6c051 Edit Code 2 Vol 2

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1. When executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order, what is a circumstance in which a contracting officer (CO) can justify limiting sources?

Explanation

In certain situations, a contracting officer (CO) may justify limiting sources when executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order. One such circumstance is when there is an urgent and compelling need that cannot be met if the regular procedures are followed, as doing so would cause delays. In such cases, the CO may choose to limit sources in order to expedite the procurement process and ensure that the necessary goods or services are obtained in a timely manner.

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About This Quiz
Professional Development Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled '6C051 Edit Code 2 Vol 2', assesses knowledge in government acquisition planning, competitive sourcing, and roles in acquisition teams. It is designed for individuals involved in or learning about federal contracting and procurement processes.

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2. When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.228–5, Insurance-Work on a Government Installation, is included in a contract, the contracting officer (CO) requests and receives proof of insurance

Explanation

According to the given information, when the FAR 52.228-5 clause is included in a contract, the contracting officer requests and receives proof of insurance before the contractor begins work. This means that the contractor must provide proof of insurance prior to starting the work.

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3. When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the micro-purchase threshold but not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contracting officer (CO) shall provide the request for quotations (RFQ) to at least how many contractors?

Explanation

When executing a GSA task order above the micro-purchase threshold but not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contracting officer (CO) is required to provide the request for quotations (RFQ) to at least three contractors. This ensures that there is a competitive bidding process and allows for a fair selection of the contractor who can provide the best value for the task order. By reaching out to multiple contractors, the CO can compare quotes and make an informed decision based on price, quality, and other relevant factors.

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4. Which socioeconomic program is aimed to help a small business located on an Indian reservation?

Explanation

The correct answer is Historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone). This program is aimed at helping small businesses located in economically distressed areas, including Indian reservations. The program provides various benefits and opportunities for these businesses, such as preferential access to federal contracts and assistance in obtaining loans and access to capital. By promoting economic development in these areas, the HUBZone program aims to create jobs and stimulate growth in historically underutilized business zones.

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5. Who is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer's requirements can be met through available supply channels?

Explanation

The base supply officer is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer's requirements can be met through available supply channels. They oversee the procurement, storage, and distribution of supplies within the base, ensuring that there is an adequate stock of necessary items and coordinating with different departments to meet the needs of the customers.

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6. At what prices shall agencies purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule?

Explanation

Agencies shall purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule at prices not to exceed fair market value. This means that they can purchase the supplies at prices that are equal to or lower than the fair market value, ensuring that they do not pay more than what is considered reasonable in the market.

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7. When considering a lease versus purchase, the purchase method is appropriate when

Explanation

The correct answer is "cumulative leasing costs will exceed purchase costs." This means that it is more cost-effective to lease the equipment over a period of time rather than purchasing it outright. Leasing allows for flexibility and avoids the upfront cost of purchasing, making it a better option when the total cost of leasing over time is lower than the cost of purchasing.

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8. The group of functional experts that reviews and recommends acquisition strategies for a specific product or service is known as

Explanation

An acquisition strategy panel (ASP) is a group of functional experts who are responsible for reviewing and recommending acquisition strategies for a specific product or service. They analyze various factors such as cost, risk, and performance to determine the most effective approach for acquiring the desired product or service. The ASP plays a crucial role in ensuring that the acquisition process is well-planned and aligns with the organization's goals and objectives.

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9. Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the necessary arrangements?

Explanation

The contracting officer (CO) is responsible for deciding if a preproposal conference is required and making the necessary arrangements. As the individual in charge of managing the contract, the CO has the authority to determine if a preproposal conference is necessary to clarify any questions or concerns regarding the contract. They will then coordinate and organize the conference to ensure that all relevant parties are present and that the conference is conducted effectively.

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10. When conducting a site visit,

Explanation

When conducting a site visit, it is important to ensure fairness and equal opportunity for all offerors. Making site information available to all offerors in the same manner ensures that no one has an advantage or disadvantage. This helps to maintain a level playing field and allows all offerors to make informed decisions and submit competitive proposals.

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11. What should a contracting officer (CO) do if he or she only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business?

Explanation

If a contracting officer (CO) only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business, they should award the contract to that offer. This means that the CO has determined that the offer meets all the necessary requirements and is considered acceptable. Therefore, there is no need to extend the deadline for offers, contact the Small Business Administration (SBA) for guidance, or cancel the solicitation and re-advertise. The CO can proceed with awarding the contract to the acceptable offer received.

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12. Which is not an example of a wholesale supply source?

Explanation

The Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES) is not an example of a wholesale supply source because it is a retail organization that operates on military installations, providing goods and services to military personnel, retirees, and their families. On the other hand, the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), Department of Veteran Affairs (VA), and General Services Administration (GSA) are all examples of wholesale supply sources that provide goods and services to various government agencies and military branches.

