6c051 - Volume 4
Having a good contractor in the air force ensures that any contract prepared or entered into is beneficial to them. The contractor and prepares and negotiates bids. Are you well qualified for that job as a contractor in the air force? Take the quiz below and let the results show you.
- 1.
Which system is used to report contract actions?
- A.
Wide Area Workflow (WAWF).
- B.
Central Contractor Registration (CCR).
- C.
Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).
- D.
Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS).
Correct Answer
C. Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).Explanation
FPDS-NG is the system used to report contract actions. It is a government-wide database that collects and provides access to information on federal procurement contracts. It is used to track and report on various contract actions such as awards, modifications, and terminations. This system helps to ensure transparency and accountability in the federal procurement process by providing a centralized platform for reporting and analyzing contract data.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which has responsibility for the accuracy and the submission of individual contract action reports?
- A.
Head of the Contracting Activity (HCA).
- B.
Plans and programs flight.
- C.
Contracting officer.
- D.
Contract specialist.
Correct Answer
C. Contracting officer.Explanation
The contracting officer has the responsibility for the accuracy and submission of individual contract action reports. They are responsible for ensuring that all contract actions are accurately documented and reported, including the submission of individual contract action reports. The contracting officer plays a crucial role in the contract management process and is accountable for maintaining the accuracy and completeness of contract records and reports.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which contract action is not reportable?
- A.
Modifications.
- B.
Blanket purchase agreement (BPA) calls.
- C.
Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores.
- D.
Government purchase card (GPC) purchases exceeding $25,000.
Correct Answer
C. Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores.Explanation
Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores are not reportable because AbilityOne is a federal program that provides employment opportunities for people who are blind or have significant disabilities. These purchases support the program's mission and are exempt from reporting requirements.Rate this question:
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- 4.
After execution by all parties, copies of contracts or modifications must be distributed within
- A.
3 days.
- B.
7 days.
- C.
10 days.
- D.
14 days.
Correct Answer
C. 10 days.Explanation
After execution by all parties, copies of contracts or modifications must be distributed within 10 days. This means that once all parties involved in the contract have signed it, they have a maximum of 10 days to distribute copies of the contract or any modifications to all relevant parties. This ensures that everyone involved has access to the same information and can refer to the contract if needed.Rate this question:
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- 5.
In-process inspection of commercial items by the government
- A.
Is forbidden
- B.
Is required above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT)
- C.
Must be conducted in a manner consistent with commercial practice.
- D.
Must be conducted according to the contractor’s quality assurance plan
Correct Answer
C. Must be conducted in a manner consistent with commercial practice.Explanation
In-process inspection of commercial items by the government must be conducted in a manner consistent with commercial practice. This means that the government should follow the same inspection procedures and standards that are used by the commercial industry for similar items. This ensures that the inspection is fair and consistent, and that the government is not imposing additional requirements or burdens on the contractor beyond what is considered standard practice in the commercial sector.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Acceptance may not take place
- A.
After delivery
- B.
Before delivery
- C.
At the time of delivery.
- D.
After payment is made.
Correct Answer
D. After payment is made.Explanation
Acceptance refers to the act of the buyer formally accepting the goods or services provided by the seller. In this context, the most logical time for acceptance to take place is after payment is made. This is because payment is typically the final step in a transaction, indicating that the buyer is satisfied with the goods or services and is willing to accept them. Therefore, it is reasonable to expect acceptance to occur after payment is made.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Acceptance of noncomplex commercial items is prescribed in
- A.
52.212–1, Instructions to Offerors—Commercial Items.
- B.
52.212–2, Evaluation—Commercial Items.
- C.
52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.
- D.
52.212–5, Contract Terms and Conditions Required to Implement Statutes or Executive Orders—Commercial Items.
Correct Answer
C. 52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items. -
- 8.
Ordinarily, what option is given to the contractor because of a notice of rejection for nonconformance?
- A.
Subtract cost of nonconforming supplies from invoice.
- B.
Request government return of nonconforming supplies to vendor.
- C.
Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies at a discount to the government.
- D.
Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies at no additional cost to the government.
Correct Answer
D. Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies at no additional cost to the government.Explanation
When a notice of rejection for nonconformance is given, the contractor is typically required to correct or replace any nonconforming supplies at no additional cost to the government. This means that the contractor must fix or replace the supplies that did not meet the required specifications without charging the government any extra fees. This ensures that the government receives the correct and conforming supplies without incurring any additional expenses.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When delivery is late on a commodities contract, the government may take any of the actions except
- A.
