6c051 Contracting UREs Volume 2

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1. (205) Which socioeconomic program is aimed to help a small business located on an Indian reservation?

Explanation

The correct answer is Historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone). This program is aimed at helping small businesses located in economically distressed areas, including Indian reservations. The program provides various benefits such as preferential access to federal contracting opportunities, set-aside contracts, and financial assistance to promote economic development in these areas.

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6c051 Contracting UREs Volume 2 - Quiz

This quiz titled '6C051 Contracting UREs Volume 2' assesses knowledge in government procurement, focusing on acquisition planning, competitive sourcing, and roles within acquisition teams. It prepares learners for... see morestrategic decision-making in federal contracting environments. see less

2. (203) When executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order, what is a circumstance in which a contracting officer (CO) can justify limiting sources?

Explanation

The correct answer is "An urgent and compelling need exists and following the procedures would result in delays." This means that if there is a situation where there is an urgent and compelling need for a particular product or service, and following the normal procedures would cause delays in meeting that need, the contracting officer can justify limiting sources and choosing a specific contractor. This allows for flexibility in the procurement process to ensure that critical needs are met in a timely manner.

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3. (211) When conducting a site visit,

Explanation

When conducting a site visit, it is important to ensure fairness and equal opportunity for all offerors. Making site information available to all offerors in the same manner ensures that no one has an unfair advantage or access to privileged information. This promotes transparency and allows all offerors to make informed decisions and submit competitive proposals based on the same set of information.

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4. (211) Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the necessary arrangements?

Explanation

The contracting officer (CO) is responsible for deciding if a preproposal conference is required and making the necessary arrangements. As the individual in charge of the contract, the CO has the authority to determine whether a preproposal conference is necessary to provide additional information or clarification to potential bidders. They will also handle the logistics and coordination of the conference, ensuring that all relevant parties are informed and able to attend. The contract specialist, functional commander, and quality assurance personnel may provide input or support, but the ultimate decision and responsibility lies with the CO.

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5. (205) What should a contracting officer (CO) do if he or she only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business?

Explanation

If a contracting officer (CO) only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business, they should award the contract to the acceptable offer. This means that the CO has determined that the offer meets all the necessary requirements and is suitable for the contract. There is no need to extend the deadline for offers, contact the Small Business Administration (SBA) for guidance, or cancel the solicitation and re-advertise.

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6. (203) If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, then the contracting officer (CO) can

Explanation

If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, the contracting officer (CO) cannot award it anyway because it is mandatory. Instead, the CO can use competitive procedures to acquire the product. This means that the CO will open up the procurement process to other potential suppliers and allow them to submit their offers. By doing so, the CO can ensure that the best product, in terms of price, quality, and time of delivery, is selected for the contract.

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7. (203) When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the micropurchase threshold but not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contracting officer (CO) shall provide the request for quotations (RFQ) to at least how many contractors?

Explanation

When executing a GSA task order above the micropurchase threshold but not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contracting officer (CO) is required to provide the request for quotations (RFQ) to at least three contractors. This ensures a competitive bidding process and allows for a fair evaluation of proposals. By soliciting quotes from multiple contractors, the CO can compare prices, services, and other factors to make an informed decision and obtain the best value for the government.

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8. (211) Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to

Explanation

Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the performing of work. This means that during the site visit, the prospective offerors can access and review any relevant government data that can help them understand the requirements and scope of the work. This information can be crucial in preparing a competitive bid and ensuring that the offeror has a clear understanding of what is expected in terms of performing the work.

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9. (206) What action should a contracting officer (CO) take if only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern?

Explanation

If only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern, the contracting officer should make an award to that firm. This is because the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) states that if only one offer is received in response to a small business set-aside, the contracting officer may make an award to that firm if the price is reasonable. This promotes the goal of supporting small businesses and encourages competition within the small business sector.

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10. (206) Which is not a factor in determining competitive procedures?

Explanation

End of fiscal year constraints are not a factor in determining competitive procedures. Competitive procedures are typically determined based on factors such as market conditions, support of existing systems, and the consideration of micro-purchases. However, the end of the fiscal year does not directly impact the decision-making process for competitive procedures.

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11. (211) When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?

Explanation

When amending a request for proposal (RFP), the quantity, specifications, or delivery schedules may be changed. This means that the number of items or services required, the specific requirements or features of the items or services, and the timeline for delivery can all be modified in an amended RFP.

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12. (201) A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions with a dollar value

Explanation

A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions with a dollar value between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M. This means that any acquisition with a value above the SAT (which is typically $250,000) but below $10M requires a SASS. The SASS is a summary document that outlines the acquisition strategy and provides key information about the acquisition, such as the scope of work, contracting approach, and evaluation criteria. It helps to ensure that acquisitions within this dollar range are planned and executed effectively.

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13. (203) Usually, who can approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000?

