6c051 CDC Volume 1 Final Exam

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1. What agency's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?

Explanation

The Small Business Administration's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses. This agency focuses on supporting the growth and development of small businesses by offering resources, loans, and assistance programs. They aim to help small businesses succeed and thrive in the competitive market by providing them with the necessary tools and guidance.

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6c051 CDC Volume 1 Final Exam - Quiz

The '6C051 CDC Volume 1 Final Exam' assesses knowledge crucial for contract management, covering topics like CO appointments, government actions, offeror's rights, and contractor claims. Essential for professionals... see moreaiming to navigate and enforce contracts effectively. see less

2. Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a contract?

Explanation

A 23-year-old car salesperson would be considered competent to enter into a contract because they have reached the legal age of adulthood and are presumed to have the necessary mental capacity to understand and fulfill the obligations of a contract. Age is an important factor in determining competency to enter into a contract, and 23 years old is generally considered to be an age at which individuals have the necessary maturity and understanding to engage in contractual agreements.

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3. What program is designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands?

Explanation

OPSEC stands for Operations Security, which is a program designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands. It involves identifying critical information, analyzing threats, and implementing measures to protect that information. OPSEC is crucial in safeguarding classified or sensitive data from unauthorized access, ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. This program is commonly used in military, intelligence, and government organizations, but it can also be applied in various other sectors to protect sensitive information.

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4. What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?

Explanation

The Anti-Deficiency Act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available. This act is a federal law that prohibits government agencies from spending more money than has been appropriated by Congress. It is designed to ensure fiscal responsibility and prevent overspending. Violating the Anti-Deficiency Act can result in penalties and disciplinary action.

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5. Which is not a function of the contacting superintendent?

Explanation

The contacting superintendent is responsible for advising the commander on enlisted issues, managing the self-inspection program, and serving as a military career advisor. However, appointing COs is not a function of the contacting superintendent.

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6. Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?

Explanation

The customer is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request. This is because the customer is the one who knows their specific needs and requirements for the purchase. They are the ones who can provide detailed information about what they are looking for, ensuring that the purchase request accurately reflects their requirements. The contractor, contracting officer, and contract specialist may be involved in the process, but ultimately it is the customer's responsibility to describe the requirement.

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7. Who must comply with OSHA requirements?

Explanation

Contractors and government employees must comply with OSHA requirements. This is because OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) regulations apply to all employers and employees in the United States, regardless of the industry or sector. Contractors, who work on various projects, and government employees, who are part of federal, state, or local government agencies, are not exempt from these requirements. They must adhere to OSHA standards to ensure a safe and healthy work environment for themselves and others.

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8. A government action may be protest by...

Explanation

An interested party can protest a government action because they have a direct stake or concern in the outcome. This could include individuals or organizations that are affected by the action or have a vested interest in the decision-making process. They may have specific knowledge or expertise related to the action and believe that their concerns or objections have not been adequately addressed. As such, they have the right to raise their voice and protest the government action.

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9. What is meant by the term "competent" in regards to a contracting party?

Explanation

The term "competent" in regards to a contracting party refers to their mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. It means that the party has the ability to comprehend and fully understand the terms and obligations of a contract, and can make informed decisions regarding their participation in the agreement. This ensures that the party is capable of entering into a legally binding contract and can be held accountable for their actions and responsibilities outlined in the contract.

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10. Which AFI Defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron?

Explanation

AFI 64-102 is the correct answer because it specifically covers the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron. AFI 38-101 pertains to Air Force organization and management, AFI 65-109 deals with financial management operations, and AFPD 64-1 focuses on contracting. Therefore, only AFI 64-102 directly addresses the roles and responsibilities within the operational contracting squadron.

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11. Which government requirement is violated when the wrong "color of money" is used?

Explanation

The Misappropriations Act is violated when the wrong "color of money" is used. This act prohibits the unauthorized use or misappropriation of government funds for purposes other than those specified by law. The "color of money" refers to the specific appropriation or funding source that should be used for a particular government activity or program. Using the wrong "color of money" means using funds from an inappropriate source, which is a violation of the Misappropriations Act.

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12. What is the definition of a classified contract?

Explanation

A classified contract is defined as any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract. This means that the contractor involved in the contract needs to have access to classified information in order to fulfill their obligations under the contract. This definition emphasizes the importance of protecting sensitive information and ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to it.

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13. What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman?

Explanation

The skill level that identifies a contracting journeyman is 6C051.

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14. Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards?

Explanation

All personnel are responsible for identifying safety hazards. This means that every individual within the organization has a duty to be vigilant and proactive in identifying potential safety hazards in their work environment. By involving all personnel in this responsibility, it ensures that everyone is actively engaged in maintaining a safe and secure workplace. This collective effort helps to prevent accidents, injuries, and potential hazards from escalating.

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15. When may a contractor be issued a GPC?

Explanation

A contractor may never be issued a GPC (Government Purchase Card) because the GPC is a payment tool used by the government to make purchases, and it is only issued to government employees who are authorized to make purchases on behalf of the government. Contractors are not government employees, so they are not eligible to receive a GPC. Contractors may have their own payment mechanisms or may be reimbursed for authorized expenses through other means, but they will not be issued a GPC.

