6c051 Edit Code 2 Vol 2

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  • 1/88 Questions

    When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the micro-purchase threshold but not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contracting officer (CO) shall provide the request for quotations (RFQ) to at least how many contractors?

    • Three.
    • Five.
    • Six.
    • Eight.
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '6C051 Edit Code 2 Vol 2', assesses knowledge in government acquisition planning, competitive sourcing, and roles in acquisition teams. It is designed for individuals involved in or learning about federal contracting and procurement processes.

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  • 2. 

    When executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order, what is a circumstance in which a contracting officer (CO) can justify limiting sources?

    • An urgent and compelling need exists and following the procedures would result in delays.

    • The CO has been directed by leadership ordered to choose a certain contractor.

    • The local contractor knows the base processes better.

    • The CO wanted to award to the previous contractor.

    Correct Answer
    A. An urgent and compelling need exists and following the procedures would result in delays.
    Explanation
    In certain situations, a contracting officer (CO) may justify limiting sources when executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order. One such circumstance is when there is an urgent and compelling need that cannot be met if the regular procedures are followed, as doing so would cause delays. In such cases, the CO may choose to limit sources in order to expedite the procurement process and ensure that the necessary goods or services are obtained in a timely manner.

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  • 3. 

    When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.228–5, Insurance-Work on a Government Installation, is included in a contract, the contracting officer (CO) requests and receives proof of insurance

    • Before the contractor begins work.

    • With the offerors bid or proposal.

    • Within seven days after work begins.

    • Within 10 days after work begins.

    Correct Answer
    A. Before the contractor begins work.
    Explanation
    According to the given information, when the FAR 52.228-5 clause is included in a contract, the contracting officer requests and receives proof of insurance before the contractor begins work. This means that the contractor must provide proof of insurance prior to starting the work.

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  • 4. 

    Which socioeconomic program is aimed to help a small business located on an Indian reservation?

    • Historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone).

    • Small disadvantaged business (SDB).

    • Women-owned small business (WOSB).

    • Small disadvantaged veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB).

    Correct Answer
    A. Historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone). This program is aimed at helping small businesses located in economically distressed areas, including Indian reservations. The program provides various benefits and opportunities for these businesses, such as preferential access to federal contracts and assistance in obtaining loans and access to capital. By promoting economic development in these areas, the HUBZone program aims to create jobs and stimulate growth in historically underutilized business zones.

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  • 5. 

    The group of functional experts that reviews and recommends acquisition strategies for a specific product or service is known as

    • An acquisition strategy panel (ASP).

    • An expeditionary sourcing group (ESG).

    • An enterprise sourcing squadron (ESS).

    • A business support squadron (BSS).

    Correct Answer
    A. An acquisition strategy panel (ASP).
    Explanation
    An acquisition strategy panel (ASP) is a group of functional experts who are responsible for reviewing and recommending acquisition strategies for a specific product or service. They analyze various factors such as cost, risk, and performance to determine the most effective approach for acquiring the desired product or service. The ASP plays a crucial role in ensuring that the acquisition process is well-planned and aligns with the organization's goals and objectives.

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  • 6. 

    Who is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer’s requirements can be met through available supply channels?

    • Mission support group commander.

    • Contracting squadron commander.

    • Requiring agency.

    • Base supply officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base supply officer.
    Explanation
    The base supply officer is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer's requirements can be met through available supply channels. They oversee the procurement, storage, and distribution of supplies within the base, ensuring that there is an adequate stock of necessary items and coordinating with different departments to meet the needs of the customers.

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  • 7. 

    At what prices shall agencies purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule?

    • At whatever price is stated on the schedule.

    • At prices listed above market value.

    • 10 percent above fair market value.

    • At prices not to exceed fair market value.

    Correct Answer
    A. At prices not to exceed fair market value.
    Explanation
    Agencies shall purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule at prices not to exceed fair market value. This means that they can purchase the supplies at prices that are equal to or lower than the fair market value, ensuring that they do not pay more than what is considered reasonable in the market.

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  • 8. 

    When considering a lease versus purchase, the purchase method is appropriate when

    • Equipment is to be used on an “as-needed” basis.

    • Purchase cost will exceed cumulative leasing costs.