Explanation

The contracting officer is the correct answer because they have the authority to approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000. The contracting officer is responsible for the acquisition process and has the authority to make decisions regarding contract awards and justifications. The commander, general or flag officer equivalent, and command contracting director may have oversight or advisory roles in the process, but the contracting officer has the final approval authority in this situation.

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14. (207) Who has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification?

Explanation

The contracting officer (CO) is responsible for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification. As the individual responsible for managing the contracting process, the CO is in charge of ensuring that all procurement actions adhere to legal and regulatory requirements. This includes justifying the use of a sole-source or brand-name procurement method when necessary. The CO must ensure that the justification is valid and properly documented, taking into account factors such as cost, availability, and technical expertise. The technical expert, competition advocate, and requiring activity's unit commander may provide input and support, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the CO.

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15. (207) Which is not a reason why a customer would want to limit competition?

Explanation

The reason "Customer preferred" is not a reason why a customer would want to limit competition is because it implies that the customer has a preference for a specific brand or supplier. However, limiting competition typically involves reducing the number of options available to the customer, which goes against the idea of customer preference. Therefore, "Customer preferred" does not align with the concept of limiting competition.

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16. (210) Oral solicitations may not be practicable for

Explanation

Oral solicitations may not be practicable for actions exceeding $25,000 because these larger purchases require a more formal and documented procurement process. In order to ensure fairness, transparency, and competition, it is necessary to have written solicitations, such as requests for proposals (RFPs) or invitations for bids (IFBs), for actions exceeding $25,000. This allows potential suppliers to submit their proposals or bids in writing, providing a clear record of the procurement process. Oral solicitations may not be sufficient for larger purchases as they lack the necessary documentation and transparency.

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17. (211) Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for proposal (RFP) before closing?

Explanation

If the changes in the circumstances are so significant that they go beyond what potential offerors could have reasonably expected, it would be justified to cancel the request for proposal (RFP) before closing. This means that the changes are unexpected and would significantly impact the nature or requirements of the project, making it unfair to proceed with the current RFP process.

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18. (211) Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs associated with the source selection process and

Explanation

Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs associated with the source selection process because they allow for direct communication and clarification of information. They provide an opportunity for offerors to present their proposals in person, allowing the government to ask questions and seek further details. This can eliminate the need for extensive written documentation and back-and-forth communication. Therefore, oral presentations can serve as a substitute for written information in the source selection process.

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19. (206) All of the following are examples of competitive procedures except

Explanation

The question asks for an example of a non-competitive procedure. Sealed bids, two-step sealed bidding, and competitive proposals are all examples of competitive procedures where multiple bidders can participate. However, brand-name requirements do not involve competition as they specify a particular brand or product, limiting the options available to bidders. Therefore, brand-name requirements are not considered a competitive procedure.

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20. (207) The difference between a brand-name requirement and single-source requirement is that the brand-name requirement

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that a brand-name requirement can be fulfilled by multiple sources, meaning that different companies can provide the same product or service under that brand name. On the other hand, a single-source requirement means that only one specific company or source can fulfill that requirement. Therefore, a brand-name requirement allows for competition and multiple options, while a single-source requirement restricts the choice to one company or source.

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21. (207) Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities and

Explanation

Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities and the impact on the mission if substituted. This means that when justifying the use of a specific brand, it is important to highlight the unique features or capabilities that set it apart from other brands. Additionally, it is crucial to explain how substituting the brand could potentially affect the mission. This ensures that the chosen brand is necessary and essential for the successful completion of the mission.

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22. (210) Solicitations issued using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are referred to as

Explanation

Solicitations issued using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are referred to as request for quotations (RFQ). RFQs are used when the government needs to procure goods or services that fall below a certain dollar threshold. They are typically used for purchases that are relatively simple and straightforward, and the government is seeking price quotes from potential vendors. RFQs are less formal and less complex than other types of solicitations, such as invitation for bids (IFB) or request for proposals (RFP), which are used for more complex and competitive procurements.

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23. (205) One criterion that a woman is presumed economically disadvantaged under the economically disadvantaged women-owned small business (EDWOSB) program is if her personal net worth is less than what dollar amount?

Explanation

The criterion for a woman to be presumed economically disadvantaged under the EDWOSB program is if her personal net worth is less than $750,000.

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24. (211) What happens to unopened offeror proposals after a request for proposal (RFP) is cancelled?

Explanation

After a request for proposal (RFP) is cancelled, the unopened offeror proposals are returned to the offeror without being opened. This means that the proposals are not reviewed or considered by the contracting agency. The reason for returning the unopened proposals is to maintain fairness and transparency in the procurement process. By returning the proposals, the offerors have the opportunity to use them for other potential opportunities or make necessary revisions before resubmitting them in the future.

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25. (203) When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order, which is not included in the requirements package?

Explanation

The price indicated on the independent government estimate is not included in the requirements package when executing a GSA task order. The requirements package typically includes the location of work and delivery schedule, description of work to be performed, and security clearance requirements. However, the price indicated on the independent government estimate is separate from the requirements package and is usually determined separately during the procurement process.

