6c051 Edit Code 2 Vol 1

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  • 1/76 Questions

    What agency’s objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?

    • Small Business Administration (SBA).
    • General Services Administration (GSA).
    • United States Department of Labor (DOL).
    • Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled.
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About This Quiz

The '6C051 Edit Code 2 Vol 1' quiz assesses knowledge on government contracting, focusing on legislative controls, small business support, and authority types within contract management. Essential for professionals in military procurement and contract administration.

6c051 Edit Code 2 Vol 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which position is responsible for managing small business and other socio-economic programs?

    • Contracting superintendent.

    • Contracting squadron commander.

    • Director of business operations (DBO).

    • Management analysis and support flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Director of business operations (DBO).
    Explanation
    The Director of Business Operations (DBO) is responsible for managing small business and other socio-economic programs. This position oversees the day-to-day operations of the business, including financial management, budgeting, and strategic planning. They work closely with other departments and stakeholders to ensure the smooth running of the organization and the successful implementation of various programs. The DBO plays a crucial role in ensuring the growth and sustainability of the business by identifying opportunities, mitigating risks, and making informed decisions.

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  • 3. 

    Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?

    • Customer.

    • Contractor.

    • Contract specialist.

    • Contracting Officer (CO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer.
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request. This is because the customer is the one who knows exactly what they need and can provide detailed specifications and requirements for the purchase. The contractor, contract specialist, and contracting officer may assist in the process, but ultimately it is the customer's responsibility to accurately describe their requirements.

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  • 4. 

    Prior to receiving a contract award, contractors must be registered in

    • Wide Area Workflow (WAWF).

    • Federal Business Opportunities (FBO).

    • System for Award Management (SAM).

    • Online Representations and Certifications Application (ORCA).

    Correct Answer
    A. System for Award Management (SAM).
    Explanation
    Contractors must be registered in the System for Award Management (SAM) prior to receiving a contract award. SAM is a government-wide database that consolidates and maintains information about potential government contractors. It is used by federal agencies to search for and verify the eligibility of contractors before awarding contracts. By registering in SAM, contractors provide essential information such as their business details, capabilities, and certifications, which helps the government make informed decisions during the contracting process.

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  • 5. 

    What type of contracting instrument would have the letter “P” in the ninth position of the procurement instrument identifier (PIID)?

    • Automated request for quotation.

    • Manual request for quotation.

    • Facilities contract.

    • Purchase order.

    Correct Answer
    A. Purchase order.
    Explanation
    A purchase order is a type of contracting instrument that would have the letter "P" in the ninth position of the procurement instrument identifier (PIID). A purchase order is a document issued by a buyer to a seller, indicating the type, quantity, and agreed-upon price of products or services to be purchased. The PIID is a unique identifier assigned to each procurement instrument, and the letter "P" in the ninth position signifies that it is a purchase order.

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  • 6. 

    Express actual authority is created by

    • Explicit language, written or oral, from the principal to the agent.

    • Information that flows from the third-party to the agent.

    • Information that flows from the agent to the third-party.

    • The principal’s tolerance of the agent’s conduct.

    Correct Answer
    A. Explicit language, written or oral, from the principal to the agent.
    Explanation
    Express actual authority is created when the principal explicitly communicates their authority to the agent through either written or oral means. This means that the principal clearly and directly states the agent's authority and responsibilities. It is not created by information flowing from a third-party to the agent, information flowing from the agent to a third-party, or the principal's tolerance of the agent's conduct.

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  • 7. 

    When no time is stated, an offer continues

    • Until the expiration of a reasonable time.

    • Until acceptance takes place.

    • Indefinitely.

    • For 30 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. Until the expiration of a reasonable time.
    Explanation
    When no specific time is mentioned, an offer is considered to continue until a reasonable time has passed. This means that the offer remains open for acceptance until a period of time that is considered reasonable in the given circumstances. This allows the offeree sufficient time to consider and respond to the offer without any specific deadline. The concept of a reasonable time ensures fairness in the negotiation process and allows both parties to have a reasonable opportunity to reach an agreement.

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  • 8. 

    What is meant by the term “competent” in regards to a contracting party?

    • Having an unsound mind.

    • Ensuring business is not conducted with minors.

    • Having the ability to recognize defective corporations.

    • Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.