Invoke liquidated damages in the agreed amount until delivery is made or the delivery schedule is renegotiated (if liquidated damages are included in the contract).
- B.
Enter into negotiations with the contractor to extend the delivery date, provided the government receives appropriate consideration for doing so.
- C.
Terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 49 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR).
- D.
Terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.
Correct Answer
D. Terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.Explanation
When delivery is late on a commodities contract, the government may take any of the actions mentioned, except for terminating the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR. This means that the government cannot terminate the contract based on default according to Part 12 of the FAR. The other options, such as invoking liquidated damages, renegotiating the delivery schedule, or terminating the contract for default in accordance with Part 49 of the FAR, are still possible actions that the government can take in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which Web-based system provides for electronic invoicing, receipt, and acceptance?
- A.
MyInvoice.
- B.
DFAS Vendor Pay.
- C.
Wide Area Workflow (WAWF).
- D.
Automated Business Services System (ABSS).
Correct Answer
C. Wide Area Workflow (WAWF).Explanation
Wide Area Workflow (WAWF) is the correct answer because it is a web-based system that allows for electronic invoicing, receipt, and acceptance. It is used by the Department of Defense and other federal agencies to streamline the procurement process and facilitate electronic transactions between vendors and the government. WAWF helps to automate the submission, processing, and acceptance of invoices, making it an efficient and convenient system for managing financial transactions.Rate this question:
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- 11.
To adhere to prompt payment guidelines, payment is due within how many days after government acceptance of supplies?
- A.
7 days.
- B.
10 days.
- C.
30 days.
- D.
45 days
Correct Answer
C. 30 days.Explanation
According to the prompt payment guidelines, payment is due within 30 days after the government acceptance of supplies. This means that the government must make the payment within this timeframe to adhere to the guidelines.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Records of contractor performance are managed in the
- A.
Central Contractor Registration (CCR) database.
- B.
Contractor Performance Evaluation System (CPES).
- C.
Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS).
- D.
Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).
Correct Answer
C. Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS).Explanation
The correct answer is the Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS). This system is responsible for managing records of contractor performance. The other options mentioned, such as the Central Contractor Registration (CCR) database, Contractor Performance Evaluation System (CPES), and Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG), are not specifically designed for managing contractor performance records.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which types of copies of contractual instruments can become part of the official contract file?
- A.
Original, authenticated copies, or conformed copies.
- B.
Original, authenticated copies, and registered copies.
- C.
Original, authenticated copies, and certified copies.
- D.
Original, certified copies, and conformed copies.
Correct Answer
A. Original, authenticated copies, or conformed copies.Explanation
Original, authenticated copies or conformed copies can become part of the official contract file. This means that the original document, as well as copies that have been verified and confirmed to be true and accurate, can be included in the official contract file. Registered copies and certified copies are not mentioned as options, so they are not considered part of the official contract file.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which action must be taken prior to providing a contractor with preliminary notice of the government’s intent to exercise an option?
- A.
Validate the requirement.
- B.
Ensure funds are available.
- C.
Make a determination of price fair and reasonableness.
- D.
Synopsize the government’s intent to exercise the option.
Correct Answer
A. Validate the requirement.Explanation
Prior to providing a contractor with preliminary notice of the government's intent to exercise an option, it is necessary to validate the requirement. This means ensuring that the need for the option has been properly assessed and confirmed, and that it aligns with the project or contract objectives. By validating the requirement, the government can ensure that exercising the option is necessary and appropriate. This step helps to avoid unnecessary costs or complications that may arise from exercising an option that is not truly needed.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Unless otherwise specified, the government typically must provide how many days notice of its intent to exercise an option period?
- A.
7.
- B.
30.
- C.
45.
- D.
60.
Correct Answer
D. 60.Explanation
The government typically must provide 60 days notice of its intent to exercise an option period. This means that if the government wants to extend a contract or exercise an option to continue a contract, they must notify the other party at least 60 days in advance. This allows the other party to prepare and make any necessary arrangements for the extended period of the contract.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What option does the government have if it fails to provide the necessary notifications required by the contract and still desires to exercise an option period?
- A.
Exercise the government’s unilateral right to the option.
- B.
Terminate the contract and resolicit as a new requirement.
- C.