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26. (203) At what prices shall agencies purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule?

Explanation

Agencies shall purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule at prices not to exceed fair market value. This means that the agencies should not pay more than what is considered a reasonable and competitive price in the market for the supplies.

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27. (211) In terms of physical characteristics and estimated price range, advance notices and solicitations for a requirement must state

Explanation

The advance notices and solicitations for a requirement must state the project magnitude. This means that they need to provide information about the physical characteristics of the project, such as its size, scope, and complexity. Additionally, they must also include an estimated price range for the project. This information is important for potential contractors to determine if they have the capabilities and resources to successfully complete the project. The project classification, government estimate, and whether it is under or over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) are not mentioned as requirements for the advance notices and solicitations.

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28. (208) When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.228–5, Insurance-Work on a Government Installation, is included in a contract, the contracting officer (CO) requests and receives proof of insurance

Explanation

When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.228-5, Insurance-Work on a Government Installation, is included in a contract, the contracting officer (CO) requests and receives proof of insurance before the contractor begins work. This means that the CO needs to ensure that the contractor has the necessary insurance coverage in place before they start working on the government installation.

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29. (208) When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer's liability is

Explanation

The minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer's liability when a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation is $100,000. This coverage amount is determined to ensure that the contractor has adequate financial protection in case of any employee injuries or accidents that may occur during the project. It is important for the contractor to have this coverage to fulfill their legal and financial obligations towards their employees and to mitigate any potential liabilities.

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30. (201) Acquisition planning must take place

Explanation

Acquisition planning must take place as soon as an agency need is identified because it is crucial to start the planning process early in order to effectively meet the agency's requirements. Identifying the need allows the agency to determine the necessary resources, budget, and timeline for the acquisition. By starting the planning process early, the agency can also conduct market research, identify potential suppliers, and develop a comprehensive acquisition strategy. This ensures that the agency can efficiently and effectively acquire the goods or services needed to fulfill their mission.

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31. (212) Amendments to invitation for bids (IFB) may change any of the following except

Explanation

Amendments to an invitation for bids (IFB) can modify various aspects of the bid, such as specifications, delivery schedule, or any ambiguities in the invitation. However, the contract type cannot be changed through amendments to the IFB. The contract type is typically determined before the bidding process begins and is not subject to change through amendments.

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32. (201) The group of functional experts that reviews and recommends acquisition strategies for a specific product or service is known as

Explanation

An acquisition strategy panel (ASP) is a group of functional experts that reviews and recommends acquisition strategies for a specific product or service. They are responsible for evaluating various options and determining the best approach to acquiring the desired product or service. The ASP ensures that the acquisition strategy aligns with the organization's goals and objectives, and they provide guidance and recommendations to support effective decision-making in the acquisition process.

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33. (209) Streamlined procedures

Explanation

Streamlined procedures eliminate the need to issue a separate synopsis and solicitation. This means that when using streamlined procedures, there is no requirement to publish a separate notice announcing the government's intent to procure goods or services, and there is no need to issue a separate solicitation document. This helps to simplify the procurement process and save time and resources for both the government and potential vendors.

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34. (212) What additional product information may be required of offerors to ensure that products meet the requirements of an invitation for bid (IFB)?

Explanation

To ensure that products meet the requirements of an invitation for bid (IFB), offerors may be required to provide descriptive literature. Descriptive literature refers to written information or materials that describe the characteristics, features, and specifications of a product. This additional information allows the procuring agency to evaluate whether the offered products meet the required standards and specifications outlined in the IFB. It helps the agency to make an informed decision and select the most suitable offeror based on the product's capabilities and compliance with the stated requirements.

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35. (203) Which is not an example of a wholesale supply source?

Explanation

The Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES) is not an example of a wholesale supply source because it is primarily a retail organization that provides goods and services to members of the military and their families. It operates department stores, convenience stores, restaurants, and other retail establishments on military installations. In contrast, the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), Department of Veteran Affairs (VA), and General Services Administration (GSA) are all examples of wholesale supply sources that provide goods and services to government agencies, including the military.

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36. (203) Who is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer's requirements can be met through available supply channels?

Explanation

The base supply officer is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer's requirements can be met through available supply channels. They oversee the procurement, storage, and distribution of supplies to ensure that the needs of the organization or base are met efficiently. This role involves coordinating with various departments and suppliers to ensure timely availability of required materials and maintaining inventory levels. The base supply officer plays a crucial role in ensuring that the organization has the necessary supplies to carry out its mission effectively.

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37. (204) A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than

Explanation

A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than 60 days. This means that if the equipment will be leased for a period of 60 days or less, there is no need to assess whether it is better to lease or purchase the equipment. However, if the lease duration exceeds 60 days, it becomes necessary to evaluate the costs, benefits, and other factors associated with leasing versus purchasing the equipment.