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13. Which statute requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract expected to exceed $150,000?

Explanation

The correct answer is 40 United States Code (USC), Chapter 31, Subchapter II, Bonds. This statute requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract expected to exceed $150,000.

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14. Usually, who can approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000?

Explanation

The contracting officer is usually the one who can approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000. This is because the contracting officer is responsible for overseeing and managing the procurement process, including making decisions on source justifications. The commander, general or flag officer equivalent, and command contracting director may have authority in other aspects of the procurement process, but approving limited sources justifications falls under the purview of the contracting officer.

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15. A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than

Explanation

A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than 60 days. This means that if the equipment will be leased for a period longer than 60 days, a decision needs to be made whether to lease or purchase the equipment. Leasing is typically more suitable for shorter durations, while purchasing may be more cost-effective for longer periods. Therefore, the correct answer is 60 days.

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16. If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, then the contracting officer (CO) can

Explanation

If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, the contracting officer (CO) cannot award it anyway because it is mandatory. Instead, the CO can use competitive procedures to acquire the product. This means that the CO will open up the procurement process to other potential suppliers, allowing them to compete with FPI by submitting their own offers. This ensures that the government gets the best value for its money and encourages fair competition in the procurement process.

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17. In terms of physical characteristics and estimated price range, advance notices and solicitations for a requirement must state

Explanation

In advance notices and solicitations for a requirement, it is important to state the project magnitude. This refers to the physical characteristics of the project and the estimated price range. By providing this information, potential contractors can assess whether they have the capability and resources to fulfill the requirements of the project. It also helps in determining the appropriate budget and allocation of resources by the government. Stating the project magnitude is essential for effective communication and ensuring that the right contractors are attracted to bid on the project.

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18. Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract awarded by another agency are

Explanation

Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract awarded by another agency are not exempt from the development of acquisition plans. This means that even if the contract is awarded by another agency, the development of acquisition plans is still required. This ensures that proper planning and strategies are in place for the acquisition process, regardless of the agency involved.

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19. Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to

Explanation

Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the performing of work. This means that during the site visit, the offerors can access and review any relevant government data that could help them understand the requirements and scope of the work. This allows them to gather important information that may impact their bid and their ability to successfully perform the work. By examining this data, offerors can make more informed decisions and tailor their proposals accordingly.

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20. Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for proposal (RFP) before closing?

Explanation

If the changes in the circumstances are so significant that they go beyond what the prospective offerors could have reasonably anticipated, it would justify canceling the request for proposal (RFP) before closing. This means that the changes are unexpected and go beyond the scope of what the contractors could have reasonably prepared for or addressed in their proposals. This would ensure fairness and allow for a level playing field for all potential offerors.

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21. All of the following are examples of competitive procedures except

Explanation

Brand-name requirements are not an example of a competitive procedure because they specify a particular brand or product, limiting competition and potentially excluding other qualified vendors. Competitive procedures, on the other hand, promote fair and open competition among potential suppliers, allowing them to submit bids or proposals based on specified criteria. Sealed bids, two-step sealed bidding, and competitive proposals are all examples of competitive procedures as they involve a competitive process for selecting the best offer or proposal.

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22. What action should a contracting officer (CO) take if only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern?

Explanation

If only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern, the contracting officer should make an award to that firm. This is because the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) states that if only one offer is received in response to a small business set-aside, the contracting officer may make an award to that firm if the offer is acceptable and the price is reasonable. Therefore, in this scenario, since the offer is acceptable and there are no other offers to consider, the CO should proceed with making an award to the small business concern.

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23. In what situation would purchases automatically be reserved for small business concerns?

Explanation

Purchases are automatically reserved for small business concerns when the value of the purchase falls between the micro-purchase threshold and the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT). This means that if the purchase is below the micro-purchase threshold, it is automatically reserved for small businesses. However, if the purchase exceeds the SAT, it is not automatically reserved for small businesses. Therefore, the correct answer is between the micro-purchase threshold and the SAT.

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24. Acquisition planning must take place

Explanation

Acquisition planning is a crucial step in the procurement process, and it should begin as soon as an agency identifies a need. This ensures that the agency has enough time to thoroughly analyze the requirements, develop a strategy, and identify potential sources for the acquisition. By starting the planning process early, the agency can also avoid delays and make informed decisions regarding budgeting, scheduling, and resource allocation. Therefore, the correct answer is "as soon as an agency need is identified."

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25. The difference between a brand-name requirement and single-source requirement is that the brand-name requirement

Explanation

A brand-name requirement can be provided by multiple sources, meaning that different companies or suppliers can offer products that meet the specified brand-name requirement. On the other hand, a single-source requirement means that only one specific company or supplier can fulfill the requirement. In other words, a brand-name requirement allows for competition and multiple options, while a single-source requirement restricts the choice to one specific company or supplier.

