CDC 6C051P : Hardest Trivia Quiz On Contracting Journeyman!

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  • 1/113 Questions

    What agency's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?

    • Department of Labor
    • General Services Administration
    • Small business Administration
    • Committee for Purchase from the Blind.
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About This Quiz

Do you have what it takes to tackle what is known as the hardest CDC 6c051pTrivia Quiz On Contracting Journeyman? If you said yes then the trivia quiz below was made for you. Give it a try and get to see some of the situations through which one the contracting of the air force is restricted or permitted. All the best!

CDC 6C051P : Hardest Trivia Quiz On Contracting Journeyman! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which statement concerning the CO's appointment or termination is true?

    • In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive

    • Termination of a CO may be retroactive if in the best interest of the gov't

    • There is no authority to waive the qualification requirements for a CO as stated in the selection criteria.

    • Termination of a CO appointment is made verbally unless Certificate of Appointment contains a provision for automatic termination.

    Correct Answer
    A. In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that in no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive. This means that once a CO's appointment is terminated, it will not be applied retroactively from a past date. The termination will only be effective from the date it is officially terminated. This ensures that any actions or decisions made by the CO during their appointment remain valid and unaffected by the termination.

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  • 3. 

    17. (001) What is meant by the term “competent” in regards to a contracting party?

    • A. Having an unsound mind.

    • B. Ensuring business is not conducted with minors.

    • C. Having the ability to recognize defective corporations.

    • D. Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.
    Explanation
    The term "competent" in regards to a contracting party means that the individual has the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. This means that they are capable of comprehending the terms and consequences of a contract and are able to make informed decisions regarding their participation in the contract. It is important for a contracting party to be competent in order for the contract to be legally valid and enforceable.

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  • 4. 

    18. (001) Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a contract?

    • A. A 23-year-old car salesperson.

    • B. A 17-year-old college student.

    • C. A 25-year-old intoxicated person.

    • D. A 50-year-old patient in a mental institution.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. A 23-year-old car salesperson.
    Explanation
    A 23-year-old car salesperson would be considered competent to enter into a contract because they are of legal age and presumed to have the mental capacity to understand and fulfill the obligations of a contract. Age and mental capacity are important factors in determining competence to enter into a contract. The other options - a 17-year-old college student, a 25-year-old intoxicated person, and a 50-year-old patient in a mental institution - may have limitations in their ability to understand the terms and consequences of a contract, thus making them less likely to be considered competent.

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  • 5. 

    63. (007) What program is designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands?

    • A. ID.

    • B. OPSEC.

    • C. EM.

    • D. AT/FP.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. OPSEC.
    Explanation
    OPSEC stands for Operations Security, which is a program designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands. It involves identifying critical information, analyzing threats, and implementing measures to protect that information. This program helps to safeguard sensitive data and prevent unauthorized access, ensuring that it remains confidential and secure.

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  • 6. 

    81. (011) Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard Form

    • A. 30.

    • B. 252.

    • C. 1442.

    • D. 1449.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 1449.
  • 7. 

    19. (001) As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is

    • A. lawful if not challenged with 120 days.

    • B. lawful only to the party who made the offer.

    • C. unlawful and void and will not be enforced.

    • D. unlawful but may be enforced under some situations.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. unlawful and void and will not be enforced.
    Explanation
    A contract that violates a statute is considered unlawful and void, meaning it has no legal effect and will not be enforced by the courts. This is because statutes are laws enacted by the government, and any contract that goes against these laws is not valid. Therefore, parties cannot rely on the contract to enforce their rights or obligations.

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  • 8. 

    64. (007) What is the definition of a classified contract?

    • A. Any contract document established for a classified contract.

    • B. Any contract document that includes nonclassified information.

    • C. Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract.

    • D. Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the customer in the performance of the contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract.
    Explanation
    A classified contract is defined as any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract. This means that the contractor will need to handle and protect classified information in order to fulfill their obligations under the contract.

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  • 9. 

    65. (007) Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards?

    • A. Unit safety monitor.

    • B. Unit commander.

    • C. All personnel.

    • D. Supervisors.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. All personnel.
    Explanation
    All personnel are responsible for identifying safety hazards. This means that everyone in the unit, regardless of their position or rank, has a duty to be vigilant and report any potential safety hazards they come across. This collective responsibility ensures that safety is prioritized and that any hazards can be addressed promptly to prevent accidents or injuries. It also promotes a culture of safety where everyone is actively involved in maintaining a safe working environment.