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38. (205) Which is a factor in which a contracting officer (CO) can award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "The CO does not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns." This factor allows the contracting officer to award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB) when they do not anticipate receiving offers from multiple SDVOSB concerns. This means that there is a lack of competition in the market, and therefore a sole-source contract can be awarded to the SDVOSB.

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39. (212) What should be considered before amending an invitation for bid (IFB)?

Explanation

Before amending an invitation for bid (IFB), it is important to consider the period of time remaining until bid opening and the need to extend the period. This is because any amendments to the IFB may require additional time for potential bidders to review and prepare their bids. Extending the bid period allows for fairness and ensures that all interested parties have sufficient time to adjust their proposals accordingly.

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40. (206) The advocate for competition prepares and submits an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive describing new initiatives

Explanation

The correct answer is "required to increase the acquisition of commercial items." This is because the advocate for competition is preparing and submitting an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive, and the report is describing new initiatives that are required to increase the acquisition of commercial items. This suggests that the advocate is focused on promoting competition and increasing the acquisition of commercial items in the procurement process.

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41. (211) Which statement describes the correct use of wage determinations?

Explanation

Contracts must be modified to incorporate the most current wage determination each time the contracting officer (CO) exercises an option to extend the term of a construction contract. This means that when the CO decides to extend the contract, they must update the wage determination to reflect the most recent rates. This ensures that the workers are paid according to the current standards and prevents any potential discrepancies or disputes regarding wages.

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42. (206) In what situation would purchases automatically be reserved for small business concerns?

Explanation

Purchases are automatically reserved for small business concerns when they fall between the micro-purchase threshold and the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT). This means that if the purchase amount is greater than the micro-purchase threshold but less than or equal to the SAT, it must be set aside for small businesses. This is done to promote and support small businesses by giving them opportunities to compete for government contracts within a certain price range.

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43. (208) Which statute requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract expected to exceed $150,000?

Explanation

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44. (213) What Federal Business Opportunities (FBO) template may be used to determine the availability of commercial sources or conducting market research?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Sources sought." A sources sought notice is a Federal Business Opportunities (FBO) template that is used to determine the availability of commercial sources or conduct market research. It is typically used when the government is interested in identifying potential vendors who can fulfill a specific requirement, but doesn't yet have a formal solicitation prepared. This allows the government to gather information about potential sources and determine the appropriate acquisition strategy.

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45. (205) What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses?

Explanation

Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part 19 prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses. This part of the FAR specifically addresses the requirements and procedures for promoting the utilization of small businesses in federal contracting. It provides guidance on various programs and initiatives aimed at ensuring small businesses have fair opportunities to compete for and win government contracts. By prescribing these policies, FAR part 19 helps to promote small business participation in federal procurement and supports the government's goal of fostering economic growth and development within the small business sector.

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46. (211) Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract awarded by another agency are

Explanation

Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract awarded by another agency are not exempt from the development of acquisition plans. This means that even if the contract is awarded by another agency, the process of developing acquisition plans is still required. This ensures that the acquisition process is properly planned and executed, regardless of the agency involved.

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47. (206) At what dollar amount is a streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) required?

Explanation

A streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions that fall between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M. This means that any acquisition with a dollar amount that is greater than the SAT but less than or equal to $10M will require a SASS. This summary helps to streamline the acquisition process and ensure that it is conducted efficiently and effectively.

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48. (201) Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the contracting officer (CO) and

Explanation

The program manager is responsible for overseeing the overall management and execution of a program, including acquisitions. They work closely with the contracting officer and other team members to ensure that the acquisition process aligns with the program's objectives and requirements. The program manager's expertise in the program's technical aspects, budget, and schedule make them a valuable leader in the acquisition team. Additionally, their role involves coordinating with stakeholders and providing guidance to the contracting officer and other team members throughout the acquisition process.

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49. (202) What action must a contracting officer (CO) take if market research indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs?

Explanation

If market research indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs, the contracting officer (CO) must restate the terms to permit the acquisition of commercial items. This means that the CO should revise the requirements or specifications in a way that allows for the purchase of a commercial item that meets the customer's needs. This option is the most appropriate response in this scenario as it addresses the issue of unavailability while still considering the customer's requirements.

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50. (211) Which source selection process allows the source selection authority (SSA) discretion in awarding to higher rated performers over lower rated performers if the price differential is warranted and considered the best value?

Explanation

The tradeoff source selection process allows the source selection authority (SSA) to use their discretion in awarding contracts to higher rated performers over lower rated performers, even if there is a price differential. This is done when the SSA determines that the higher rated performer offers the best value for the project. In other words, the SSA can prioritize quality and technical factors over price, as long as the price difference is justified and considered to provide the best overall value.

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51. (208) The penal amount of a performance bond is based on what percentage of the contract price?

Explanation

The penal amount of a performance bond is based on 100% of the contract price. This means that if the contractor fails to fulfill their obligations as stated in the contract, they will be liable to pay the full contract price as a penalty. This ensures that the owner of the project is protected financially in case the contractor fails to complete the project or does not meet the specified requirements.