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26. Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the contracting officer (CO) and

Explanation

The program manager is responsible for overseeing the acquisition team and ensuring that the project is executed successfully. They play a crucial role in coordinating the efforts of the contracting officer, contract specialist, and technical team to ensure that all aspects of the acquisition process are handled effectively. The program manager's leadership is essential in guiding the team towards achieving the goals of the acquisition and ensuring that all parties involved are working together towards a common objective.

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27. When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer's liability is

Explanation

When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer's liability is $100,000. This amount provides adequate coverage to protect the contractor against potential claims or lawsuits related to employee injuries or illnesses that may occur during the course of the work. It ensures that the contractor has sufficient financial resources to compensate employees for any damages or medical expenses resulting from such incidents.

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28. Which statement describes the correct use of wage determinations?

Explanation

The correct use of wage determinations requires contracts to be modified to include the most up-to-date wage determination whenever the contracting officer extends the term of a construction contract. This ensures that the wages paid to workers are in line with the current standards set by the wage determination.

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29. The advocate for competition prepares and submits an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive describing new initiatives

Explanation

The correct answer is "required to increase the acquisition of commercial items." This is because the advocate for competition is preparing and submitting an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive. The report is specifically describing new initiatives that are required to increase the acquisition of commercial items. This suggests that the advocate is focused on promoting competition within the agency's procurement process for commercial items.

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30. Which is a factor in which a contracting officer (CO) can award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB)?

Explanation

The contracting officer (CO) can award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB) if they do not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns. This means that if the CO believes that there is only one SDVOSB that is capable of fulfilling the contract requirements, they can award the contract to that business without competition. This factor allows for sole-source contracts to be awarded in situations where there is limited competition among SDVOSBs.

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31. Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities and

Explanation

The correct answer is "the impact on the mission if substituted." This means that when justifying a brand-name, it is important to consider how substituting it with an alternative brand would affect the mission. This suggests that the chosen brand has specific capabilities or features that are crucial for the successful completion of the mission. The other options mentioned, such as the wing commander's preference and alternative brands, may also be considered, but the primary focus should be on the impact on the mission.

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32. Who has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification?

Explanation

The contracting officer (CO) has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification. The CO is responsible for ensuring that the procurement process is conducted in accordance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies. They have the authority to make decisions regarding sole-source or brand-name justifications and must ensure that all necessary documentation and justifications are properly prepared and maintained. The CO is accountable for ensuring that the procurement is conducted in a fair and transparent manner, and that all statutory requirements are met.

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33. Streamlined procedures

Explanation

Streamlined procedures refer to a simplified and efficient process. In this context, they eliminate the need to issue a separate synopsis and solicitation. This means that instead of going through the time-consuming process of issuing two separate documents, the streamlined procedures combine both into one. This saves time and resources for the government, as they don't have to duplicate efforts and can proceed with the procurement process more quickly and efficiently.

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34. When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?

Explanation

When amending a request for proposal (RFP), changes may be made to the quantity of the requested items, the specifications of the items being requested, or the delivery schedules for the items. These changes can be made to better align with the needs of the requesting party or to address any issues that may have arisen after the RFP was initially issued.

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35. Formal solicitations over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and issued in negotiated acquisitions are referred to as

Explanation

Formal solicitations over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and issued in negotiated acquisitions are referred to as request for proposals (RFP). RFPs are used when the government agency needs to procure complex goods or services that require detailed proposals from potential contractors. Unlike requests for bids or requests for quotations, RFPs allow for negotiation and evaluation of proposals based on various factors such as technical approach, past performance, and cost. Therefore, RFP is the correct answer in this case.

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36. What happens to unopened offeror proposals after a request for proposal (RFP) is cancelled?

Explanation

After a request for proposal (RFP) is cancelled, the unopened offeror proposals are returned to the offeror unopened. This means that the proposals are not opened or reviewed by the organization requesting the proposals. Instead, they are sent back to the offerors in their original, sealed condition. This ensures that the offerors have the opportunity to retrieve their proposals and potentially use them for other purposes or submit them to other organizations.

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37. At what dollar amount is a streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) required?

Explanation

A streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions that fall between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M. This means that if the dollar amount of an acquisition is above the SAT but below $10M, a SASS is necessary.

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38. What action must a contracting officer (CO) take if market research indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs?

Explanation

If market research indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs, the contracting officer (CO) must restate the terms of the acquisition to allow for the acquisition of commercial items. This means that the CO should modify the solicitation or contract to accommodate the use of commercial items instead of seeking alternatives such as canceling the solicitation, issuing a sole-source award, or dissolving the small business set-aside. Restating the terms allows for flexibility and the potential to find suitable commercial items that can meet the customer's needs.

