6c051 CDC Volume 1 Final Exam

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  • 1/97 Questions

    What agency's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?

    • Department of Labor
    • General Services Administration
    • Small Business Administration
    • Committee for Purchase from the Blind
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About This Quiz

The '6C051 CDC Volume 1 Final Exam' assesses knowledge crucial for contract management, covering topics like CO appointments, government actions, offeror's rights, and contractor claims. Essential for professionals aiming to navigate and enforce contracts effectively.

6c051 CDC Volume 1 Final Exam - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a contract?

    • A 23- year-old car salesperson.

    • A 17-year-old College student.

    • A 25-year-old intoxicated person.

    • A 50-year-old patient in a mental institution.

    Correct Answer
    A. A 23- year-old car salesperson.
    Explanation
    A 23-year-old car salesperson would be considered competent to enter into a contract because they have reached the legal age of adulthood and are presumed to have the necessary mental capacity to understand and fulfill the obligations of a contract. Age is an important factor in determining competency to enter into a contract, and 23 years old is generally considered to be an age at which individuals have the necessary maturity and understanding to engage in contractual agreements.

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  • 3. 

    What program is designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands?

    • ID.

    • OPSEC.

    • EM.

    • AT/FP

    Correct Answer
    A. OPSEC.
    Explanation
    OPSEC stands for Operations Security, which is a program designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands. It involves identifying critical information, analyzing threats, and implementing measures to protect that information. OPSEC is crucial in safeguarding classified or sensitive data from unauthorized access, ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. This program is commonly used in military, intelligence, and government organizations, but it can also be applied in various other sectors to protect sensitive information.

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  • 4. 

    What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?

    • Procurement Act.

    • Anti-Deficiency Act.

    • Misappropriations Act.

    • Continuing Appropriations Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-Deficiency Act.
    Explanation
    The Anti-Deficiency Act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available. This act is a federal law that prohibits government agencies from spending more money than has been appropriated by Congress. It is designed to ensure fiscal responsibility and prevent overspending. Violating the Anti-Deficiency Act can result in penalties and disciplinary action.

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  • 5. 

    Which is not a function of the contacting superintendent?

    • Advising the commander on enlisted issues.

    • Managing the self-inspection program.

    • Appointing COs

    • Military career advisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Appointing COs
    Explanation
    The contacting superintendent is responsible for advising the commander on enlisted issues, managing the self-inspection program, and serving as a military career advisor. However, appointing COs is not a function of the contacting superintendent.

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  • 6. 

    Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?

    • Contractor.

    • Customer.

    • Contracting officer.

    • Contract specialist.

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer.
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request. This is because the customer is the one who knows their specific needs and requirements for the purchase. They are the ones who can provide detailed information about what they are looking for, ensuring that the purchase request accurately reflects their requirements. The contractor, contracting officer, and contract specialist may be involved in the process, but ultimately it is the customer's responsibility to describe the requirement.

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  • 7. 

    Who must comply with OSHA requirements?

    • Contractors only.

    • Government employees only.

    • Construction personnel only.

    • Contractors and government employees.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractors and government employees.
    Explanation
    Contractors and government employees must comply with OSHA requirements. This is because OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) regulations apply to all employers and employees in the United States, regardless of the industry or sector. Contractors, who work on various projects, and government employees, who are part of federal, state, or local government agencies, are not exempt from these requirements. They must adhere to OSHA standards to ensure a safe and healthy work environment for themselves and others.

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  • 8. 

    A government action may be protest by...

    • The next low bidder.

    • An interested party.

    • All responsible bidders.

    • The next low small business bidder.

    Correct Answer
    A. An interested party.
    Explanation
    An interested party can protest a government action because they have a direct stake or concern in the outcome. This could include individuals or organizations that are affected by the action or have a vested interest in the decision-making process. They may have specific knowledge or expertise related to the action and believe that their concerns or objections have not been adequately addressed. As such, they have the right to raise their voice and protest the government action.

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  • 9. 

    What is meant by the term "competent" in regards to a contracting party?

    • Having an unsound mind.

    • Ensuring business is not conducted with minors.

    • Having the ability to recognize defective corporations.

    • Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.

