6c051 Edit Code 2 Vol 1

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1. Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?

Explanation

The customer is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request. This is because the customer is the one who knows exactly what they need and can provide detailed specifications and requirements for the purchase. The contractor, contract specialist, and contracting officer may assist in the process, but ultimately it is the customer's responsibility to accurately describe their requirements.

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6c051 Edit Code 2 Vol 1 - Quiz

The '6C051 Edit Code 2 Vol 1' quiz assesses knowledge on government contracting, focusing on legislative controls, small business support, and authority types within contract management. Essential for... see moreprofessionals in military procurement and contract administration. see less

2. Prior to receiving a contract award, contractors must be registered in

Explanation

Contractors must be registered in the System for Award Management (SAM) prior to receiving a contract award. SAM is a government-wide database that consolidates and maintains information about potential government contractors. It is used by federal agencies to search for and verify the eligibility of contractors before awarding contracts. By registering in SAM, contractors provide essential information such as their business details, capabilities, and certifications, which helps the government make informed decisions during the contracting process.

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3. What type of contracting instrument would have the letter "P" in the ninth position of the procurement instrument identifier (PIID)?

Explanation

A purchase order is a type of contracting instrument that would have the letter "P" in the ninth position of the procurement instrument identifier (PIID). A purchase order is a document issued by a buyer to a seller, indicating the type, quantity, and agreed-upon price of products or services to be purchased. The PIID is a unique identifier assigned to each procurement instrument, and the letter "P" in the ninth position signifies that it is a purchase order.

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4. Which position is responsible for managing small business and other socio-economic programs?

Explanation

The Director of Business Operations (DBO) is responsible for managing small business and other socio-economic programs. This position oversees the day-to-day operations of the business, including financial management, budgeting, and strategic planning. They work closely with other departments and stakeholders to ensure the smooth running of the organization and the successful implementation of various programs. The DBO plays a crucial role in ensuring the growth and sustainability of the business by identifying opportunities, mitigating risks, and making informed decisions.

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5. What agency's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?

Explanation

The Small Business Administration (SBA) is an agency that aims to provide aid and counseling to small businesses. It offers resources and support to help small businesses start, grow, and succeed. The SBA provides assistance in areas such as financing, business planning, marketing, and government contracting. It also offers counseling services to help small business owners navigate challenges and make informed decisions. Overall, the SBA's objective is to promote the growth and development of small businesses through various forms of aid and counseling.

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6. Which flight is responsible for managing the government purchase card (GPC) program?

Explanation

The flight responsible for managing the government purchase card (GPC) program is Plans and Programs. This flight is likely in charge of overseeing the planning and implementation of various programs within the government, including the GPC program. They would be responsible for managing the policies, procedures, and guidelines related to the use of government purchase cards, ensuring compliance and efficiency in the purchasing process.

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7. Express actual authority is created by

Explanation

Express actual authority is created when the principal explicitly communicates their authority to the agent through either written or oral means. This means that the principal clearly and directly states the agent's authority and responsibilities. It is not created by information flowing from a third-party to the agent, information flowing from the agent to a third-party, or the principal's tolerance of the agent's conduct.

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8. When no time is stated, an offer continues

Explanation

When no specific time is mentioned, an offer is considered to continue until a reasonable time has passed. This means that the offer remains open for acceptance until a period of time that is considered reasonable in the given circumstances. This allows the offeree sufficient time to consider and respond to the offer without any specific deadline. The concept of a reasonable time ensures fairness in the negotiation process and allows both parties to have a reasonable opportunity to reach an agreement.

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9. What is meant by the term "competent" in regards to a contracting party?

Explanation

The term "competent" in regards to a contracting party refers to their mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. In order to enter into a legally binding contract, all parties involved must have the mental ability to comprehend the terms and consequences of the agreement. This ensures that the contract is entered into willingly and with full understanding. It is important for all parties to be competent in order to protect their rights and interests in the contract.

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10. As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is

Explanation

A contract that violates a statute is considered unlawful because it goes against the law. As a result, the contract is void, meaning it has no legal effect. It will not be enforced by the court because it contradicts the law. This means that neither party involved can rely on the contract or enforce its terms.

