Contract Management Quiz Questions And Answers

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  • 1/69 Questions

    Who is responsible for the accuracy and the submission of individual contract action reports (CAR)?

    • Contract specialist.
    • Contracting officer (CO).
    • Plans and programs flight chief.
    • Head of the contracting activity (HCA).
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in contract management, focusing on roles, reporting, and regulations in federal contracting.

Contract Management Quiz Questions And Answers - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Who decides if a post-award orientation is necessary?

    • Contractor.

    • Contracting Officer.

    • Functional commander.

    • Quality assurance flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting Officer.
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is responsible for determining whether a post-award orientation is necessary. This orientation is typically conducted after a contract has been awarded to ensure that both the contractor and the government agency fully understand their roles, responsibilities, and expectations. The contracting officer is in the best position to make this decision as they have the necessary knowledge and authority to assess the specific contract and determine if an orientation is needed.

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  • 3. 

    Whose responsibility is it to educate and train personnel designated as contracting officer representatives (COR)?

    • Supervisor.

    • Contracting officer (CO).

    • Functional commander.

    • Quality assurance program coordinator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting officer (CO).
    Explanation
    The responsibility to educate and train personnel designated as contracting officer representatives (COR) lies with the contracting officer (CO). The CO is responsible for overseeing and managing the contracting process, which includes training and providing guidance to CORs. CORs serve as the liaison between the CO and the contractor, ensuring that the terms of the contract are met. Therefore, it is essential for the CO to educate and train CORs to effectively carry out their responsibilities.

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  • 4. 

    To adhere to prompt payment guidelines, government payment is due within how many days after government acceptance of supplies delivered or services performed?

    • 10.

    • 20.

    • 30.

    • 40.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30.
    Explanation
    To adhere to prompt payment guidelines, government payment is due within 30 days after government acceptance of supplies delivered or services performed. This means that once the government has accepted the supplies or services, they have 30 days to make the payment.

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  • 5. 

    Identify the Web-based portal system that provides for electronic invoicing, receipt, and acceptance.

    • MyInvoice.

    • Electronic Vendor Pay.

    • Wide Area Work Flow (WAWF).

    • Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wide Area Work Flow (WAWF).
    Explanation
    Wide Area Work Flow (WAWF) is the correct answer because it is a web-based portal system that allows for electronic invoicing, receipt, and acceptance. It is commonly used by the U.S. Department of Defense and other federal agencies to streamline the procurement process and facilitate electronic transactions between vendors and government entities. MyInvoice, Electronic Vendor Pay, and Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG) are not specifically designed for electronic invoicing, receipt, and acceptance, making them incorrect answers.

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  • 6. 

    Identify the situation of an in-scope change.

    • There is a material change between the original contract and the requested change.

    • Work is the same or similar in nature to work already identified in the contract.

    • New work that circumvents the Competition in Contracting Act.

    • A mutual agreement between the contractor and customer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Work is the same or similar in nature to work already identified in the contract.
    Explanation
    The situation of an in-scope change is when the work requested is the same or similar in nature to work already identified in the contract. This means that the requested change does not introduce any new or different work, but rather aligns with the existing scope of work in the contract. This ensures that the change can be easily integrated into the current project without significant disruptions or additional resources.

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  • 7. 

    When the government occupies a building prior to completion of construction without final acceptance, the one-year warranty period begins

    • When final acceptance occurs.

    • At a time negotiated by the parties.

    • The day after final payment is made.

    • At the time the government takes possession.

    Correct Answer
    A. At the time the government takes possession.
    Explanation
    When the government occupies a building prior to completion of construction without final acceptance, the one-year warranty period begins at the time the government takes possession. This means that once the government starts using the building, the warranty period starts, regardless of whether the construction is fully completed or final acceptance has been given. This ensures that any issues or defects that may arise during the government's occupancy are covered by the warranty.

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  • 8. 

    Identify the term that is defined as an emergency involving military forces caused by natural disasters, terrorists, subversives, or required military operations.

    • Contingency.

    • National distress.

    • National emergency.

    • International plan of action.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contingency.
    Explanation
    A contingency is a term used to describe an emergency situation that requires the involvement of military forces. This can be caused by various factors such as natural disasters, terrorist activities, subversive actions, or the need for military operations. In such situations, military forces are called upon to respond and address the crisis at hand.

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  • 9. 

    Which is not required to be accomplished by the contracting officer (CO) to exercise an option?

