

Explanation

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73. (010) Benefits of strategic sourcing include all of the following except

Explanation

Strategic sourcing involves a systematic approach to selecting suppliers and managing the procurement process to achieve long-term goals. The benefits of strategic sourcing include reduced duplication of effort, as it helps in streamlining processes and eliminating unnecessary redundancies. It also leads to enhanced supplier relationships by fostering collaboration and communication. Strategic sourcing also aims to standardize business processes, ensuring consistency and efficiency. However, increased consolidation of contracts is not a benefit of strategic sourcing. Instead, strategic sourcing focuses on optimizing the supplier base and negotiating favorable terms with suppliers.

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74. (011) In order for an enlisted member to obtain the Acquisition Professional Development Program (APDP) Level III certification, they must meet all of the following requirements except

Explanation

To obtain the Acquisition Professional Development Program (APDP) Level III certification, enlisted members must meet several requirements. These include possessing a Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) degree, occupying a superintendent position, and completing the SNCOA correspondence course. The exception to these requirements is holding the rank of Senior/Chief Master Sergeant. In other words, one does not need to hold the rank of Senior/Chief Master Sergeant to obtain the APDP Level III certification.

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75. (011) Responsibilities as the enlisted advisor to squadron leadership does not include

Explanation

The enlisted advisor to squadron leadership is responsible for overseeing awards and decorations, providing input on disciplinary actions, and ensuring civilians understand the enlisted evaluation system. However, their responsibilities do not include advising only the commander on enlisted matters. This means that the enlisted advisor should provide advice and guidance on enlisted matters to all members of the squadron leadership, not just the commander.

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76. (007) The Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) provides a centralized repository of contractor performance information for

Explanation

The Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) is a system that stores information about contractor performance. This information is intended for official use, meaning it is meant to be used by authorized personnel within the government. However, it is not classified, meaning it is not restricted to only those with security clearances. Therefore, the information in CPARS is unclassified and can be accessed by individuals who have the appropriate authorization, regardless of their security clearance level.

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77. (010) During the standup phase

Explanation

During the standup phase, one of the tasks is to gather spend data from various sources such as the Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG), government purchase card (GPC) databases, and suppliers. This is important because it helps in understanding the current spending patterns and trends, which can then be used to develop a commodity sourcing strategy (CSS). The data collected can also be used to formulate recommendations for policies and to conduct high-level market research to gain a better understanding of the market.

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78. (012) Which of the following tools enable commanders to report the ability of an individual unit type code to perform its mission capability?

Explanation

The AEF Reporting Tool enables commanders to report the ability of an individual unit type code to perform its mission capability. This tool allows commanders to track and assess the readiness of their units and report any issues or concerns that may affect their ability to carry out their missions effectively. It provides a centralized platform for commanders to monitor and manage the readiness of their units, ensuring that they are properly trained, equipped, and prepared for their assigned tasks.

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79. (012) What is the "contract" between the technical school and field personnel that is used to develop training courses called?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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80. (013) Which of the following actions is subject to business clearance approval?

Explanation

The action intended to result in the award of a competed contract is subject to business clearance approval. This means that before the contract can be awarded, it needs to go through a review and approval process to ensure it aligns with the organization's business objectives and strategies. This approval is necessary to ensure that the contract is awarded in a fair and competitive manner, and that it meets all the necessary requirements and regulations.

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81. (013) The ratification authority for unauthorized commitments less than $30,000 is the

Explanation

The correct answer is "chief of the contracting office." The chief of the contracting office is the ratification authority for unauthorized commitments less than $30,000. This means that if a commitment is made without proper authorization and it is less than $30,000, the chief of the contracting office has the authority to approve and ratify the commitment.

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82. (006) Material Approval Submittals must be approved

Explanation

The correct answer is "within a reasonable time." This means that Material Approval Submittals should be approved in a timely manner, but there is no specific timeframe mentioned. The approval should be done within a reasonable timeframe, which may vary depending on the specific circumstances and requirements of the project.