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39. Which is not a reason why a customer would want to limit competition?

Explanation

The reason "Customer preferred" is not a valid reason for a customer to want to limit competition is because customer preference is subjective and varies from person to person. Limiting competition based on individual preferences would not be fair or beneficial for the market as a whole. In a competitive market, customers have the freedom to choose the product or service that best suits their needs and preferences. Limiting competition goes against the principles of a free market economy and can result in reduced innovation, higher prices, and limited choices for consumers.

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40. What specific information is included in a market research report?

Explanation

A market research report includes information about constraints to competition. This refers to any factors that limit or restrict the level of competition in a particular market. Understanding these constraints is crucial for businesses to develop effective strategies and make informed decisions. By analyzing the market research report, companies can identify barriers to entry, monopolistic practices, or any other factors that may impact competition. This information helps businesses understand the competitive landscape and adapt their approach accordingly to gain a competitive advantage.

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41. Which is not a type of historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) contract?

Explanation

The HUBZone program is designed to encourage economic development in historically underutilized business zones by providing contracting preferences to small businesses located in these areas. HUBZone set-aside contracts are specifically reserved for HUBZone-certified businesses, while HUBZone sole source contracts are awarded without competition to a single HUBZone-certified business. Competitive HUBZone set-aside contracts are open to multiple HUBZone-certified businesses, but HUBZone full and open contracts are not specific to HUBZone-certified businesses and can be awarded to any small business. Therefore, HUBZone full and open is not a type of HUBZone contract.

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42. Oral solicitations may not be practicable for

Explanation

Oral solicitations may not be practicable for actions exceeding $25,000 because larger purchases typically require more formal and documented procedures to ensure fairness, transparency, and competition. Oral solicitations may not provide enough detail or allow for proper evaluation and comparison of bids or proposals. Therefore, it is necessary to use written solicitations and formal contracting processes for actions exceeding $25,000 to ensure compliance with procurement regulations and to obtain the best value for the organization.

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43. What additional product information may be required of offerors to ensure that products meet the requirements of an invitation for bid (IFB)?

Explanation

To ensure that products meet the requirements of an invitation for bid (IFB), offerors may be required to provide descriptive literature. This additional product information allows the buyer to evaluate the product's features, specifications, and performance capabilities. Descriptive literature can provide a detailed understanding of the product, allowing the buyer to make an informed decision during the bidding process. Submittals, bid offerings, and oral presentations may also be required in some cases, but descriptive literature specifically focuses on providing comprehensive information about the product.

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44. One criterion that a woman is presumed economically disadvantaged under the economically disadvantaged women-owned small business (EDWOSB) program is if her personal net worth is less than what dollar amount?

Explanation

The criterion that a woman is presumed economically disadvantaged under the economically disadvantaged women-owned small business (EDWOSB) program is if her personal net worth is less than $750,000.

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45. Which is not a factor in determining competitive procedures?

Explanation

End of fiscal year constraints is not a factor in determining competitive procedures. Competitive procedures are used to ensure fairness and transparency in the procurement process. Factors such as micro-purchases, market conditions, and support of existing systems are taken into account when determining the appropriate competitive procedure to be followed. However, the end of the fiscal year does not have a direct impact on the selection of competitive procedures.

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46. Amendments to invitation for bids (IFB) may change any of the following except

Explanation

Amendments to an invitation for bids (IFB) can modify various aspects of the bid requirements. The contract type, however, is typically determined and specified prior to the bidding process and is not subject to change through amendments. The contract type refers to the specific legal arrangement between the buyer and the seller, such as fixed-price, cost-reimbursement, or time and materials. Therefore, amendments to an IFB may alter specifications, delivery schedule, or address any ambiguities in the invitation, but they would not affect the predetermined contract type.

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47. Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clauses 52.212–1 and 52.212–4 are incorporated into commercial contracts by reference by checking block

Explanation

The correct answer is 27a of the SF 1449 because according to the information provided, Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clauses 52.212–1 and 52.212–4 are incorporated into commercial contracts by reference by checking block 27a of the Standard Form (SF) 1449.

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48. When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order, which is not included in the requirements package?

Explanation

In a General Services Administration (GSA) task order, the requirements package typically includes important information such as the location of work, delivery schedule, and description of work to be performed. However, the price indicated on the independent government estimate is not included in the requirements package. This estimate is used to determine the cost of the project but is not part of the package that outlines the specific requirements for the task order.

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49. Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs associated with the source selection process and

Explanation

Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs associated with the source selection process because they allow for direct communication and immediate clarification of any questions or concerns. By presenting information verbally, the need for lengthy written reports or documents may be eliminated or reduced. Therefore, oral presentations can serve as a substitute for written information in the source selection process.