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11. Operations and maintenance (O&M) and military personnel (MILPERS) funds are both categorized as what type of appropriation?

Explanation

Operations and maintenance (O&M) and military personnel (MILPERS) funds are both categorized as annual appropriations. This means that these funds are authorized and allocated on a yearly basis and must be spent within the fiscal year they are appropriated for. Annual appropriations provide funds for the day-to-day operations and maintenance of military facilities and equipment, as well as for the salaries and benefits of military personnel. These funds are typically subject to annual budgeting and approval processes by the government.

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12. Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated through

Explanation

Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated through Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities. These facilities, such as gyms, clubs, and recreational activities, generate revenue through user fees, sales, and other sources. NAF funds are separate from taxpayer dollars and are used to support quality of life programs and services for military personnel and their families.

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13. If the offeror expresses time, place, and means of communication,

Explanation

This answer is correct because it states that only the time, place, or means of communication specified by the offeror constitutes acceptance. This means that if the offeror specifies a particular time, place, or means of communication for accepting the offer, the offeree must adhere to those specifications in order for their acceptance to be valid. Any changes made by the offeree to the time, place, or means of communication would not be considered acceptance.

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14. What is the name given to the exchange of promises?

Explanation

Consideration is the name given to the exchange of promises in a contract. It refers to something of value that is given by each party in exchange for the promises made by the other party. Consideration can be in the form of money, goods, services, or even a promise to do or refrain from doing something. It is an essential element of a valid contract and ensures that both parties have something to gain or lose from the agreement.

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15. The first six positions of a procurement instrument identifier (PIID) represent the

Explanation

The first six positions of a procurement instrument identifier (PIID) represent the Department of Defense (DOD) Activity Address Code (DODAAC). This code is used to identify the specific DOD activity that is responsible for the procurement action. It helps in tracking and managing procurement activities within the DOD and ensures that the correct activity is associated with each procurement instrument.

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16. What document provides findings, recommendations, and any additional information necessary to assist the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in determining the merits of a protest?

Explanation

The document that provides findings, recommendations, and any additional information necessary to assist the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in determining the merits of a protest is the Statement of Facts. This document contains a detailed account of the relevant facts and circumstances surrounding the protest, which helps the GAO in making an informed decision. It presents a comprehensive overview of the case, including evidence, testimonies, and any other pertinent information that can support or refute the protest. The Statement of Facts is crucial in enabling the GAO to assess the validity and strength of the protest and reach a fair and impartial decision.

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17. A contracting officer's (CO) responsibility includes

Explanation

The responsibility of a contracting officer (CO) includes ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment. This means that the CO is responsible for ensuring that contractors are treated fairly and impartially throughout the contracting process. This includes aspects such as evaluating bids and proposals, negotiating contracts, and monitoring contractor performance. By ensuring equitable treatment, the CO helps to maintain the integrity and fairness of the contracting process.

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18. What is a purpose of the customer education program?

Explanation

The purpose of a customer education program is to develop open lines of communication. This program aims to educate customers about the company's products or services, providing them with the necessary knowledge and understanding to effectively communicate their needs and concerns. By doing so, the company can establish a strong and transparent relationship with its customers, enabling better collaboration and problem-solving. This ultimately leads to improved customer satisfaction and loyalty.

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19. Which statement about the offeree is correct?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only the intended offeree can accept the offer." This means that the offeror cannot direct the offer to a class of people or to the public with the intention that any member of the class or public can accept. Instead, there is always one specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested. Therefore, only this intended offeree has the ability to accept the offer.

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20. Which indefinite-delivery contract may be used when the government cannot predetermine, above a specified minimum, the precise quantities of supplies or services that will be required during the contract period?

Explanation

The indefinite-quantity contract is used when the government cannot determine the exact quantities of supplies or services that will be needed during the contract period. This type of contract allows for flexibility in meeting the government's needs as they arise, without having to specify a predetermined quantity. It provides the government with the ability to order varying quantities of supplies or services, within a specified range, as the need arises.