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83. (013) Contract clearance involves all of the following except

Explanation

Contract clearance involves obtaining the necessary approvals for various stages of the procurement process. This includes approval to request final proposal revisions, approval to make a source selection decision, and approval for the source selection authority to make the award. However, contract clearance does not involve approval to issue a solicitation, as this is typically done prior to the clearance process.

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84. (006) Which statement does not apply when a contractor undertakes voluntary acceleration?

Explanation

When a contractor undertakes voluntary acceleration, it is not always compensable if the government allows it to continue. The statement implies that the government is obligated to compensate the contractor for the acceleration, but this is not always the case. The government may choose to allow the acceleration without providing additional compensation.

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85. (008) Grounds for a protest include all of the following except

Explanation

The grounds for a protest include relaxing the announced criteria, failure to follow the existing criteria, and imposing additional unannounced criteria to increase the number of discriminators needed to include only the most highly rated proposals. However, excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals is not a valid ground for a protest.

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86. (013) Who is responsible for establishing the Designated Operational Capability Statement for each unit tasked in support of an OPLAN?

Explanation

The MAJCOM Senior Contracting Official (SCO) is responsible for establishing the Designated Operational Capability Statement for each unit tasked in support of an OPLAN. This statement outlines the specific capabilities that the unit must possess in order to effectively carry out its mission. The SCO is responsible for ensuring that the unit has the necessary resources and support to meet these requirements. The Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) is responsible for coordinating the deployment of personnel and equipment, while the Installation Deployment Officer (IDO) oversees the overall deployment process at the installation level. SAF/AQC refers to the Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics, which is responsible for acquisition and contracting policies and procedures.

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87. (001) The lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method

Explanation

The correct answer is that the lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method may include non-price factors such as technical and past performance. This means that although price is the primary consideration, other factors such as the vendor's technical capabilities and past performance can also be taken into account during the selection process. This allows the government to consider the overall value and quality of the proposals, rather than solely focusing on the lowest price.

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88. (010) Which of the following is not one of the phases of strategic sourcing?

Explanation

The source selection strategy phase is not one of the phases of strategic sourcing. Strategic sourcing typically consists of four phases: analysis phase, supplier identification phase, negotiation phase, and contract implementation phase. In the analysis phase, the organization assesses its needs and identifies potential suppliers. The supplier identification phase involves evaluating and selecting the most suitable suppliers. The negotiation phase involves negotiating contracts and terms with the selected suppliers. Finally, in the contract implementation phase, the organization implements and manages the contracts with the suppliers. Therefore, the source selection strategy phase is not a recognized phase in strategic sourcing.

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89. (012) The purpose of a Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is to

Explanation

The purpose of a Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is to develop a new training standard to accommodate changes in the field. This means that the workshop is focused on creating a new standard for training that can adapt to the evolving needs and advancements in the specific field. It is not about standardizing procedures for professional military education (PME), developing new procedures for skill level upgrade and promotion, or periodically reviewing the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

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90. (001) Lowest Price Technically Acceptable (LPTA) source selections consider

Explanation

LPTA source selections consider the acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors. This means that in addition to considering the price, the selection process also takes into account other factors such as quality, performance, and technical capabilities of the product or service being evaluated. The decision is based on whether the product or service meets the minimum requirements and standards set by the buyer, rather than solely on the lowest price.

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91. Which of the following is NOT true regarding negotiations?

Explanation

This statement is not true because when the price negotiation is based on price analysis, contract officers are not required to analyze profit. Price analysis focuses on determining whether the proposed price is fair and reasonable based on market research and comparison with similar products or services. Profit analysis, on the other hand, involves assessing the profitability of the proposed price for the contractor.

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92. (006) Which of the following is not allowable under the Suspension of Work clause?

Explanation

The Suspension of Work clause allows for the government to suspend work under the contractor for a period of time deemed appropriate by the Contracting Officer (CO). It also provides the contractor with an adjustment for any increase in the cost of performance. However, it does not explicitly allow for the contractor to be granted a time extension.