    • Cumulative leasing costs will exceed purchase costs.

    • Circumstances require the immediate and short-term use of equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cumulative leasing costs will exceed purchase costs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "cumulative leasing costs will exceed purchase costs." This means that it is more cost-effective to lease the equipment over a period of time rather than purchasing it outright. Leasing allows for flexibility and avoids the upfront cost of purchasing, making it a better option when the total cost of leasing over time is lower than the cost of purchasing.

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  • 9. 

    What should a contracting officer (CO) do if he or she only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business?

    • Extend the deadline for offers.

    • Award to the acceptable offer.

    • Contact the Small Business Administration (SBA) for guidance.

    • Cancel the solicitation and re-advertise when there is expectation that more offers will be received.

    Correct Answer
    A. Award to the acceptable offer.
    Explanation
    If a contracting officer (CO) only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business, they should award the contract to that offer. This means that the CO has determined that the offer meets all the necessary requirements and is considered acceptable. Therefore, there is no need to extend the deadline for offers, contact the Small Business Administration (SBA) for guidance, or cancel the solicitation and re-advertise. The CO can proceed with awarding the contract to the acceptable offer received.

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  • 10. 

    Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the necessary arrangements?

    • Contract specialist.

    • Contracting officer (CO).

    • Functional commander.

    • Quality assurance personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting officer (CO).
    Explanation
    The contracting officer (CO) is responsible for deciding if a preproposal conference is required and making the necessary arrangements. As the individual in charge of managing the contract, the CO has the authority to determine if a preproposal conference is necessary to clarify any questions or concerns regarding the contract. They will then coordinate and organize the conference to ensure that all relevant parties are present and that the conference is conducted effectively.

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  • 11. 

    When conducting a site visit,

    • Site information must be made available to all offerors in the same manner.

    • Only contractors previously cleared by security forces may attend.

    • Offerors are required to inspect the site in order to become eligible for award.

    • Civilian attendees are exempt from personal protective equipment requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Site information must be made available to all offerors in the same manner.
    Explanation
    When conducting a site visit, it is important to ensure fairness and equal opportunity for all offerors. Making site information available to all offerors in the same manner ensures that no one has an advantage or disadvantage. This helps to maintain a level playing field and allows all offerors to make informed decisions and submit competitive proposals.

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  • 12. 

    Which is not an example of a wholesale supply source?

    • Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

    • Department of Veteran Affairs (VA).

    • General Services Administration (GSA).

    • Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES).

    Correct Answer
    A. Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES).
    Explanation
    The Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES) is not an example of a wholesale supply source because it is a retail organization that operates on military installations, providing goods and services to military personnel, retirees, and their families. On the other hand, the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), Department of Veteran Affairs (VA), and General Services Administration (GSA) are all examples of wholesale supply sources that provide goods and services to various government agencies and military branches.

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  • 13. 

    Usually, who can approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000?

    • The commander.

    • The contracting officer.

    • A general or flag officer equivalent.

    • The command contracting director.

    Correct Answer
    A. The contracting officer.
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is usually the one who can approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000. This is because the contracting officer is responsible for overseeing and managing the procurement process, including making decisions on source justifications. The commander, general or flag officer equivalent, and command contracting director may have authority in other aspects of the procurement process, but approving limited sources justifications falls under the purview of the contracting officer.

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  • 14. 

    A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than

    • 60 days.

    • 45 days.

    • 30 days.

    • 14 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 days.
    Explanation
    A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than 60 days. This means that if the equipment will be leased for a period longer than 60 days, a decision needs to be made whether to lease or purchase the equipment. Leasing is typically more suitable for shorter durations, while purchasing may be more cost-effective for longer periods. Therefore, the correct answer is 60 days.

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  • 15. 

    Which statute requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract expected to exceed $150,000?

    • 40 United States Code (USC), Chapter 31, Subchapter II, Bonds.

    • Competition in Contracting Act.

    • Wage Rate Requirements (Construction).

    • Contracts for materials, supplies, articles, and equipment exceeding $15,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 40 United States Code (USC), Chapter 31, Subchapter II, Bonds.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 40 United States Code (USC), Chapter 31, Subchapter II, Bonds. This statute requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract expected to exceed $150,000.