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21. A government action may be protested by

Explanation

A government action may be protested by an interested party because they have a direct stake or concern in the outcome of the action. This could include individuals, organizations, or businesses that are directly affected or have a vested interest in the government action being protested. The other options mentioned, such as the next lowest bidder, all responsible bidders, or the next low small business bidder, may also have a stake in the outcome, but they may not necessarily protest the government action.

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22. What must be documented in the case that the contracting officer (CO) doesn't give each awardee fair opportunity?

Explanation

In the case that the contracting officer (CO) doesn't give each awardee fair opportunity, it is necessary to document the justification for exemption. This documentation is important to provide a valid reason for not providing fair opportunity to all awardees and to ensure transparency and accountability in the contracting process. It helps to justify the decision and provide a record of the circumstances surrounding the exemption.

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23. Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard Form

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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24. What option does the government have if an architect-engineer's (A-E) design, drawing, or specifications contain errors or deficiencies?

Explanation

If an architect-engineer's design, drawing, or specifications contain errors or deficiencies, the government has the option to require the contractor to make the necessary corrections under the original contract at no cost to the government. This means that the contractor is responsible for fixing any mistakes or deficiencies in their work without charging the government any additional expenses.

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25. What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?

Explanation

The Anti-Deficiency Act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available. This act prohibits federal agencies from spending more money than Congress has appropriated for a specific purpose. It aims to ensure fiscal responsibility and prevent overspending by government agencies. Violating the Anti-Deficiency Act can result in penalties, including fines, imprisonment, or removal from office.

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26. In the principal-agent relationship, which party is the contractor?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Third party" because in a principal-agent relationship, the contractor is considered as a third party. The principal-agent relationship involves two parties: the principal, who delegates authority to the agent to act on their behalf, and the agent, who carries out tasks and makes decisions on behalf of the principal. The contractor, in this case, is not directly involved in the principal-agent relationship but is hired by the agent to perform specific tasks or provide services to fulfill the principal's objectives.

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27. Estoppel means to prevent

Explanation

Estoppel refers to the legal principle that prevents a party from asserting a fact or claim that is inconsistent with a position they previously took. This means that once a party has taken a certain position or made a certain statement, they cannot later change their position or make a contradictory claim. Estoppel is used to ensure fairness and prevent parties from taking advantage of their own inconsistent statements or actions.

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28. Which of these is an example of rejecting an offer?

Explanation

Proposing a counter offer is an example of rejecting an offer because it involves suggesting different terms or conditions than the original offer. By proposing a counter offer, the person is indicating that they are not willing to accept the initial offer as it is, but instead, they are suggesting alternative terms that they find more favorable. This shows a rejection of the original offer and a desire to negotiate different terms before reaching an agreement.

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29. The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) is to

Explanation

Simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are implemented to reduce administrative costs and burdens on both the government and contractors. By simplifying the acquisition process, unnecessary paperwork and lengthy procedures are minimized, resulting in cost and time savings for both parties involved. This promotes efficiency and streamlines the acquisition of goods and services, ultimately benefiting all stakeholders.

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30. Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as

Explanation

Architect-engineering services contracts are contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services. These contracts typically involve a combination of architectural and engineering services and are commonly used in projects that require expertise in both fields.

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31. After accrual of a claim, what is the maximum amount of time within which contractor claims must be submitted to the contracting officer (CO), unless contracting parties agreed to a shorter period of time?

Explanation

Contractor claims must be submitted to the contracting officer within 6 years after accrual of a claim, unless the contracting parties agreed to a shorter period of time. This means that the contractor has a maximum of 6 years to submit their claim for consideration and potential resolution.

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32. The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the

Explanation

Equitable estoppel is a legal principle that prevents a party from asserting their rights if their actions or representations have led another party to believe in a certain state of affairs and rely on it to their detriment. The elements of equitable estoppel include the government knowing or should have known the true facts, the government intending that the contractor rely on their acts, and the contractor not knowing and should not have known the true facts. However, the element that is not included in equitable estoppel is that the contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government.