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50. A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions with a dollar value

Explanation

A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M. This means that any acquisition with a dollar value exceeding the SAT, which is typically $250,000, but not exceeding $10 million, will require a SASS. This summary provides a concise overview of the acquisition strategy and helps ensure that the acquisition process is properly planned and executed.

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51. When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), which factor is not documented when considering best value?

Explanation

When considering best value for an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the factor that is not documented is the contractor that the customer chose. The amount paid, the basis for the award decision, and a description of the supply or service purchased are all factors that should be documented when considering best value. However, the specific contractor chosen by the customer is not typically documented in this context.

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52. Solicitations issued using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are referred to as

Explanation

Solicitations issued using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are referred to as request for quotations (RFQ). RFQs are typically used when the government needs to purchase goods or services that are readily available in the commercial market and can be easily priced. It is a less formal procurement method compared to other types of solicitations like invitation for bids (IFB) or request for proposals (RFP), and it allows the government to obtain quotes from multiple vendors quickly and efficiently.

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53. Which source selection process allows the source selection authority (SSA) discretion in awarding to higher rated performers over lower rated performers if the price differential is warranted and considered the best value?

Explanation

The tradeoff source selection process allows the source selection authority (SSA) to use their discretion in awarding contracts to higher rated performers even if their price is higher. This is because the SSA considers the best value, taking into account factors other than just price. In this process, the SSA weighs the tradeoffs between cost and non-cost factors, such as technical capabilities, past performance, and schedule. The goal is to select the proposal that provides the best overall value to the government, even if it comes at a higher price.

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54. A pre-bid conference

Explanation

A pre-bid conference is used in complex acquisitions as a means to explain complicated specifications. This type of conference is held to provide potential offerors with a better understanding of the requirements and specifications of the project. It allows them to ask questions, seek clarifications, and gather information that will help them in preparing their bids. This is particularly important in complex acquisitions where the specifications may be difficult to interpret or understand without additional explanation. The conference helps ensure that all potential bidders have a clear understanding of what is expected, reducing the chances of misunderstandings or mistakes in the bidding process.

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55. Which is not a required criterion for a small business to qualify as a historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone)?

Explanation

To qualify as a historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone), a small business must meet several criteria. It must be located in a HUBZone, have at least 35 percent of its employees residing in a HUBZone, and be at least 51 percent owned and controlled by one or more US citizens. However, it is not necessary for the business to be owned by citizens who live in a HUBZone. As long as the business meets the other requirements, it can qualify for HUBZone status regardless of the location of its owners.

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56. What office is responsible for tracking prior commercial item determinations?

Explanation

The Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA) Commercial Item Group is responsible for tracking prior commercial item determinations. This means that they keep records and monitor previous determinations made regarding whether a particular item can be considered a commercial item for the purpose of government contracting. They ensure that these determinations are properly tracked and documented for future reference.

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57. A separate synopsis and solicitation must be issued using the Standard Form (SF) 1449 when all of the following conditions are present except

Explanation

When streamlined procedures are being used, a separate synopsis and solicitation using the Standard Form (SF) 1449 is not required. Streamlined procedures are designed to simplify and expedite the acquisition process for purchases below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT). Therefore, if streamlined procedures are being used, it means that the acquisition is not expected to exceed the SAT, which is contrary to the condition mentioned in the question.

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58. The Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled is responsible for all of the following except

Explanation

The Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled is responsible for establishing prices for supplies and services, establishing rules and regulations to implement the AbilityOne Act, and determining supplies and services to be purchased by all entities of the government from AbilityOne participating nonprofit agencies. However, it is not responsible for providing everything from workplaces, security, and supplies to telecommunications.

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59. What Federal Business Opportunities (FBO) template may be used to determine the availability of commercial sources or conducting market research?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Sources sought." A sources sought notice is used to determine the availability of commercial sources or conduct market research. It is a request for information from potential vendors to determine if there are enough qualified businesses capable of meeting the requirements of a government contract. This notice helps the government to assess the market and make informed decisions about how to proceed with the procurement process.

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60. When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to be below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), at a minimum, the ordering activity shall document

Explanation

When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to be below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the ordering activity is required to document the amount paid and the basis for the award decision. This documentation ensures transparency and accountability in the procurement process. It allows for tracking and auditing of the funds spent and provides justification for the selection of a particular contractor. By documenting the amount paid and the basis for the award decision, the ordering activity can demonstrate that the procurement was conducted fairly and in accordance with regulations.

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61. Which of the following describes a preproposal conference?

Explanation

A preproposal conference is a meeting that may be held after a solicitation is issued but before offers are submitted. This conference allows potential offerors to ask questions and seek clarification about the solicitation requirements. It provides an opportunity for the contracting agency to communicate important information and address any concerns raised by the offerors. The conference may also lead to changes or clarifications in the terms of the solicitation, which can benefit all interested parties.