    Correct Answer
    A. Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.
    Explanation
    The term "competent" in regards to a contracting party refers to their mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. It means that the party has the ability to comprehend and fully understand the terms and obligations of a contract, and can make informed decisions regarding their participation in the agreement. This ensures that the party is capable of entering into a legally binding contract and can be held accountable for their actions and responsibilities outlined in the contract.

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  • 10. 

    Which AFI Defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron?

    • AFI 38-101.

    • AFI 64-102.

    • AFI 65-109.

    • AFPD 64-1.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 64-102.
    Explanation
    AFI 64-102 is the correct answer because it specifically covers the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron. AFI 38-101 pertains to Air Force organization and management, AFI 65-109 deals with financial management operations, and AFPD 64-1 focuses on contracting. Therefore, only AFI 64-102 directly addresses the roles and responsibilities within the operational contracting squadron.

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  • 11. 

    Which government requirement is violated when the wrong "color of money" is used?

    • Procurement Act.

    • Anti-Deficiency Act.

    • Bona-fide Needs Rule.

    • Misappropriations Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. Misappropriations Act.
    Explanation
    The Misappropriations Act is violated when the wrong "color of money" is used. This act prohibits the unauthorized use or misappropriation of government funds for purposes other than those specified by law. The "color of money" refers to the specific appropriation or funding source that should be used for a particular government activity or program. Using the wrong "color of money" means using funds from an inappropriate source, which is a violation of the Misappropriations Act.

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  • 12. 

    What is the definition of a classified contract?

    • Any contract document established for a classified contract.

    • Any contract document that includes non-classified information

    • Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract.

    • Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the customer in the performance of the contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract.
    Explanation
    A classified contract is defined as any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract. This means that the contractor involved in the contract needs to have access to classified information in order to fulfill their obligations under the contract. This definition emphasizes the importance of protecting sensitive information and ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to it.

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  • 13. 

    What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman?

    • 6C031

    • 6C051

    • 6C061

    • 6C091

    Correct Answer
    A. 6C051
    Explanation
    The skill level that identifies a contracting journeyman is 6C051.

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  • 14. 

    Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards?

    • Unit safety monitor.

    • Unit commander.

    • All personnel.

    • Supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. All personnel.
    Explanation
    All personnel are responsible for identifying safety hazards. This means that every individual within the organization has a duty to be vigilant and proactive in identifying potential safety hazards in their work environment. By involving all personnel in this responsibility, it ensures that everyone is actively engaged in maintaining a safe and secure workplace. This collective effort helps to prevent accidents, injuries, and potential hazards from escalating.

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  • 15. 

    When may a contractor be issued a GPC?

    • When purchases will be made against a Federal Supply Schedule.

    • When working under a personal services contract.

    • For official use only.

    • Never.

    Correct Answer
    A. Never.
    Explanation
    A contractor may never be issued a GPC (Government Purchase Card) because the GPC is a payment tool used by the government to make purchases, and it is only issued to government employees who are authorized to make purchases on behalf of the government. Contractors are not government employees, so they are not eligible to receive a GPC. Contractors may have their own payment mechanisms or may be reimbursed for authorized expenses through other means, but they will not be issued a GPC.

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  • 16. 

    Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal contract when...

    • The agreement concerns minor crimes.

    • Only a portion of the contract was illegal.

    • The agreement was made to restrain trade.

    • The innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to protect.

    Correct Answer
    A. The innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to protect.
    Explanation
    The clean hands doctrine is a legal principle that states that a person who has acted unlawfully or in bad faith cannot seek relief from the court. However, there is an exception to this doctrine when the innocent party to the contract belongs to a class of persons that the law is designed to protect. In such cases, the court may allow the enforcement of an illegal contract to prevent injustice or harm to the innocent party. This exception ensures that individuals who are intended beneficiaries of protective laws are not denied their rights due to the illegal actions of others.

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  • 17. 

    What tool assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is in compliance with applicable laws and regulation?

    • Self-inspection program.

    • Weekly staff meeting.

    • Quality indicators.

    • Peer reviews.

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-inspection program.
    Explanation
    A self-inspection program is a tool that assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations. This program allows the team to conduct regular inspections and assessments of their own processes, procedures, and practices to ensure that they are in line with legal requirements. It helps identify any areas of non-compliance and allows for corrective actions to be taken promptly. This tool is essential for maintaining legal compliance and mitigating any potential risks or penalties associated with non-compliance.