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16. Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal contract when...

Explanation

The clean hands doctrine is a legal principle that states that a person who has acted unlawfully or in bad faith cannot seek relief from the court. However, there is an exception to this doctrine when the innocent party to the contract belongs to a class of persons that the law is designed to protect. In such cases, the court may allow the enforcement of an illegal contract to prevent injustice or harm to the innocent party. This exception ensures that individuals who are intended beneficiaries of protective laws are not denied their rights due to the illegal actions of others.

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17. What tool assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is in compliance with applicable laws and regulation?

Explanation

A self-inspection program is a tool that assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations. This program allows the team to conduct regular inspections and assessments of their own processes, procedures, and practices to ensure that they are in line with legal requirements. It helps identify any areas of non-compliance and allows for corrective actions to be taken promptly. This tool is essential for maintaining legal compliance and mitigating any potential risks or penalties associated with non-compliance.

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18. A CO responsibility includes...

Explanation

A CO responsibility includes ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment. This means that the CO (Contracting Officer) is responsible for ensuring that contractors are treated fairly and without bias. This includes ensuring that contractors are given equal opportunities, fair evaluation, and fair payment for their services. The CO plays a crucial role in maintaining transparency and integrity in the contracting process, and their responsibility is to ensure that all contractors are treated fairly and without discrimination.

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19. What is a purpose of the customer education program?

Explanation

The purpose of a customer education program is to develop open lines of communication. This program aims to provide customers with the necessary knowledge and information to effectively communicate with the organization. By educating customers, the organization can ensure that they have a clear understanding of the products or services offered, as well as any processes or procedures that may be involved. This helps to establish a strong relationship between the organization and its customers, leading to improved communication and ultimately, customer satisfaction.

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20. Which position is responsible for managing the socio-economic and other public policy programs?

Explanation

The Director of Business Operations is responsible for managing the socio-economic and other public policy programs. This position is in charge of overseeing and coordinating various business operations within an organization, including the implementation and management of public policy initiatives. They are responsible for ensuring that these programs are effectively executed and aligned with the organization's goals and objectives.

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21. Which party is the Contractor?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Third Party" because in this scenario, the contractor is neither the agent nor the principal. The contractor is a separate entity that is not directly involved in the agency relationship between the agent and the principal. Therefore, the contractor is classified as a third party in this context.

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22. Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contact is true?

Explanation

If the offeror specifies the time, place, and means of communication for accepting a contact, then the acceptance must adhere to those specifications. No other time, place, or means of communication will be considered as acceptance. In other words, the offeror has the right to dictate the terms of acceptance, and the offeree must comply with those terms for the acceptance to be valid.

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23. Which statement about the offeree is correct?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only the intended offeree can accept the offer." This means that the offeror cannot direct the offer to a class of people or to the public with the intention of allowing any member of the class or public to accept. Instead, there must be one specific offeree designated by the offeror, and only that person has the power to accept the offer.

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24. What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply hazardous materials to the government?

Explanation

Contractors and vendors must submit a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) when supplying hazardous materials to the government. An MSDS provides detailed information about the potential hazards of the material, including its chemical composition, physical properties, and safety precautions. It helps the government assess the risks associated with the hazardous materials and take appropriate measures to handle and store them safely. Proof of liability for potential hazards, Material Shipping Document Sheet, and Proof of EPA notification are not specifically required in this context.

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25. As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is...

Explanation

A contract that violates a statute is unlawful and void and will not be enforced. This means that if a contract goes against any laws or regulations, it is considered invalid and cannot be enforced by a court of law. This is because contracts are meant to be legally binding agreements, and if they violate the law, they are not considered valid agreements. Therefore, any party involved in such a contract cannot rely on it to enforce their rights or obligations.

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26. NAFs are generated through...

Explanation

The correct answer is "Morale, Welfare, and Recreational facilities." NAFs, or Non-Appropriated Funds, are generated through the operation of Morale, Welfare, and Recreational facilities. These facilities are typically found on military bases and are designed to provide services and activities to enhance the well-being and quality of life for military personnel and their families. NAFs are self-sustaining and do not rely on taxpayer dollars or appropriations acts for funding.

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27. O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?

Explanation

O&M funds, which stands for Operations and Maintenance funds, are categorized as annual appropriations. This means that these funds are allocated on a yearly basis and must be used within the fiscal year they are appropriated for. Unlike other types of appropriations, such as no-year or continuing, annual appropriations are specific to a particular year and cannot be carried over into future years. Therefore, the correct answer is annual.

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28. Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approve by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as...

Explanation

Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a licensed, registered, or certified person are known as architect-engineer services contracts. These contracts specifically pertain to the provision of architectural and engineering services and require the expertise and qualifications of licensed professionals in these fields.

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29. What is meant by implementing FAR?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescription in FAR." This means that implementing FAR involves creating and implementing specific procedures within an agency to carry out the guidelines and regulations outlined in the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR). The agency procedures help to ensure compliance with the FAR and provide a framework for executing procurement activities in a consistent and efficient manner.

