6c051 Edit Code 2 Vol 1

76 Questions | Total Attempts: 372

SettingsSettingsSettings
6c051 Edit Code 2 Vol 1 - Quiz

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government contracting?
    • A. 

      Permissive acts, administrative acts, and legal acts.

    • B. 

      Enabling acts, procedural acts, and permissive acts.

    • C. 

      Permissive acts, administrative acts, and appropriations acts.

    • D. 

      Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts, and appropriations acts.

  • 2. 
    What agency’s objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?
    • A. 

      Small Business Administration (SBA).

    • B. 

      General Services Administration (GSA).

    • C. 

      United States Department of Labor (DOL).

    • D. 

      Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled.

  • 3. 
    In the principal-agent relationship, which party is the contractor?
    • A. 

      Agent

    • B. 

      Principal

    • C. 

      Third party

    • D. 

      Agent and third party

  • 4. 
    Express actual authority is created by
    • A. 

      Explicit language, written or oral, from the principal to the agent.

    • B. 

      Information that flows from the third-party to the agent.

    • C. 

      Information that flows from the agent to the third-party.

    • D. 

      The principal’s tolerance of the agent’s conduct.

  • 5. 
    A characteristic of implied authority is that it is
    • A. 

      Spelled out in oral or written authority when referring to minor details.

    • B. 

      Necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority.

    • C. 

      Created by explicit language either in writing or orally.

    • D. 

      Defined in specific terms.

  • 6. 
    Estoppel means to prevent
    • A. 

      The government from acting as an agent for the contractor.

    • B. 

      Contractors from filing a claim based on apparent authority.

    • C. 

      A party from taking action which the party is legally entitled to take.

    • D. 

      A party from asserting a fact or claim inconsistent with a position that party previously took.

  • 7. 
    The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the
    • A. 

      Government knew or should have known the true facts.

    • B. 

      Contractor did not know and should not have known the true facts.

    • C. 

      Government intended that the contractor rely on the acts of the government.

    • D. 

      Contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government.

  • 8. 
    Which statement about the offeree is correct?
    • A. 

      The offeror may not direct the offer to a class of person or to a public intending that any member of the class of public have the power to accept.

    • B. 

      The intended offeree means in all cases there is one, and only one, specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested.

    • C. 

      The offeror may not direct the offer to more than one person.

    • D. 

      Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.

  • 9. 
    When no time is stated, an offer continues
    • A. 

      Until the expiration of a reasonable time.

    • B. 

      Until acceptance takes place.

    • C. 

      Indefinitely.

    • D. 

      For 30 days.

  • 10. 
    An offeror’s withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a
    • A. 

      Revocation.

    • B. 

      Termination.

    • C. 

      Cancellation.

    • D. 

      Breach of contract.

  • 11. 
    Which of these is an example of rejecting an offer?
    • A. 

      Allowing the acceptance period to expire.

    • B. 

      Having no intention of being bound.

    • C. 

      Proposing a counter offer.

    • D. 

      Delaying performance.

  • 12. 
    If the offeror expresses time, place, and means of communication,
    • A. 

      Only that time, place, or means constitutes acceptance.

    • B. 

      Only the offeree may change the time, place, or means of communication.

    • C. 

      A different time, manner, and other condition for acceptance may be chosen.

    • D. 

      The offeree may communicate orally, even if the offeror communicated in writing.

  • 13. 
    What are the two types of mistakes that the law recognizes as excusing performance?
    • A. 

      Single and mutual.

    • B. 

      Single and bilateral.

    • C. 

      Unilateral with knowledge and bilateral.

    • D. 

      Unilateral without knowledge and bilateral.

  • 14. 
    What is the name given to the exchange of promises?
    • A. 

      Detriment.

    • B. 

      Sufficiency.

    • C. 

      Acceptance.

    • D. 

      Consideration.

  • 15. 
    What is meant by adequate consideration?
    • A. 

      Actual worth or a promise or an act is more than the offer has the right to commit.

    • B. 

      Consideration has enough value to induce the other party to perform.

    • C. 

      Whether the bargain involves the concepts of benefit and detriment.

    • D. 

      Consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain.

  • 16. 
    For a contract to be enforceable, its terms must be clear enough to permit
    • A. 

      The government to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party.

    • B. 

      Each contractor to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party

    • C. 

      The courts to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party.

    • D. 

      Each party to interpret its own duties and obligations to be performed.

  • 17. 
    What is meant by the term “competent” in regards to a contracting party?
    • A. 

      Having an unsound mind.

    • B. 

      Ensuring business is not conducted with minors.

    • C. 

      Having the ability to recognize defective corporations.

    • D. 

      Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.

  • 18. 
    As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is
    • A. 

      Lawful if not challenged with 120 days.

    • B. 

      Unlawful, void, and will not be enforced.

    • C. 

      Lawful only to the party who made the offer.

    • D. 

      Unlawful but may be enforced under some situations.

  • 19. 
    What occurs when someone other than the contracting officer (CO) tries to make an agreement without the authority?
    • A. 

      Unauthorized commitment.

    • B. 

      Unpriced purchase order.

    • C. 

      Contract dispute.

    • D. 

      Ratification.

  • 20. 
    Which situation would preclude a ratification?
    • A. 

      Availability of funds that were available at the time the unauthorized commitment was made.

    • B. 

      Contracting officer (CO) determining the price to be fair and reasonable.

    • C. 

      Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance.

    • D. 

      CO recommending payment and legal counsel concurs.

  • 21. 
    Business clearance for noncompetitive contract actions is the approval to
    • A. 

      Issue the solicitation.

    • B. 

      Begin negotiations.

    • C. 

      Ratify the contract.

    • D. 

      Issue a contract.

  • 22. 
    For competitive acquisitions conducted without discussion, approval by the clearance approval authority is needed for the source selection authority (SSA) to
    • A. 

      Issue the solicitation.

    • B. 

      Make the decision to award.

    • C. 

      Hold pre-construction meeting.

    • D. 

      Request final proposal revisions.

  • 23. 
    A government action may be protested by
    • A. 

      An interested party.

    • B. 

      The next lowest bidder.

    • C. 

      All responsible bidders.

    • D. 

      The next low small business bidder.

  • 24. 
    Protests are made to
    • A. 

      The Comptroller General or the Government Accountability Office (GAO).

    • B. 

      Either the appropriate agency or the Comptroller General.

    • C. 

      The appropriate agency or US Court of Appeals.

    • D. 

      Either the appropriate agency or the GAO.

  • 25. 
    Which Federal Acquisition Regulation Part prescribes actions required upon receipt of protests?
    • A. 

      Part 12

    • B. 

      Part 17

    • C. 

      Part 33

    • D. 

      Part 36