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  • 16. 

    If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, then the contracting officer (CO) can

    • Award it anyway because it is mandatory.

    • Give FPI a chance to change their offer.

    • Use competitive procedures to acquire the product.

    • Change the time of delivery so that FPI can compete.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use competitive procedures to acquire the product.
    Explanation
    If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, the contracting officer (CO) cannot award it anyway because it is mandatory. Instead, the CO can use competitive procedures to acquire the product. This means that the CO will open up the procurement process to other potential suppliers, allowing them to compete with FPI by submitting their own offers. This ensures that the government gets the best value for its money and encourages fair competition in the procurement process.

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  • 17. 

    All of the following are examples of competitive procedures except

    • Sealed bids.

    • Two-step sealed bidding.

    • Brand-name requirements.

    • Competitive proposals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Brand-name requirements.
    Explanation
    Brand-name requirements are not an example of a competitive procedure because they specify a particular brand or product, limiting competition and potentially excluding other qualified vendors. Competitive procedures, on the other hand, promote fair and open competition among potential suppliers, allowing them to submit bids or proposals based on specified criteria. Sealed bids, two-step sealed bidding, and competitive proposals are all examples of competitive procedures as they involve a competitive process for selecting the best offer or proposal.

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  • 18. 

    What action should a contracting officer (CO) take if only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern?

    • Cancel the requirement.

    • Make an award to that firm.

    • Dissolve the small business set-aside.

    • Resolicit using full and open competition.

    Correct Answer
    A. Make an award to that firm.
    Explanation
    If only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern, the contracting officer should make an award to that firm. This is because the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) states that if only one offer is received in response to a small business set-aside, the contracting officer may make an award to that firm if the offer is acceptable and the price is reasonable. Therefore, in this scenario, since the offer is acceptable and there are no other offers to consider, the CO should proceed with making an award to the small business concern.

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  • 19. 

    In what situation would purchases automatically be reserved for small business concerns?

    • Less or equal to the micro-purchase threshold.

    • Between the micro-purchase threshold and the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).

    • Between the SAT and simplified procedures for certain commercial items amount.

    • Above the simplified procedures for certain commercial items amount.

    Correct Answer
    A. Between the micro-purchase threshold and the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
    Explanation
    Purchases are automatically reserved for small business concerns when the value of the purchase falls between the micro-purchase threshold and the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT). This means that if the purchase is below the micro-purchase threshold, it is automatically reserved for small businesses. However, if the purchase exceeds the SAT, it is not automatically reserved for small businesses. Therefore, the correct answer is between the micro-purchase threshold and the SAT.

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  • 20. 

    In terms of physical characteristics and estimated price range, advance notices and solicitations for a requirement must state

    • The project magnitude.

    • The project classification.

    • The government estimate.

    • Whether it is under or over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).

    Correct Answer
    A. The project magnitude.
    Explanation
    In advance notices and solicitations for a requirement, it is important to state the project magnitude. This refers to the physical characteristics of the project and the estimated price range. By providing this information, potential contractors can assess whether they have the capability and resources to fulfill the requirements of the project. It also helps in determining the appropriate budget and allocation of resources by the government. Stating the project magnitude is essential for effective communication and ensuring that the right contractors are attracted to bid on the project.

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  • 21. 

    Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract awarded by another agency are

    • Not exempt from the development of acquisition plans.

    • Exempt from all Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) requirements for a bundled contract.

    • Exempt from information technology acquisition strategy plans.

    • Used to get around conditions and limitations imposed on the use of funds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Not exempt from the development of acquisition plans.
    Explanation
    Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract awarded by another agency are not exempt from the development of acquisition plans. This means that even if the contract is awarded by another agency, the development of acquisition plans is still required. This ensures that proper planning and strategies are in place for the acquisition process, regardless of the agency involved.

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  • 22. 

    Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to

    • Provide bid samples.

    • Submit bid guarantee, performance, and payment bonds.

    • Provide an overview of supplies or services their company provides.

    • Examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the performing of work.

    Correct Answer
    A. Examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the performing of work.
    Explanation
    Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the performing of work. This means that during the site visit, the offerors can access and review any relevant government data that could help them understand the requirements and scope of the work. This allows them to gather important information that may impact their bid and their ability to successfully perform the work. By examining this data, offerors can make more informed decisions and tailor their proposals accordingly.