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62. Section L of a solicitation

Explanation

Section L of a solicitation provides instructions to offerors in preparing their proposals. This section typically includes information such as the format and content requirements for the proposal, the deadline for submission, and any specific instructions or guidelines that offerors must follow. It helps ensure that all offerors have a clear understanding of what is expected from them when preparing their proposals, allowing for a fair and consistent evaluation process.

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63. Within how many days after contract award must a justification and approval (J&A) be made available to the public through the government-wide point of entry (GPE)?

Explanation

A justification and approval (J&A) must be made available to the public through the government-wide point of entry (GPE) within 14 days after contract award. This allows for transparency and accountability in the contracting process, ensuring that the public has access to information about the contract and the reasons behind the award decision.

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64. What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses?

Explanation

Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part 19 prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses. This part specifically addresses the government's commitment to providing maximum practicable opportunities for small businesses to participate in government contracts. It sets forth various requirements and procedures for small business set-asides, subcontracting, and other programs aimed at promoting small business participation in federal contracting.

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65. Which is not a type of indefinite-delivery contract?

Explanation

A cost-plus fixed fee contract is not a type of indefinite-delivery contract. Indefinite-delivery contracts are used when the government needs an indefinite quantity of supplies or services over a specified period. Requirements contracts and indefinite-quantity contracts are both examples of indefinite-delivery contracts as they allow for the delivery of an indefinite quantity of goods or services. A definite-quantity contract, on the other hand, is a type of contract that specifies a fixed quantity of goods or services to be delivered. Therefore, the correct answer is Cost-plus fixed fee contract.

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66. What should be considered before amending an invitation for bid (IFB)?

Explanation

Before amending an invitation for bid (IFB), one should consider the period of time remaining until bid opening and the need to extend the period. This is important because if there is not enough time left before the bid opening, extending the period may be necessary in order to allow potential offerors to adjust their bids accordingly. This ensures fairness and equal opportunity for all interested parties to submit their bids.

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67. What part of the uniform contract format (UCF) contains sections K through M?

Explanation

The correct answer is Four. Sections K through M of the uniform contract format (UCF) are contained in Part Four.

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68. When establishing solicitation response times for the acquisition of commercial items, how many days must a requirement exceeding $25,000 be posted?

Explanation

The correct answer is "A reasonable time." When establishing solicitation response times for the acquisition of commercial items, there is no specific number of days mentioned for requirements exceeding $25,000 to be posted. Instead, the time frame should be determined based on what is considered reasonable in the given circumstances. This allows for flexibility and takes into account factors such as the complexity of the requirement, the availability of potential vendors, and the urgency of the acquisition.

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69. Amendments to requests for quotations (RFQ) are

Explanation

Amendments to requests for quotations (RFQ) are issued using the Standard Form (SF) 30. The SF 30 is a standardized form used to make changes or modifications to an existing RFQ. It is used to communicate any revisions, additions, or clarifications to the original RFQ. By using the SF 30, the issuing party can ensure that all changes are properly documented and communicated to the relevant parties involved in the procurement process.

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70. Proposed contract actions are required to be publicized according to Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part

Explanation

The correct answer is 5 because Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 5 specifically deals with publicizing contract actions. This regulation ensures that proposed contract actions are made public in order to promote transparency and fair competition in the acquisition process. It outlines the requirements and methods for publicizing contract opportunities, such as through the Federal Business Opportunities (FedBizOpps) website.

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71. When shall a contracting officer (CO) provide unsuccessful offerors additional information after awarding a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT)?

Explanation

When a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) is awarded based on factors other than price, the contracting officer (CO) shall provide additional information to unsuccessful offerors upon request. This is because the award decision was not solely based on price, so the unsuccessful offerors may need more information to understand why their proposal was not selected.

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72. Designating a competition advocate for each contracting activity is a requirement of the

Explanation

The Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act requires the designation of a competition advocate for each contracting activity. This act focuses on improving the efficiency and effectiveness of federal procurement processes, and the competition advocate plays a crucial role in promoting competition in government contracts. They work to ensure that contracts are awarded through fair and open competition, which helps to drive down costs, increase innovation, and provide opportunities for small businesses.

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73. To the maximum extent practicable, public law requires that contracts for the acquisition of commercial items include only those clauses required to implement provisions of law or executive orders, or those clauses

Explanation

The correct answer is "determined to be consistent with customary commercial practice." This means that contracts for the acquisition of commercial items should include only those clauses that are in line with the usual practices followed in the commercial industry. These clauses should be determined based on what is commonly accepted and practiced in the commercial market rather than being dictated solely by provisions of law or executive orders.

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74. What higher level planning process is used to identify and determine whether government work should be contracted or performed in-house?

