6c051 Edit Code 2 Vol 1
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- 1.Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government contracting?
- A.
Permissive acts, administrative acts, and legal acts.
- B.
Enabling acts, procedural acts, and permissive acts.
- C.
Permissive acts, administrative acts, and appropriations acts.
- D.
Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts, and appropriations acts.
- 2.What agency’s objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?
- A.
Small Business Administration (SBA).
- B.
General Services Administration (GSA).
- C.
United States Department of Labor (DOL).
- D.
Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled.
- 3.In the principal-agent relationship, which party is the contractor?
- A.
Agent
- B.
Principal
- C.
Third party
- D.
Agent and third party
- 4.Express actual authority is created by
- A.
Explicit language, written or oral, from the principal to the agent.
- B.
Information that flows from the third-party to the agent.
- C.
Information that flows from the agent to the third-party.
- D.
The principal’s tolerance of the agent’s conduct.
- 5.A characteristic of implied authority is that it is
- A.
Spelled out in oral or written authority when referring to minor details.
- B.
Necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority.
- C.
Created by explicit language either in writing or orally.
- D.
Defined in specific terms.
- 6.Estoppel means to prevent
- A.
The government from acting as an agent for the contractor.
- B.
Contractors from filing a claim based on apparent authority.
- C.
A party from taking action which the party is legally entitled to take.
- D.
A party from asserting a fact or claim inconsistent with a position that party previously took.
- 7.The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the
- A.
Government knew or should have known the true facts.
- B.
Contractor did not know and should not have known the true facts.
- C.
Government intended that the contractor rely on the acts of the government.
- D.
Contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government.
- 8.Which statement about the offeree is correct?
- A.
The offeror may not direct the offer to a class of person or to a public intending that any member of the class of public have the power to accept.
- B.
The intended offeree means in all cases there is one, and only one, specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested.
- C.
The offeror may not direct the offer to more than one person.
- D.
Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.
- 9.When no time is stated, an offer continues
- A.
Until the expiration of a reasonable time.
- B.
Until acceptance takes place.
- C.
Indefinitely.
- D.
For 30 days.
- 10.An offeror’s withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a
- A.
Revocation.
- B.
Termination.
- C.
Cancellation.
- D.
Breach of contract.
- 11.Which of these is an example of rejecting an offer?
- A.
Allowing the acceptance period to expire.
- B.
Having no intention of being bound.
- C.
Proposing a counter offer.
- D.
Delaying performance.
- 12.If the offeror expresses time, place, and means of communication,
- A.
Only that time, place, or means constitutes acceptance.
- B.
Only the offeree may change the time, place, or means of communication.
- C.
A different time, manner, and other condition for acceptance may be chosen.
- D.
The offeree may communicate orally, even if the offeror communicated in writing.
- 13.What are the two types of mistakes that the law recognizes as excusing performance?
- A.
Single and mutual.
- B.
Single and bilateral.
- C.
Unilateral with knowledge and bilateral.
- D.
Unilateral without knowledge and bilateral.
- 14.What is the name given to the exchange of promises?
- A.
Detriment.
- B.
Sufficiency.
- C.
Acceptance.
- D.
Consideration.
- 15.What is meant by adequate consideration?
- A.
Actual worth or a promise or an act is more than the offer has the right to commit.
- B.
Consideration has enough value to induce the other party to perform.
- C.
Whether the bargain involves the concepts of benefit and detriment.
- D.
Consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain.
- 16.For a contract to be enforceable, its terms must be clear enough to permit
- A.
The government to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party.
- B.
Each contractor to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party
- C.
The courts to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party.
- D.
Each party to interpret its own duties and obligations to be performed.
- 17.What is meant by the term “competent” in regards to a contracting party?
- A.
Having an unsound mind.
- B.
Ensuring business is not conducted with minors.
- C.
Having the ability to recognize defective corporations.
- D.
Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.
- 18.As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is
- A.
Lawful if not challenged with 120 days.
- B.
Unlawful, void, and will not be enforced.
- C.
Lawful only to the party who made the offer.
- D.
Unlawful but may be enforced under some situations.
- 19.What occurs when someone other than the contracting officer (CO) tries to make an agreement without the authority?
- A.
Unauthorized commitment.
- B.
Unpriced purchase order.
- C.
Contract dispute.
- D.
Ratification.
- 20.Which situation would preclude a ratification?
- A.
Availability of funds that were available at the time the unauthorized commitment was made.
- B.
Contracting officer (CO) determining the price to be fair and reasonable.
- C.
Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance.
- D.
CO recommending payment and legal counsel concurs.
- 21.Business clearance for noncompetitive contract actions is the approval to
- A.
Issue the solicitation.
- B.
Begin negotiations.
- C.
Ratify the contract.
- D.
Issue a contract.
- 22.For competitive acquisitions conducted without discussion, approval by the clearance approval authority is needed for the source selection authority (SSA) to
- A.
Issue the solicitation.
- B.
Make the decision to award.
- C.
Hold pre-construction meeting.
- D.
Request final proposal revisions.
- 23.A government action may be protested by
- A.
An interested party.
- B.
The next lowest bidder.
- C.
All responsible bidders.
- D.
The next low small business bidder.
- 24.Protests are made to
- A.
The Comptroller General or the Government Accountability Office (GAO).
- B.
Either the appropriate agency or the Comptroller General.
- C.
The appropriate agency or US Court of Appeals.
- D.
Either the appropriate agency or the GAO.
- 25.Which Federal Acquisition Regulation Part prescribes actions required upon receipt of protests?
- A.
Part 12
- B.
Part 17
- C.
Part 33
- D.
Part 36
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