Issue a bilateral modification and obtain contractor concurrence.
- D.
Issue a change order directing the contractor to continue performance under the current contract
Correct Answer
C. Issue a bilateral modification and obtain contractor concurrence.Explanation
If the government fails to provide the necessary notifications required by the contract but still wants to exercise an option period, it can issue a bilateral modification and obtain contractor concurrence. This means that the government and the contractor will come to an agreement to modify the contract in order to exercise the option period, even though the necessary notifications were not provided. This allows both parties to continue the contract and fulfill their obligations.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which is not required to be accomplished by the contracting officer (CO) to exercise an option?
- A.
Ensure funds are available.
- B.
Satisfy competition requirements.
- C.
Check the Excluded Parties List System.
- D.
Obtain Representations and Certifications.
Correct Answer
D. Obtain Representations and Certifications.Explanation
To exercise an option, the contracting officer (CO) is not required to obtain representations and certifications. Representations and certifications are typically obtained during the initial contract award process, and they do not need to be re-obtained when exercising an option. The other options listed, such as ensuring funds are available, satisfying competition requirements, and checking the Excluded Parties List System, are all necessary steps that the CO must take before exercising an option.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The authority to make changes to an existing contract is not extended to
- A.
Modifications executed by contracting officers in accordance with contract scope
- B.
Contract changes made by a contracting officer at the request of the contractor.
- C.
Qualified contracting officer representatives to make constructive changes to contracts.
- D.
Modifications to contracts within the limitations specified on the contracting officer’s warrant.
Correct Answer
C. Qualified contracting officer representatives to make constructive changes to contracts.Explanation
The correct answer is "qualified contracting officer representatives to make constructive changes to contracts." This means that the authority to make changes to an existing contract is given to qualified contracting officer representatives who can make constructive changes to the contracts. This authority is not extended to modifications executed by contracting officers in accordance with contract scope, contract changes made by a contracting officer at the request of the contractor, or modifications to contracts within the limitations specified on the contracting officer's warrant.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A modification in which all adjustments regarding cost, time, scope, and other consideration have been decided and required no further modification to complete contract change is known as
- A.
A change order.
- B.
A unilateral modification
- C.
An administrative change
- D.
A definitized modification
Correct Answer
D. A definitized modificationExplanation
A definitized modification refers to a modification in a contract where all adjustments related to cost, time, scope, and other considerations have been finalized and no further changes are required to complete the contract change. This means that all the necessary details and requirements for the modification have been decided and agreed upon, making it a definitive and conclusive change to the contract.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What modification authority must be cited when making administrative changes to a contract using the SF 30?
- A.
52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.
- B.
52.243–4, Changes.
- C.
52.243–7, Notification of Changes
- D.
No further authority must be cited.
Correct Answer
D. No further authority must be cited.Explanation
When making administrative changes to a contract using the SF 30, no further authority needs to be cited. This means that there is no specific modification authority that needs to be referenced for these types of changes. The SF 30 form itself serves as the authority for making administrative changes to the contract.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What modification authority must be used when no specific clause can be cited?
- A.
Administrative.
- B.
Changes clause.
- C.
Mutual Agreement of the Parties.
- D.
Other than Full and Open Competition.
Correct Answer
C. Mutual Agreement of the Parties.Explanation
When no specific clause can be cited, the modification authority that must be used is the "Mutual Agreement of the Parties." This means that both parties involved in the agreement need to mutually agree on the modifications that need to be made, without relying on any specific clause or regulation. This allows for flexibility and customization in modifying the agreement to meet the specific needs and circumstances of the parties involved.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Unilateral modifications may be used for all except
- A.
Issue change orders.
- B.
Issue termination notices.
- C.
Make administrative changes.
- D.
Make changes authorized by the Changes clause.
Correct Answer
D. Make changes authorized by the Changes clause.Explanation
Unilateral modifications refer to changes made by one party without the consent or agreement of the other party. They are typically used for various purposes such as issuing change orders, termination notices, and making administrative changes. However, making changes authorized by the Changes clause does not fall under unilateral modifications. The Changes clause allows both parties to negotiate and agree upon changes to the contract, rather than one party making changes without the other's consent. Therefore, making changes authorized by the Changes clause is not a unilateral modification.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When you are processing administrative changes, all may be processed as administrative changes except
- A.
Correcting a fund cite.
- B.
Updating the payment office.
- C.
Correcting errors in unit price.