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  • 23. 

    Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for proposal (RFP) before closing?

    • The incumbent contractor did not submit a proposal.

    • Several contractors have combined together into a teaming arrangement.

    • Changes are so substantial they exceed what prospective offerors reasonably could have anticipated.

    • The civil servants union submitted a complaint about the ongoing competitive sourcing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Changes are so substantial they exceed what prospective offerors reasonably could have anticipated.
    Explanation
    If the changes in the circumstances are so significant that they go beyond what the prospective offerors could have reasonably anticipated, it would justify canceling the request for proposal (RFP) before closing. This means that the changes are unexpected and go beyond the scope of what the contractors could have reasonably prepared for or addressed in their proposals. This would ensure fairness and allow for a level playing field for all potential offerors.

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  • 24. 

    Acquisition planning must take place

    • Upon receipt of funds.

    • Once a purchase request is received.

    • As soon as an agency need is identified.

    • Immediately upon completion of the source selection plan.

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as an agency need is identified.
    Explanation
    Acquisition planning is a crucial step in the procurement process, and it should begin as soon as an agency identifies a need. This ensures that the agency has enough time to thoroughly analyze the requirements, develop a strategy, and identify potential sources for the acquisition. By starting the planning process early, the agency can also avoid delays and make informed decisions regarding budgeting, scheduling, and resource allocation. Therefore, the correct answer is "as soon as an agency need is identified."

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  • 25. 

    Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the contracting officer (CO) and

    • The head of the contracting agency (HCA).

    • A contract specialist.

    • The program manager.

    • The technical team.

    Correct Answer
    A. The program manager.
    Explanation
    The program manager is responsible for overseeing the acquisition team and ensuring that the project is executed successfully. They play a crucial role in coordinating the efforts of the contracting officer, contract specialist, and technical team to ensure that all aspects of the acquisition process are handled effectively. The program manager's leadership is essential in guiding the team towards achieving the goals of the acquisition and ensuring that all parties involved are working together towards a common objective.

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  • 26. 

    Which is a factor in which a contracting officer (CO) can award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB)?

    • Award cannot be made at a fair and reasonable price.

    • The requirement is already being performed by an 8(a) participant.

    • The anticipated award price of the contract to include options will not exceed $8.5M.

    • The CO does not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns.

    Correct Answer
    A. The CO does not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns.
    Explanation
    The contracting officer (CO) can award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB) if they do not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns. This means that if the CO believes that there is only one SDVOSB that is capable of fulfilling the contract requirements, they can award the contract to that business without competition. This factor allows for sole-source contracts to be awarded in situations where there is limited competition among SDVOSBs.

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  • 27. 

    The advocate for competition prepares and submits an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive describing new initiatives

    • Required to limit competition.

    • Required to increase the acquisition of commercial items.

    • Required to increase the acquisition of non-commercial items.

    • To ensure non-salient characteristics are included in requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Required to increase the acquisition of commercial items.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "required to increase the acquisition of commercial items." This is because the advocate for competition is preparing and submitting an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive. The report is specifically describing new initiatives that are required to increase the acquisition of commercial items. This suggests that the advocate is focused on promoting competition within the agency's procurement process for commercial items.

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  • 28. 

    The difference between a brand-name requirement and single-source requirement is that the brand-name requirement

    • Can be provided by multiple sources whereas a single source is actually the purchase of one item.

    • Can only be provided by only one source and a single source is actually a sole-source requirement.

    • Is used for purchases under $25,000 whereas single source or one company can fill sole-source requirements.

    • Can be provided by multiple sources whereas single source or one company can only fill sole-source requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be provided by multiple sources whereas single source or one company can only fill sole-source requirements.
    Explanation
    A brand-name requirement can be provided by multiple sources, meaning that different companies or suppliers can offer products that meet the specified brand-name requirement. On the other hand, a single-source requirement means that only one specific company or supplier can fulfill the requirement. In other words, a brand-name requirement allows for competition and multiple options, while a single-source requirement restricts the choice to one specific company or supplier.

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  • 29. 

    When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer’s liability is

    • $20,000.