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30. What is the name given to the exchange of promises?

Explanation

Consideration is the name given to the exchange of promises in a contract. It refers to something of value that is bargained for and exchanged between parties, forming the basis of a legally binding agreement. Consideration can take various forms, such as money, goods, services, or even a promise to do or refrain from doing something. It is an essential element of a contract, demonstrating that both parties have given something of value in exchange for the promises made. Sufficiency, detriment, and acceptance are not the correct terms for the exchange of promises in a contract.

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31. What Publications series represents Contracting?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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32. Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government contracting?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts." This answer correctly identifies the various forms of acts that Congress uses to control government contracting. Enabling acts give authority to agencies to enter into contracts, procedural acts establish the processes and procedures for contracting, authorization acts provide the legal basis for specific contracts or programs, and appropriations acts allocate funding for contracts.

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33. Who directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation?

Explanation

The Force Support Squadron Commander directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation. This role involves overseeing the various services provided to personnel, such as dining facilities, fitness centers, lodging, and recreation activities. They are responsible for ensuring the smooth functioning of these facilities and meeting the needs of the installation's personnel. The Mission Support Group Commander is responsible for a broader range of support functions, including security, logistics, and communications. The Contracting Squadron Commander and NAF contracting officer are not directly involved in the operation of NAF services facilities.

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34. The commercial contract format uses the...

Explanation

The SF 1449 form is used in the commercial contract format. This form is specifically designed for use in government contracting and is used to solicit offers from contractors. It includes important information such as the contract type, delivery schedule, and payment terms. The SF 1449 form is commonly used by government agencies to streamline the procurement process and ensure that all necessary information is included in the contract.

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35. An offeror's withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a...

Explanation

Revocation refers to the act of an offeror withdrawing their offer before it is accepted. This means that the offer is no longer valid and cannot be accepted by the offeree. Cancellation typically refers to the termination of an existing agreement or contract, while termination refers to the ending of a contract or agreement by either party. Breach of contract, on the other hand, occurs when one party fails to fulfill their obligations under a contract. Therefore, revocation is the most appropriate term to describe the withdrawal of an offer before acceptance.

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36. Which DFARs reference identifies supplemental information?

Explanation

The correct answer, 219.502-2-70, is the DFARs reference that identifies supplemental information. This reference specifically addresses the topic of supplemental information within the DFARs guidelines. It is important to consult this specific reference when seeking additional information or guidance related to the DFARs.

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37. Whose Job is it to ensure the local purchase program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFI's?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Contracting squadron commander. This individual is responsible for ensuring that the local purchase program effectively meets customer needs while also complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFI's. They have the authority and oversight to ensure that the program is running smoothly and in accordance with all necessary guidelines and regulations.

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38. Which Statement concerning the CO's appointment or termination is true?

Explanation

The correct answer states that in no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive. This means that once a CO's appointment is terminated, it will not be considered as if it never existed. The termination will take effect from the date it is officially terminated and will not be applied retrospectively. This ensures that any actions or decisions made by the CO during their appointment will still be valid and binding up until the termination date.

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39. What are two categories of actual authority?

Explanation

Express authority refers to the authority explicitly granted to an individual through written or verbal communication. This can include specific instructions, guidelines, or permissions given by a higher authority. Implied authority, on the other hand, is not explicitly stated but is derived from the actions, responsibilities, or duties assigned to an individual. It is based on the understanding that certain tasks or decisions are necessary for the completion of assigned duties. Therefore, the two categories of actual authority are express authority and implied authority.

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40. Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard Form...

Explanation

Standard Form 1449 is used for solicitation and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and includes all the necessary information and terms and conditions required for the acquisition process. Therefore, the correct answer is 1449.

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41. DFARS is updated...

Explanation

DFARS stands for Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement, which is a set of regulations that govern the acquisition process within the Department of Defense (DoD). These regulations are periodically updated to reflect changes in laws, policies, and procedures. Updating them on a daily basis would be too frequent and time-consuming, while updating them on a monthly basis might not be timely enough to address important changes. Updating them annually would also be insufficient as it may not keep up with the evolving needs of the defense industry. Therefore, updating DFARS on a quarterly basis strikes a balance between keeping the regulations up to date and allowing for efficient implementation.

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42. Two techniques of ADR are...

Explanation

Mediation and arbitration are two techniques of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR). Mediation involves a neutral third party assisting the disputing parties in reaching a mutually acceptable agreement. The mediator facilitates communication and helps the parties explore possible solutions. Arbitration, on the other hand, involves a neutral third party acting as a judge and making a binding decision on the dispute. The parties present their cases, and the arbitrator evaluates the evidence and arguments before reaching a decision. Both mediation and arbitration aim to resolve conflicts outside of traditional court litigation.

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43. When government personnel make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has stated that rather than adopt a rule that might injure the public, it is better...