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52. 213) When establishing solicitation response times for the acquisition of commercial items, how many days must a requirement exceeding $25,000 be posted?

Explanation

The correct answer is "A reasonable time." When establishing solicitation response times for the acquisition of commercial items, there is no specific number of days required for posting a requirement exceeding $25,000. Instead, the time frame should be determined based on what is considered reasonable in the specific circumstances of the acquisition. This allows for flexibility and ensures that potential vendors have sufficient time to prepare and submit their responses.

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53. (203) When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), which factor is not documented when considering best value?

Explanation

When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the factor that is not documented when considering best value is the contractor that the customer chose. The amount paid, the basis for the award decision, and a description of the supply or service purchased are all factors that are typically documented when considering best value. However, the specific contractor chosen by the customer is not typically documented in this context.

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54. (204) When considering a lease versus purchase, the purchase method is appropriate when

Explanation

The correct answer is that the purchase method is appropriate when cumulative leasing costs will exceed purchase costs. This means that if the total cost of leasing the equipment over a certain period of time is higher than the cost of purchasing it outright, then it would be more cost-effective to buy the equipment instead of leasing it. This could be due to factors such as the length of time the equipment will be needed, the frequency of use, and the availability of funds for purchasing.

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55. (205) Which is not a type of historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) contract?

Explanation

The HUBZone program is a government initiative aimed at promoting economic development in historically underutilized business zones. It provides opportunities for small businesses located in these zones to win federal contracts. The HUBZone set-aside contract is specifically reserved for HUBZone-certified businesses. The HUBZone sole source contract allows agencies to award contracts directly to HUBZone-certified businesses without competition. The competitive HUBZone set-aside contract is open to all qualified HUBZone-certified businesses, but they must compete against each other for the contract. Therefore, the HUBZone full and open contract is not a type of HUBZone contract since it does not specify any preference or restriction for HUBZone-certified businesses.

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56. (211) What part of the uniform contract format (UCF) contains sections K through M?

Explanation

Sections K through M in the Uniform Contract Format (UCF) are contained in Part IV. This part of the UCF typically includes information related to representations, certifications, and other contract clauses.

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57. (203) The Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled is responsible for all of the following except

Explanation

The Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled is responsible for establishing prices for supplies and services, establishing rules and regulations to implement the AbilityOne Act, and determining supplies and services to be purchased by all entities of the government from AbilityOne participating nonprofit agencies. However, it is not responsible for providing everything from workplaces, security, and supplies to telecommunications.

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58. (211) Which of the following describes a preproposal conference?

Explanation

A preproposal conference is a meeting that can take place after a solicitation is issued but before offers are submitted. The purpose of this conference is to provide an opportunity for potential offerors to ask questions, seek clarifications, and gather additional information about the solicitation. It allows offerors to better understand the requirements and expectations of the contracting agency, which can help them in preparing their offers. Any changes or clarifications agreed upon during the conference may be incorporated into the final terms of the solicitation.

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59. (210) Amendments to requests for quotations (RFQ) are

Explanation

Amendments to requests for quotations (RFQ) are issued using the Standard Form (SF) 30. The SF 30 is a standardized form used by the government for making amendments to contracts, including RFQs. It is used to document changes, modifications, or additions to the original RFQ. By using the SF 30, the government ensures that all amendments are properly recorded and communicated to the relevant parties. This helps to maintain transparency and fairness in the procurement process.

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60. (211) Formal solicitations over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and issued in negotiated acquisitions are referred to as

Explanation

Formal solicitations over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and issued in negotiated acquisitions are referred to as request for proposals (RFP). In a negotiated acquisition, the government agency engages in discussions with potential offerors to refine the requirements and negotiate the terms and conditions of the contract. An RFP is typically used in this process to solicit detailed proposals from interested parties, outlining their approach, capabilities, and cost. This allows the government agency to evaluate and compare the proposals and select the most advantageous one.

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61. (211) Which is not a type of indefinite-delivery contract?

Explanation

A cost-plus fixed fee contract is not a type of indefinite-delivery contract. In an indefinite-delivery contract, the quantity and delivery schedule are not specified upfront, allowing for flexibility in meeting the buyer's needs. However, in a cost-plus fixed fee contract, the contractor is reimbursed for the actual costs incurred plus a fixed fee, which is predetermined and does not depend on the quantity or delivery schedule. Therefore, it does not fall under the category of indefinite-delivery contracts.

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62. (205) Which is not a required criterion for a small business to qualify as a historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone)?

Explanation

To qualify as a historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone), a small business must meet several criteria. These include being located in a HUBZone, having at least 35 percent of its employees residing in a HUBZone, and being at least 51 percent owned and controlled by one or more US citizens. However, it is not a requirement for the business to be owned by citizens who live in a HUBZone. This means that as long as the business meets the other criteria, it can be owned by US citizens who do not necessarily live in a HUBZone.