    • $100,000.

    • $200,000.

    • $500,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. $100,000.
    Explanation
    When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer's liability is $100,000. This amount provides adequate coverage to protect the contractor against potential claims or lawsuits related to employee injuries or illnesses that may occur during the course of the work. It ensures that the contractor has sufficient financial resources to compensate employees for any damages or medical expenses resulting from such incidents.

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  • 30. 

    Which statement describes the correct use of wage determinations?

    • Inclusion of wage determinations by reference is permitted.

    • Wage determinations do not apply to contracts that primarily include painting of buildings.

    • The Small Business Administration (SBA) is responsible for reviewing and issuing wage determinations on an annual basis.

    • Contracts must be modified to incorporate the most current wage determination each time the contracting officer (CO) exercises an option to extend the term of a construction contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracts must be modified to incorporate the most current wage determination each time the contracting officer (CO) exercises an option to extend the term of a construction contract.
    Explanation
    The correct use of wage determinations requires contracts to be modified to include the most up-to-date wage determination whenever the contracting officer extends the term of a construction contract. This ensures that the wages paid to workers are in line with the current standards set by the wage determination.

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  • 31. 

    At what dollar amount is a streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) required?

    • Between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M.

    • Between the micro-purchase threshold and the SAT.

    • Between $150,000 and $650,000.

    • $650,000 and above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M.
    Explanation
    A streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions that fall between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M. This means that if the dollar amount of an acquisition is above the SAT but below $10M, a SASS is necessary.

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  • 32. 

    Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities and

    • At least three suggested sources.

    • The wing commander’s preference.

    • The impact on the mission if substituted.

    • Alternative brands that may be considered.

    Correct Answer
    A. The impact on the mission if substituted.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the impact on the mission if substituted." This means that when justifying a brand-name, it is important to consider how substituting it with an alternative brand would affect the mission. This suggests that the chosen brand has specific capabilities or features that are crucial for the successful completion of the mission. The other options mentioned, such as the wing commander's preference and alternative brands, may also be considered, but the primary focus should be on the impact on the mission.

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  • 33. 

    Who has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification?

    • Technical expert.

    • Contracting officer (CO).

    • Competition advocate.

    • Requiring activity’s unit commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting officer (CO).
    Explanation
    The contracting officer (CO) has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification. The CO is responsible for ensuring that the procurement process is conducted in accordance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies. They have the authority to make decisions regarding sole-source or brand-name justifications and must ensure that all necessary documentation and justifications are properly prepared and maintained. The CO is accountable for ensuring that the procurement is conducted in a fair and transparent manner, and that all statutory requirements are met.

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  • 34. 

    Streamlined procedures

    • Are mandatory.

    • Do not meet the synopsis requirements of Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 5.

    • Increase the government-wide point of entry posting time.

    • Eliminate the need to issue a separate synopsis and solicitation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminate the need to issue a separate synopsis and solicitation.
    Explanation
    Streamlined procedures refer to a simplified and efficient process. In this context, they eliminate the need to issue a separate synopsis and solicitation. This means that instead of going through the time-consuming process of issuing two separate documents, the streamlined procedures combine both into one. This saves time and resources for the government, as they don't have to duplicate efforts and can proceed with the procurement process more quickly and efficiently.

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  • 35. 

    Formal solicitations over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and issued in negotiated acquisitions are referred to as

    • Request for bids.

    • Invitation for bids (IFB).

    • Request for quotations (RFQ).

    • Request for proposals (RFP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Request for proposals (RFP).
    Explanation
    Formal solicitations over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and issued in negotiated acquisitions are referred to as request for proposals (RFP). RFPs are used when the government agency needs to procure complex goods or services that require detailed proposals from potential contractors. Unlike requests for bids or requests for quotations, RFPs allow for negotiation and evaluation of proposals based on various factors such as technical approach, past performance, and cost. Therefore, RFP is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 36. 

    When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?

    • Quantity, specifications, or contract.

    • Quantity, contract type, or specifications.

    • Quantity, specifications, or delivery schedules.