Explanation

The US Supreme Court believes that when government personnel make a mistake, it is preferable for an individual to occasionally suffer from their mistakes. This means that instead of adopting a rule that could potentially harm the public, it is better for individuals to bear the consequences of government mistakes on occasion. This approach ensures that the public is protected from potential harm caused by adopting rules that could injure them.

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44. Which of the following topics is used for contractor education activities?

Explanation

Contractor education activities typically involve providing information and training to contractors on various topics related to their work. Out of the given options, federal wage rates are the most relevant topic for contractor education activities. Contractors need to be aware of the specific wage rates set by the federal government for different types of work, as this information is crucial for them to comply with labor laws and regulations. Therefore, federal wage rates would be the appropriate topic for contractor education activities.

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45. When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO with 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately...

Explanation

When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract. This is done to ensure that the agency does not continue with the contract while the protest is being resolved. Suspending performance or terminating the contract allows the agency to avoid potential legal and financial consequences if the protest is upheld.

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46. Incentive contract are appropriate when the...

Explanation

Incentive contracts are suitable when a firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate. This means that when the government cannot accurately estimate the costs or when there is uncertainty in the project, using a firm-fixed-price contract may not be feasible. In such cases, incentive contracts provide a flexible framework where the contractor's compensation is tied to the performance or achievement of predetermined targets or objectives. This allows for a more dynamic and adaptable agreement that can accommodate unforeseen circumstances or changes in project requirements.

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47. What factors are multiplied against standard prices in a SABER contract and include cost elements such as overhead and G&A expenses?

Explanation

In a SABER contract, coefficients are multiplied against standard prices to account for cost elements such as overhead and G&A expenses. Coefficients serve as multipliers that adjust the standard prices to reflect the additional costs involved in the project. This allows for a more accurate calculation of the overall cost of the contract, taking into consideration various factors that contribute to the final price.

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48. What type of contracting instrument would have the letter "M" in the ninth position of the PIIN.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Manual purchase order." In this question, the PIIN (Procurement Instrument Identification Number) is mentioned, and it is stated that the letter "M" is in the ninth position of the PIIN. This indicates that the contracting instrument being referred to is a manual purchase order.

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49. Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of...

Explanation

Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently. Estoppel is a legal principle that prevents a person from asserting a claim or right that contradicts what they have previously stated or done. In this context, if a contractor has acted reasonably and innocently, it means that they have acted in good faith and without any intention to deceive or harm the other party. This is an important factor in determining whether estoppel should be applied in the case.

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50. What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement o the contracting parties.

Explanation

When a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement, the contractor may submit a claim under the Disputes clause. This clause is typically included in government contracts and provides a mechanism for resolving disputes through a formal claims process. By submitting a claim under this clause, the contractor can seek a resolution to the dispute, which may involve mediation, arbitration, or litigation if necessary. The Disputes clause is a common contractual provision that helps to ensure that disputes are addressed in a fair and orderly manner.

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51. An SF 44 may be used when...

Explanation

An SF 44 may be used when a single delivery and a single payment will be made. This form is typically used for simplified acquisitions where only one delivery is required and a single payment will be made for the goods or services. It is not used for backordered supplies, when other simplified acquisitions are more appropriate, or when a purchase exceeds the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT) during contingency operations.

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52. When using the UCF you include lengthy specifications in...

Explanation

When using the UCF (Uniform Contract Format), lengthy specifications are included in Section J. The UCF is a standardized format used for government contracts, and Section J specifically deals with the specifications and descriptions of the goods or services being contracted. This section provides detailed information about the requirements, standards, and any other specifications that need to be met by the contractor. Including these specifications in Section J ensures that both parties have a clear understanding of the expectations and deliverables of the contract.

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53. Which written preliminary contractual instrument immediately authorizes a contractor to begin manufacturing supplies or performing services?

Explanation

A letter contract is a written preliminary contractual instrument that immediately authorizes a contractor to begin manufacturing supplies or performing services. It is used in urgent situations where there is not enough time for a full contract negotiation and award process. It allows the contractor to start work quickly while the details of the contract are being finalized. This is different from an unpriced purchase order, which does not authorize the contractor to begin work, or a blanket purchase agreement, which is a long-term agreement for recurring purchases.

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54. A CO appointment must be reviewed at least...

Explanation

A CO appointment must be reviewed at least every two years to ensure that the individual appointed is still suitable and qualified for the position. This regular review helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the appointment process by allowing for any necessary updates or changes to be made. It also ensures that the appointing authority has the opportunity to reassess the individual's performance and suitability for the role on a periodic basis.

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55. Contractor Claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision within...

Explanation

Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO (Contracting Officer) for a decision within six years after accrual of the claim. This means that contractors have a six-year window from the time the claim accrues to submit it to the CO for a decision. This timeframe allows contractors to properly evaluate and prepare their claims before submitting them for a decision. It also provides a reasonable amount of time for the CO to review and make a decision on the claim.

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56. Which statement about an offer is correct?

Explanation

The statement that is correct about an offer is that it must be so definite that the performance to be rendered by each party is reasonably certain. This means that the terms of the offer should be clear and specific enough for both parties to understand their obligations and what is expected of them in the contract. It is important for the offer to provide enough information for each party to know what they are agreeing to and what they will be required to do in order to fulfill their part of the contract.