- D.
Correcting price extension errors.
Correct Answer
C. Correcting errors in unit price.Explanation
When processing administrative changes, all types of changes can typically be processed except for correcting errors in unit price. This suggests that errors in unit price require a different process or procedure to correct, separate from the general administrative changes.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When you are processing an administrative change, which is required?
- A.
Verify funds are available.
- B.
Obtain contractor signature.
- C.
Check block 13B of the SF 30.
- D.
Cite the appropriate modification authority.
Correct Answer
C. Check block 13B of the SF 30.Explanation
When processing an administrative change, it is necessary to check block 13B of the SF 30. This is important because block 13B contains information about the modification authority for the change. By checking this block, you can ensure that the change is being made in accordance with the appropriate authority and that all necessary steps are being taken.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A change order
- A.
May be issued unilaterally.
- B.
Must be signed by the contractor.
- C.
Cites 52.212–4 as the authority.
- D.
Are used to make changes outside the scope of contracts.
Correct Answer
A. May be issued unilaterally.Explanation
A change order may be issued unilaterally means that it can be implemented without the consent or agreement of the contractor. This implies that the party responsible for initiating the change order has the authority to do so without requiring the contractor's approval. This flexibility allows for adjustments or modifications to be made to the original contract without causing delays or disruptions in the project.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Changes authorized in fixed-price contracts for supplies include all except
- A.
Place of delivery.
- B.
Methods of shipment or packing.
- C.
Drawings, designs, or specifications.
- D.
Directed acceleration in performance of work.
Correct Answer
D. Directed acceleration in performance of work.Explanation
In fixed-price contracts for supplies, changes that are authorized typically include modifications to the place of delivery, methods of shipment or packing, and drawings, designs, or specifications. However, directed acceleration in performance of work is not typically authorized as a change in fixed-price contracts for supplies.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The contracting officer has grounds to terminate a contractor for default when
- A.
There are excusable delays resulting in delinquent performance.
- B.
There is an actual failure or fails to progress to perform contractual obligations
- C.
There is repeated failure to follow the directions given by a government inspector
- D.
The contractor’s performance has not commenced and the requirement has been canceled
Correct Answer
B. There is an actual failure or fails to progress to perform contractual obligationsExplanation
When a contractor fails to meet their contractual obligations or shows a lack of progress in performing their duties, the contracting officer can terminate the contractor for default. This means that the contractor has not fulfilled their responsibilities as outlined in the contract, leading to a breach of agreement. This could include failing to meet deadlines, not delivering the required goods or services, or not meeting quality standards. The contracting officer has the right to terminate the contract and potentially seek legal action or find a replacement contractor.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The contracting officer shall issue a no-cost settlement instead of a termination notice when
- A.
There are outstanding payments
- B.
Government property is furnished
- C.
Available funds have been exceeded
- D.
It is known that the contractor will accept one
Correct Answer
D. It is known that the contractor will accept oneExplanation
When the contracting officer knows that the contractor will accept a no-cost settlement, they will issue it instead of a termination notice. This suggests that the contractor and the contracting officer have already discussed and agreed upon the terms of the settlement, making it unnecessary to go through the termination process.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A notice for termination can be rescinded if it is determined that the items had been completed or shipped before the contractor’s receipt of notice by
- A.
Modification of the notice
- B.
Amendment of the notice
- C.
Converting the termination notice to a cure notice
- D.
Converting the termination notice to a show cause notice
Correct Answer
B. Amendment of the noticeExplanation
If it is determined that the items had been completed or shipped before the contractor's receipt of notice, the notice for termination can be rescinded by amending the notice. This means that the original notice is modified or changed to reflect the new information that the items were already completed or shipped. By amending the notice, the termination can be reversed and the contractor can continue their work.Rate this question:
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- 30.
How can a termination for convenience of a fixed-price contract be settled?
- A.
Inventory basis or total-cost basis.
- B.
Inventory basis or adjusted-cost basis.
- C.
Total-price basis or total-cost basis.
- D.
Total-price basis or adjusted-cost basis
Correct Answer
A. Inventory basis or total-cost basis.Explanation
A termination for convenience of a fixed-price contract can be settled using either the inventory basis or the total-cost basis. The inventory basis refers to settling based on the value of the inventory that has been delivered or produced up until the termination date. The total-cost basis, on the other hand, involves settling based on the total costs incurred by the contractor up until the termination date, including both direct and indirect costs. Both methods provide options for determining the appropriate settlement amount in a termination for convenience situation.Rate this question:
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- 31.