    Correct Answer
    A. Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.
    Explanation
    The term "competent" in regards to a contracting party refers to their mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. In order to enter into a legally binding contract, all parties involved must have the mental ability to comprehend the terms and consequences of the agreement. This ensures that the contract is entered into willingly and with full understanding. It is important for all parties to be competent in order to protect their rights and interests in the contract.

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  • 9. 

    As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is

    • Lawful if not challenged with 120 days.

    • Unlawful, void, and will not be enforced.

    • Lawful only to the party who made the offer.

    • Unlawful but may be enforced under some situations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unlawful, void, and will not be enforced.
    Explanation
    A contract that violates a statute is considered unlawful because it goes against the law. As a result, the contract is void, meaning it has no legal effect. It will not be enforced by the court because it contradicts the law. This means that neither party involved can rely on the contract or enforce its terms.

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  • 10. 

    Operations and maintenance (O&M) and military personnel (MILPERS) funds are both categorized as what type of appropriation?

    • Annual.

    • No-year.

    • Continuing.

    • Multiple-year.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual.
    Explanation
    Operations and maintenance (O&M) and military personnel (MILPERS) funds are both categorized as annual appropriations. This means that these funds are authorized and allocated on a yearly basis and must be spent within the fiscal year they are appropriated for. Annual appropriations provide funds for the day-to-day operations and maintenance of military facilities and equipment, as well as for the salaries and benefits of military personnel. These funds are typically subject to annual budgeting and approval processes by the government.

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  • 11. 

    Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated through

    • Taxpayer dollars.

    • The Appropriations Act.

    • Enabling and Procedural Acts.

    • Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities.
    Explanation
    Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated through Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities. These facilities, such as gyms, clubs, and recreational activities, generate revenue through user fees, sales, and other sources. NAF funds are separate from taxpayer dollars and are used to support quality of life programs and services for military personnel and their families.

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  • 12. 

    Which flight is responsible for managing the government purchase card (GPC) program?

    • Plans and Programs.

    • Commodities.

    • Acquisition.

    • Specialized.

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans and Programs.
    Explanation
    The flight responsible for managing the government purchase card (GPC) program is Plans and Programs. This flight is likely in charge of overseeing the planning and implementation of various programs within the government, including the GPC program. They would be responsible for managing the policies, procedures, and guidelines related to the use of government purchase cards, ensuring compliance and efficiency in the purchasing process.

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  • 13. 

    If the offeror expresses time, place, and means of communication,

    • Only that time, place, or means constitutes acceptance.

    • Only the offeree may change the time, place, or means of communication.

    • A different time, manner, and other condition for acceptance may be chosen.

    • The offeree may communicate orally, even if the offeror communicated in writing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only that time, place, or means constitutes acceptance.
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because it states that only the time, place, or means of communication specified by the offeror constitutes acceptance. This means that if the offeror specifies a particular time, place, or means of communication for accepting the offer, the offeree must adhere to those specifications in order for their acceptance to be valid. Any changes made by the offeree to the time, place, or means of communication would not be considered acceptance.

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  • 14. 

    What is the name given to the exchange of promises?

    • Detriment.

    • Sufficiency.

    • Acceptance.

    • Consideration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Consideration.
    Explanation
    Consideration is the name given to the exchange of promises in a contract. It refers to something of value that is given by each party in exchange for the promises made by the other party. Consideration can be in the form of money, goods, services, or even a promise to do or refrain from doing something. It is an essential element of a valid contract and ensures that both parties have something to gain or lose from the agreement.

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  • 15. 

    The first six positions of a procurement instrument identifier (PIID) represent the

    • Fiscal year.

    • Type of instrument.

    • Sequential count for that specific contract type.

    • Department of Defense (DOD) Activity Address Code (DODAAC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Defense (DOD) Activity Address Code (DODAAC).
    Explanation
    The first six positions of a procurement instrument identifier (PIID) represent the Department of Defense (DOD) Activity Address Code (DODAAC). This code is used to identify the specific DOD activity that is responsible for the procurement action. It helps in tracking and managing procurement activities within the DOD and ensures that the correct activity is associated with each procurement instrument.

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  • 16. 

    Which statement about the offeree is correct?

    • The offeror may not direct the offer to a class of person or to a public intending that any member of the class of public have the power to accept.

    • The intended offeree means in all cases there is one, and only one, specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested.

    • The offeror may not direct the offer to more than one person.

    • Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Only the intended offeree can accept the offer." This means that the offeror cannot direct the offer to a class of people or to the public with the intention that any member of the class or public can accept. Instead, there is always one specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested. Therefore, only this intended offeree has the ability to accept the offer.