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  • 10. 

    28. (002) Which DFARS reference identifies supplemental information?

    • A. 219.502–2.

    • B. 219.502–2–70.

    • C. 5319.502–2.

    • D. 5319.502–70.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 219.502–2–70.
    Explanation
    DFARS reference 219.502-2-70 is the correct answer because it specifically identifies supplemental information. The other options do not mention supplemental information.

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  • 11. 

    44. (004) Which government requirement is violated when the wrong “color of money” is used?

    • A. Procurement Act.

    • B. Anti-Deficiency Act.

    • C. Bona-fide Needs Rule.

    • D. Misappropriations Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Misappropriations Act.
    Explanation
    When the wrong "color of money" is used, it means that funds are being used for a purpose other than what they were originally designated for. The "color of money" refers to the specific appropriation or funding source that is allocated for a particular program or project. The Misappropriations Act is violated when funds are used in a manner that is inconsistent with the purpose for which they were appropriated. This means that using the wrong "color of money" violates the Misappropriations Act.

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  • 12. 

    55. (006) A CO responsibility includes

    • A. entering funding documents into ABSS.

    • B. ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment.

    • C. developing requirements for customers.

    • D. approving improper invoices.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment.
    Explanation
    A CO responsibility includes ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment. This means that the CO is responsible for ensuring that contractors are treated fairly and without bias in all aspects of their interactions with the government. This includes things like awarding contracts, evaluating performance, and resolving disputes. The CO plays a critical role in maintaining a level playing field for contractors and promoting fairness and transparency in the procurement process.

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  • 13. 

    When Gov't personell make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has stated that rather than adopt a rule that might injure the public, it is better

    • That neither party should suffer from the mistakes

    • That the gov't should suffer from their mistakes

    • For an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes

    • That the individual and the Gov't share the suffering from the mistakes

    Correct Answer
    A. For an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes
    Explanation
    The US Supreme Court has stated that when government personnel make a mistake, it is better for an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes. This means that instead of adopting a rule that might harm the public or placing the burden solely on the government, it is more reasonable to accept that individuals may sometimes face the consequences of government mistakes. This approach ensures a balance between protecting the public and acknowledging that mistakes can happen.

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  • 14. 

    20. (001) Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal contract when

    • A. the agreement concerns minor crimes.

    • B. only a portion of the contract was illegal.

    • C. the agreement was made to restrain trade.

    • D. the innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to protect.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. the innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to protect.
    Explanation
    The clean hands doctrine allows an individual to enforce an illegal contract if they are the innocent party and belong to the class of persons that the law is designed to protect. This means that even though the contract may be illegal, the innocent party can still seek enforcement if they are within a group that the law aims to safeguard. This exception is made to prevent unjust outcomes and ensure that individuals who are meant to be protected by the law are not unfairly disadvantaged.

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  • 15. 

    24. (002) Which AFI defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron?

    • A. AFI 38-101.

    • B. AFI 64-102.

    • C. AFI 65-109.

    • D. AFPD 64-1.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. AFI 64-102.
    Explanation
    AFI 64-102 is the correct answer because it specifically addresses the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron. AFI 38-101 pertains to the Air Force organization, while AFI 65-109 relates to financial management. AFPD 64-1 is a policy directive for contracting. Therefore, AFI 64-102 is the most relevant AFI for defining the roles and responsibilities within the operational contracting squadron.

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  • 16. 

    56. (006) Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?

    • A. Contractor

    • B. Customer.

    • C. Contracting officer.

    • D. Contract specialist.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Customer.
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request. The customer is the one who knows exactly what they need and can provide the specific details and specifications for the purchase. This information is crucial for the contractor, contracting officer, and contract specialist to understand and fulfill the customer's requirements accurately.

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  • 17. 

    57. (006) What is a purpose of the customer education program?

    • A. Develop open lines of communication.

    • B. Increase quantity of contract requirements.

    • C. Ensure customers follow the chain of command.