    • Ensure funds are available.

    • Obtain representations and certifications.

    • Ensure the option fulfills an existing government need.

    • Check the System for Award Management (SAM) exclusions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtain representations and certifications.
    Explanation
    To exercise an option, the contracting officer (CO) needs to ensure that funds are available, ensure the option fulfills an existing government need, and check the System for Award Management (SAM) exclusions. However, obtaining representations and certifications is not required to exercise an option. Representations and certifications are typically obtained during the initial contract award process, and they do not need to be re-obtained when exercising an option.

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  • 10. 

    Which action may a contractor take if an equitable adjustment agreement could not be reached and no release of claims was signed?

    • Nullify the contracting officer’s (CO) final decision under the Disputes clause

    • Nullify the CO’s final decision under the Changes clause.

    • Dispute the CO’s final decision under the Disputes clause.

    • Dispute the CO’s final decision under the Changes clause.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dispute the CO’s final decision under the Disputes clause.
    Explanation
    If an equitable adjustment agreement could not be reached and no release of claims was signed, a contractor may choose to dispute the contracting officer's (CO) final decision under the Disputes clause. The Disputes clause provides a mechanism for resolving disagreements between the contractor and the government, allowing the contractor to challenge the CO's decision and seek a resolution through the dispute resolution process outlined in the contract.

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  • 11. 

    The contracting officer (CO) should exercise the government’s right to terminate a contract for commercial items only when such a termination

    • Can be done at no cost to the government.

    • Can be completed within 14 working days.

    • Is mutually agreeable among both parties.

    • Would be in the best interest of the government.

    Correct Answer
    A. Would be in the best interest of the government.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "would be in the best interest of the government." This means that the contracting officer should only terminate a contract for commercial items if it is determined to be the most advantageous decision for the government. This ensures that the government's interests are protected and that any termination is justified and beneficial.

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  • 12. 

    The Air Force can only authorize a personal service contract for which two types of services?

    • Health care and custodial.

    • Professional and health care.

    • Consultant and grounds maintenance.

    • Health care and grounds maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Professional and health care.
    Explanation
    The Air Force can only authorize a personal service contract for two types of services: professional and health care. This means that the Air Force can only enter into contracts for services that require specialized knowledge or skills, such as legal, engineering, or technical services, as well as health care services. Other types of services, such as custodial, consultant, or grounds maintenance, would not be eligible for personal service contracts according to Air Force regulations.

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  • 13. 

    A termination for convenience of the government

    • Is not a final termination action.

    • May be upgraded to a termination for default.

    • Can be used to protect a contractor’s reputation.

    • Is used if the government is uncertain whether a termination for default or convenience is appropriate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is used if the government is uncertain whether a termination for default or convenience is appropriate.
    Explanation
    A termination for convenience of the government is used if the government is uncertain whether a termination for default or convenience is appropriate. This means that when the government is unsure about the grounds for termination, they can choose to terminate the contract for convenience instead. This allows them to protect the contractor's reputation and avoid any potential legal disputes that may arise from a termination for default. It provides a flexible option for the government to end the contract without placing blame on the contractor.

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  • 14. 

    Which action is taken by the contracting officer (CO) if a contractor does not accept the cancellation of a purchase order or claims that costs were incurred as a result of beginning performance?

    • Issues a show cause notice.

    • Allows the contractor to continue performance.

    • Processes the cancellation as a termination action.

    • Takes no action if the government’s requirement is no longer needed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Processes the cancellation as a termination action.
    Explanation
    If a contractor does not accept the cancellation of a purchase order or claims that costs were incurred as a result of beginning performance, the contracting officer (CO) will process the cancellation as a termination action. This means that the CO will formally end the contract and any further obligations or responsibilities between the government and the contractor will be terminated. This action is taken to ensure that the government is not held liable for any costs incurred by the contractor due to the cancellation of the purchase order.

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  • 15. 

    If a preconstruction conference is to be held, it must be held

    • Prior to the start of work at the work site.

    • Within 10 work days before the start of work.

    • Within 10 work days of the date requested by the requiring activity.

    • Within 10 work days of the date the contract exceeded the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).

    Correct Answer
    A. Prior to the start of work at the work site.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "prior to the start of work at the work site." This means that the preconstruction conference should be held before any work begins at the actual work site. It is important to have this conference beforehand to ensure that all parties involved understand the project requirements, scope, and any specific instructions or conditions related to the work site. Holding the conference prior to the start of work allows for effective planning, coordination, and communication among the project team, minimizing potential issues or delays once the work begins.