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  • 18. 

    A CO responsibility includes...

    • Entering funding documents into ABSS

    • Ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment.

    • Developing requirements for customers.

    • Approving improper invoices.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment.
    Explanation
    A CO responsibility includes ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment. This means that the CO (Contracting Officer) is responsible for ensuring that contractors are treated fairly and without bias. This includes ensuring that contractors are given equal opportunities, fair evaluation, and fair payment for their services. The CO plays a crucial role in maintaining transparency and integrity in the contracting process, and their responsibility is to ensure that all contractors are treated fairly and without discrimination.

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  • 19. 

    What is a purpose of the customer education program?

    • Develop open lines of communication.

    • Increase quantity of contract requirements.

    • Ensure customers follow the chain of command.

    • Teach how to get started as a government contractor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop open lines of communication.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a customer education program is to develop open lines of communication. This program aims to provide customers with the necessary knowledge and information to effectively communicate with the organization. By educating customers, the organization can ensure that they have a clear understanding of the products or services offered, as well as any processes or procedures that may be involved. This helps to establish a strong relationship between the organization and its customers, leading to improved communication and ultimately, customer satisfaction.

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  • 20. 

    Which position is responsible for managing the socio-economic and other public policy programs?

    • Management analysis and support flight chief.

    • Contracting squadron commander.

    • Director of business operations.

    • Contracting superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Director of business operations.
    Explanation
    The Director of Business Operations is responsible for managing the socio-economic and other public policy programs. This position is in charge of overseeing and coordinating various business operations within an organization, including the implementation and management of public policy initiatives. They are responsible for ensuring that these programs are effectively executed and aligned with the organization's goals and objectives.

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  • 21. 

    Which party is the Contractor?

    • Agent

    • Principal

    • Third Party

    • Agent and third party

    Correct Answer
    A. Third Party
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Third Party" because in this scenario, the contractor is neither the agent nor the principal. The contractor is a separate entity that is not directly involved in the agency relationship between the agent and the principal. Therefore, the contractor is classified as a third party in this context.

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  • 22. 

    Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contact is true?

    • If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time, place, or means will constitute acceptance.

    • The offer cannot dictate the place or manner of acceptance.

    • Acceptance must be communicated by the US mail.

    • Acceptance must be in writing.

    Correct Answer
    A. If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time, place, or means will constitute acceptance.
    Explanation
    If the offeror specifies the time, place, and means of communication for accepting a contact, then the acceptance must adhere to those specifications. No other time, place, or means of communication will be considered as acceptance. In other words, the offeror has the right to dictate the terms of acceptance, and the offeree must comply with those terms for the acceptance to be valid.

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  • 23. 

    Which statement about the offeree is correct?

    • The offeror may not direct the offer to a class of person or to a public intending that any member of the class of public have the power to accept.

    • The intended offeree means in all cases there is one, and only one, specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested.

    • The offeror may not direct the offer to more than one person.

    • Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Only the intended offeree can accept the offer." This means that the offeror cannot direct the offer to a class of people or to the public with the intention of allowing any member of the class or public to accept. Instead, there must be one specific offeree designated by the offeror, and only that person has the power to accept the offer.

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  • 24. 

    What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply hazardous materials to the government?

    • Material Safety Data Sheet.

    • Proof of liability for potential hazards.

    • Material Shipping Document Sheet.

    • Proof of EPA notification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Material Safety Data Sheet.
    Explanation
    Contractors and vendors must submit a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) when supplying hazardous materials to the government. An MSDS provides detailed information about the potential hazards of the material, including its chemical composition, physical properties, and safety precautions. It helps the government assess the risks associated with the hazardous materials and take appropriate measures to handle and store them safely. Proof of liability for potential hazards, Material Shipping Document Sheet, and Proof of EPA notification are not specifically required in this context.

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  • 25. 

    As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is...

    • Lawful if not challenged within 120 days.

    • Lawful only to the party who made the offer.

    • Unlawful and void and will not be enforced.

    • Unlawful but may be enforced under some situations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unlawful and void and will not be enforced.
    Explanation
    A contract that violates a statute is unlawful and void and will not be enforced. This means that if a contract goes against any laws or regulations, it is considered invalid and cannot be enforced by a court of law. This is because contracts are meant to be legally binding agreements, and if they violate the law, they are not considered valid agreements. Therefore, any party involved in such a contract cannot rely on it to enforce their rights or obligations.