    • D. Teach how to get started as a government contractor.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Develop open lines of communication.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the customer education program is to develop open lines of communication. This means that the program aims to facilitate effective communication between the company and its customers. By educating customers about the company's products, services, and processes, it helps to establish a clear and transparent channel of communication. This can lead to better understanding, trust, and ultimately, improved customer satisfaction.

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  • 18. 

    61. (007) What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman?

    • A. 6C031.

    • B. 6C051.

    • C. 6C061.

    • D. 6C091.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 6C051.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. 6C051. This skill level identifies a contracting journeyman.

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  • 19. 

    62. (007) What tool assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations?

    • A. Self-inspection program.

    • B. Weekly staff meeting.

    • C. Quality indicators.

    • D. Peer reviews.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Self-inspection program.
    Explanation
    A self-inspection program is a tool that helps the contracting management team assess whether a unit is complying with applicable laws and regulations. This program involves conducting regular inspections and evaluations of the unit's processes, procedures, and documentation to identify any non-compliance issues. It allows the team to proactively identify and address any potential violations, ensuring that the unit operates within legal and regulatory boundaries. Weekly staff meetings, quality indicators, and peer reviews may provide some insights, but they are not specifically designed to assess compliance with laws and regulations.

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  • 20. 

    66. (007) Who must comply with OSHA requirements?

    • A. Contractors only.

    • B. Government employees only.

    • C. Construction personnel only.

    • D. Contractors and government employees.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Contractors and government employees.
    Explanation
    Contractors and government employees must comply with OSHA requirements. This means that both individuals working in the private sector as contractors and those working for the government are obligated to follow the regulations set by OSHA. This includes ensuring a safe and healthy work environment, providing training and education on workplace hazards, and maintaining proper records and documentation. Compliance with OSHA requirements is essential for the protection of workers and the prevention of accidents and injuries in the workplace.

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  • 21. 

    84. (011) An SF44 may be used when

    • A. supplies must be backordered.

    • B. a single delivery and a single payment will be made.

    • C. other simplified acquisitions are more appropriate.

    • D. a purchase exceeds the SAT during contingency operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. a single delivery and a single payment will be made.
    Explanation
    An SF44 may be used when a single delivery and a single payment will be made. This indicates that the SF44 form is suitable for situations where there is only one delivery of goods or services and a single payment is made for that delivery. It suggests that the form is designed for simple and straightforward transactions, rather than complex or ongoing procurement processes.

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  • 22. 

    34. (003) When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately

    • A. begins consolidating a complete report.

    • B. provides a 30 day cancellation notice to the contractor.

    • C. suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.

    • D. suspends performance for 60 days, then processes a contract cancellation.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.
    Explanation
    When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract. This is because the protest raises concerns about the validity of the contract, and the agency wants to ensure that no further work is done until the protest is resolved. Suspending performance or terminating the contract allows the agency to avoid potential legal and financial complications.

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  • 23. 

    Which is NOT an element of a contract?

    • Offer

    • Acceptance

    • CO

    • Legally enforceable

    Correct Answer
    A. CO
    Explanation
    The term "CO" is not an element of a contract. The other options, offer, acceptance, and legally enforceable, are all essential components of a contract. An offer refers to a proposal made by one party, acceptance is the agreement to the terms of the offer, and a contract must be legally enforceable to have validity. However, "CO" does not have any relevance or meaning in the context of contract law.

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  • 24. 

    Which party is the contractor?

    • Agent

    • Principal

    • Third Party

    • Agent and third party

    Correct Answer
    A. Third Party
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Third Party" because a contractor is a person or organization that is hired to perform work or provide services for another party, known as the principal. In this scenario, the contractor is not an agent of the principal, but rather a separate entity that is contracted to carry out specific tasks or services.

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  • 25. 

    27. (002) What is meant by implementing FAR?

    • A. Adding material that is unique to the Air Force.

    • B. Adding material that is unique to DOD.

    • C. Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR.

    • D. Numbering when the text cannot be integrated intelligibly with its FAR counterparts.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR.
    Explanation
    Implementing FAR refers to providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR. This means that when implementing FAR, the agency is responsible for creating and implementing its own procedures that align with the regulations and guidelines outlined in FAR. This ensures that the agency is able to effectively carry out the requirements and objectives set forth in FAR.

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  • 26. 

    54. (005) Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent?

    • A. Advising the commander on enlisted issues.

    • B. Managing the self-inspection program.

