CDC 6C051P : Hardest Trivia Quiz On Contracting Journeyman!

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1. 17. (001) What is meant by the term "competent" in regards to a contracting party?

Explanation

The term "competent" in regards to a contracting party means that the individual has the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. This means that they are capable of comprehending the terms and consequences of a contract and are able to make informed decisions regarding their participation in the contract. It is important for a contracting party to be competent in order for the contract to be legally valid and enforceable.

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CDC 6C051P : Hardest Trivia Quiz On Contracting Journeyman! - Quiz

Do you have what it takes to tackle what is known as the hardest CDC 6c051pTrivia Quiz On Contracting Journeyman? If you said yes then the trivia quiz... see morebelow was made for you. Give it a try and get to see some of the situations through which one the contracting of the air force is restricted or permitted. All the best! see less

2. 18. (001) Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a contract?

Explanation

A 23-year-old car salesperson would be considered competent to enter into a contract because they are of legal age and presumed to have the mental capacity to understand and fulfill the obligations of a contract. Age and mental capacity are important factors in determining competence to enter into a contract. The other options - a 17-year-old college student, a 25-year-old intoxicated person, and a 50-year-old patient in a mental institution - may have limitations in their ability to understand the terms and consequences of a contract, thus making them less likely to be considered competent.

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3. 81. (011) Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard Form

Explanation

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4. Match each term in column B with the applicable definition in column A. Terms in column B may only be used once.
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5. Match.
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6. 63. (007) What program is designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands?

Explanation

OPSEC stands for Operations Security, which is a program designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands. It involves identifying critical information, analyzing threats, and implementing measures to protect that information. This program helps to safeguard sensitive data and prevent unauthorized access, ensuring that it remains confidential and secure.

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7. What agency's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?

Explanation

The Small Business Administration's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses. They offer resources and support to help small businesses start, grow, and succeed. This agency aims to assist small business owners with access to capital, business training, government contracting opportunities, and disaster assistance. They also provide counseling and guidance on various topics such as business planning, marketing, and financial management.

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8. Which statement concerning the CO's appointment or termination is true?

Explanation

The correct answer states that in no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive. This means that once a CO's appointment is terminated, it will not be applied retroactively from a past date. The termination will only be effective from the date it is officially terminated. This ensures that any actions or decisions made by the CO during their appointment remain valid and unaffected by the termination.

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9. 19. (001) As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is

Explanation

A contract that violates a statute is considered unlawful and void, meaning it has no legal effect and will not be enforced by the courts. This is because statutes are laws enacted by the government, and any contract that goes against these laws is not valid. Therefore, parties cannot rely on the contract to enforce their rights or obligations.

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10. 64. (007) What is the definition of a classified contract?

Explanation

A classified contract is defined as any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract. This means that the contractor will need to handle and protect classified information in order to fulfill their obligations under the contract.

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11. 65. (007) Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards?

Explanation

All personnel are responsible for identifying safety hazards. This means that everyone in the unit, regardless of their position or rank, has a duty to be vigilant and report any potential safety hazards they come across. This collective responsibility ensures that safety is prioritized and that any hazards can be addressed promptly to prevent accidents or injuries. It also promotes a culture of safety where everyone is actively involved in maintaining a safe working environment.

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12. 55. (006) A CO responsibility includes

Explanation

A CO responsibility includes ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment. This means that the CO is responsible for ensuring that contractors are treated fairly and without bias in all aspects of their interactions with the government. This includes things like awarding contracts, evaluating performance, and resolving disputes. The CO plays a critical role in maintaining a level playing field for contractors and promoting fairness and transparency in the procurement process.

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13. 28. (002) Which DFARS reference identifies supplemental information?

Explanation

DFARS reference 219.502-2-70 is the correct answer because it specifically identifies supplemental information. The other options do not mention supplemental information.

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14. 44. (004) Which government requirement is violated when the wrong "color of money" is used?