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63. (213) Proposed contract actions are required to be publicized according to Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part

Explanation

The correct answer is 5. According to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 5, proposed contract actions are required to be publicized. This means that government agencies must announce their intention to enter into a contract and provide an opportunity for other interested parties to compete for the contract. This helps to ensure transparency and fairness in the procurement process.

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64. (206) Designating a competition advocate for each contracting activity is a requirement of the

Explanation

The Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act requires the designation of a competition advocate for each contracting activity. This act ensures that competition is promoted in the federal procurement process, which helps to achieve the best value for the government and promotes fairness and transparency in contracting. The competition advocate is responsible for advocating for full and open competition, identifying and eliminating barriers to competition, and ensuring that contracting officers have access to the necessary resources and training to promote competition.

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65. (212) A pre-bid conference

Explanation

A pre-bid conference is used in complex acquisitions as a means to explain complicated specifications. This means that when the acquisition process is complex and the specifications are difficult to understand, a pre-bid conference is held to provide clarification and explanation to potential bidders. This helps ensure that all bidders have a clear understanding of the requirements and can submit accurate and competitive bids.

Submit
66. (212) Early exchanges of information when using sealed bidding is

Explanation

Early exchanges of information when using sealed bidding are encouraged from the earliest identification of a requirement through receipt of bids. This means that the government encourages communication and information sharing with potential bidders from the very beginning of the procurement process until the bids are received. This allows for better understanding of the requirements, clarification of any doubts, and ensures that all bidders have access to the same information, leading to a fair and competitive bidding process.

Submit
67. (209) What office is responsible for tracking prior commercial item determinations?

Explanation

The Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA) Commercial Item Group is responsible for tracking prior commercial item determinations. This office specifically focuses on commercial items and ensures that the government is obtaining fair and reasonable prices for these items. They track and maintain records of previous determinations to ensure consistency and efficiency in future procurements. The Small Business Administration (SBA), Defense Contract Audit Agency (DCAA), and Air Force Installation Contracting Center (AFICC) do not have the same responsibility for tracking prior commercial item determinations.

Submit
68. (209) A separate synopsis and solicitation must be issued using the Standard Form (SF) 1449 when all of the following conditions are present except

Explanation

A separate synopsis and solicitation must be issued using the Standard Form (SF) 1449 when all of the following conditions are present except when streamlined procedures are being used. This means that if streamlined procedures are being used, a separate synopsis and solicitation using SF 1449 is not required. The other conditions listed, such as the acquisition exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold, using a paper delivery or performance schedule, and using a paper solicitation or contract, all require a separate synopsis and solicitation using SF 1449.

Submit
69. (203) When shall a contracting officer (CO) provide unsuccessful offerors additional information after awarding a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT)?

Explanation

When a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) is awarded based on factors other than price, the contracting officer (CO) is required to provide additional information to unsuccessful offerors upon request. This is because the award decision was not solely based on the price, and therefore, unsuccessful offerors may seek clarification or feedback on the factors that influenced the decision.

Submit
70. (206) Which of the following exceptions to full and open competition must be supported by a determination and finding (D&F)?

Explanation

Establishing or maintaining alternative sources is an exception to full and open competition that must be supported by a determination and finding (D&F). This means that if an agency wants to award a contract to a specific source without competition, they must provide a written justification explaining why it is necessary to establish or maintain alternative sources for the procurement. This exception allows agencies to ensure a reliable supply chain or to maintain competition in the marketplace.

Submit
71. (203) When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to be below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), at a minimum, the ordering activity shall document

Explanation

When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS) that is expected to be below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the ordering activity is required to document the amount paid and the basis for the award decision. This documentation ensures transparency and accountability in the procurement process. It allows for proper record-keeping and provides a clear reference for future audits or reviews. By documenting the amount paid, the ordering activity can track and verify the financial aspects of the order. Additionally, documenting the basis for the award decision helps justify the selection of a specific contractor and ensures that the procurement was conducted in a fair and objective manner.

Submit
72. (202) What specific information is included in a market research report?

Explanation

A market research report includes information about the constraints to competition. This means that the report will provide details about any factors or limitations that may affect the level of competition in a particular market. This information is important for companies and organizations to understand the competitive landscape and make informed decisions about their strategies and offerings.

Submit
73. (206) What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 6 exception satisfies the requirement for sole-source and brand-name justifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only one responsible source will satisfy agency requirements." This exception under FAR Part 6 allows for sole-source and brand-name justifications when there is only one source that can meet the agency's requirements. In such cases, the agency does not need to go through the competitive bidding process and can directly award the contract to the responsible source. This exception is applicable when there are no other alternatives available and the agency can justify the sole-source procurement.