Submit
93. (004) Which of the following statements regarding the source selection decision document (SSDD) is incorrect?

Explanation

The SSDD represents the Source Selection Evaluation Team’s independent, integrated, comparative assessment and decision.

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94. (006) The Material and Workmanship clause

Explanation

The Material and Workmanship clause establishes the submittal process. This means that it outlines the procedures and requirements for submitting materials and workmanship details for approval during the construction project. It does not necessarily require all used equipment, material, and articles to be like new, or require contractors to provide a warranty for a specific period of time. It also does not provide a detailed list of suitable equipment and materials.

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95. (002) Which of the following is true regarding the evaluation of past performance?

Explanation

When evaluating past performance, it is important to consider information regarding predecessor companies. This means that the performance of a company's previous iterations or subsidiaries should also be taken into account. This can provide valuable insights into the overall track record and capabilities of the offeror.

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96. Which of the following is incorrect regarding discussions?

Explanation

Discussions are not used to establish the competitive range. The competitive range is determined before discussions take place. Discussions are held with offerors in the competitive range to allow them to clarify and revise their proposals, as well as address any deficiencies.

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97. When the price analysis alone cannot determine a fair and reasonable price,

Explanation

When the price analysis alone cannot determine a fair and reasonable price, the requirement must be cancelled and resolicited. In such cases, a cost analysis is necessary to evaluate data other than certified cost or pricing data. This means that the evaluation of the price must go beyond the certified cost or pricing data provided by the offerors. The cost analysis helps in assessing other relevant data to determine a fair and reasonable price for the requirement.

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98. (013) The operational contracting commander is responsible for all of the following except

Explanation

The operational contracting commander is responsible for reviewing all tasked operational plans, accomplishing and documenting contingency contracting officer training, and developing and maintaining local procedures to support the Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan (CEMP). However, they are not responsible for developing contracting support elements and UTC packages to meet the requirements of current policy directives.

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99. (002) Communications are held after receipt of proposals to

Explanation

After receiving proposals, communications are held to determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range. This means that the purpose of the communication is to evaluate the proposals and decide which ones are eligible to move forward in the competitive process. This step helps narrow down the pool of offerors and select the most competitive proposals for further consideration.

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100. (003) When opening competitive discussions, all of the following are emphasized to offerors except

Explanation

The correct answer is that the CO will negotiate with only those offerors whose proposals appear most favorable to the government. This means that the government will only engage in negotiations with offerors whose proposals are deemed to be the most advantageous for the government's needs. This ensures that the government can obtain the best possible outcome from the competitive discussions.

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101.  (013) Which of the following management tools is used to ensure contract quality and compliance with established law and policy directives throughout the acquisition process?

Explanation

A contract review committee is a management tool used to ensure contract quality and compliance with established law and policy directives throughout the acquisition process. This committee is responsible for reviewing contracts to ensure that they meet all legal requirements and adhere to organizational policies. They play a crucial role in ensuring that contracts are of high quality and compliant with all relevant regulations and directives. Peer review, self-inspection programs, and quality assurance programs may also contribute to contract quality, but they do not specifically focus on compliance with law and policy directives.