Explanation

When the wrong "color of money" is used, it means that funds are being used for a purpose other than what they were originally designated for. The "color of money" refers to the specific appropriation or funding source that is allocated for a particular program or project. The Misappropriations Act is violated when funds are used in a manner that is inconsistent with the purpose for which they were appropriated. This means that using the wrong "color of money" violates the Misappropriations Act.

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15. 20. (001) Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal contract when

Explanation

The clean hands doctrine allows an individual to enforce an illegal contract if they are the innocent party and belong to the class of persons that the law is designed to protect. This means that even though the contract may be illegal, the innocent party can still seek enforcement if they are within a group that the law aims to safeguard. This exception is made to prevent unjust outcomes and ensure that individuals who are meant to be protected by the law are not unfairly disadvantaged.

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16. 24. (002) Which AFI defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron?

Explanation

AFI 64-102 is the correct answer because it specifically addresses the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron. AFI 38-101 pertains to the Air Force organization, while AFI 65-109 relates to financial management. AFPD 64-1 is a policy directive for contracting. Therefore, AFI 64-102 is the most relevant AFI for defining the roles and responsibilities within the operational contracting squadron.

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17. 84. (011) An SF44 may be used when

Explanation

An SF44 may be used when a single delivery and a single payment will be made. This indicates that the SF44 form is suitable for situations where there is only one delivery of goods or services and a single payment is made for that delivery. It suggests that the form is designed for simple and straightforward transactions, rather than complex or ongoing procurement processes.

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18. 56. (006) Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?

Explanation

The customer is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request. The customer is the one who knows exactly what they need and can provide the specific details and specifications for the purchase. This information is crucial for the contractor, contracting officer, and contract specialist to understand and fulfill the customer's requirements accurately.

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19. 57. (006) What is a purpose of the customer education program?

Explanation

The purpose of the customer education program is to develop open lines of communication. This means that the program aims to facilitate effective communication between the company and its customers. By educating customers about the company's products, services, and processes, it helps to establish a clear and transparent channel of communication. This can lead to better understanding, trust, and ultimately, improved customer satisfaction.

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20. 61. (007) What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. 6C051. This skill level identifies a contracting journeyman.

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21. 62. (007) What tool assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations?

Explanation

A self-inspection program is a tool that helps the contracting management team assess whether a unit is complying with applicable laws and regulations. This program involves conducting regular inspections and evaluations of the unit's processes, procedures, and documentation to identify any non-compliance issues. It allows the team to proactively identify and address any potential violations, ensuring that the unit operates within legal and regulatory boundaries. Weekly staff meetings, quality indicators, and peer reviews may provide some insights, but they are not specifically designed to assess compliance with laws and regulations.

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22. 66. (007) Who must comply with OSHA requirements?

Explanation

Contractors and government employees must comply with OSHA requirements. This means that both individuals working in the private sector as contractors and those working for the government are obligated to follow the regulations set by OSHA. This includes ensuring a safe and healthy work environment, providing training and education on workplace hazards, and maintaining proper records and documentation. Compliance with OSHA requirements is essential for the protection of workers and the prevention of accidents and injuries in the workplace.

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23. When Gov't personell make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has stated that rather than adopt a rule that might injure the public, it is better

Explanation

The US Supreme Court has stated that when government personnel make a mistake, it is better for an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes. This means that instead of adopting a rule that might harm the public or placing the burden solely on the government, it is more reasonable to accept that individuals may sometimes face the consequences of government mistakes. This approach ensures a balance between protecting the public and acknowledging that mistakes can happen.

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24. Which is NOT an element of a contract?

Explanation

The term "CO" is not an element of a contract. The other options, offer, acceptance, and legally enforceable, are all essential components of a contract. An offer refers to a proposal made by one party, acceptance is the agreement to the terms of the offer, and a contract must be legally enforceable to have validity. However, "CO" does not have any relevance or meaning in the context of contract law.