Explanation

Competitive sourcing is the higher level planning process used to identify and determine whether government work should be contracted or performed in-house. This process involves conducting market research, evaluating potential sources, and selecting the most suitable option for performing the work. It aims to achieve cost-effectiveness, efficiency, and quality by encouraging competition among potential sources, both internal and external, and making informed decisions based on their capabilities and competitiveness.

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75. When the uniform contract format (UCF) is used for sealed bidding, prepare the invitation for bid (IFB) on Standard Form (SF)

Explanation

When using the uniform contract format (UCF) for sealed bidding, the invitation for bid (IFB) should be prepared on Standard Form (SF) 33. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of inviting contractors to submit their bids for a particular project. It includes all the necessary information and sections required for a comprehensive bid submission process. Therefore, using SF 33 ensures that all the required information is included and allows for a standardized evaluation of bids.

Submit
76. Early exchanges of information when using sealed bidding is

Explanation

In sealed bidding, the early exchanges of information are encouraged from the earliest identification of a requirement through receipt of bids. This means that the government encourages communication and information sharing between the parties involved in the bidding process from the very beginning, starting from when the requirement is identified until the bids are received. This allows for a more transparent and efficient bidding process, ensuring that all parties have the necessary information to submit competitive bids.

Submit
77. The correct way to prepare requests for proposals (RFP) is to

Explanation

The correct way to prepare requests for proposals (RFP) is to combine FAR Part 15 procedures with FAR Part 12 procedures. This is because FAR Part 15 procedures provide guidelines for obtaining competitive proposals from potential contractors, while FAR Part 12 procedures outline the requirements for acquiring commercial items. By combining these procedures, the RFP can effectively address both competitive and commercial aspects. Additionally, the RFP is prepared using the commercial contract format, which is suitable for acquiring commercial items.

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78. Which of the following statements regarding the inclusion of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clause 52.212–2, Evaluation-Commercial Items, in solicitations is true?

Explanation

The correct answer states that the provision is not necessary when an award will be based on price alone and using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP). This means that if the evaluation of the commercial items is solely based on price and the procurement is being conducted through SAP, then the inclusion of the FAR clause 52.212-2 is not required. The clause is only necessary when other evaluation factors are considered besides price.

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79. When placing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) that is supported by limiting sources, the justification must be posted on www.fbo.gov within

Explanation

When placing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) that is supported by limiting sources, the justification must be posted on www.fbo.gov within 14 days. This allows for transparency and ensures that all interested parties have access to the information regarding the order and the reasons for limiting sources. It also gives suppliers and contractors a fair opportunity to review and potentially challenge the decision if they believe it to be unfair or unjustified.

Submit
80. At what dollar amount does the non-manufacturer rule not apply?

Explanation

The non-manufacturer rule does not apply for purchases under $25,000. This means that for purchases below this threshold, the rule that requires government agencies to give preference to small businesses for manufacturing contracts does not apply. The non-manufacturer rule is designed to promote small business participation in federal contracting by allowing them to supply products made by other small businesses. However, for purchases under $25,000, this rule is not applicable, and government agencies can procure products from any source without the requirement of small business participation.

Submit
81. When developing order placement procedures, the contracting officer (CO) should consider all of the following except

Explanation

When developing order placement procedures, the contracting officer (CO) should consider various factors such as minimum order requirements, potential impact on other orders placed with the contractor, and the amount of time contractors need to make informed business decisions. However, past performance on earlier orders placed on previous contracts is not a relevant consideration in this context. The CO should focus on current requirements and the contractor's ability to fulfill them rather than past performance.

Submit
82. What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 6 exception satisfies the requirement for sole-source and brand-name justifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only one responsible source will satisfy agency requirements." This exception under Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 6 is applicable when there is only one source that can meet the specific requirements of the agency. It is used when no other source is available or capable of providing the required goods or services, ensuring that the agency's needs are met effectively and efficiently.

Submit
83. Presolicitation notices include what information?

Explanation

Presolicitation notices provide information about upcoming procurement opportunities and typically include instructions to offerors, offer evaluation criteria, applicable provisions and clauses. However, the one piece of information that is not included in presolicitation notices is the notification of small business set-asides. This means that presolicitation notices do not specifically mention or notify about any small business set-asides that may be applicable to the procurement opportunity.

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84. Which of the following exceptions to full and open competition must be supported by a determination and finding (D&F)?

Explanation

The exception to full and open competition that must be supported by a determination and finding (D&F) is establishing or maintaining alternative sources. This means that if an agency wants to award a contract to a specific source or maintain an existing source without competition, they must provide a written justification in the form of a D&F. This is done to ensure transparency and accountability in the procurement process.

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85. When using the streamlined procedures of Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 12,

Explanation

When using the streamlined procedures of Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 12, the requirement is to post only a detailed summary describing the requirement to the government-wide point of entry (GPE). This means that instead of issuing a full solicitation, a summary of the requirement is posted on the GPE to notify potential vendors. This allows for a more streamlined and efficient procurement process, as it eliminates the need for a full solicitation document. The SF 33 and SF 1449 are not used in this case, and there is no requirement to issue a presolicitation notice.