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57. Who is responsible for ascertaining whether government agents are acting within the bounds of their authority?

Explanation

The contractor is responsible for ascertaining whether government agents are acting within the bounds of their authority. This means that it is the contractor's duty to ensure that the government agents are following the rules and regulations and not exceeding their authority. The contractor plays a crucial role in overseeing and monitoring the actions of the government agents to maintain accountability and compliance.

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58. Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on human health or the environment when compared with competing products or services that serve the same purpose are known as...

Explanation

The term "environmentally preferable" refers to products or services that have a lesser negative impact on human health or the environment compared to competing alternatives that serve the same purpose. It implies that these products or services are designed and manufactured in a way that minimizes their environmental footprint and promotes sustainability. This can include factors such as reduced energy consumption, use of renewable resources, and minimizing waste generation. Overall, environmentally preferable products or services prioritize the well-being of both humans and the environment.

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59. What clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project so that construction cost will not exceed a specified amount due to a funding limitation?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Design within Funding Limitations clause." This clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project in a way that the construction cost does not exceed a specified amount due to a funding limitation. This clause ensures that the contractor is aware of the funding limitations and is responsible for designing the project within those constraints. It helps to control costs and ensures that the project remains within the allocated budget.

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60. Which Contract type does not require execution of a determination and finding prior to use?

Explanation

Fixed-price contracts do not require execution of a determination and finding prior to use. This type of contract has a predetermined price that is not subject to adjustment unless there are changes in the scope of work. It is a straightforward agreement where the contractor agrees to provide goods or services at a fixed price, regardless of the actual costs incurred. Unlike other contract types, such as cost-reimbursement or labor-hour contracts, fixed-price contracts do not require a determination and finding process, which is a formal determination by the contracting officer that a particular contract type is appropriate for the specific acquisition.

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61. If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor?

Explanation

The correct answer is "as soon as possible without waiting for any appeal." This means that once the contracting officer decides that the contractor should be compensated for a claim, the amount will be paid to the contractor without any delay or waiting for any appeal process. This ensures that the contractor receives timely payment for their claim without any unnecessary delays.

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62. The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the...

Explanation

Equitable estoppel is a legal doctrine that prevents one party from asserting their legal rights if it would be unfair or unjust to allow them to do so. In order to establish equitable estoppel, certain elements must be present. These elements include: the government knew or should have known the true facts, the government intended that the contractor rely on their acts, and the contractor reasonably and innocently relied on the acts of the government. The correct answer, "contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government," is the exception to the elements of equitable estoppel. This means that for equitable estoppel to apply, it is not necessary for the contractor to have not reasonably and innocently relied on the acts of the government.

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63. Upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in...

Explanation

The correct answer is DFARS Appendix A. The question asks about the rules that the contracting officer must comply with upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA (Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals). The rules that govern ASBCA appeals are found in DFARS Appendix A, which provides guidance and procedures for the resolution of contract disputes. AFFARS Appendix AA, AFFARS Appendix CC, and AFFARS Appendix C do not contain the specific rules for ASBCA appeals.

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64. What part of FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments?

Explanation

Part 32 of the FAR (Federal Acquisition Regulation) determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments. This part specifically addresses contract financing, including progress payments, and provides guidance on the criteria and procedures for determining when progress payments are appropriate and how they should be administered. It outlines the requirements and considerations for progress payments, such as the contractor's financial condition, the nature of the contract, and the risks involved. Therefore, Part 32 is the relevant section of the FAR that deals with contract financing through progress payments.

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65. Which situation would prevent a ratification?

Explanation

If the government does not obtain a benefit from the performance, it would prevent ratification. This means that if the government does not receive any value or advantage from the action or service provided, they would not be able to approve or validate it. Ratification typically occurs when the government acknowledges and accepts an unauthorized commitment or action, but if there is no benefit to them, they would not have a reason to ratify it.

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66. What is the statutory limitation on the contract fee for A-E services for the preparation of designs, plans, drawings, and specifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is six percent of the project's estimated cost to complete construction. This means that the contract fee for A-E services for the preparation of designs, plans, drawings, and specifications should not exceed six percent of the total estimated cost of the project's construction. This limitation ensures that the fee remains reasonable and proportional to the overall project cost.

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67. How many days does GAO have to issue its recommendation on a protest.

Explanation

GAO has 100 days to issue its recommendation on a protest. This means that once a protest is filed, GAO has a maximum of 100 days to review the case, gather evidence, and make a decision on the matter. This timeframe allows for a thorough examination of the protest and ensures that a timely resolution is reached.

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68. Where are short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions located?

Explanation

The short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions are located in the Federal Register. The Federal Register is a daily publication of the US federal government that contains proposed rules, final rules, and other notices of government agencies. It serves as a comprehensive source of information about government activities and decisions, and it is commonly used by the public, businesses, and government officials to stay informed about new regulations and decisions. Therefore, it is the most logical place to find the short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions.