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25. 34. (003) When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately

Explanation

When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract. This is because the protest raises concerns about the validity of the contract, and the agency wants to ensure that no further work is done until the protest is resolved. Suspending performance or terminating the contract allows the agency to avoid potential legal and financial complications.

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26. 82. (011) When may a contractor be issued a GPC?

Explanation

A contractor may never be issued a GPC. A GPC, or Government Purchase Card, is typically issued to government employees for official use only. Contractors, who are not government employees, do not have the authority to use a GPC. Therefore, the correct answer is "d. Never."

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27. 54. (005) Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent?

Explanation

The contracting superintendent is responsible for various functions related to contracting, such as advising the commander on enlisted issues, managing the self-inspection program, and serving as a military career advisor. However, appointing COs is not one of their responsibilities. The appointment of COs is typically done by higher-ranking officials or commanders.

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28. 88. (012) A SABER contract

Explanation

A SABER contract complements the traditional construction program. This means that it works alongside and enhances the traditional construction program rather than replacing it. It provides additional support and resources to ensure the success of the construction program.

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29. 67. (007) What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply hazardous materials to the government?

Explanation

Contractors and vendors must submit a Material Safety Data Sheet when they supply hazardous materials to the government. This document provides important information about the potential hazards, safe handling procedures, and emergency response measures for the hazardous materials. It helps ensure that the government has access to the necessary information to safely handle and store the materials. Proof of liability for potential hazards, material shipping document sheet, and proof of EPA notification are not specifically mentioned as required documents in this context.

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30. 27. (002) What is meant by implementing FAR?

Explanation

Implementing FAR refers to providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR. This means that when implementing FAR, the agency is responsible for creating and implementing its own procedures that align with the regulations and guidelines outlined in FAR. This ensures that the agency is able to effectively carry out the requirements and objectives set forth in FAR.

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31. Which party is the contractor?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Third Party" because a contractor is a person or organization that is hired to perform work or provide services for another party, known as the principal. In this scenario, the contractor is not an agent of the principal, but rather a separate entity that is contracted to carry out specific tasks or services.

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32. ADR stands for

Explanation

ADR stands for Alternate Dispute Resolution. This term refers to the process of resolving legal disputes outside of the traditional court system. It involves methods such as negotiation, mediation, and arbitration, which aim to provide parties with a faster, more cost-effective, and less adversarial way of resolving their conflicts. ADR is often used as an alternative to litigation and can be voluntary or mandated by the court.

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33. 48. (004) NAFs are generated through

Explanation

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34. 45. (004) What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?

Explanation

The Anti-Deficiency Act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available. This act prohibits federal agencies from making expenditures or entering into contracts that exceed the amount of funds appropriated by Congress. It is designed to ensure that government agencies operate within their budgetary limits and prevent overspending. Violating the Anti-Deficiency Act can result in penalties and legal consequences.

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35. 97. (016) The commercial contract format uses the

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 1449. SF 1449 is the standard form used for commercial contracts. It is used to document the agreement between the government and a commercial supplier for the procurement of goods or services. This form includes important information such as the contract number, delivery schedule, payment terms, and other terms and conditions of the agreement.

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36. 76. (009) Which written preliminary contractual instrument immediately authorizes a contractor to begin manufacturing supplies or performing services?

Explanation

A letter contract is a written preliminary contractual instrument that immediately authorizes a contractor to begin manufacturing supplies or performing services. It is used when negotiating a formal contract would cause a delay and there is an urgent need for the contractor to start work. A letter contract provides a temporary agreement that allows the contractor to start work while the formal contract is being negotiated and finalized. It is typically used in situations where there is a critical need for supplies or services and time is of the essence.

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37. Who is responsible for ascertaining whether gov't agents are acting within the bounds of their authority?

Explanation

The contractor is responsible for ascertaining whether government agents are acting within the bounds of their authority. This means that it is the contractor's duty to ensure that the government agents are following the rules and regulations set forth by their authority. The contractor is accountable for monitoring the actions of the government agents and making sure that they are not exceeding their authority or engaging in any unauthorized activities.