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  • 17. 

    A government action may be protested by

    • An interested party.

    • The next lowest bidder.

    • All responsible bidders.

    • The next low small business bidder.

    Correct Answer
    A. An interested party.
    Explanation
    A government action may be protested by an interested party because they have a direct stake or concern in the outcome of the action. This could include individuals, organizations, or businesses that are directly affected or have a vested interest in the government action being protested. The other options mentioned, such as the next lowest bidder, all responsible bidders, or the next low small business bidder, may also have a stake in the outcome, but they may not necessarily protest the government action.

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  • 18. 

    What document provides findings, recommendations, and any additional information necessary to assist the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in determining the merits of a protest?

    • Statement of Facts.

    • Contracting officer’s final decision.

    • Contractor’s Representation & Certifications.

    • Staff Judge Advocate’s legal recommendation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Statement of Facts.
    Explanation
    The document that provides findings, recommendations, and any additional information necessary to assist the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in determining the merits of a protest is the Statement of Facts. This document contains a detailed account of the relevant facts and circumstances surrounding the protest, which helps the GAO in making an informed decision. It presents a comprehensive overview of the case, including evidence, testimonies, and any other pertinent information that can support or refute the protest. The Statement of Facts is crucial in enabling the GAO to assess the validity and strength of the protest and reach a fair and impartial decision.

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  • 19. 

    A contracting officer’s (CO) responsibility includes

    • Developing requirements for customers.

    • Ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment.

    • Providing advice to legal specialists as appropriate.

    • Entering funding documents into the Automated Business Support System (ABSS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of a contracting officer (CO) includes ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment. This means that the CO is responsible for ensuring that contractors are treated fairly and impartially throughout the contracting process. This includes aspects such as evaluating bids and proposals, negotiating contracts, and monitoring contractor performance. By ensuring equitable treatment, the CO helps to maintain the integrity and fairness of the contracting process.

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  • 20. 

    What is a purpose of the customer education program?

    • Develop open lines of communication.

    • Increase quantity of contract requirements.

    • Ensure customers follow the chain of command.

    • Teach how to get started as a government contractor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop open lines of communication.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a customer education program is to develop open lines of communication. This program aims to educate customers about the company's products or services, providing them with the necessary knowledge and understanding to effectively communicate their needs and concerns. By doing so, the company can establish a strong and transparent relationship with its customers, enabling better collaboration and problem-solving. This ultimately leads to improved customer satisfaction and loyalty.

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  • 21. 

    Which indefinite-delivery contract may be used when the government cannot predetermine, above a specified minimum, the precise quantities of supplies or services that will be required during the contract period?

    • Requirements.

    • Definite-quantity.

    • Required-quantity.

    • Indefinite-quantity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Indefinite-quantity.
    Explanation
    The indefinite-quantity contract is used when the government cannot determine the exact quantities of supplies or services that will be needed during the contract period. This type of contract allows for flexibility in meeting the government's needs as they arise, without having to specify a predetermined quantity. It provides the government with the ability to order varying quantities of supplies or services, within a specified range, as the need arises.

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  • 22. 

    What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?

    • Procurement Act.

    • Anti-Deficiency Act.

    • Misappropriations Act.

    • Continuing Appropriations Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-Deficiency Act.
    Explanation
    The Anti-Deficiency Act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available. This act prohibits federal agencies from spending more money than Congress has appropriated for a specific purpose. It aims to ensure fiscal responsibility and prevent overspending by government agencies. Violating the Anti-Deficiency Act can result in penalties, including fines, imprisonment, or removal from office.

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  • 23. 

    What must be documented in the case that the contracting officer (CO) doesn’t give each awardee fair opportunity?

    • The contract.

    • Memo for Record.

    • Justification for exemption.

    • Email to contractor stating why they were excluded.

    Correct Answer
    A. Justification for exemption.
    Explanation
    In the case that the contracting officer (CO) doesn't give each awardee fair opportunity, it is necessary to document the justification for exemption. This documentation is important to provide a valid reason for not providing fair opportunity to all awardees and to ensure transparency and accountability in the contracting process. It helps to justify the decision and provide a record of the circumstances surrounding the exemption.

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  • 24. 

    Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard Form

    • 30.

    • 252.

    • 1442.

    • 1449.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1449.
  • 25. 

    What option does the government have if an architect-engineer’s (A-E) design, drawing, or specifications contain errors or deficiencies?