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69. The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures is to...

Explanation

Simplified acquisition procedures aim to reduce administrative costs and the administrative burden on the contractor. By streamlining the acquisition process, it becomes more efficient and less time-consuming for both the government and the contractor. This allows for quicker procurement of goods and services, saving time and resources. Additionally, it helps to simplify the paperwork and reporting requirements, making it easier for contractors to comply with the necessary administrative tasks. Overall, the goal is to make the acquisition process more cost-effective and less burdensome for all parties involved.

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70. Which incentive arrangement should motivate contractors to strive for outstanding results all incentive areas?

Explanation

A multiple-incentive arrangement is the most suitable option to motivate contractors to strive for outstanding results in all incentive areas. This type of arrangement provides contractors with multiple incentives, such as financial rewards, recognition, and career advancement opportunities, for achieving exceptional performance in different areas. By offering a variety of incentives, contractors are encouraged to excel in all aspects of their work, leading to outstanding results across all incentive areas.

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71. What is meant by adequate consideration?

Explanation

Adequate consideration refers to a fair bargain in an exchange. It means that the consideration being offered in the transaction is of sufficient value to induce the other party to perform their obligations. In other words, both parties are receiving something of equal worth in the exchange, ensuring fairness and equity.

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72. Benefits of options include increased...

Explanation

Competition is a benefit of options because it leads to increased prices, administration, and acquisition lead time. When there is competition in the market, companies strive to offer better products or services at competitive prices, which ultimately benefits the consumers. Additionally, competition encourages companies to improve their administrative processes and reduce the time it takes to acquire new customers or resources. Overall, competition drives innovation, efficiency, and better outcomes for both businesses and consumers.

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73. The Prompt Payment Act requires that final payment of construction contracts be made within...

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 days of acceptance by the government. The Prompt Payment Act is a law that requires timely payment of construction contracts. It stipulates that the final payment should be made within 30 days of acceptance by the government. This ensures that contractors and subcontractors are paid promptly for their work, helping to maintain cash flow and avoid financial difficulties. By enforcing timely payments, the Act aims to promote fair and efficient payment practices in the construction industry.

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74. Performance-based acquisition...

Explanation

Performance-based acquisition allows contractors the latitude to meet contract objectives. This means that instead of dictating specific processes, the government provides contractors with flexibility in how they achieve the desired outcomes. Contractors are given the freedom to determine the best approach and are held accountable for achieving the agreed-upon objectives. This approach encourages innovation and efficiency, as contractors can leverage their expertise and resources to deliver results in the most effective and efficient manner. It also promotes a collaborative relationship between the government and contractors, as they work together to define and achieve the desired outcomes.

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75. Sealed bidding should not be used for construction contracts when...

Explanation

Sealed bidding should not be used for construction contracts when it is necessary to conduct discussions with offerors. Sealed bidding is a procurement method where bids are submitted in sealed envelopes and opened at a specified time. It is typically used when the award will be made solely on the basis of price and there is a reasonable expectation of receiving more than one bid. However, if discussions with offerors are necessary, sealed bidding may not be suitable as it does not allow for negotiations or clarifications. In such cases, other procurement methods that allow for discussions, such as competitive negotiation, may be more appropriate.

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76. Which of the following is a characteristic of agreements?

Explanation

The characteristic of agreements that is being described in the given answer is that they establish the groundwork for future contracts. This means that agreements lay the foundation and outline the basic terms and conditions that will be included in future contracts between parties. Agreements serve as a starting point for negotiations and help to ensure that both parties are on the same page before entering into a formal contract.

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77. What action should the CO take if contract award is made on the non-qualifying country offer and the duty is exempted by the duty free clause?

Explanation

The CO should award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty. This means that the CO should subtract the duty amount from the offered price when awarding the contract. This is because the duty is exempted by the duty-free clause, so it should not be included in the final contract price.

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78. How many days does an interested party have to protest after the basis of a protest is known, or should have been known?

Explanation

An interested party has a maximum of 10 days to protest after they become aware of, or should have become aware of, the basis of the protest. This time frame ensures that protests are filed in a timely manner and allows for a prompt resolution of any issues. Waiting longer than 10 days may result in the protest being considered invalid or not taken into account.

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79. What councils prepare all FAR revisions?

Explanation

The correct answer is DAR Council and the CAA Council. These two councils are responsible for preparing all FAR (Federal Acquisition Regulation) revisions. The DAR Council, also known as the Defense Acquisition Regulations Council, is responsible for developing and maintaining the Department of Defense FAR Supplement (DFARS). The CAA Council, also known as the Civilian Agency Acquisition Council, is responsible for developing and maintaining the FAR for civilian agencies. Together, these two councils ensure that the FAR is kept up to date and relevant for both defense and civilian acquisitions.

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80. In determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a contract adjustment, the Comptroller General Decisions are referred to and used as..