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  • 16. 

    Which requires that all work under a construction contract be performed in a skillful manner?

    • Davis-Bacon Act.

    • Service Contract Act.

    • Material and Workmanship clause.

    • Apprentices and trainees standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Material and Workmanship clause.
    Explanation
    The Material and Workmanship clause requires that all work under a construction contract be performed in a skillful manner. This clause ensures that the contractor uses proper materials and employs competent workers to complete the project. It also ensures that the work meets the required quality standards and specifications. The clause holds the contractor responsible for any defects or deficiencies in the materials used or the work performed.

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  • 17. 

    Which contracting vehicle is available to contingency contracting officers (CCO) for purchases when they are away from their purchasing office or at isolated locations?

    • Letter contract.

    • Blanket purchase agreement (BPA).

    • SF 44, Purchase Order-Invoice-Voucher.

    • SF 1449, Solicitation/Contract/Order for Commercial Items.

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 44, Purchase Order-Invoice-Voucher.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SF 44, Purchase Order-Invoice-Voucher. This is the appropriate contracting vehicle for contingency contracting officers (CCO) when they are away from their purchasing office or at isolated locations. The SF 44 allows CCOs to make purchases and track invoices while they are in remote locations, providing them with the necessary documentation for procurement activities.

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  • 18. 

    Which option does the government have if it fails to provide the necessary notifications required by the contract and still desires to exercise an option period?

    • Exercise the government’s unilateral right to the option.

    • Terminate the contract and resolicit as a new requirement.

    • Obtain contractor concurrence and execute the option bilaterally.

    • Issue a change order directing the contractor to continue performance under the current contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtain contractor concurrence and execute the option bilaterally.
    Explanation
    If the government fails to provide the necessary notifications required by the contract and still desires to exercise an option period, it can obtain contractor concurrence and execute the option bilaterally. This means that the government must seek agreement from the contractor and mutually execute the option to continue the contract. This option allows both parties to come to a mutual agreement and proceed with the contract, despite the government's failure to provide the necessary notifications.

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  • 19. 

    Which contract clause provides for assessment of damages against the contractor for late performance?

    • Suspension of Work.

    • Liquidated Damages.

    • Inspection of Construction.

    • Delay of Contractor Performance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Liquidated Damages.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Liquidated Damages. This contract clause allows for the assessment of damages against the contractor if they fail to complete the project within the agreed-upon timeframe. Liquidated damages are predetermined and specified in the contract as a reasonable estimate of the actual damages that the owner would incur due to the delay. This clause ensures that the contractor has an incentive to complete the project on time and compensates the owner for any losses caused by the delay in performance.

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  • 20. 

    Unless otherwise specified, the government typically must provide how many days’ notice of its intent to exercise an option period prior to contract expiration?

    • 7.

    • 30.

    • 45.

    • 60.

    Correct Answer
    A. 60.
    Explanation
    The government typically must provide 60 days' notice of its intent to exercise an option period prior to contract expiration. This allows both parties to have sufficient time to review and negotiate any changes or modifications to the contract before it expires. Providing a longer notice period ensures that there is ample time for discussions and avoids any last-minute rush or confusion.

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  • 21. 

    A contracting officer (CO) might use a post-award letter in lieu of a conference when

    • Requested by the requiring activity.

    • A contractor is new to government contracting.

    • The contract contains complex or special requirements.

    • An incumbent contractor is awarded a new contract and the terms and requirements have minor or no changes.

    Correct Answer
    A. An incumbent contractor is awarded a new contract and the terms and requirements have minor or no changes.
    Explanation
    A post-award letter may be used by a contracting officer instead of a conference when an incumbent contractor is awarded a new contract and there are only minor or no changes to the terms and requirements. This suggests that the contracting officer may opt for a post-award letter as a more efficient and streamlined method of communication, rather than convening a conference.

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  • 22. 

    Which labor standards provision requires all laborers and mechanics employed or working on a construction site be paid unconditionally and not less often than once a week?

    • Service Contract Act.

    • Wage Rate Requirements (Construction).

    • Contract Work Hours Act.

    • Payrolls and basic records.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wage Rate Requirements (Construction).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Wage Rate Requirements (Construction). This provision ensures that all laborers and mechanics working on a construction site are paid unconditionally and at least once a week. It is a labor standard that aims to protect the rights of workers in the construction industry and ensure fair and timely payment for their services.