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  • 26. 

    NAFs are generated through...

    • Appropriations Act.

    • Taxpayer dollars.

    • Enabling and Procedural Acts.

    • Morale, Welfare, and Recreational facilities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Morale, Welfare, and Recreational facilities.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Morale, Welfare, and Recreational facilities." NAFs, or Non-Appropriated Funds, are generated through the operation of Morale, Welfare, and Recreational facilities. These facilities are typically found on military bases and are designed to provide services and activities to enhance the well-being and quality of life for military personnel and their families. NAFs are self-sustaining and do not rely on taxpayer dollars or appropriations acts for funding.

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  • 27. 

    O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?

    • No-year.

    • Annual.

    • Continuing.

    • Multiple year.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual.
    Explanation
    O&M funds, which stands for Operations and Maintenance funds, are categorized as annual appropriations. This means that these funds are allocated on a yearly basis and must be used within the fiscal year they are appropriated for. Unlike other types of appropriations, such as no-year or continuing, annual appropriations are specific to a particular year and cannot be carried over into future years. Therefore, the correct answer is annual.

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  • 28. 

    Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approve by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as...

    • Value engineering contracts.

    • Professional services contracts.

    • Architect-engineer services contracts.

    • Engineering design services contracts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Architect-engineer services contracts.
    Explanation
    Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a licensed, registered, or certified person are known as architect-engineer services contracts. These contracts specifically pertain to the provision of architectural and engineering services and require the expertise and qualifications of licensed professionals in these fields.

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  • 29. 

    What is meant by implementing FAR?

    • Adding material that is unique to the Air Force.

    • Adding material that is unique to the DOD.

    • Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescription in FAR.

    • Numbering when the text cannot be integrated intelligibly with it s FAR counterparts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescription in FAR.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescription in FAR." This means that implementing FAR involves creating and implementing specific procedures within an agency to carry out the guidelines and regulations outlined in the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR). The agency procedures help to ensure compliance with the FAR and provide a framework for executing procurement activities in a consistent and efficient manner.

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  • 30. 

    What is the name given to the exchange of promises?

    • Sufficiency.

    • Detriment.

    • Acceptance.

    • Consideration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Consideration.
    Explanation
    Consideration is the name given to the exchange of promises in a contract. It refers to something of value that is bargained for and exchanged between parties, forming the basis of a legally binding agreement. Consideration can take various forms, such as money, goods, services, or even a promise to do or refrain from doing something. It is an essential element of a contract, demonstrating that both parties have given something of value in exchange for the promises made. Sufficiency, detriment, and acceptance are not the correct terms for the exchange of promises in a contract.

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  • 31. 

    What Publications series represents Contracting?

    • 62

    • 63

    • 64

    • 65

    Correct Answer
    A. 64
  • 32. 

    Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government contracting?

    • Enabling acts, procedural acts, and permissive acts.

    • Permissive acts, administrative acts, and legal acts.

    • Permissive acts, administrative acts, and appropriation acts.

    • Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts." This answer correctly identifies the various forms of acts that Congress uses to control government contracting. Enabling acts give authority to agencies to enter into contracts, procedural acts establish the processes and procedures for contracting, authorization acts provide the legal basis for specific contracts or programs, and appropriations acts allocate funding for contracts.

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  • 33. 

    Who directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation?

    • Mission Support Group Commander.

    • Force Support Squadron Commander.

    • Contracting Squadron Commander.

    • NAF contracting officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Force Support Squadron Commander.
    Explanation
    The Force Support Squadron Commander directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation. This role involves overseeing the various services provided to personnel, such as dining facilities, fitness centers, lodging, and recreation activities. They are responsible for ensuring the smooth functioning of these facilities and meeting the needs of the installation's personnel. The Mission Support Group Commander is responsible for a broader range of support functions, including security, logistics, and communications. The Contracting Squadron Commander and NAF contracting officer are not directly involved in the operation of NAF services facilities.

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  • 34. 

    The commercial contract format uses the...