If a contractor’s failure to perform is due to actions of a subcontractor, will the contractor remain liable for excess costs of repurchase?
- A.
Yes, if the subcontractor’s failure was beyond his control
- B.
No. Prime contractors are protected from liability by the Subcontract Protection clause
- C.
No. Contractor can only be held accountable for costs as defined in the contract; the subcontractor will be charged any excess costs.
- D.
Yes, if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule.
Correct Answer
D. Yes, if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule.Explanation
If a contractor's failure to perform is due to actions of a subcontractor, the contractor will remain liable for excess costs of repurchase if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule. In this scenario, the contractor had the opportunity to mitigate the failure by obtaining the necessary supplies or services from alternative sources within the given timeframe. Therefore, the contractor cannot avoid liability for the excess costs incurred due to the subcontractor's actions.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which termination consideration is not considered when determining whether to terminate a contract for default?
- A.
Value of contractor assets
- B.
Specific excuses for the failure
- C.
Urgency of the need for the supplies
- D.
Ability of the contractor to liquidate guaranteed loans.
Correct Answer
A. Value of contractor assetsExplanation
The value of contractor assets is not considered when determining whether to terminate a contract for default. This means that the decision to terminate the contract is not based on the financial worth or assets of the contractor. Other factors, such as specific excuses for the failure, urgency of the need for the supplies, and the ability of the contractor to liquidate guaranteed loans, may be taken into consideration.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A cure notice is issued when
- A.
A contractor is debarred by another government agency.
- B.
Contract performance is affected by new base entry procedures
- C.
A specific condition exists that endangers contract performance
- D.
The contractor fails to submit monthly progress payment requests
Correct Answer
C. A specific condition exists that endangers contract performanceExplanation
A cure notice is issued when there is a specific condition that endangers contract performance. This means that there is a situation or circumstance that poses a risk or threat to the successful execution of the contract. The cure notice serves as a formal notification to the contractor, informing them of the issue and giving them an opportunity to rectify the situation and ensure that contract performance is not compromised.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What amount of time is the contractor normally given to correct a failure
- A.
Ten days from the receipt of the cure notice.
- B.
One week from the receipt of the cure notice
- C.
Ten days from the date of issue of the cure notice
- D.
One week from the date of issue of the cure notice
Correct Answer
A. Ten days from the receipt of the cure notice.Explanation
The correct answer is "Ten days from the receipt of the cure notice." This means that the contractor has ten days to correct a failure starting from the day they receive the cure notice. The cure notice serves as a notification to the contractor that they have failed to meet the requirements of the contract and gives them a specified amount of time to rectify the issue. In this case, the contractor has ten days to address the failure once they have received the notice.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What actions will the contracting officer take if the contractor fails to respond to a show cause notice?
- A.
Proceed under the premise that no valid explanation exists
- B.
Send a follow-up letter by registered mail, return receipt requested
- C.
Proceed with the termination for the convenience of the government.
- D.
Issue the cure notice giving the contractor an additional 10 days to cure the failure.
Correct Answer
A. Proceed under the premise that no valid explanation existsExplanation
If the contractor fails to respond to a show cause notice, the contracting officer will proceed under the assumption that there is no valid explanation for the contractor's actions. This means that the contracting officer will continue with whatever actions or consequences were outlined in the show cause notice, such as termination for the convenience of the government or issuing a cure notice with an additional 10 days to rectify the failure.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The show cause notice
- A.
Does not require a formal response by the contractor
- B.
May be used to extend the contract performance period
- C.
Requires the contractor to submit a revised progress schedule
- D.
Is used to notify the contractor of the possibility of termination
Correct Answer
D. Is used to notify the contractor of the possibility of terminationExplanation
The show cause notice is used to notify the contractor of the possibility of termination. This means that when a show cause notice is issued, it serves as a warning to the contractor that their contract may be terminated if they do not address the issues or concerns raised in the notice. It is a formal communication that alerts the contractor to the potential consequences they may face if they fail to rectify the situation.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When is the contractor’s right to proceed further under the contract terminated?
- A.
Upon receipt of the show cause notice.
- B.
After all appeals have been exhausted.
- C.
Upon receipt of the notice of termination.
- D.
Once the contracting officer’s decision is finalized.