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33. An offeror's withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a

Explanation

When an offeror withdraws their offer before it is accepted by the offeree, it is referred to as a revocation. This means that the offer is no longer valid and cannot be accepted by the other party. Termination, cancellation, and breach of contract are not the correct terms in this context as they refer to different situations.

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34. What appropriation category may be used to fund minor military construction projects under $1,000,000?

Explanation

Operations and maintenance (O&M) is the appropriate category to fund minor military construction projects under $1,000,000. This category covers the ongoing activities and expenses required to operate and maintain military facilities and infrastructure. It includes repairs, renovations, and minor construction projects necessary to keep the facilities in good working condition. The other options, such as Research, development, test and evaluation (RDT&E), Military construction (MILCON), and Procurement, are not specifically designated for funding minor construction projects.

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35. What appropriations account code identifies operations and maintenance (O&M) funds?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3400. The question is asking for the appropriations account code that identifies operations and maintenance (O&M) funds. The code 3400 is the correct answer because it specifically designates O&M funds. The other options (3300, 3500, and 3600) do not specifically identify O&M funds.

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36. Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer's (CO) final decision on claims exceeding $500,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?

Explanation

The Air Force Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer's final decision on claims exceeding $500,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor. They are specifically tasked with handling commercial law and litigation matters within the Air Force, which includes reviewing and processing claims.

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37. For a contract to be enforceable, its terms must be clear enough to permit

Explanation

The correct answer is the courts to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party. This is because the courts are responsible for interpreting and enforcing contracts. If the terms of a contract are not clear, the courts may have difficulty in determining the rights and obligations of each party. Therefore, it is essential for the terms of a contract to be clear enough for the courts to interpret them accurately.

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38. Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent?

Explanation

The contracting superintendent is responsible for advising the commander on enlisted issues, managing the self-inspection program, and serving as a military career advisor. However, appointing contracting officers is not a function of the contracting superintendent. This task is typically carried out by higher-ranking officials or individuals in the contracting office who have the authority to appoint COs.

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39. What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement of the contracting parties?

Explanation

When a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement, the contractor may choose to submit a claim under the Disputes clause. This clause is typically included in contracts to provide a mechanism for resolving disagreements between the contracting parties. By submitting a claim under this clause, the contractor is initiating a formal process to seek resolution for the dispute. This may involve presenting evidence, attending hearings, and ultimately receiving a decision from a neutral third party, such as a mediator or arbitrator.

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40. Within the multiple award contract (MAC) the contracting officer (CO) must provide each awardee a fair opportunity to be considered for each order issued exceeding

Explanation

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41. Upon learning of an appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA), the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A. This is because Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules is found in DFARS, Appendix A, which outlines the procedures for appeals to the ASBCA. AFFARS and its appendices are specific to the Air Force, so it would not be the correct answer in this context. Similarly, AFFARS Appendix CC and DFARS Appendix C are not mentioned as containing the relevant rule for appeals to the ASBCA.

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42. The two most common types of funding documents are the

Explanation

The correct answer is DD Form 448 and AF Form 9. This is because the question is asking for the two most common types of funding documents, and DD Form 448 and AF Form 9 are the only options that include both a DD Form and an AF Form. The other options either include two DD Forms or two AF Forms, which are not the most common types of funding documents.

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43. How many years are military construction appropriations available for expenditure?

Explanation

Military construction appropriations are available for expenditure for a period of five years. This means that the funds allocated for military construction projects can be used within a five-year timeframe. After this period, any unspent funds may need to be returned or reallocated. This time limit ensures that the funds are used efficiently and effectively for the intended purposes of military construction.

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44. If the contracting officer (CO) decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor?

Explanation

The correct answer is "As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal." This means that once the contracting officer decides that the contractor should be compensated for a claim, the amount will be paid to the contractor without any delay or waiting for any appeal process to be completed. This ensures that the contractor receives the compensation promptly and does not have to go through any additional delays or legal proceedings.