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38. Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generall decided on the issue of

Explanation

Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently. Estoppel is a legal principle that prevents a person from asserting a claim or right that contradicts what they previously stated or agreed upon. In this context, if a contractor acted reasonably and innocently based on the information provided by the government, they may be protected under estoppel. This means that even if the contractor would have otherwise benefited from the action or the government acted in the public's interest, the key factor in deciding the case is whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently.

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39. 43. (003) Two techniques of ADR are

Explanation

The correct answer is d. mediation and arbitration. Mediation is a technique of alternative dispute resolution (ADR) where a neutral third party helps the parties involved in a dispute to reach a mutually acceptable agreement. Arbitration, on the other hand, is a process where a neutral third party, called an arbitrator, reviews the evidence and makes a decision that is legally binding on the parties. Therefore, both mediation and arbitration are techniques used in ADR to resolve disputes outside of the traditional court system.

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40. 14. (001) Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contract is true?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time, place, or means will constitute an acceptance. This means that if the offeror specifies how and when the acceptance should be communicated, the offeree must adhere to those specifications for the acceptance to be valid. Any other time, place, or means of communication would not be considered as an acceptance.

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41. 46. (004) The Bona-Fide Need rule requires current year funds be obligated

Explanation

The Bona-Fide Need rule states that current year funds must be obligated in the same year that the government plans to use the supplies or services. This means that the funds cannot be carried over to the following year and must be used within the fiscal year they were allocated for. This rule ensures that funds are used in a timely manner and prevents unnecessary accumulation of funds.

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42. 47. (004) O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?

Explanation

O&M funds are categorized as annual appropriations because they are intended to cover the costs of operating and maintaining facilities and equipment for a specific fiscal year. These funds are allocated on a yearly basis and must be used within that fiscal year. Unlike no-year or continuing appropriations, O&M funds do not carry over from one year to the next. Multiple year appropriations, on the other hand, are used for projects that span multiple fiscal years and are not typically used for O&M expenses.

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43. 89. (013) Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as

Explanation

Architect-engineer services contracts refer to contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that require the expertise of a licensed, registered, or certified individual. These contracts typically involve the design, planning, and supervision of construction projects. The term "architect-engineer" encompasses both architectural and engineering services, making option c the correct answer. Options a, b, and d do not accurately describe contracts that specifically require the expertise of a licensed professional in the architectural or engineering field.

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44. 95. (015) What type of contracting instrument would have the letter "M" in the ninth position of the PIIN?

Explanation

The letter "M" in the ninth position of the PIIN indicates that the contracting instrument is a manual purchase order. This means that the purchase order was created and processed manually, rather than through an automated system.

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45. A CO appointment must be reviewed at least

Explanation

A CO appointment must be reviewed every two years to ensure that the individual appointed is still qualified and suitable for the position. This regular review helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the appointment process. It allows for any changes in the appointee's qualifications or circumstances to be assessed and addressed in a timely manner. Additionally, it provides an opportunity for the appointing authority to evaluate the performance and conduct of the CO, ensuring that they continue to meet the requirements and expectations of the role.

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46. (001) An offeror's withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a a. cancellation.

Explanation

When an offeror withdraws their offer before it is accepted, it is referred to as a revocation. This means that the offer is no longer available for acceptance by the offeree. Cancellation refers to the termination of a contract after it has been accepted, termination is the ending of a contract by either party, and breach of contract occurs when one party fails to fulfill their obligations under the contract.

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47. 74. (009) Which incentive arrangement should motivate contractors to strive for outstanding results in all incentive areas?

Explanation

A multiple-incentive arrangement would be the most effective in motivating contractors to strive for outstanding results in all incentive areas. This arrangement provides multiple incentives, such as bonuses or rewards, for achieving exceptional performance in various areas. This encourages contractors to excel in all aspects of their work, as they have the opportunity to earn additional rewards for each incentive area. By offering multiple incentives, contractors are more likely to be motivated and focused on achieving outstanding results in all areas.