    • SF 26

    • SF 33

    • SF 1447

    • SF 1449

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 1449
    Explanation
    The SF 1449 form is used in the commercial contract format. This form is specifically designed for use in government contracting and is used to solicit offers from contractors. It includes important information such as the contract type, delivery schedule, and payment terms. The SF 1449 form is commonly used by government agencies to streamline the procurement process and ensure that all necessary information is included in the contract.

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  • 35. 

    An offeror's withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a...

    • Cancellation.

    • Termination.

    • Revocation.

    • Breach of contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. Revocation.
    Explanation
    Revocation refers to the act of an offeror withdrawing their offer before it is accepted. This means that the offer is no longer valid and cannot be accepted by the offeree. Cancellation typically refers to the termination of an existing agreement or contract, while termination refers to the ending of a contract or agreement by either party. Breach of contract, on the other hand, occurs when one party fails to fulfill their obligations under a contract. Therefore, revocation is the most appropriate term to describe the withdrawal of an offer before acceptance.

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  • 36. 

    Which DFARs reference identifies supplemental information?

    • 219.502-2.

    • 219.502-2-70.

    • 5319.502-2.

    • 5319.502-70.

    Correct Answer
    A. 219.502-2-70.
    Explanation
    The correct answer, 219.502-2-70, is the DFARs reference that identifies supplemental information. This reference specifically addresses the topic of supplemental information within the DFARs guidelines. It is important to consult this specific reference when seeking additional information or guidance related to the DFARs.

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  • 37. 

    Whose Job is it to ensure the local purchase program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFI's?

    • Contracting squadron commander.

    • Director of business programs.

    • Plans and programs flight chief.

    • Contracting superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting squadron commander.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Contracting squadron commander. This individual is responsible for ensuring that the local purchase program effectively meets customer needs while also complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFI's. They have the authority and oversight to ensure that the program is running smoothly and in accordance with all necessary guidelines and regulations.

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  • 38. 

    Which Statement concerning the CO's appointment or termination is true?

    • In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive.

    • Termination of a CO may be retroactive if in the best interest of the government.

    • There is no authority to waive the qualification requirements for a CO as stated in the selection criteria.

    • Termination of a CO appointment is made verbally unless the Certificate of Appointment contains a provision for automatic termination.

    Correct Answer
    A. In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that in no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive. This means that once a CO's appointment is terminated, it will not be considered as if it never existed. The termination will take effect from the date it is officially terminated and will not be applied retrospectively. This ensures that any actions or decisions made by the CO during their appointment will still be valid and binding up until the termination date.

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  • 39. 

    What are two categories of actual authority?

    • Implied and assumed

    • Implied and apparent

    • Express and Implied

    • Express and apparent

    Correct Answer
    A. Express and Implied
    Explanation
    Express authority refers to the authority explicitly granted to an individual through written or verbal communication. This can include specific instructions, guidelines, or permissions given by a higher authority. Implied authority, on the other hand, is not explicitly stated but is derived from the actions, responsibilities, or duties assigned to an individual. It is based on the understanding that certain tasks or decisions are necessary for the completion of assigned duties. Therefore, the two categories of actual authority are express authority and implied authority.

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  • 40. 

    Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard Form...

    • 30

    • 252

    • 1442

    • 1449

    Correct Answer
    A. 1449
    Explanation
    Standard Form 1449 is used for solicitation and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and includes all the necessary information and terms and conditions required for the acquisition process. Therefore, the correct answer is 1449.

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  • 41. 

    DFARS is updated...

    • Daily.

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    DFARS stands for Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement, which is a set of regulations that govern the acquisition process within the Department of Defense (DoD). These regulations are periodically updated to reflect changes in laws, policies, and procedures. Updating them on a daily basis would be too frequent and time-consuming, while updating them on a monthly basis might not be timely enough to address important changes. Updating them annually would also be insufficient as it may not keep up with the evolving needs of the defense industry. Therefore, updating DFARS on a quarterly basis strikes a balance between keeping the regulations up to date and allowing for efficient implementation.

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  • 42. 

    Two techniques of ADR are...

    • Mitigation and controversy hearings.

    • Mediation and controversy hearings.

    • Mitigation and arbitration.