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45. Supplemental procurement instrument identifier (PIID) are used to identify

Explanation

Supplemental procurement instrument identifiers (PIIDs) are used to identify amendments to solicitations. When changes or modifications need to be made to a solicitation document, such as adding or revising requirements, extending the deadline, or clarifying terms and conditions, a PIID is assigned to the amendment. This helps in tracking and referencing the specific changes made to the original solicitation.

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46. What must the contracting officer (CO) issue to the contractor to show that funds are available?

Explanation

The contracting officer (CO) must issue a notice in writing to the contractor to show that funds are available. This is important to ensure transparency and accountability in the contracting process. It provides a documented proof that the necessary funds have been allocated for the project or contract, allowing the contractor to proceed with confidence. This written notice serves as a formal communication between the CO and the contractor, ensuring that both parties are aware of the availability of funds and can proceed accordingly.

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47. Whose job is it to ensure the local contracting program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and Air Force instructions (AFIs)?

Explanation

The contracting squadron commander is responsible for ensuring that the local contracting program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and Air Force instructions (AFIs). As the commander of the contracting squadron, they have the authority and oversight to ensure that the program operates efficiently and in accordance with all legal and regulatory requirements. This includes coordinating with various stakeholders, managing resources, and making strategic decisions to meet customer needs and comply with applicable guidelines.

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48. A characteristic of implied authority is that it is

Explanation

Implied authority refers to the authority that is not explicitly stated but is necessary or incidental to carry out the express authority. This means that while the specific details may not be spelled out in oral or written authority, they are still considered within the scope of the authority given. Therefore, the correct answer is "necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority."

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49. What is meant by adequate consideration?

Explanation

Adequate consideration refers to the fairness and equality of the exchange in a contract. It means that both parties involved receive something of value that is proportionate to what they are giving up. In other words, there is a fair bargain between the parties where the consideration being exchanged is reasonable and equitable. This ensures that both parties have a mutual understanding and agreement, and that the contract is not one-sided or unfairly biased towards one party.

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50. What is the statutory limitation on the contract fee for architect-engineer (A-E) services and fees for the preparation of designs, plans, drawings, and specifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is six percent of the project's estimated cost to complete construction. This means that the contract fee for architect-engineer services and fees for the preparation of designs, plans, drawings, and specifications should be six percent of the total estimated cost to complete the construction of the project. This limitation ensures that the fees charged by the architect-engineer are reasonable and proportionate to the overall project cost.

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51. What clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project so that construction costs will not exceed a specified amount due to a funding limitation?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Design within funding limitations clause." This clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project in a way that ensures construction costs will not exceed a specified amount due to a funding limitation. This clause would outline the requirement for the contractor to design the project within the financial constraints set by the government, ensuring that the construction costs stay within the specified budget.

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52. The funding document authorizing the purchase of the required service or supply must be signed by the

Explanation

The correct answer is "signature authority" because the funding document, which authorizes the purchase of the required service or supply, needs to be signed by someone who has the authority to do so. This person is typically referred to as the "signature authority." The contracting officer (CO) may be responsible for overseeing the procurement process, but it is the signature authority who ultimately signs off on the funding document. The customer may have input or requirements for the purchase, but they are not the ones responsible for signing the funding document.

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53. Protests are made to

Explanation

Protests can be made to either the appropriate agency or the Government Accountability Office (GAO). This means that individuals or organizations can raise concerns or objections regarding a particular issue or decision to either the specific agency responsible for that matter or to the GAO, which is an independent government agency that audits and investigates federal programs. This allows for multiple avenues for individuals to voice their concerns and seek resolution or accountability.

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54. The two most common techniques of alternative dispute resolutions (ADR) are

Explanation

Mediation and arbitration are the two most common techniques of alternative dispute resolution (ADR). Mediation involves a neutral third party (mediator) who facilitates communication and negotiation between the parties involved in a dispute, aiming to reach a mutually acceptable solution. On the other hand, arbitration involves a neutral third party (arbitrator) who listens to both sides of the dispute and makes a binding decision, similar to a court judgment. Both mediation and arbitration provide alternative methods to resolve disputes outside of traditional litigation.