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48. 86. (011) Sealed bidding should not be used for construction contracts when

Explanation

Sealed bidding is a procurement method where bids are submitted in sealed envelopes and opened at a designated time. It is typically used when the award will be made solely on the basis of price and there is a reasonable expectation of receiving more than one bid. However, if it is necessary to conduct discussions with offerors, sealed bidding should not be used. This is because sealed bidding does not allow for negotiations or discussions with potential contractors. Instead, a different procurement method such as competitive negotiation should be used in order to allow for discussions and negotiations with offerors.

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49. 87. (012) What factors are multiplied against standard prices in a SABER contract and include cost elements such as overhead and G&A expenses?

Explanation

In a SABER contract, coefficients are multiplied against standard prices to account for cost elements such as overhead and G&A expenses. Coefficients are used to adjust the standard prices and calculate the final cost of the contract. This allows for a more accurate representation of the total cost, including all necessary expenses.

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50. 68. (007) Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on human health or the environment when compared with competing products or services that serve the same purpose are known as

Explanation

Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on human health or the environment when compared with competing products or services that serve the same purpose are known as environmentally preferable. This means that they are more sustainable and have a lower impact on the planet, making them a better choice for consumers who prioritize environmental consciousness.

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51. 29. (002) DFARS is updated

Explanation

DFARS stands for Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement. It is a set of regulations that supplements the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) and provides specific guidelines and requirements for defense contracts. DFARS is regularly updated to incorporate changes in laws, policies, and procedures. The correct answer is c. quarterly, indicating that DFARS is updated every three months. This ensures that the regulations remain current and reflect any changes in the defense acquisition process.

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52. 32. (003) A government action may be protested by

Explanation

An interested party refers to any individual or organization that has a stake or concern in a particular government action. This could include competitors, stakeholders, or community members who may be directly or indirectly affected by the action. They may protest the action if they believe it to be unfair, unjust, or against their interests.

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53. What are the two categories of actual authority?

Explanation

Express authority refers to the authority that is explicitly given to an individual through written or verbal communication. It is clear and specific, leaving no room for interpretation. Implied authority, on the other hand, is not directly stated but is understood to be necessary for carrying out the tasks or responsibilities assigned. It is derived from the nature of the position or role held by the individual. Therefore, express and implied authority are the two categories of actual authority.

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54. 15. (001) What is the name given to the exchange of promises?

Explanation

Consideration is the name given to the exchange of promises. In a contract, consideration refers to something of value that is given in exchange for a promise or performance. It can be a payment, a promise to do something, or a promise to refrain from doing something. Consideration is an essential element of a legally binding contract as it ensures that both parties have provided something of value and have entered into the agreement willingly. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Consideration.

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55. 53. (005) Which position is responsible for managing the socio-economic and other public policy programs?

Explanation

The position responsible for managing the socio-economic and other public policy programs is the Director of Business Operations. This role is typically responsible for overseeing the strategic planning and implementation of various programs related to socio-economic issues and public policy. They may work closely with other departments and stakeholders to ensure that these programs are effectively managed and aligned with organizational goals. The other options mentioned, such as the Management Analysis and Support Flight Chief, Contracting Squadron Commander, and Contracting Superintendent, do not typically have direct responsibility for managing these types of programs.

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56. 94. (014) Benefits of options include increased

Explanation

Options provide benefits such as increased competition because they give individuals or companies the ability to choose between different alternatives. By having options, there is a greater level of competition among suppliers or providers, which can lead to improved quality, lower prices, and better overall outcomes. This is why optionality is often seen as a positive aspect in various industries and decision-making processes.

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57. 78. (009) Which of the following contracts provide no positive profit incentive to the contractor for cost control or labor efficiency?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Time and materials. In a time and materials contract, the contractor is reimbursed for the actual hours worked and the materials used, plus a predetermined fee. This type of contract does not provide any profit incentive for the contractor to control costs or improve labor efficiency, as they are not directly impacted by these factors. The contractor is essentially guaranteed to be paid for their time and materials, regardless of the efficiency or cost-effectiveness of their work.