Submit
86. Contract actions exceeding $15,000 but less than $25,000 and displayed in a public place must remain posted for at least how many days?

Explanation

Contract actions exceeding $15,000 but less than $25,000 and displayed in a public place must remain posted for at least 10 days. This means that any contract action falling within this price range and being displayed in a public place must be kept visible for a minimum of 10 days before it can be taken down. This ensures transparency and allows interested parties to have sufficient time to review and assess the contract action.

Submit
87. The penal amount of a performance bond is based on what percentage of the contract price?

Explanation

The penal amount of a performance bond is based on 10% of the contract price. This means that if there is a breach of contract or failure to complete the project as agreed, the bond issuer will be responsible for paying up to 10% of the contract price to the project owner. This serves as a form of financial protection for the owner and ensures that the contractor fulfills their obligations.

Submit
88. Justification and approvals (J&A) publicized to the government-wide point of entry (GPE) must remain posted for a minimum of

Explanation

Justification and approvals (J&A) that are publicized to the government-wide point of entry (GPE) are required to remain posted for a minimum of 7 days. This ensures that the information is accessible to all interested parties for a reasonable amount of time, allowing them to review and evaluate the J&A. It also provides an opportunity for any potential objections or concerns to be raised before the procurement process proceeds.

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When executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order, what is a...
When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.228–5,...
When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order...
Which socioeconomic program is aimed to help a small business located...
Who is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and...
At what prices shall agencies purchase required supplies listed in the...
When considering a lease versus purchase, the purchase method is...
The group of functional experts that reviews and recommends...
Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the...
When conducting a site visit,
What should a contracting officer (CO) do if he or she only receives...
Which is not an example of a wholesale supply source?
Which statute requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic...
Usually, who can approve limited sources justifications exceeding the...
A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will...
If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in...
In terms of physical characteristics and estimated price range,...
Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract...
Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to
Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for proposal...
All of the following are examples of competitive procedures except
What action should a contracting officer (CO) take if only one...
In what situation would purchases automatically be reserved for small...
Acquisition planning must take place
The difference between a brand-name requirement and single-source...
Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the...
When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a...
Which statement describes the correct use of wage determinations?
The advocate for competition prepares and submits an annual report to...
Which is a factor in which a contracting officer (CO) can award a...
Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities and
Who has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory...
Streamlined procedures
When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?
Formal solicitations over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT)...
What happens to unopened offeror proposals after a request for...
At what dollar amount is a streamlined acquisition strategy summary...
What action must a contracting officer (CO) take if market research...
Which is not a reason why a customer would want to limit competition?
What specific information is included in a market research report?
Which is not a type of historically underutilized business zone...
Oral solicitations may not be practicable for
What additional product information may be required of offerors to...
One criterion that a woman is presumed economically disadvantaged...
Which is not a factor in determining competitive procedures?
Amendments to invitation for bids (IFB) may change any of the...
Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clauses 52.212–1 and...
When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order,...
Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs...
A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for...
When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is...
Solicitations issued using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are...
Which source selection process allows the source selection authority...
A pre-bid conference
Which is not a required criterion for a small business to qualify as a...
What office is responsible for tracking prior commercial item...
A separate synopsis and solicitation must be issued using the Standard...
The Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely...
What Federal Business Opportunities (FBO) template may be used to...
When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is...
Which of the following describes a preproposal conference?
Section L of a solicitation
Within how many days after contract award must a justification and...
What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part prescribes policy for...
Which is not a type of indefinite-delivery contract?
What should be considered before amending an invitation for bid (IFB)?
What part of the uniform contract format (UCF) contains sections K...
When establishing solicitation response times for the acquisition of...
Amendments to requests for quotations (RFQ) are
Proposed contract actions are required to be publicized according to...
When shall a contracting officer (CO) provide unsuccessful offerors...
Designating a competition advocate for each contracting activity is a...
To the maximum extent practicable, public law requires that contracts...
What higher level planning process is used to identify and determine...
When the uniform contract format (UCF) is used for sealed bidding,...
Early exchanges of information when using sealed bidding is
The correct way to prepare requests for proposals (RFP) is to
Which of the following statements regarding the inclusion of the...
When placing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order above the...
At what dollar amount does the non-manufacturer rule not apply?
When developing order placement procedures, the contracting officer...
What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 6 exception satisfies...
Presolicitation notices include what information?
Which of the following exceptions to full and open competition must be...
When using the streamlined procedures of Federal Acquisition...
Contract actions exceeding $15,000 but less than $25,000 and displayed...
The penal amount of a performance bond is based on what percentage of...
Justification and approvals (J&A) publicized to the...
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