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55. The Bona-Fide Need Rule requires current year funds be obligated

Explanation

The Bona-Fide Need Rule states that funds must be obligated in the same year that the government intends to use the supplies or services. This means that the funds cannot be carried over to the next fiscal year and must be used within the current year. This rule ensures that funds are used efficiently and in a timely manner to meet the government's mission requirements.

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56. Which situation would preclude a ratification?

Explanation

The situation that would preclude a ratification is when the government does not obtain a benefit from the performance. Ratification is the act of approving and accepting an unauthorized commitment after it has been made. In order for a ratification to occur, the government must have received a benefit from the performance. If no benefit is obtained, the ratification cannot take place.

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57. Where would a contracting officer (CO) find guidance on the use of a military interdepartmental purchase request (MIPR)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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58. The Prompt Payment Act requires that final payment of construction contracts be made within

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 days of acceptance by the government. The Prompt Payment Act is a law that sets guidelines for timely payment of contractors by the government. According to this act, the final payment of construction contracts must be made within 30 days of acceptance by the government. This ensures that contractors are paid promptly for their work and helps maintain a healthy cash flow for their businesses.

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59. Once approved, the justification for exception to fair opportunity must be posted

Explanation

The correct answer is within 14 days after placing an order exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT). This is because the question is asking for the timeframe in which the justification for exception to fair opportunity must be posted. According to the information provided, this must be done within 14 days after placing an order that exceeds the simplified acquisition threshold.

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60. The Davis-Bacon and Related Acts apply to construction contracts in excess of

Explanation

The Davis-Bacon and Related Acts require that contractors and subcontractors must pay their laborers and mechanics employed on federally funded construction projects no less than the locally prevailing wages and fringe benefits for corresponding work on similar projects in the area. These acts apply to construction contracts that exceed $2,000.

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61. Which Federal Acquisition Regulation Part prescribes actions required upon receipt of protests?

Explanation

Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 33 prescribes the actions that are required upon receipt of protests. This part of the FAR provides guidance on the procedures and processes that must be followed when a protest is received, including the timeframes for responding to the protest, the documentation that must be provided, and the steps that must be taken to resolve the protest. It is important for contracting officers and other personnel involved in the acquisition process to be familiar with the requirements outlined in FAR Part 33 to ensure that protests are handled appropriately and in accordance with regulations.

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62. Business clearance for noncompetitive contract actions is the approval to

Explanation

Business clearance for noncompetitive contract actions is the approval to begin negotiations. This means that before entering into negotiations with a potential contractor, the business must obtain clearance to ensure that the contract is fair, reasonable, and in the best interest of the organization. This step is necessary to ensure transparency and accountability in the procurement process. Once negotiations are successfully completed, the contract can be ratified and issued.

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63. Performance-based acquisition

Explanation

Performance-based acquisition is a procurement strategy that focuses on defining the desired outcomes and performance standards, rather than specifying how the work should be done. This approach allows contractors the flexibility and freedom to determine the best methods and approaches to achieve the contract objectives. It empowers contractors to use their expertise and resources to meet the performance requirements, while still holding them accountable for achieving the desired results. This approach promotes innovation, efficiency, and effectiveness, as contractors have the latitude to tailor their approach to meet the specific needs of the contract.

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64. Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government contracting?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts, and appropriations acts." This answer correctly identifies the various forms of acts that Congress uses to control government contracting. Enabling acts give authority to government agencies to enter into contracts, procedural acts establish the rules and processes for government contracting, authorization acts provide the legal basis for specific government contracts, and appropriations acts allocate funds for government contracts.

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65. When acquiring commercial items, the contracting officer (CO) uses a

Explanation

The contracting officer (CO) uses a firm-fixed-price (FFP) or fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract when acquiring commercial items. These types of contracts provide a predetermined price for the goods or services being acquired, either with or without adjustments based on economic factors. The FFP contract ensures that the price remains fixed throughout the duration of the contract, while the fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract allows for adjustments to be made based on changes in economic conditions. This provides flexibility for both the buyer and the seller, ensuring a fair and reasonable price for the commercial items being acquired.