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58. 99. (016) When using the UCF you include lengthy specifications in

Explanation

When using the UCF (Unified Compliance Framework), lengthy specifications are included in Section J.

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59. 37. (003) What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement of the contracting parties?

Explanation

When a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement, the contractor may submit a claim under the Disputes clause. This clause is typically included in government contracts and provides a mechanism for resolving disputes between the contracting parties. By submitting a claim under this clause, the contractor is initiating a formal process to seek resolution and potentially receive compensation for any damages or losses incurred. This is often the next step when informal negotiations have failed to reach a resolution.

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60. Which statement about the offeree is correct?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only the intended offeree can accept the offer." This means that the offeror cannot direct the offer to a class of people or to the public with the intention that any member of the class or public can accept. Instead, there is always one specific offeree identified in whom the power of acceptance is vested. The offeror cannot direct the offer to more than one person, and only the intended offeree has the ability to accept the offer.

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61. 23. (002) What publications series represents Contracting?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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62. 58. (006) Which of the following topics is used for contractor education activities?

Explanation

Contractor education activities typically focus on providing contractors with information and guidance on various topics related to their work. One important aspect of contractor education is ensuring that contractors are aware of and comply with federal wage rates. This is crucial because federal wage rates determine the minimum wages that contractors must pay to their employees working on federally funded projects. By educating contractors about federal wage rates, they can ensure that they are in compliance with the law and avoid any potential legal issues or penalties.

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63. 70. (008) What action should the CO take if contract award is made on the nonqualifying country offer and the duty is exempted by the Duty-Free clause?

Explanation

If the contract award is made on a nonqualifying country offer and the duty is exempted by the Duty-Free clause, the CO should award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty. This means that the price of the contract will be reduced by the amount of duty that would have been charged.

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64. 16. (001) What is meant by adequate consideration?

Explanation

Adequate consideration refers to a fair bargain or exchange in a contract. It means that the consideration provided by one party is of equal value to the consideration provided by the other party. In other words, both parties receive something of equal worth in the exchange, ensuring fairness in the transaction.

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65. 92. (014) Which of the following is a characteristic of agreements?

Explanation

An agreement is a legally binding contract between two or more parties. It establishes the groundwork for future contracts by outlining the terms and conditions that will govern the relationship between the parties. This includes specifying the rights, obligations, and responsibilities of each party involved. By establishing the groundwork, the agreement sets the foundation for future contracts to be negotiated and entered into by the parties.

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66. 49. (004) Who directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation?

Explanation

The Force Support Squadron Commander directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation. This includes overseeing the management and delivery of services such as dining facilities, fitness centers, lodging, and recreation programs. They are responsible for ensuring that these facilities meet the needs of the installation's personnel and contribute to their well-being and quality of life. The Mission Support Group Commander is responsible for a broader range of support functions, while the Contracting Squadron Commander and NAF contracting officer are not directly involved in the operation of NAF services facilities.

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67. 69. (008) The Buy American Act allows exceptions for articles, materials, and supplies purchased

Explanation

The Buy American Act requires that articles, materials, and supplies purchased by the government must be made in the United States, with certain exceptions. One of these exceptions is when the items are specifically for commissary resale. This means that if the government is purchasing items to be sold in commissaries (military retail stores), they are allowed to buy non-domestic products.

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68. 72. (009) Incentive contracts are appropriate when the

Explanation

Incentive contracts are appropriate when a firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate. This implies that there are certain situations where a fixed-price contract may not be suitable, such as when the scope of work is uncertain or when the contractor needs additional motivation to meet specific performance targets. In these cases, incentive contracts can be used to provide incentives for the contractor to perform well and achieve desired outcomes.