    • Mediation and arbitration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mediation and arbitration.
    Explanation
    Mediation and arbitration are two techniques of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR). Mediation involves a neutral third party assisting the disputing parties in reaching a mutually acceptable agreement. The mediator facilitates communication and helps the parties explore possible solutions. Arbitration, on the other hand, involves a neutral third party acting as a judge and making a binding decision on the dispute. The parties present their cases, and the arbitrator evaluates the evidence and arguments before reaching a decision. Both mediation and arbitration aim to resolve conflicts outside of traditional court litigation.

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  • 43. 

    When government personnel make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has stated that rather than adopt a rule that might injure the public, it is better...

    • That neither party should suffer from the mistakes.

    • That the government should suffer from their mistakes.

    • For an individual to occasionally suffer from their mistakes.

    • That the individual and the government share the suffering from the mistakes.

    Correct Answer
    A. For an individual to occasionally suffer from their mistakes.
    Explanation
    The US Supreme Court believes that when government personnel make a mistake, it is preferable for an individual to occasionally suffer from their mistakes. This means that instead of adopting a rule that could potentially harm the public, it is better for individuals to bear the consequences of government mistakes on occasion. This approach ensures that the public is protected from potential harm caused by adopting rules that could injure them.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following topics is used for contractor education activities?

    • Federal wage rates.

    • Avoiding wasteful spending.

    • Variations in appropriations.

    • Providing suggested sources.

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal wage rates.
    Explanation
    Contractor education activities typically involve providing information and training to contractors on various topics related to their work. Out of the given options, federal wage rates are the most relevant topic for contractor education activities. Contractors need to be aware of the specific wage rates set by the federal government for different types of work, as this information is crucial for them to comply with labor laws and regulations. Therefore, federal wage rates would be the appropriate topic for contractor education activities.

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  • 45. 

    Incentive contract are appropriate when the...

    • Contractor requests it.

    • Contactor refuses a fixed-price contract.

    • Firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate.

    • Government cannot otherwise provide an accurate estimate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate.
    Explanation
    Incentive contracts are suitable when a firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate. This means that when the government cannot accurately estimate the costs or when there is uncertainty in the project, using a firm-fixed-price contract may not be feasible. In such cases, incentive contracts provide a flexible framework where the contractor's compensation is tied to the performance or achievement of predetermined targets or objectives. This allows for a more dynamic and adaptable agreement that can accommodate unforeseen circumstances or changes in project requirements.

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  • 46. 

    What factors are multiplied against standard prices in a SABER contract and include cost elements such as overhead and G&A expenses?

    • Taxes.

    • Profit.

    • Coefficients.

    • Design costs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coefficients.
    Explanation
    In a SABER contract, coefficients are multiplied against standard prices to account for cost elements such as overhead and G&A expenses. Coefficients serve as multipliers that adjust the standard prices to reflect the additional costs involved in the project. This allows for a more accurate calculation of the overall cost of the contract, taking into consideration various factors that contribute to the final price.

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  • 47. 

    When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO with 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately...

    • Begins consolidating a report.

    • Provides a 30 day cancellation notice to the contractor.

    • Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.

    • Suspends performance for 60 days, then processes a contract cancellation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.
    Explanation
    When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract. This is done to ensure that the agency does not continue with the contract while the protest is being resolved. Suspending performance or terminating the contract allows the agency to avoid potential legal and financial consequences if the protest is upheld.

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  • 48. 

    What type of contracting instrument would have the letter "M" in the ninth position of the PIIN.

    • Automated request for quotation.

    • Manual request for quotation.

    • Automated purchase order.

    • Manual purchase order.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manual purchase order.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Manual purchase order." In this question, the PIIN (Procurement Instrument Identification Number) is mentioned, and it is stated that the letter "M" is in the ninth position of the PIIN. This indicates that the contracting instrument being referred to is a manual purchase order.

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  • 49. 

    Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of...

    • Whether the government acted in the public's interest.

    • Whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently.

    • Who would otherwise have had authority to release the information.

    • Whether the contractor would have otherwise benefited from the action.

    Correct Answer
    A. Whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently.
    Explanation
    Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently. Estoppel is a legal principle that prevents a person from asserting a claim or right that contradicts what they have previously stated or done. In this context, if a contractor has acted reasonably and innocently, it means that they have acted in good faith and without any intention to deceive or harm the other party. This is an important factor in determining whether estoppel should be applied in the case.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 13, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Joshua
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