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  • 23. 

    Identify the type of labor action that is used after receipt of a complaint alleging labor standard violations.

    • Routine inspection.

    • Employee Interviews

    • Special compliance check.

    • Unannounced compliance check.

    Correct Answer
    A. Special compliance check.
    Explanation
    A special compliance check is the type of labor action that is used after receipt of a complaint alleging labor standard violations. This type of check is conducted specifically in response to a complaint and is aimed at ensuring compliance with labor standards. It involves a thorough investigation and assessment of the alleged violations to determine their validity and take appropriate actions if necessary.

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  • 24. 

    Which system is used to collect unit type code (UTC) readiness data?

    • Air expeditionary force (AEF) readiness database.

    • Deployment planning and execution database.

    • Unit deployment management database.

    • Air and space expeditionary force unit type code reporting tool (ART).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air and space expeditionary force unit type code reporting tool (ART).
    Explanation
    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Unit Type Code Reporting Tool (ART) is used to collect Unit Type Code (UTC) readiness data. This tool specifically focuses on the readiness of units within the Air and Space Expeditionary Force, which is responsible for organizing and deploying forces for combat operations. By using ART, commanders and planners can gather and analyze data on the readiness of specific units, ensuring that they are prepared and equipped for their assigned missions.

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  • 25. 

    Who maintains functional control over deployed contingency contracting officers (CCO)?

    • Host nation commander.

    • Receiving (unified) commander.

    • Squadron commander at home station.

    • Major command (MAJCOM) commander of the home station.

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiving (unified) commander.
    Explanation
    The receiving (unified) commander maintains functional control over deployed contingency contracting officers (CCO). This means that the commander is responsible for overseeing and managing the activities and operations of the CCOs in the deployed location. They have the authority to make decisions, provide guidance, and ensure that the CCOs are effectively carrying out their duties in support of the mission. The receiving (unified) commander plays a critical role in ensuring the success of contingency contracting operations in the deployed environment.

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  • 26. 

    Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Subpart 4.8 establishes procedures for maintaining contract files to ensure uniformity from one activity to another. This is important to

    • Resolve all conflicts between the government and the contractor.

    • Ensure the government will not be found at fault in the case of litigation.

    • Provide protection for the contracting officer (CO) by holding the government responsible for contracting actions.

    • Ensure all documents regarding contract actions are kept in conformance with agency regulations for file location and maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure all documents regarding contract actions are kept in conformance with agency regulations for file location and maintenance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to ensure all documents regarding contract actions are kept in conformance with agency regulations for file location and maintenance. This is important because maintaining contract files in a uniform manner ensures consistency and standardization across different activities. It allows for easy access and retrieval of documents, ensures compliance with agency regulations, and facilitates effective contract management and oversight.

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  • 27. 

    When is the contractor’s right to proceed further under the contract terminated?

    • Upon receipt of the show cause notice.

    • After all appeals have been exhausted.

    • Upon receipt of the termination notice.

    • Once the terminating squadron commander’s decision is finalized.

    Correct Answer
    A. Upon receipt of the termination notice.
    Explanation
    The contractor's right to proceed further under the contract is terminated upon receipt of the termination notice. This means that once the contractor receives a notice of termination from the relevant authority, they are no longer allowed to continue with any further actions or obligations outlined in the contract. This termination notice serves as the official notification that the contract is being terminated and the contractor's rights and responsibilities are coming to an end.

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  • 28. 

    The quality assurance surveillance plan (QASP) is applied to all

    • Service contracts.

    • Construction contracts.

    • Performance-based service contracts (PBSC).

    • Service contracts greater than $5 million.

    Correct Answer
    A. Performance-based service contracts (PBSC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is performance-based service contracts (PBSC). The reason for this is that the Quality Assurance Surveillance Plan (QASP) is specifically designed to be applied to PBSCs. PBSCs are contracts that focus on the desired outcomes and performance standards rather than the specific methods or processes used to achieve those outcomes. The QASP helps to ensure that the contractor meets these performance standards and delivers the desired outcomes. Therefore, the QASP is not applied to all service contracts, construction contracts, or service contracts greater than $5 million, but specifically to performance-based service contracts.

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  • 29. 

    What maximum percentage of a progress payment can a contracting officer (CO) retain in accordance with FAR 52.232–5, Payments Under Fixed-Price Construction Contracts?