Explanation

The Comptroller General Decisions are referred to and used as precedents in determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a contract adjustment. Precedents are previous decisions or rulings that have set a standard or guideline for future cases. By using these precedents, decision-makers can ensure consistency and fairness in their rulings and avoid making arbitrary or inconsistent decisions. Therefore, in this context, the Comptroller General Decisions serve as a reference point or guide for making contract adjustments.

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81. The aggregate of commercial advance payments cannot exceed what mount of the contract price?

Explanation

The correct answer is 15% because it states that the aggregate of commercial advance payments cannot exceed a certain percentage of the contract price. Out of the given options, 15% is the only percentage that fulfills this condition.

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82. A SABER contract...

Explanation

A SABER contract complements the traditional construction program. This means that it works alongside and enhances the traditional construction program rather than replacing it. It provides additional support and resources to ensure the success of the construction project.

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83. What contractor education method may be used to assist new small business concerns achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements?

Explanation

Post-award orientation may be used to assist new small business concerns achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements. This method involves providing guidance and information to the contractor after the contract has been awarded. It helps the contractor understand the terms, conditions, and expectations of the contract, ensuring that they are fully aware of the requirements and can fulfill them effectively. This orientation session can address any questions or concerns the contractor may have, promoting a better understanding and successful execution of the contract.

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84. The Buy American Act allows exceptions for articles, materials, and supplies purchased...

Explanation

The Buy American Act requires that articles, materials, and supplies be purchased from domestic sources, but it allows for exceptions. One such exception is when the purchase is specifically for commissary resale. This means that if the items are being bought to be sold in a commissary, they do not necessarily have to be sourced domestically. This exception recognizes the unique nature of commissaries and allows for greater flexibility in their purchasing practices.

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85. The government can exercise its right to the option period...

Explanation

The correct answer is without further negotiation or agreement with the contractor. This means that the government has the right to exercise its option period without needing to negotiate or reach an agreement with the contractor. This gives the government the flexibility to extend the contract or make changes as they see fit, without requiring additional discussions or consent from the contractor.

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86. Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency (under most circumstances) has how many days to submit a complete report to GAO.

Explanation

Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency has 30 days to submit a complete report to GAO. This time frame allows the agency sufficient time to gather all the necessary information and documentation related to the protest. It also ensures that the agency can thoroughly review the protest and provide a comprehensive report to GAO within a reasonable timeframe. This allows for a timely resolution of the protest and ensures that all parties involved have an opportunity to present their case and provide supporting evidence.

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87. How long after the contracting officer's final decision does the contractor have to appeal to ASBCA?

Explanation

The correct answer is 90 days from the receipt of the contracting officer's decision. This means that the contractor has a period of 90 days starting from the date they receive the contracting officer's decision to file an appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA). It is important for the contractor to adhere to this timeline in order to preserve their right to appeal and seek resolution for any disputes or disagreements regarding the decision.

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88. When a contactor will acquire materials and services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates, the appropriate contract is...

Explanation

When a contractor acquires materials and services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates, the appropriate contract is a time and materials contract. This type of contract allows for flexibility in pricing as it is based on the actual hours worked and the materials used. The contractor will be reimbursed for the direct labor hours at the agreed-upon fixed hourly rate, in addition to the cost of materials. This type of contract is often used when the scope of work is uncertain or when it is difficult to determine the exact quantities of materials needed in advance.

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89. When using the UCF, which section contains evaluation factors for award?

Explanation

Section M contains evaluation factors for award when using the UCF. The UCF, or Uniform Contract Format, is a standardized format used for government contracts. Section M specifically addresses the evaluation factors that will be used to determine which offeror will be awarded the contract. This section typically includes information on how proposals will be evaluated, such as the criteria that will be used and the relative importance of each factor. It is an important section for both the contracting agency and potential offerors to understand in order to ensure a fair and transparent evaluation process.

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90. Which of the following contracts provide no positive profit incentive to the contractor for cost control or labor efficiency?

Explanation

The time and materials contract provides no positive profit incentive to the contractor for cost control or labor efficiency. In this type of contract, the contractor is paid for the time spent on the project and the cost of materials used, without any additional profit incentive. This means that the contractor has no motivation to control costs or improve labor efficiency, as their profit is not tied to these factors.

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91. FAR is issued under the joint authority of the...

Explanation

The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) is issued under the joint authority of the Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of NASA. This means that these three individuals or organizations have the power and responsibility to create and enforce the regulations that govern the acquisition process for the federal government. They work together to ensure that federal agencies follow consistent and standardized procedures when acquiring goods and services.

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92. What three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives may be used?

Explanation

The three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives that may be used are cost, delivery, and performance. These incentives are commonly used in contracts to motivate suppliers to meet specific cost targets, deliver goods or services on time, and achieve performance goals. By offering incentives in these areas, organizations can encourage suppliers to perform at their best and meet the desired outcomes.

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93. When using the UCF, which section title would you find under Part I - The Schedule?

Explanation

Under Part I - The Schedule of the UCF, you would find the section title "Contract administration data." This section provides information related to the administration of the contract, including details on the contract's performance requirements, delivery schedule, and invoicing procedures. It may also include information on the contractor's responsibilities, reporting requirements, and any special instructions or terms specific to the contract. This section is important for both the contracting officer and the contractor to ensure that the contract is properly administered and executed.