Submit
74. (209) To the maximum extent practicable, public law requires that contracts for the acquisition of commercial items include only those clauses required to implement provisions of law or executive orders, or those clauses

Explanation

Public law requires that contracts for the acquisition of commercial items include only those clauses determined to be consistent with customary commercial practice. This means that the clauses included in the contract should align with the usual practices followed in the commercial industry. These clauses are necessary to ensure that the contract is fair and reasonable, and that both parties are operating under standard industry practices. By including only clauses consistent with customary commercial practice, the contract can be more efficient and effective in achieving its intended purpose.

Submit
75. (209) Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clauses 52.212–1 and 52.212–4 are incorporated into commercial contracts by reference by checking block

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
76. (211) Section L of a solicitation

Explanation

Section L of a solicitation provides instructions to offerors in preparing their proposals. This section typically includes information on how to format the proposal, what information to include, and any specific requirements or instructions that the government wants the offerors to follow. It helps ensure that all offerors submit their proposals in a consistent and organized manner, making it easier for the government to evaluate and compare the proposals.

Submit
77. (203) When placing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) that is supported by limiting sources, the justification must be posted on www.fbo.gov within

Explanation

When placing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) that is supported by limiting sources, the justification must be posted on www.fbo.gov within 14 days. This allows for transparency and ensures that other potential suppliers have access to the information regarding the limited sources used for the order. By posting the justification within this timeframe, it allows for fair competition and provides an opportunity for other suppliers to potentially challenge the decision if they believe they could also meet the requirements.

Submit
78. (212) When the uniform contract format (UCF) is used for sealed bidding, prepare the invitation for bid (IFB) on Standard Form (SF)

Explanation

The correct answer is 33. When the uniform contract format (UCF) is used for sealed bidding, the invitation for bid (IFB) should be prepared on Standard Form (SF) 33. This form is specifically designed for soliciting bids and includes all the necessary information and instructions for potential bidders. Using SF 33 ensures consistency and standardization in the bidding process, making it easier for both the contracting agency and the bidders to understand and comply with the requirements.

Submit
79. (205) At what dollar amount does the non-manufacturer rule not apply?

Explanation

The non-manufacturer rule does not apply when the dollar amount is under $25,000.

Submit
80. (211) When developing order placement procedures, the contracting officer (CO) should consider all of the following except

Explanation

The CO should consider all of the listed factors except past performance on earlier orders placed on previous contracts. This is because past performance is an important consideration in evaluating contractors and their ability to fulfill orders. The CO should take into account factors such as minimum order requirements, potential impact on other orders, and the time contractors need to make informed business decisions. These factors help ensure that the order placement procedures are effective and efficient.

Submit
81. (207) Within how many days after contract award must a justification and approval (J&A) be made available to the public through the government-wide point of entry (GPE)?

Explanation

Within 14 days after contract award, a justification and approval (J&A) must be made available to the public through the government-wide point of entry (GPE). This is important to ensure transparency and accountability in government contracting processes. By making the J&A available to the public, it allows for scrutiny and oversight, helping to prevent any potential misuse of funds or unethical practices.

Submit
82. (213) Presolicitation notices include what information?

Explanation

Presolicitation notices include notification of small business set-asides. This means that when a government agency plans to set aside a contract for small businesses, they will include this information in the presolicitation notice. This allows small businesses to be aware of the opportunity and prepare to submit their offers. The other options listed in the question, such as instructions to offerors, offer evaluation criteria, and applicable provisions and clauses, may also be included in presolicitation notices, but the specific information mentioned in the correct answer is the notification of small business set-asides.

Submit
83. (211) The correct way to prepare requests for proposals (RFP) is to

Explanation

The correct way to prepare requests for proposals (RFP) is to combine FAR Part 15 procedures with FAR Part 12 procedures, and the RFP is prepared using the commercial contract format. This means that the RFP should follow the guidelines and regulations outlined in both FAR Part 15 and FAR Part 12. Additionally, the RFP should be prepared using the commercial contract format, which is a standardized format for contracts in commercial transactions. This approach ensures that the RFP is compliant with regulations and industry standards, and allows for a clear and consistent evaluation of proposals.

Submit
84. (213) Contract actions exceeding $15,000 but less than $25,000 and displayed in a public place must remain posted for at least how many days?

Explanation

Contract actions exceeding $15,000 but less than $25,000 and displayed in a public place must remain posted for at least 10 days. This means that any contract action falling within this price range and displayed in a public place must be made available for public viewing for a minimum of 10 days. This allows interested parties to have sufficient time to review the contract and make any necessary inquiries or objections.

Submit
85. (209) Which of the following statements regarding the inclusion of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clause 52.212–2, Evaluation-Commercial Items, in solicitations is true?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
86. (201) What higher level planning process is used to identify and determine whether government work should be contracted or performed in-house?

Explanation

Competitive sourcing is the higher level planning process used to identify and determine whether government work should be contracted or performed in-house. This process involves conducting market research, evaluating potential sources, and selecting the most suitable option through a competitive process. It helps in ensuring that the government gets the best value for money and promotes competition among potential suppliers. Strategic sourcing, on the other hand, focuses on optimizing the procurement process for goods and services, while source selection is a part of the competitive sourcing process.