    • 5.

    • 10.

    • 15.

    • 20.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.
    Explanation
    According to FAR 52.232-5, a contracting officer (CO) can retain a maximum of 10% of a progress payment under fixed-price construction contracts. This means that the CO can withhold up to 10% of the payment until the completion of the project or a specific milestone. This retention serves as a safeguard to ensure that the contractor fulfills all contractual obligations and completes the project satisfactorily. By retaining a portion of the payment, the CO can address any potential issues or deficiencies that may arise during the construction process.

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  • 30. 

    Select the contract action that is not reported to the Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).

    • Modification.

    • Blanket purchase agreements (BPA).

    • Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores.

    • Government purchase card (GPC) purchases exceeding $25,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores.
    Explanation
    Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores are not reported to the Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG). AbilityOne is a federal program that provides employment opportunities for individuals with disabilities through government contracts. These purchases are exempt from reporting requirements because they are made through a specific program outside of the traditional procurement process.

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  • 31. 

    Under the Contract Terms and Conditions–Commercial Items clause, a contractor is required to notify the contracting officer (CO) of an excusable delay

    • Within five work days before the scheduled delivery date.

    • As soon as a meeting can be held with the functional area.

    • After the contractor receives a cure notice for late delivery.

    • As soon as possible after commencement of any excusable delay.

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as possible after commencement of any excusable delay.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "as soon as possible after commencement of any excusable delay." This means that the contractor should notify the contracting officer as soon as they become aware of any delay that is considered excusable under the contract terms and conditions. It emphasizes the importance of prompt communication between the contractor and the contracting officer to ensure transparency and proper handling of any delays that may affect the scheduled delivery date.

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  • 32. 

    Which action is taken to close a contract if the contractor goes bankrupt?

    • Get approval from your immediate supervisor.

    • Coordinate with the office of general counsel.

    • Get approval from your small business specialist.

    • Coordinate with your quality assurance specialist.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coordinate with the office of general counsel.
    Explanation
    When a contractor goes bankrupt, coordinating with the office of general counsel is the appropriate action to take in order to close the contract. The office of general counsel is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance in legal matters, including bankruptcy. They will be able to guide and assist in the necessary steps to close the contract in a bankrupt situation. Getting approval from your immediate supervisor, small business specialist, or quality assurance specialist would not be the appropriate action in this scenario.

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  • 33. 

    The civil engineer (CE) or the CE designee makes a recommendation for approval or disapproval on contractor submittals for equipment, material, and articles incorporated into work by

    • Reviewing and signing the AF Form 3064, Contract Progress Report.

    • Reviewing and initialing the AF Form 3000, Material Approval Submittal.

    • Conducting site visits to ensure quality of all equipment, materials, and articles.

    • Conducting special compliance checks of all equipment, materials, and articles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reviewing and initialing the AF Form 3000, Material Approval Submittal.
    Explanation
    The civil engineer (CE) or the CE designee makes a recommendation for approval or disapproval on contractor submittals for equipment, material, and articles incorporated into work by reviewing and initialing the AF Form 3000, Material Approval Submittal. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of reviewing and approving or disapproving contractor submittals. The CE or the CE designee's review and initials on this form indicate their assessment and decision on whether the submitted materials meet the required standards and specifications for the project.

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  • 34. 

    The appropriate certification level that contracting personnel should have prior to selection as a contingency contracting officer (CCO) is the appropriate level identified in the

    • Deployment operations plan.

    • Major command’s CCO requirements document.

    • Squadron commander’s CCO certification guide.

    • Acquisition professional development program (APDP) for a particular tasking.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acquisition professional development program (APDP) for a particular tasking.
    Explanation
    The appropriate certification level for contracting personnel to become a contingency contracting officer (CCO) is determined by the acquisition professional development program (APDP) for a specific tasking. This means that individuals must complete the necessary training and meet the certification requirements outlined in the APDP before they can be selected as a CCO. The APDP ensures that contracting personnel have the knowledge and skills necessary to effectively perform their duties as a CCO in a contingency environment.

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  • 35. 

    Which type of reporting is used for multiple contract actions accomplished away from the contracting office during contingencies, peacekeeping operations, or other remote locations?

    • Express reporting.

    • Specialized reporting.

    • Multiple contract action reporting.