    • Defects or ambiguities after the closing date.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantity, specifications, or delivery schedules.
    Explanation
    When amending a request for proposal (RFP), changes may be made to the quantity of the requested items, the specifications of the items being requested, or the delivery schedules for the items. These changes can be made to better align with the needs of the requesting party or to address any issues that may have arisen after the RFP was initially issued.

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  • 37. 

    What happens to unopened offeror proposals after a request for proposal (RFP) is cancelled?

    • Staged for a minimum of one year.

    • Returned to the offeror unopened.

    • Destroyed by an approved method.

    • E-files are saved and filed according to the file plan.

    Correct Answer
    A. Returned to the offeror unopened.
    Explanation
    After a request for proposal (RFP) is cancelled, the unopened offeror proposals are returned to the offeror unopened. This means that the proposals are not opened or reviewed by the organization requesting the proposals. Instead, they are sent back to the offerors in their original, sealed condition. This ensures that the offerors have the opportunity to retrieve their proposals and potentially use them for other purposes or submit them to other organizations.

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  • 38. 

    What action must a contracting officer (CO) take if market research indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs?

    • Restate terms to permit the acquisition of commercial items.

    • Cancel the solicitation and resolicit using military specifications.

    • Issue the award on a sole-source basis.

    • Dissolve the small business set-aside.

    Correct Answer
    A. Restate terms to permit the acquisition of commercial items.
    Explanation
    If market research indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs, the contracting officer (CO) must restate the terms of the acquisition to allow for the acquisition of commercial items. This means that the CO should modify the solicitation or contract to accommodate the use of commercial items instead of seeking alternatives such as canceling the solicitation, issuing a sole-source award, or dissolving the small business set-aside. Restating the terms allows for flexibility and the potential to find suitable commercial items that can meet the customer's needs.

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  • 39. 

    Which is not a reason why a customer would want to limit competition?

    • Sole-source.

    • Brand-name.

    • Single source.

    • Customer preferred.

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer preferred.
    Explanation
    The reason "Customer preferred" is not a valid reason for a customer to want to limit competition is because customer preference is subjective and varies from person to person. Limiting competition based on individual preferences would not be fair or beneficial for the market as a whole. In a competitive market, customers have the freedom to choose the product or service that best suits their needs and preferences. Limiting competition goes against the principles of a free market economy and can result in reduced innovation, higher prices, and limited choices for consumers.

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  • 40. 

    What specific information is included in a market research report?

    • Constraints to competition.

    • Review of offeror past performance.

    • Detailed analysis of cost and pricing data.

    • Identification of source selection evaluation criteria.

    Correct Answer
    A. Constraints to competition.
    Explanation
    A market research report includes information about constraints to competition. This refers to any factors that limit or restrict the level of competition in a particular market. Understanding these constraints is crucial for businesses to develop effective strategies and make informed decisions. By analyzing the market research report, companies can identify barriers to entry, monopolistic practices, or any other factors that may impact competition. This information helps businesses understand the competitive landscape and adapt their approach accordingly to gain a competitive advantage.

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  • 41. 

    Which is not a type of historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) contract?

    • HUBZone set-aside.

    • HUBZone sole source.

    • HUBZone full and open.

    • Competitive HUBZone set-aside.

    Correct Answer
    A. HUBZone full and open.
    Explanation
    The HUBZone program is designed to encourage economic development in historically underutilized business zones by providing contracting preferences to small businesses located in these areas. HUBZone set-aside contracts are specifically reserved for HUBZone-certified businesses, while HUBZone sole source contracts are awarded without competition to a single HUBZone-certified business. Competitive HUBZone set-aside contracts are open to multiple HUBZone-certified businesses, but HUBZone full and open contracts are not specific to HUBZone-certified businesses and can be awarded to any small business. Therefore, HUBZone full and open is not a type of HUBZone contract.

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  • 42. 

    One criterion that a woman is presumed economically disadvantaged under the economically disadvantaged women-owned small business (EDWOSB) program is if her personal net worth is less than what dollar amount?

    • $750,000.

    • $350,000.

    • $1 million (M).

    • $6M.

    Correct Answer
    A. $750,000.
    Explanation
    The criterion that a woman is presumed economically disadvantaged under the economically disadvantaged women-owned small business (EDWOSB) program is if her personal net worth is less than $750,000.

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  • 43. 