    • Require contractor make corrections under the original contract at no cost to the government.

    • Require contractor make corrections at an additional cost to the government.

    • Contracts for corrections and charges expense to the original contractor.

    • Make necessary corrections at the government’s own expense.

    Correct Answer
    A. Require contractor make corrections under the original contract at no cost to the government.
    Explanation
    If an architect-engineer's design, drawing, or specifications contain errors or deficiencies, the government has the option to require the contractor to make the necessary corrections under the original contract at no cost to the government. This means that the contractor is responsible for fixing any mistakes or deficiencies in their work without charging the government any additional expenses.

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  • 26. 

    In the principal-agent relationship, which party is the contractor?

    • Agent

    • Principal

    • Third party

    • Agent and third party

    Correct Answer
    A. Third party
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Third party" because in a principal-agent relationship, the contractor is considered as a third party. The principal-agent relationship involves two parties: the principal, who delegates authority to the agent to act on their behalf, and the agent, who carries out tasks and makes decisions on behalf of the principal. The contractor, in this case, is not directly involved in the principal-agent relationship but is hired by the agent to perform specific tasks or provide services to fulfill the principal's objectives.

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  • 27. 

    Estoppel means to prevent

    • The government from acting as an agent for the contractor.

    • Contractors from filing a claim based on apparent authority.

    • A party from taking action which the party is legally entitled to take.

    • A party from asserting a fact or claim inconsistent with a position that party previously took.

    Correct Answer
    A. A party from asserting a fact or claim inconsistent with a position that party previously took.
    Explanation
    Estoppel refers to the legal principle that prevents a party from asserting a fact or claim that is inconsistent with a position they previously took. This means that once a party has taken a certain position or made a certain statement, they cannot later change their position or make a contradictory claim. Estoppel is used to ensure fairness and prevent parties from taking advantage of their own inconsistent statements or actions.

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  • 28. 

    Which of these is an example of rejecting an offer?

    • Allowing the acceptance period to expire.

    • Having no intention of being bound.

    • Proposing a counter offer.

    • Delaying performance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proposing a counter offer.
    Explanation
    Proposing a counter offer is an example of rejecting an offer because it involves suggesting different terms or conditions than the original offer. By proposing a counter offer, the person is indicating that they are not willing to accept the initial offer as it is, but instead, they are suggesting alternative terms that they find more favorable. This shows a rejection of the original offer and a desire to negotiate different terms before reaching an agreement.

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  • 29. 

    The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) is to

    • Promote full and open competition.

    • Promote inefficiencies in government contracting.

    • Ease the process of acquiring goods and services through interservice acquisitions.

    • Reduce administrative costs and the administrative burden on the government and contractors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce administrative costs and the administrative burden on the government and contractors.
    Explanation
    Simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are implemented to reduce administrative costs and burdens on both the government and contractors. By simplifying the acquisition process, unnecessary paperwork and lengthy procedures are minimized, resulting in cost and time savings for both parties involved. This promotes efficiency and streamlines the acquisition of goods and services, ultimately benefiting all stakeholders.

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  • 30. 

    Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as

    • Value engineering contracts.

    • Professional services contracts.

    • Engineering design services contracts.

    • Architect-engineering services contracts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Architect-engineering services contracts.
    Explanation
    Architect-engineering services contracts are contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services. These contracts typically involve a combination of architectural and engineering services and are commonly used in projects that require expertise in both fields.

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  • 31. 

    The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the

    • Government knew or should have known the true facts.

    • Contractor did not know and should not have known the true facts.

    • Government intended that the contractor rely on the acts of the government.

    • Contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government.
    Explanation
    Equitable estoppel is a legal principle that prevents a party from asserting their rights if their actions or representations have led another party to believe in a certain state of affairs and rely on it to their detriment. The elements of equitable estoppel include the government knowing or should have known the true facts, the government intending that the contractor rely on their acts, and the contractor not knowing and should not have known the true facts. However, the element that is not included in equitable estoppel is that the contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government.

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  • 32. 

    An offeror’s withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a

    • Revocation.

    • Termination.

    • Cancellation.

    • Breach of contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. Revocation.
    Explanation
    When an offeror withdraws their offer before it is accepted by the offeree, it is referred to as a revocation. This means that the offer is no longer valid and cannot be accepted by the other party. Termination, cancellation, and breach of contract are not the correct terms in this context as they refer to different situations.