Correct Answer
C. Upon receipt of the notice of termination.Explanation
The contractor's right to proceed further under the contract is terminated upon receipt of the notice of termination. This means that once the contractor receives the notice stating that the contract has been terminated, they no longer have the right to continue with any further actions or work related to the contract. This could be due to various reasons such as a breach of contract or failure to meet the terms and conditions.Rate this question:
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- 38.
When supplies or services are still required after termination for default, the contracting officer should
- A.
Forward the requirement to the contractor so a contract can be issued by the contractor.
- B.
Consolidate the requirement with the next purchase requisition for the same or similar item.
- C.
Issue a letter to the contractor specifying what is still required and when delivery is required.
- D.
Repurchase the same or similar supplies or services against the contractor’s account as soon as possible.
Correct Answer
D. Repurchase the same or similar supplies or services against the contractor’s account as soon as possible.Explanation
When supplies or services are still required after termination for default, the contracting officer should repurchase the same or similar supplies or services against the contractor's account as soon as possible. This means that instead of issuing a new contract, the contracting officer will use the contractor's existing account to make the repurchase. This ensures that the required supplies or services are obtained promptly and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The contracting officer should exercise the government’s right to terminate a contract for commercial items only when such a termination
- A.
Can be done at no cost to the government.
- B.
Can be completed within 14 working days.
- C.
If it is mutually agreeable among the parties.
- D.
Would be in the best interest of the government.
Correct Answer
D. Would be in the best interest of the government.Explanation
The correct answer is "would be in the best interest of the government." This means that the contracting officer should terminate a contract for commercial items only if it is determined that doing so would be beneficial for the government. This decision should be based on what is most advantageous for the government in terms of cost, performance, or other factors.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When termination is for the government’s convenience, what may a contractor use to demonstrate charges resulting from the termination for which the contractor is entitled to be paid?
- A.
Government furnished payroll and termination forms
- B.
An affidavit of charges signed by the contractor’s accountant
- C.
Records from the contractor’s standard record keeping system
- D.
Paid invoices from suppliers and certified payrolls from subcontractors
Correct Answer
C. Records from the contractor’s standard record keeping systemExplanation
Contractors may use records from their standard record keeping system to demonstrate charges resulting from a termination for the government's convenience. These records would provide evidence of the expenses and costs incurred by the contractor during the termination process, which they are entitled to be paid for. This could include documentation such as receipts, invoices, financial statements, and any other relevant records kept by the contractor.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Under the Contract Terms and Conditions–Commercial Items clause, the contractor is required to notify the contracting officer of an excusable delay
- A.
Within five work days before the scheduled delivery date.
- B.
As soon as a meeting can be held with the functional area.
- C.
After the contractor receives a cure notice for late delivery
- D.
As soon as possible after commencement of an excusable delay.
Correct Answer
D. As soon as possible after commencement of an excusable delay.Explanation
The correct answer is "as soon as possible after commencement of an excusable delay" because under the Contract Terms and Conditions–Commercial Items clause, the contractor is required to notify the contracting officer of any excusable delay as soon as possible after it begins. This ensures that the contracting officer is promptly informed of any issues that may affect the scheduled delivery date.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A contractor has notified the contracting officer of the intent not to accept a unilateral purchase order. In this situation, the contracting officer must
- A.
Issue a cure notice to the contractor
- B.
Proceed with cancellation of the order
- C.
Proceed with termination of the order.
- D.
Issue a letter directing the contractor to perform.
Correct Answer
B. Proceed with cancellation of the orderExplanation
When a contractor notifies the contracting officer of their intent not to accept a unilateral purchase order, the contracting officer must proceed with cancellation of the order. This means that the purchase order will be revoked and no longer valid. It indicates that the contractor has refused to accept the terms and conditions of the purchase order, and therefore, the contracting officer must take the necessary steps to cancel it.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Contract files using simplified acquisition procedures are considered closed when the contracting officer receives
- A.
Evidence of receipt of property and final payment
- B.
A receiving report and a copy of the final payment voucher
- C.
Shipping documents for the complete shipment and a certified invoice
- D.
No requests for follow-up and a correct invoice for the total amount of the contract
Correct Answer
A. Evidence of receipt of property and final paymentExplanation
When contract files are closed using simplified acquisition procedures, it is necessary for the contracting officer to receive evidence of receipt of property and final payment. This means that the contractor must provide proof that the property has been received by the appropriate party, and that all payments have been made in full. This ensures that all obligations of the contract have been fulfilled and that the contract can be considered closed.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The DD Form 1597, Contract Closeout Checklist, is used when closing out
- A.