    Which is not a factor in determining competitive procedures?

    • Micro-purchases.

    • Market conditions.

    • Support of existing systems.

    • End of fiscal year constraints.

    Correct Answer
    A. End of fiscal year constraints.
    Explanation
    End of fiscal year constraints is not a factor in determining competitive procedures. Competitive procedures are used to ensure fairness and transparency in the procurement process. Factors such as micro-purchases, market conditions, and support of existing systems are taken into account when determining the appropriate competitive procedure to be followed. However, the end of the fiscal year does not have a direct impact on the selection of competitive procedures.

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  • 44. 

    Oral solicitations may not be practicable for

    • Micro-purchases.

    • Actions exceeding $25,000.

    • The acquisition of commercial items.

    • The purchase of supplies and services.

    Correct Answer
    A. Actions exceeding $25,000.
    Explanation
    Oral solicitations may not be practicable for actions exceeding $25,000 because larger purchases typically require more formal and documented procedures to ensure fairness, transparency, and competition. Oral solicitations may not provide enough detail or allow for proper evaluation and comparison of bids or proposals. Therefore, it is necessary to use written solicitations and formal contracting processes for actions exceeding $25,000 to ensure compliance with procurement regulations and to obtain the best value for the organization.

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  • 45. 

    What additional product information may be required of offerors to ensure that products meet the requirements of an invitation for bid (IFB)?

    • Submittals.

    • Bid offerings.

    • Oral presentations.

    • Descriptive literature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Descriptive literature.
    Explanation
    To ensure that products meet the requirements of an invitation for bid (IFB), offerors may be required to provide descriptive literature. This additional product information allows the buyer to evaluate the product's features, specifications, and performance capabilities. Descriptive literature can provide a detailed understanding of the product, allowing the buyer to make an informed decision during the bidding process. Submittals, bid offerings, and oral presentations may also be required in some cases, but descriptive literature specifically focuses on providing comprehensive information about the product.

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  • 46. 

    Amendments to invitation for bids (IFB) may change any of the following except

    • Contract type.

    • Specifications.

    • Delivery schedule.

    • Ambiguous invitation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contract type.
    Explanation
    Amendments to an invitation for bids (IFB) can modify various aspects of the bid requirements. The contract type, however, is typically determined and specified prior to the bidding process and is not subject to change through amendments. The contract type refers to the specific legal arrangement between the buyer and the seller, such as fixed-price, cost-reimbursement, or time and materials. Therefore, amendments to an IFB may alter specifications, delivery schedule, or address any ambiguities in the invitation, but they would not affect the predetermined contract type.

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  • 47. 

    When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order, which is not included in the requirements package?

    • The price indicated on the independent government estimate.

    • Location of work and delivery schedule.

    • Description of work to be performed.

    • Security clearance requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. The price indicated on the independent government estimate.
    Explanation
    In a General Services Administration (GSA) task order, the requirements package typically includes important information such as the location of work, delivery schedule, and description of work to be performed. However, the price indicated on the independent government estimate is not included in the requirements package. This estimate is used to determine the cost of the project but is not part of the package that outlines the specific requirements for the task order.

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  • 48. 

    Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clauses 52.212–1 and 52.212–4 are incorporated into commercial contracts by reference by checking block

    • 27a of the Standard Form (SF) 33.

    • 27b of the SF 33.

    • 27a of the SF 1449.

    • 27b of the SF 1449.

    Correct Answer
    A. 27a of the SF 1449.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 27a of the SF 1449 because according to the information provided, Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clauses 52.212–1 and 52.212–4 are incorporated into commercial contracts by reference by checking block 27a of the Standard Form (SF) 1449.

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  • 49. 

    Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs associated with the source selection process and

    • May be a substitute for written information.

    • Occur during the final round of negotiations.

    • Are evaluated quantitatively and scored by the government.

    • May contain only the information provided in the offeror’s proposal.

    Correct Answer
    A. May be a substitute for written information.
    Explanation
    Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs associated with the source selection process because they allow for direct communication and immediate clarification of any questions or concerns. By presenting information verbally, the need for lengthy written reports or documents may be eliminated or reduced. Therefore, oral presentations can serve as a substitute for written information in the source selection process.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 8, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 08, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 08, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Zachary
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