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  • 33. 

    After accrual of a claim, what is the maximum amount of time within which contractor claims must be submitted to the contracting officer (CO), unless contracting parties agreed to a shorter period of time?

    • 30 days.

    • 180 days.

    • 2 years.

    • 6 years.

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 years.
    Explanation
    Contractor claims must be submitted to the contracting officer within 6 years after accrual of a claim, unless the contracting parties agreed to a shorter period of time. This means that the contractor has a maximum of 6 years to submit their claim for consideration and potential resolution.

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  • 34. 

    What appropriation category may be used to fund minor military construction projects under $1,000,000?

    • Research, development, test and evaluation (RDT&E).

    • Operations and maintenance (O&M).

    • Military construction (MILCON).

    • Procurement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations and maintenance (O&M).
    Explanation
    Operations and maintenance (O&M) is the appropriate category to fund minor military construction projects under $1,000,000. This category covers the ongoing activities and expenses required to operate and maintain military facilities and infrastructure. It includes repairs, renovations, and minor construction projects necessary to keep the facilities in good working condition. The other options, such as Research, development, test and evaluation (RDT&E), Military construction (MILCON), and Procurement, are not specifically designated for funding minor construction projects.

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  • 35. 

    What appropriations account code identifies operations and maintenance (O&M) funds?

    • 3300.

    • 3400.

    • 3500.

    • 3600.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3400.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3400. The question is asking for the appropriations account code that identifies operations and maintenance (O&M) funds. The code 3400 is the correct answer because it specifically designates O&M funds. The other options (3300, 3500, and 3600) do not specifically identify O&M funds.

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  • 36. 

    For a contract to be enforceable, its terms must be clear enough to permit

    • The government to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party.

    • Each contractor to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party

    • The courts to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party.

    • Each party to interpret its own duties and obligations to be performed.

    Correct Answer
    A. The courts to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the courts to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party. This is because the courts are responsible for interpreting and enforcing contracts. If the terms of a contract are not clear, the courts may have difficulty in determining the rights and obligations of each party. Therefore, it is essential for the terms of a contract to be clear enough for the courts to interpret them accurately.

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  • 37. 

    Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer’s (CO) final decision on claims exceeding $500,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?

    • Functional area chief.

    • US Court of Federal Claims.

    • Air Force Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate.

    • Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer's final decision on claims exceeding $500,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor. They are specifically tasked with handling commercial law and litigation matters within the Air Force, which includes reviewing and processing claims.

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  • 38. 

    Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent?

    • Advising the commander on enlisted issues.

    • Managing the self-inspection program.

    • Appointing contracting officers (CO).

    • Military career advisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Appointing contracting officers (CO).
    Explanation
    The contracting superintendent is responsible for advising the commander on enlisted issues, managing the self-inspection program, and serving as a military career advisor. However, appointing contracting officers is not a function of the contracting superintendent. This task is typically carried out by higher-ranking officials or individuals in the contracting office who have the authority to appoint COs.

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  • 39. 

    What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement of the contracting parties?

    • Submit a claim under the Default clause.

    • Submit a claim under the Disputes clause.

    • File a claim with the United States Court of Federal Appeals.

    • File a claim with the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Submit a claim under the Disputes clause.
    Explanation
    When a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement, the contractor may choose to submit a claim under the Disputes clause. This clause is typically included in contracts to provide a mechanism for resolving disagreements between the contracting parties. By submitting a claim under this clause, the contractor is initiating a formal process to seek resolution for the dispute. This may involve presenting evidence, attending hearings, and ultimately receiving a decision from a neutral third party, such as a mediator or arbitrator.

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  • 40. 

    Upon learning of an appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA), the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in

    • Air Force Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (AFFARS), Appendix AA.

    • Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A.

    • AFFARS, Appendix CC.

    • DFARS, Appendix C.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A. This is because Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules is found in DFARS, Appendix A, which outlines the procedures for appeals to the ASBCA. AFFARS and its appendices are specific to the Air Force, so it would not be the correct answer in this context. Similarly, AFFARS Appendix CC and DFARS Appendix C are not mentioned as containing the relevant rule for appeals to the ASBCA.

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  • 41. 

    The two most common types of funding documents are the

    • Department of Defense (DD) Form 1588 and DD Form 448.

    • Air Force (AF) Form 9 and AF Form 55.

    • DD Form 448 and AF Form 9.

    • AF Form 988 and AF Form 911.