Contracts valued above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
- B.
Contracts valued above the micro-purchase threshold
- C.
Only cost-type contracts exceeding the SAT
- D.
All contracts regardless of value
Correct Answer
A. Contracts valued above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).Explanation
The correct answer is "contracts valued above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT)". This is because the DD Form 1597, Contract Closeout Checklist, is specifically used when closing out contracts that are above the simplified acquisition threshold. It is not used for contracts below this threshold or for cost-type contracts exceeding the SAT. Therefore, the correct answer is contracts valued above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).Rate this question:
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- 45.
Who needs to be notified when a contract containing classified material is complete and ready to be closed?
- A.
Defense Security Service
- B.
Defense Contract Audit Agency
- C.
Defense Contract Management Agency
- D.
Defense Finance and Accounting Services
Correct Answer
A. Defense Security ServiceExplanation
The Defense Security Service needs to be notified when a contract containing classified material is complete and ready to be closed. The Defense Security Service is responsible for ensuring the protection of classified information and ensuring that proper security measures are in place. They need to be informed so that they can properly handle and dispose of any classified material in accordance with security protocols.Rate this question:
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- 46.
How would you close a contract if the contractor becomes bankrupt?
- A.
Get approval from your immediate supervisor
- B.
Coordinate with the Office of General Counsel.
- C.
Get approval from your small business specialist
- D.
Coordinate with your quality assurance specialist.
Correct Answer
B. Coordinate with the Office of General Counsel.Explanation
If the contractor becomes bankrupt, it is necessary to coordinate with the Office of General Counsel to close the contract. This is because the Office of General Counsel is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance in matters related to contracts and legal issues. They will have the expertise and knowledge to handle the situation appropriately and ensure that all necessary steps are taken to properly close the contract in accordance with legal requirements.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Data transfer, storage, and retrieval procedures must record and reproduce the original document completely, accurately, and clearly. In addition, the procedures must
- A.
Protect the original data from alteration
- B.
Be acceptable as evidence in a court of law
- C.
Reduce the amount of material to be stored
- D.
Be cheaper to store than the original documents
Correct Answer
A. Protect the original data from alterationExplanation
The correct answer is "protect the original data from alteration". This is because data transfer, storage, and retrieval procedures should ensure that the original data remains unchanged and unaltered. This is important to maintain the integrity and authenticity of the data.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The retention period for contracts at or below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) is
- A.
One year after final payment
- B.
Three years after final payment
- C.
Six years after final payment
- D.
Six years and three months after final payment
Correct Answer
B. Three years after final paymentExplanation
The correct answer is three years after final payment. This means that contracts at or below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) should be retained for a period of three years after the final payment has been made. This retention period allows for the necessary documentation to be kept for a reasonable amount of time for auditing and record-keeping purposes.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Follow-up in simplified acquisitions is
- A.
Done by exception
- B.
Prohibited below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
- C.
Mandatory above the micro-purchase threshold
- D.
Accomplished on a monthly basis until delivery is made or services are performed
Correct Answer
A. Done by exceptionExplanation
Follow-up in simplified acquisitions is typically done by exception. This means that it is not a mandatory requirement, but rather a discretionary action taken when necessary. It allows for flexibility in the acquisition process and is often used to address specific issues or concerns that arise during the acquisition process.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When delivery is late on a commodities contract, the government may take any actions except
- A.
Invoke liquidated damages in the agreed amount until delivery is made or the delivery schedule is renegotiated (if liquidated damages are included in the contract)
- B.
Extend the delivery date, provided the government receives appropriate consideration for doing so.
- C.
Terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 49 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR).
- D.
Terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR
Correct Answer
D. Terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FARExplanation
When delivery is late on a commodities contract, the government has the option to take various actions. They can invoke liquidated damages in the agreed amount until delivery is made or the delivery schedule is renegotiated, but this is only applicable if liquidated damages are included in the contract. Another option is to extend the delivery date, but only if the government receives appropriate consideration for doing so. However, the correct answer is to terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR). This means that if the delivery is significantly delayed, the government can choose to terminate the contract due to the supplier's default.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 27, 2013Quiz Created by
Leishman
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