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94. The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from CONUS vendor for use overseas is...

Explanation

The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a CONUS vendor for use overseas is $3,000. This means that overseas cardholders can make supply purchases up to $3,000 without having to go through a formal bidding process. This threshold allows for simplified and streamlined procurement procedures for smaller purchases, while still ensuring that appropriate controls and oversight are in place.

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95. What action may be taken for a nonratifiable commitment?

Explanation

A nonratifiable commitment refers to a commitment made without proper authorization or approval. In such cases, the appropriate action would be to resolve the issue through the GAO (Government Accountability Office) claim procedures. GAO claim procedures are designed to handle disputes and claims related to government contracts and ensure fair resolution. Therefore, choosing this option would be the most suitable course of action for addressing a nonratifiable commitment.

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96. Which contract type may be used when it is possible to negotiate a fair and reasonable firm-fixed-price for an initial period, but not for subsequent periods of performance.

Explanation

The fixed-price with prospective price redetermination contract type may be used when it is possible to negotiate a fair and reasonable firm-fixed-price for an initial period but not for subsequent periods of performance. This contract type allows for the adjustment of prices based on changes in economic factors or other circumstances that may affect the cost of performance. This flexibility allows both the buyer and the seller to share the risks associated with uncertain future costs.

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97. When the government cannot use other incentives in fixed-price contracts because it cannot objectively measure contractor performance, it motivates the contractor by using...

Explanation

In fixed-price contracts, the government may not have a clear and objective way to measure contractor performance, making it difficult to use other incentives. In such cases, award-fee provisions can be used to motivate the contractor. These provisions allow the government to award additional fees based on subjective assessments of the contractor's performance. This provides an incentive for the contractor to perform well and meet the government's expectations, even when objective measurements are not possible.

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What agency's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small...
Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a...
What program is designed to prevent sensitive information from getting...
What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than...
Which is not a function of the contacting superintendent?
Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a...
Who must comply with OSHA requirements?
A government action may be protest by...
What is meant by the term "competent" in regards to a...
Which AFI Defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within...
Which government requirement is violated when the wrong "color of...
What is the definition of a classified contract?
What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman?
Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards?
When may a contractor be issued a GPC?
Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal...
What tool assists the contracting management team in determining...
A CO responsibility includes...
What is a purpose of the customer education program?
Which position is responsible for managing the socio-economic and...
Which party is the Contractor?
Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contact is true?
Which statement about the offeree is correct?
What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply...
As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is...
NAFs are generated through...
O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?
Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering...
What is meant by implementing FAR?
What is the name given to the exchange of promises?
What Publications series represents Contracting?
Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to...
Who directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an...
The commercial contract format uses the...
An offeror's withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called...
Which DFARs reference identifies supplemental information?
Whose Job is it to ensure the local purchase program effectively meets...
Which Statement concerning the CO's appointment or termination is...
What are two categories of actual authority?
Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items...
DFARS is updated...
Two techniques of ADR are...
When government personnel make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has...
Which of the following topics is used for contractor education...
When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO with 10 days...
Incentive contract are appropriate when the...
What factors are multiplied against standard prices in a SABER...
What type of contracting instrument would have the letter...
Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally...
What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved...
An SF 44 may be used when...
When using the UCF you include lengthy specifications in...
Which written preliminary contractual instrument immediately...
A CO appointment must be reviewed at least...
Contractor Claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision within...
Which statement about an offer is correct?
Who is responsible for ascertaining whether government agents are...
Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on human...
What clause must be included in the contract if the government...
Which Contract type does not require execution of a determination and...
If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be...
The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except...
Upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the contracting officer must...
What part of FAR determines whether to include contract financing...
Which situation would prevent a ratification?
What is the statutory limitation on the contract fee for A-E services...
How many days does GAO have to issue its recommendation on a protest.
Where are short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions located?
The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures is to...
Which incentive arrangement should motivate contractors to strive for...
What is meant by adequate consideration?
Benefits of options include increased...
The Prompt Payment Act requires that final payment of construction...
Performance-based acquisition...
Sealed bidding should not be used for construction contracts when...
Which of the following is a characteristic of agreements?
What action should the CO take if contract award is made on the...
How many days does an interested party have to protest after the basis...
What councils prepare all FAR revisions?
In determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a...
The aggregate of commercial advance payments cannot exceed what mount...
A SABER contract...
What contractor education method may be used to assist new small...
The Buy American Act allows exceptions for articles, materials, and...
The government can exercise its right to the option period...
Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed,...
How long after the contracting officer's final decision does the...
When a contactor will acquire materials and services based on direct...
When using the UCF, which section contains evaluation factors for...
Which of the following contracts provide no positive profit incentive...
FAR is issued under the joint authority of the...
What three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives may be...
When using the UCF, which section title would you find under Part I -...
The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas...
What action may be taken for a nonratifiable commitment?
Which contract type may be used when it is possible to negotiate a...
When the government cannot use other incentives in fixed-price...
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