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 448 and AF Form 9.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 448 and AF Form 9. This is because the question is asking for the two most common types of funding documents, and DD Form 448 and AF Form 9 are the only options that include both a DD Form and an AF Form. The other options either include two DD Forms or two AF Forms, which are not the most common types of funding documents.

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  • 42. 

    How many years are military construction appropriations available for expenditure?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 5.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5.
    Explanation
    Military construction appropriations are available for expenditure for a period of five years. This means that the funds allocated for military construction projects can be used within a five-year timeframe. After this period, any unspent funds may need to be returned or reallocated. This time limit ensures that the funds are used efficiently and effectively for the intended purposes of military construction.

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  • 43. 

    Within the multiple award contract (MAC) the contracting officer (CO) must provide each awardee a fair opportunity to be considered for each order issued exceeding

    • $3,500.

    • $150,000.

    • $750,000.

    • $1 Million.

    Correct Answer
    A. $3,500.
  • 44. 

    If the contracting officer (CO) decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor?

    • With final contract payment.

    • With the next scheduled contract payment.

    • As soon as possible after resolution of any appeal.

    • As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal." This means that once the contracting officer decides that the contractor should be compensated for a claim, the amount will be paid to the contractor without any delay or waiting for any appeal process to be completed. This ensures that the contractor receives the compensation promptly and does not have to go through any additional delays or legal proceedings.

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  • 45. 

    What must the contracting officer (CO) issue to the contractor to show that funds are available?

    • Notice to proceed.

    • Air Force Form 9, Request for Purchase.

    • Notice in writing that funds are available.

    • Verbal message stating funds are available.

    Correct Answer
    A. Notice in writing that funds are available.
    Explanation
    The contracting officer (CO) must issue a notice in writing to the contractor to show that funds are available. This is important to ensure transparency and accountability in the contracting process. It provides a documented proof that the necessary funds have been allocated for the project or contract, allowing the contractor to proceed with confidence. This written notice serves as a formal communication between the CO and the contractor, ensuring that both parties are aware of the availability of funds and can proceed accordingly.

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  • 46. 

    Whose job is it to ensure the local contracting program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and Air Force instructions (AFIs)?

    • Director of business operations (DBO).

    • Contracting squadron commander.

    • Plans and programs flight chief.

    • Contracting superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting squadron commander.
    Explanation
    The contracting squadron commander is responsible for ensuring that the local contracting program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and Air Force instructions (AFIs). As the commander of the contracting squadron, they have the authority and oversight to ensure that the program operates efficiently and in accordance with all legal and regulatory requirements. This includes coordinating with various stakeholders, managing resources, and making strategic decisions to meet customer needs and comply with applicable guidelines.

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  • 47. 

    Supplemental procurement instrument identifier (PIID) are used to identify

    • Follow-on contracts.

    • Corrections to Forms 9.

    • Amendments to solicitations.

    • Standard Form (SF) 44 purchases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Amendments to solicitations.
    Explanation
    Supplemental procurement instrument identifiers (PIIDs) are used to identify amendments to solicitations. When changes or modifications need to be made to a solicitation document, such as adding or revising requirements, extending the deadline, or clarifying terms and conditions, a PIID is assigned to the amendment. This helps in tracking and referencing the specific changes made to the original solicitation.

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  • 48. 

    A characteristic of implied authority is that it is

    • Spelled out in oral or written authority when referring to minor details.

    • Necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority.

    • Created by explicit language either in writing or orally.

    • Defined in specific terms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority.
    Explanation
    Implied authority refers to the authority that is not explicitly stated but is necessary or incidental to carry out the express authority. This means that while the specific details may not be spelled out in oral or written authority, they are still considered within the scope of the authority given. Therefore, the correct answer is "necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority."

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  • 49. 

    What is meant by adequate consideration?

    • Actual worth or a promise or an act is more than the offer has the right to commit.

    • Consideration has enough value to induce the other party to perform.

    • Whether the bargain involves the concepts of benefit and detriment.

    • Consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain.

    Correct Answer
    A. Consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain.
    Explanation
    Adequate consideration refers to the fairness and equality of the exchange in a contract. It means that both parties involved receive something of value that is proportionate to what they are giving up. In other words, there is a fair bargain between the parties where the consideration being exchanged is reasonable and equitable. This ensures that both parties have a mutual understanding and agreement, and that the contract is not one-sided or unfairly biased towards one party.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 08, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Zachary
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