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66. What are the two types of mistakes that the law recognizes as excusing performance?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Unilateral with knowledge and bilateral." In the context of law, unilateral with knowledge refers to a mistake made by one party in a contract who is aware of the mistake but still proceeds with the agreement. Bilateral mistake, on the other hand, refers to a mistake made by both parties involved in the contract. These types of mistakes are recognized by the law as valid reasons for excusing performance, as they affect the understanding and intention of the parties involved.

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67. What part of the federal acquisition regulation (FAR) determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments?

Explanation

Part 32 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments. This part specifically addresses contract financing policies and procedures, including progress payments. It outlines the criteria and requirements for determining when progress payments should be included in a contract.

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68. What type of payment is made for partial delivery of commercial items?

Explanation

The correct answer is Delivery because when commercial items are partially delivered, the payment is typically made for the delivered portion. This means that the payment is based on the actual delivery of the goods or services, rather than being made in advance or based on the progress of the work. The payment is made after each delivery is made, reflecting the completion of a portion of the overall contract.

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69. When an agency receives notice of a protest from the Government Accountability Office (GAO) within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately

Explanation

When an agency receives notice of a protest from the Government Accountability Office (GAO) within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract. This is done to ensure that the agency does not continue with the contract while the protest is being investigated by the GAO. Suspending performance or terminating the contract allows for a fair and impartial review of the protest and prevents any potential harm or loss to the protesting party.

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70. For competitive acquisitions conducted without discussion, approval by the clearance approval authority is needed for the source selection authority (SSA) to

Explanation

In competitive acquisitions conducted without discussion, the clearance approval authority needs to approve the source selection authority's decision to award. This means that before the SSA can make the final decision to award the contract, it must obtain approval from the clearance approval authority. This ensures that the selection process is fair and transparent, and that the decision to award is made in accordance with the appropriate regulations and guidelines.

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71. How long after receiving the contracting officer's (CO) final decision does the contractor have to appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA)?

Explanation

The contractor has 90 days to appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA) after receiving the contracting officer's (CO) final decision. This means that they must submit their appeal within this time frame if they wish to challenge the decision.

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72. The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a continental United States (CONUS) vendor for use overseas is

Explanation

The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a continental United States (CONUS) vendor for use overseas is $10,000. This means that overseas cardholders can make supply purchases from CONUS vendors up to $10,000 without having to go through a formal procurement process. This threshold is set to streamline and simplify the purchasing process for small-value supply purchases made by overseas cardholders.

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73. How many days does Government Accountability Office (GAO) have to issue its recommendation on a protest?

Explanation

The Government Accountability Office (GAO) has 100 days to issue its recommendation on a protest. This time frame allows the GAO to thoroughly review the protest and gather all necessary information before making a decision. It also ensures that the process is fair and efficient, allowing for a timely resolution to the protest.

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74. The Service Contract Labor Standards (SCLA) apply to all services exceeding

Explanation

The correct answer is $2,500. The Service Contract Labor Standards (SCLA) apply to all services exceeding this amount. This means that any service contract with a value of $2,500 or higher must comply with the SCLA regulations.

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75. The two forms of fixed-price incentive contracts are

Explanation

The correct answer is firm target and successive targets. This means that in a fixed-price incentive contract, the contractor has a firm target to meet and is rewarded with additional compensation if they exceed the target. Additionally, successive targets may be established to further incentivize the contractor to achieve higher levels of performance. This type of contract provides a structured approach to encourage contractors to meet and exceed performance goals.

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76. What occurs when someone other than the contracting officer (CO) tries to make an agreement without the authority?

Explanation

When someone other than the contracting officer (CO) tries to make an agreement without the authority, it is considered an unauthorized commitment. However, the correct answer in this case is "Ratification." Ratification refers to the act of approving or confirming an unauthorized commitment after it has been made. It is a way for the government to accept and fulfill obligations that were made without proper authority.

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