    • Individual contract action reporting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Express reporting.
    Explanation
    Express reporting is the correct answer because it is used for multiple contract actions that are accomplished away from the contracting office during contingencies, peacekeeping operations, or other remote locations. This type of reporting allows for quick and efficient communication of contract actions in these situations, ensuring that the necessary information is relayed in a timely manner.

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  • 36. 

    Responsibility for performing all inspections and tests as required by the contract, unless otherwise stated, rests with the

    • Customer.

    • Contractor.

    • Base supply

    • Contracting officer representative (COR).

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is contractor. The responsibility for performing all inspections and tests as required by the contract lies with the contractor. This means that it is the contractor's duty to ensure that all necessary inspections and tests are carried out according to the terms of the contract. The customer, base supply, and contracting officer representative (COR) do not have this specific responsibility as stated in the question.

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  • 37. 

    Primary responsibility for collecting government contract debts resides with the

    • Payment office.

    • Contracting officer (CO).

    • Defense Accounting Agency.

    • Defense Contract Audit Agency (DCAA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Payment office.
    Explanation
    The primary responsibility for collecting government contract debts resides with the payment office. This is because the payment office is responsible for processing payments and managing the financial transactions related to government contracts. They are in charge of ensuring that contractors are paid on time and accurately, and they also have the authority to collect any outstanding debts owed by contractors. The contracting officer (CO) is responsible for awarding and administering contracts, but their role does not typically include debt collection. The Defense Accounting Agency and Defense Contract Audit Agency may have some involvement in the process, but the payment office has the primary responsibility.

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  • 38. 

    How many days is a contractor given to correct a cure notice warning from the time it is received?

    • 5.

    • 10.

    • 15.

    • 20.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.
    Explanation
    A contractor is given 10 days to correct a cure notice warning from the time it is received. This means that once the contractor receives the notice, they have a period of 10 days to address and rectify the issues or deficiencies mentioned in the notice. It is important for the contractor to take prompt action within this timeframe to avoid further consequences or potential termination of the contract.

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  • 39. 

    Firm-fixed-price contracts, other than those using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP), should be closed within

    • 6 months after the date of final payment.

    • 6 months after the date the contracting officer (CO) receives evidence of physical completion.

    • 8 months after the date of final payment.

    • 8 months after the date the CO receives evidence of physical completion.

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 months after the date the contracting officer (CO) receives evidence of physical completion.
  • 40. 

    Blanket purchase agreements (BPA) are considered complete

    • Upon acceptance.

    • Upon final payment.

    • When the purchases under it equal its total dollar limitation.

    • When the total purchases under it exceed the threshold authorizing the use of simplified acquisition.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the purchases under it equal its total dollar limitation.
    Explanation
    Blanket purchase agreements (BPA) are considered complete when the purchases made under the agreement reach the total dollar limitation set for that agreement. This means that once the purchases equal or exceed the agreed-upon dollar amount, the BPA is considered fulfilled or complete.

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  • 41. 

    Identify the subset that contingency contracting primarily falls under in operational contracting support (OCS).

    • Contract support integration.

    • Operational environment.

    • Contractor management.

    • Contracting support.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting support.
    Explanation
    Contingency contracting primarily falls under the subset of contracting support in operational contracting support (OCS). This means that contingency contracting is a part of the overall contracting support activities in OCS. It involves the planning, negotiation, and administration of contracts to support operational requirements in contingency situations. This subset focuses specifically on the contracting aspects of providing support in contingency operations.

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  • 42. 

    A contractor is liable to the government for all rights and remedies provided by law if the contract is

    • Annulled.

    • Cancelled.

    • Terminated for cause.

    • Terminated for the government’s convenience.

    Correct Answer
    A. Terminated for cause.
    Explanation
    If a contract is terminated for cause, it means that one party has failed to fulfill their obligations or has breached the terms of the contract. In this scenario, the contractor is held responsible for their actions or inactions, and as a result, they are liable to the government for any legal rights and remedies that are provided by the law. This implies that the contractor may have to compensate the government for any damages or losses incurred due to their termination for cause.

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  • 43. 

    The blanket purchase agreement (BPA) ordering officer’s responsibilities include all of the following except

    • Competing purchases.

    • Maintaining ethical standards of conduct.

    • Delegating authority to authorized users within their unit.

    • Ensuring orders are placed for only those items on the approved price list.