    • C. Appointing COs.

    • D. Military career advisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Appointing COs.
    Explanation
    The contracting superintendent is responsible for various functions related to contracting, such as advising the commander on enlisted issues, managing the self-inspection program, and serving as a military career advisor. However, appointing COs is not one of their responsibilities. The appointment of COs is typically done by higher-ranking officials or commanders.

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  • 27. 

    67. (007) What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply hazardous materials to the government?

    • A. Material Safety Data Sheet.

    • B. Proof of liability for potential hazards.

    • C. Material Shipping Document Sheet.

    • D. Proof of EPA notification.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Material Safety Data Sheet.
    Explanation
    Contractors and vendors must submit a Material Safety Data Sheet when they supply hazardous materials to the government. This document provides important information about the potential hazards, safe handling procedures, and emergency response measures for the hazardous materials. It helps ensure that the government has access to the necessary information to safely handle and store the materials. Proof of liability for potential hazards, material shipping document sheet, and proof of EPA notification are not specifically mentioned as required documents in this context.

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  • 28. 

    82. (011) When may a contractor be issued a GPC?

    • A. When purchases will be made against a Federal Supply Schedule.

    • B. When working under a personal services contract.

    • C. For official use only.

    • D. Never.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Never.
    Explanation
    A contractor may never be issued a GPC. A GPC, or Government Purchase Card, is typically issued to government employees for official use only. Contractors, who are not government employees, do not have the authority to use a GPC. Therefore, the correct answer is "d. Never."

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  • 29. 

    88. (012) A SABER contract

    • A. is used to compensate for inadequate planning.

    • B. is a “catch all” for construction requirements.

    • C. can be used to acquire engineering services.

    • D. complements the traditional construction program.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. complements the traditional construction program.
    Explanation
    A SABER contract complements the traditional construction program. This means that it works alongside and enhances the traditional construction program rather than replacing it. It provides additional support and resources to ensure the success of the construction program.

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  • 30. 

    ADR stands for

    • Applicable Dispute Resolution

    • Alternate Dispute Resolution

    • Applicable Department Resources

    • Alternate Department Resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Alternate Dispute Resolution
    Explanation
    ADR stands for Alternate Dispute Resolution. This term refers to the process of resolving legal disputes outside of the traditional court system. It involves methods such as negotiation, mediation, and arbitration, which aim to provide parties with a faster, more cost-effective, and less adversarial way of resolving their conflicts. ADR is often used as an alternative to litigation and can be voluntary or mandated by the court.

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  • 31. 

    48. (004) NAFs are generated through

    • A. Appropriations Act.

    • B. taxpayer dollars.

    • C. Enabling and Procedural Acts.

    • D. Morale, Welfare and Recreational facilities.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Morale, Welfare and Recreational facilities.
  • 32. 

    45. (004) What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?

    • A. Procurement Act.

    • B. Anti-Deficiency Act.

    • C. Misappropriations Act.

    • D. Continuing Appropriations Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Anti-Deficiency Act.
    Explanation
    The Anti-Deficiency Act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available. This act prohibits federal agencies from making expenditures or entering into contracts that exceed the amount of funds appropriated by Congress. It is designed to ensure that government agencies operate within their budgetary limits and prevent overspending. Violating the Anti-Deficiency Act can result in penalties and legal consequences.

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  • 33. 

    97. (016) The commercial contract format uses the

    • A. SF 26.

    • B. SF 33.

    • C. SF 1447.

    • D. SF 1449.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. SF 1449.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SF 1449. SF 1449 is the standard form used for commercial contracts. It is used to document the agreement between the government and a commercial supplier for the procurement of goods or services. This form includes important information such as the contract number, delivery schedule, payment terms, and other terms and conditions of the agreement.

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  • 34. 

    Who is responsible for ascertaining whether gov't agents are acting within the bounds of their authority?

    • The CO

    • The Gov't

    • The Contractor

    • The agent

    Correct Answer
    A. The Contractor
    Explanation
    The contractor is responsible for ascertaining whether government agents are acting within the bounds of their authority. This means that it is the contractor's duty to ensure that the government agents are following the rules and regulations set forth by their authority. The contractor is accountable for monitoring the actions of the government agents and making sure that they are not exceeding their authority or engaging in any unauthorized activities.

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  • 35. 

    Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generall decided on the issue of

    • Whether the gov't acted in the public's interest

    • Whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently

    • Who would otherwise have had authority to release the information

    • Whether the contractor would have otherwise benefited from the action

    Correct Answer
    A. Whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently
    Explanation
    Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently. Estoppel is a legal principle that prevents a person from asserting a claim or right that contradicts what they previously stated or agreed upon. In this context, if a contractor acted reasonably and innocently based on the information provided by the government, they may be protected under estoppel. This means that even if the contractor would have otherwise benefited from the action or the government acted in the public's interest, the key factor in deciding the case is whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently.

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  • 36. 

    43. (003) Two techniques of ADR are

    • A. mitigation and controversy hearings.

    • B. mediation and controversy hearings.

    • C. mitigation and arbitration.

    • D. mediation and arbitration.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. mediation and arbitration.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. mediation and arbitration. Mediation is a technique of alternative dispute resolution (ADR) where a neutral third party helps the parties involved in a dispute to reach a mutually acceptable agreement. Arbitration, on the other hand, is a process where a neutral third party, called an arbitrator, reviews the evidence and makes a decision that is legally binding on the parties. Therefore, both mediation and arbitration are techniques used in ADR to resolve disputes outside of the traditional court system.

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  • 37. 

    76. (009) Which written preliminary contractual instrument immediately authorizes a contractor to begin manufacturing supplies or performing services?

    • A. Letter contract.

    • B. Urgent contract.

    • C. Unpriced purchase order.

    • D. Blanket purchase agreement.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Letter contract.
    Explanation
    A letter contract is a written preliminary contractual instrument that immediately authorizes a contractor to begin manufacturing supplies or performing services. It is used when negotiating a formal contract would cause a delay and there is an urgent need for the contractor to start work. A letter contract provides a temporary agreement that allows the contractor to start work while the formal contract is being negotiated and finalized. It is typically used in situations where there is a critical need for supplies or services and time is of the essence.

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  • 38. 

    A CO appointment must be reviewed at least

    • Anually

    • Every two years

    • Every five years

    • When requested by the appointing authority

    Correct Answer
    A. Every two years
    Explanation
    A CO appointment must be reviewed every two years to ensure that the individual appointed is still qualified and suitable for the position. This regular review helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the appointment process. It allows for any changes in the appointee's qualifications or circumstances to be assessed and addressed in a timely manner. Additionally, it provides an opportunity for the appointing authority to evaluate the performance and conduct of the CO, ensuring that they continue to meet the requirements and expectations of the role.

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  • 39. 

    (001) An offeror’s withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a a. cancellation.

    • A. cancellation.

    • B. termination.

    • C. revocation.

    • D. breach of contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. revocation.
    Explanation
    When an offeror withdraws their offer before it is accepted, it is referred to as a revocation. This means that the offer is no longer available for acceptance by the offeree. Cancellation refers to the termination of a contract after it has been accepted, termination is the ending of a contract by either party, and breach of contract occurs when one party fails to fulfill their obligations under the contract.

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  • 40. 

    14. (001) Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contract is true?

    • A. If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time, place, or means will constitute an acceptance.

    • B. The offer cannot dictate the place or manner of acceptance.

    • C. Acceptance must be communicated by the US mail.

    • D. Acceptance must be in writing.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time, place, or means will constitute an acceptance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time, place, or means will constitute an acceptance. This means that if the offeror specifies how and when the acceptance should be communicated, the offeree must adhere to those specifications for the acceptance to be valid. Any other time, place, or means of communication would not be considered as an acceptance.

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  • 41. 

    46. (004) The Bona-Fide Need rule requires current year funds be obligated

    • A. prior to expiration of the funds.

    • B. as necessary to meet mission requirements.

    • C. for the purpose the funds are authorized for.

    • D. in the same year the government will use the supplies or services.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. in the same year the government will use the supplies or services.
    Explanation
    The Bona-Fide Need rule states that current year funds must be obligated in the same year that the government plans to use the supplies or services. This means that the funds cannot be carried over to the following year and must be used within the fiscal year they were allocated for. This rule ensures that funds are used in a timely manner and prevents unnecessary accumulation of funds.

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  • 42. 

    47. (004) O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?

    • A. No-year.

    • B. Annual.