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(011) Who is required to receive job safety training?
(008) What procedure is available for use by contractors and the...
 (009) Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements...
(005) What action might a contract officer (CO) take if an untimely...
(001) What action must be taken if a proposal exceeds established page...
(006) Which of the following is used to update and post the percentage...
(012) What is not a benefit of the Self-Inspection Program?
(003) In noncompetitive negotiations, which price position supports...
(001) A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional...
(002) Which of the following factors affect comparability during price...
(009) How is pricing established in Simplified Acquisition of Base...
(009) What option does a contract officer (CO) have to expedite fiscal...
(011) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the...
(005) Post-award debriefings must include
002) What type of exchange does not allow for responses to identified...
. (003) It may become necessary to walk away from negotiations when
(001) Which section of a request for proposal (RFP) provides offerors...
(001) An offeror's technical volume is used by offerors to
(001) Price or cost to the government
(001) Offerors without a record of relevant past performance will...
(008) What type of change improperly exceeds the scope of a...
(011) Which of the following responsibilities is not identified in AFI...
(012) What process is used to request relief from deployment taskings...
(012) Functional experts assigned to the exercise evaluation team are...
(003) What document is used to support the price agreement in all...
(011) How might the overall quality of awards packages be improved?
(011) Which of the following is an example of an extra-organizational...
(002) Technical analysis of offeror proposals should
(006) Which of the following is a contractor entitled to when the...
(007) What type of Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System...
 (003) When evaluating proposal revisions in a lowest price...
(009) Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER)...
 (010) What strategic sourcing tool is used to assess data such...
(012) Which of the follow priorities is assigned to students that do...
(013) How often must the contracting squadron commander brief the...
(003) The inability to compromise may be avoided by
(001) Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one...
(008) When a protest is received before award, a contract may not be...
(013) All of the following are responsibilities of the Quality...
(013) Which of the following is not an internal management control of...
(006) A preconstruction orientation
(006) Contractor progress schedules are reviewed to make sure
(009) Payments against Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer...
(011) Providing career advice to enlisted personnel requires all of...
(011) Contracting Level I certification is identified by what special...
(012) A designator determining detailed manpower and logistical...
(012) Which unit management program assists units in determining...
(012) When you as a supervisor, schedule a goal oriented plan for...
(013) The Air Force Contracting Officer test
(005) Which of the following may be disclosed when conducting a...
(002) Which of the following is true when determining the competitive...
. (005) Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified...
(008) A contractor may submit a claim
(012) What information is provided in Part II of the Career Field...
(003) The overall objective of negotiations is to
(006) Contractor progress schedules are required
 (008) When is a contractor required to certify a claim?
(012) Which of the following unit type codes represents an equipment...
(006) When a preconstruction orientation is held, offerors must be...
(003) When a deficiency is found in an offeror's proposal, the...
(006) Which of the following clauses allows for time extensions in the...
(008) All of the following are options available to contractors upon...
(011) The unit personnel management roster (UPMR) lists available...
(005) All of the following actions can help eliminate the potential...
(009) Contractor costs such as overhead, profit, design cost, bond...
(001) Common aspects of past performance relevancy include all of the...
(007) An evaluation of contractor performance must be prepared for...
(008) A statement of facts must be prepared by the contract officer...
008) When submitting the contract officer's (CO) statement of facts to...
(012) Final approval authority for enlisted members to attend any...
(001) Which of the following is true regarding awards made without...
(002) Which of the following methods is not used in support of price...
(010) Benefits of strategic sourcing include all of the following...
(011) In order for an enlisted member to obtain the Acquisition...
(011) Responsibilities as the enlisted advisor to squadron leadership...
(007) The Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS)...
(010) During the standup phase
(012) Which of the following tools enable commanders to report the...
(012) What is the "contract" between the technical school and field...
(013) Which of the following actions is subject to business clearance...
(013) The ratification authority for unauthorized commitments less...
(006) Material Approval Submittals must be approved
(013) Contract clearance involves all of the following except
(006) Which statement does not apply when a contractor undertakes...
(008) Grounds for a protest include all of the following except
(013) Who is responsible for establishing the Designated Operational...
(001) The lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection...
(010) Which of the following is not one of the phases of strategic...
(012) The purpose of a Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is...
(001) Lowest Price Technically Acceptable (LPTA) source selections...
Which of the following is NOT true regarding negotiations?
(006) Which of the following is not allowable under the Suspension of...
(004) Which of the following statements regarding the source selection...
(006) The Material and Workmanship clause
(002) Which of the following is true regarding the evaluation of past...
Which of the following is incorrect regarding discussions?
When the price analysis alone cannot determine a fair and reasonable...
(013) The operational contracting commander is responsible for all of...
(002) Communications are held after receipt of proposals to
(003) When opening competitive discussions, all of the following are...
 (013) Which of the following management tools is used to ensure...
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