Submit
87. (213) Justification and approvals (J&A) publicized to the government-wide point of entry (GPE) must remain posted for a minimum of

Explanation

Justification and approvals (J&A) publicized to the government-wide point of entry (GPE) must remain posted for a minimum of 30 days. This is because it allows sufficient time for interested parties to review and respond to the J&A. A longer posting period ensures transparency and fairness in the government procurement process by giving potential competitors ample time to understand the justification and potentially challenge it if necessary.

Submit
88. (209) When using the streamlined procedures of Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 12,

Explanation

When using the streamlined procedures of FAR Part 12, the correct approach is to post only a detailed summary describing the requirement to the government-wide point of entry (GPE). This means that instead of issuing a full solicitation, a summary of the requirement is posted on the GPE to notify potential vendors about the opportunity. This allows for a more streamlined and efficient procurement process, as it eliminates the need for a complete solicitation document and allows interested parties to respond with their capabilities and qualifications.

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(205) Which socioeconomic program is aimed to help a small business...
(203) When executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order, what is a...
(211) When conducting a site visit,
(211) Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes...
(205) What should a contracting officer (CO) do if he or she only...
(203) If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable...
(203) When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task...
(211) Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to
(206) What action should a contracting officer (CO) take if only one...
(206) Which is not a factor in determining competitive procedures?
(211) When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?
(201) A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for...
(203) Usually, who can approve limited sources justifications...
(207) Who has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory...
(207) Which is not a reason why a customer would want to limit...
(210) Oral solicitations may not be practicable for
(211) Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for...
(211) Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs...
(206) All of the following are examples of competitive procedures...
(207) The difference between a brand-name requirement and...
(207) Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities...
(210) Solicitations issued using simplified acquisition procedures...
(205) One criterion that a woman is presumed economically...
(211) What happens to unopened offeror proposals after a request for...
(203) When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task...
(203) At what prices shall agencies purchase required supplies listed...
(211) In terms of physical characteristics and estimated price range,...
(208) When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)...
(208) When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a...
(201) Acquisition planning must take place
(212) Amendments to invitation for bids (IFB) may change any of the...
(201) The group of functional experts that reviews and recommends...
(209) Streamlined procedures
(212) What additional product information may be required of offerors...
(203) Which is not an example of a wholesale supply source?
(203) Who is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and...
(204) A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment...
(205) Which is a factor in which a contracting officer (CO) can award...
(212) What should be considered before amending an invitation for bid...
(206) The advocate for competition prepares and submits an annual...
(211) Which statement describes the correct use of wage...
(206) In what situation would purchases automatically be reserved for...
(208) Which statute requires performance and payment bonds for any...
(213) What Federal Business Opportunities (FBO) template may be used...
(205) What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part prescribes policy...
(211) Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order...
(206) At what dollar amount is a streamlined acquisition strategy...
(201) Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the...
(202) What action must a contracting officer (CO) take if market...
(211) Which source selection process allows the source selection...
(208) The penal amount of a performance bond is based on what...
213) When establishing solicitation response times for the acquisition...
(203) When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS)...
(204) When considering a lease versus purchase, the purchase method is...
(205) Which is not a type of historically underutilized business zone...
(211) What part of the uniform contract format (UCF) contains sections...
(203) The Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely...
(211) Which of the following describes a preproposal conference?
(210) Amendments to requests for quotations (RFQ) are
(211) Formal solicitations over the simplified acquisition threshold...
(211) Which is not a type of indefinite-delivery contract?
(205) Which is not a required criterion for a small business to...
(213) Proposed contract actions are required to be publicized...
(206) Designating a competition advocate for each contracting activity...
(212) A pre-bid conference
(212) Early exchanges of information when using sealed bidding is
(209) What office is responsible for tracking prior commercial item...
(209) A separate synopsis and solicitation must be issued using the...
(203) When shall a contracting officer (CO) provide unsuccessful...
(206) Which of the following exceptions to full and open competition...
(203) When placing an order against a federal supply schedule (FSS)...
(202) What specific information is included in a market research...
(206) What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 6 exception...
(209) To the maximum extent practicable, public law requires that...
(209) Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clauses 52.212–1 and...
(211) Section L of a solicitation
(203) When placing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order above the...
(212) When the uniform contract format (UCF) is used for sealed...
(205) At what dollar amount does the non-manufacturer rule not apply?
(211) When developing order placement procedures, the contracting...
(207) Within how many days after contract award must a justification...
(213) Presolicitation notices include what information?
(211) The correct way to prepare requests for proposals (RFP) is to
(213) Contract actions exceeding $15,000 but less than $25,000 and...
(209) Which of the following statements regarding the inclusion of the...
(201) What higher level planning process is used to identify and...
(213) Justification and approvals (J&A) publicized to the...
(209) When using the streamlined procedures of Federal Acquisition...
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