    • C. Continuing.

    • D. Multiple year.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Annual.
    Explanation
    O&M funds are categorized as annual appropriations because they are intended to cover the costs of operating and maintaining facilities and equipment for a specific fiscal year. These funds are allocated on a yearly basis and must be used within that fiscal year. Unlike no-year or continuing appropriations, O&M funds do not carry over from one year to the next. Multiple year appropriations, on the other hand, are used for projects that span multiple fiscal years and are not typically used for O&M expenses.

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  • 43. 

    89. (013) Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as

    • A. value engineering contracts.

    • B. professional services contracts.

    • C. architect-engineer services contracts.

    • D. engineering design services contracts.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. architect-engineer services contracts.
    Explanation
    Architect-engineer services contracts refer to contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that require the expertise of a licensed, registered, or certified individual. These contracts typically involve the design, planning, and supervision of construction projects. The term "architect-engineer" encompasses both architectural and engineering services, making option c the correct answer. Options a, b, and d do not accurately describe contracts that specifically require the expertise of a licensed professional in the architectural or engineering field.

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  • 44. 

    95. (015) What type of contracting instrument would have the letter “M” in the ninth position of the PIIN?

    • A. Automated request for quotation.

    • B. Manual request for quotation.

    • C. Automated purchase order.

    • D. Manual purchase order.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Manual purchase order.
    Explanation
    The letter "M" in the ninth position of the PIIN indicates that the contracting instrument is a manual purchase order. This means that the purchase order was created and processed manually, rather than through an automated system.

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  • 45. 

    What are the two categories of actual authority?

    • Implied and assumed

    • Implied and apparent

    • Express and implied

    • Express and apparent

    Correct Answer
    A. Express and implied
    Explanation
    Express authority refers to the authority that is explicitly given to an individual through written or verbal communication. It is clear and specific, leaving no room for interpretation. Implied authority, on the other hand, is not directly stated but is understood to be necessary for carrying out the tasks or responsibilities assigned. It is derived from the nature of the position or role held by the individual. Therefore, express and implied authority are the two categories of actual authority.

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  • 46. 

    29. (002) DFARS is updated

    • A. daily.

    • B. monthly.

    • C. quarterly.

    • D. annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. quarterly.
    Explanation
    DFARS stands for Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement. It is a set of regulations that supplements the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) and provides specific guidelines and requirements for defense contracts. DFARS is regularly updated to incorporate changes in laws, policies, and procedures. The correct answer is c. quarterly, indicating that DFARS is updated every three months. This ensures that the regulations remain current and reflect any changes in the defense acquisition process.

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  • 47. 

    32. (003) A government action may be protested by

    • A. the next low bidder.

    • B. an interested party.

    • C. all responsible bidders.

    • D. the next low small business bidder.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. an interested party.
    Explanation
    An interested party refers to any individual or organization that has a stake or concern in a particular government action. This could include competitors, stakeholders, or community members who may be directly or indirectly affected by the action. They may protest the action if they believe it to be unfair, unjust, or against their interests.

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  • 48. 

    68. (007) Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on human health or the environment when compared with competing products or services that serve the same purpose are known as

    • A. recycled materials.

    • B. recovered materials.

    • C. environmentally friendly.

    • D. environmentally preferable.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. environmentally preferable.
    Explanation
    Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on human health or the environment when compared with competing products or services that serve the same purpose are known as environmentally preferable. This means that they are more sustainable and have a lower impact on the planet, making them a better choice for consumers who prioritize environmental consciousness.

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  • 49. 

    74. (009) Which incentive arrangement should motivate contractors to strive for outstanding results in all incentive areas?

    • A. United-incentive arrangement.

    • B. Multiple-incentive arrangement.

    • C. Combined-incentive arrangement.

    • D. Multi-faceted incentive arrangement.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Multiple-incentive arrangement.
    Explanation
    A multiple-incentive arrangement would be the most effective in motivating contractors to strive for outstanding results in all incentive areas. This arrangement provides multiple incentives, such as bonuses or rewards, for achieving exceptional performance in various areas. This encourages contractors to excel in all aspects of their work, as they have the opportunity to earn additional rewards for each incentive area. By offering multiple incentives, contractors are more likely to be motivated and focused on achieving outstanding results in all areas.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 05, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Slovacekst
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