    Correct Answer
    A. Delegating authority to authorized users within their unit.
    Explanation
    The BPA ordering officer's responsibilities include competing purchases, maintaining ethical standards of conduct, and ensuring orders are placed for only those items on the approved price list. However, they are not responsible for delegating authority to authorized users within their unit. This responsibility would typically fall under the purview of a higher-level manager or supervisor.

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  • 44. 

    The government acceptance of noncomplex commercial items is prescribed in Federal Acquisition Regulation clause

    • 52.212–1, Instructions to Offerors—Commercial Items.

    • 52.212–2, Evaluation—Commercial Items.

    • 52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.

    • 52.212–5, Contract Terms and Conditions Required to Implement Statutes or Executive Orders—Commercial Items.

    Correct Answer
    A. 52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 52.212-4, Contract Terms and Conditions-Commercial Items. This Federal Acquisition Regulation clause specifically addresses the contract terms and conditions for commercial items. It outlines the standard terms and conditions that apply to contracts for the acquisition of commercial items, including provisions related to inspection, acceptance, warranties, and payment. This clause is relevant to the government's acceptance of noncomplex commercial items, as it provides the necessary contractual framework for such acquisitions.

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  • 45. 

    Ordinarily, which option is given to a contractor when a notice of rejection for nonconformance is not issued in a timely manner and government acceptance is implied as a matter of law?

    • Subtract cost of nonconforming supplies from invoice.

    • Request government return of nonconforming supplies to vendor.

    • Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies at a discount to the government.

    • Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies when they can be provided within the required delivery date.

    Correct Answer
    A. Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies when they can be provided within the required delivery date.
    Explanation
    When a notice of rejection for nonconformance is not issued in a timely manner and government acceptance is implied as a matter of law, the contractor is given the option to correct or replace any nonconforming supplies when they can be provided within the required delivery date. This means that the contractor has the responsibility to rectify any issues with the supplies and ensure that they meet the required standards before delivering them to the government. This option allows the contractor to fulfill their contractual obligations and ensure that the government receives conforming supplies within the specified timeframe.

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  • 46. 

    Which action must be taken prior to serving a contractor with a preliminary notice of the government’s intent to exercise an option?

    • Validate the need.

    • Ensure funds are available.

    • Make a determination of fair price and reasonableness.

    • Synopsize the government’s intent to exercise the option.

    Correct Answer
    A. Validate the need.
    Explanation
    Before serving a contractor with a preliminary notice of the government's intent to exercise an option, it is necessary to validate the need. This means confirming that there is a legitimate requirement for the option to be exercised. This step ensures that the government is not unnecessarily committing to additional work or expenses. It helps to assess whether the option aligns with the project's objectives and requirements. By validating the need, the government can make informed decisions and avoid any potential wastage of resources.

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  • 47. 

    A total-cost basis settlement may be used for terminations for convenience when pre-approved by the

    • Contracting officer (CO).

    • Terminating squadron commander.

    • Terminating contracting flight chief.

    • Terminating contracting officer (TCO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Terminating contracting officer (TCO).
    Explanation
    A total-cost basis settlement may be used for terminations for convenience when pre-approved by the terminating contracting officer (TCO). This means that the TCO has the authority to approve such settlements. The terminating squadron commander and terminating contracting flight chief do not have the same level of authority as the TCO in approving total-cost basis settlements. Therefore, the correct answer is the terminating contracting officer (TCO).

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  • 48. 

    Which organization needs to be notified when a contract containing classified material is complete and ready to be closed?

    • Defense Security Service (DSS).

    • Defense Contract Audit Agency (DCAA).

    • Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA).

    • Defense Finance and Accounting Services (DFAS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Security Service (DSS).
    Explanation
    When a contract containing classified material is complete and ready to be closed, the organization that needs to be notified is the Defense Security Service (DSS). The DSS is responsible for ensuring the protection of classified information and safeguarding national security. They oversee the security aspects of defense contracts and need to be informed when such contracts are completed to ensure proper handling and disposal of classified material.

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  • 49. 

    A contract’s progress report

    • Provides status of work elements completed.

    • Is only required to be signed by the contracting officer (CO).

    • Is optional for contracts under the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).

    • Is required to be signed by the CO and the contractor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provides status of work elements completed.
    Explanation
    The progress report of a contract provides information about the status of work elements that have been completed. This report helps to track the progress of the contract and ensures that the work is being done according to the agreed-upon terms. It allows both the contracting officer and the contractor to stay informed about the completion of different work elements and helps in monitoring the overall progress of the contract.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 7, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 07, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 09, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Zachary
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