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69. 80. (011) The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures is to

Explanation

Simplified acquisition procedures are implemented to streamline the acquisition process and make it more efficient. By reducing administrative costs and burdens on the contractor, these procedures aim to make it easier for small businesses to compete for government contracts. This helps to promote competition and ensure that the government can acquire goods and services in a timely and cost-effective manner.

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70. 59. (006) The Prompt Payment Act requires that final payment of construction contracts be made within

Explanation

The correct answer is a. 30 days of acceptance by the government. The Prompt Payment Act mandates that the final payment for construction contracts must be made within 30 days of acceptance by the government. This ensures that contractors are paid promptly for their work and helps to maintain a healthy cash flow in the construction industry. By setting a specific time frame for payment, the Act aims to prevent delays and disputes over payment and promote fair and timely compensation for contractors.

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71. 98. (016) When using the UCF, which section title would you find under Part I – The Schedule?

Explanation

In the UCF, Part I - The Schedule contains information related to the contract administration. This section provides details about the administrative aspects of the contract, such as reporting requirements, payment terms, and delivery schedules. It ensures that both parties are aware of their responsibilities and obligations during the contract execution phase. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Contract administration data.

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72. 51. (004) The aggregate of commercial advance payments cannot exceed what amount of the contract price?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. 15%. This means that the aggregate of commercial advance payments cannot exceed 15% of the contract price. This is a limit set to ensure that the contractor does not receive too much payment upfront and to provide some protection to the buyer.

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73. 30. (002) In determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a contract adjustment, the Comptroller General Decisions are referred to and used as

Explanation

The Comptroller General Decisions are referred to and used as precedents in determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a contract adjustment. This means that previous decisions made by the Comptroller General in similar cases are used as a basis or guideline for making decisions in the current case. These decisions serve as examples or precedents that help inform and guide the decision-making process.

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74. Implied authority IS actual authority.

Explanation

Implied authority refers to the authority that is not explicitly granted but is assumed to exist based on the circumstances or the nature of the relationship between the parties involved. In other words, it is the authority that is inferred or understood without being stated directly. Since implied authority is considered to be a form of actual authority, the statement "Implied authority IS actual authority" is correct.

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75. 77. (009) When a contractor will acquire materials and services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates, the appropriate contract is

Explanation

When a contractor acquires materials and services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates, the appropriate contract is a time and materials contract. This type of contract allows for flexibility in pricing and is commonly used when the scope of work is uncertain or when it is difficult to determine the exact quantities of materials and services needed. The contractor is reimbursed for the actual costs of the materials and services used, along with an agreed-upon profit margin.

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76. 40. (003) If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal. This means that once the contracting officer decides that the contractor should be compensated for a claim, the amount will be paid to the contractor without any delay or waiting for any appeal process to be completed. This ensures that the contractor receives the compensation promptly and avoids any unnecessary delays in payment.

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77. Which statement about an offer is correct?

Explanation

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78. 52. (005) Whose job is it to ensure the local purchase program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFIs?

Explanation

The contracting squadron commander is responsible for ensuring that the local purchase program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFIs. This role involves overseeing the entire program and making sure that all necessary legal and regulatory requirements are met. The contracting squadron commander is in a position of authority and has the necessary knowledge and expertise to ensure the program's success.

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79. 83. (011) The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a CONUS vendor for use overseas is

Explanation

The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a CONUS vendor for use overseas is $3,000. This means that overseas cardholders can make supply purchases up to $3,000 from a CONUS vendor without having to go through the normal procurement process. This threshold is set to streamline the purchasing process for small-value items and ensure efficient procurement for overseas operations.

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80. 85. (011) Performance-based acquisition

Explanation

Performance-based acquisition allows contractors the latitude to meet contract objectives. This means that instead of dictating specific processes, the government sets performance outcomes and allows contractors to determine the best way to achieve those outcomes. This approach gives contractors more flexibility and encourages innovation and efficiency. It also allows for more effective performance management and evaluation, as the focus is on the results rather than the specific processes.

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81. 31. (002) Where are short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions located?

Explanation

Short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions are located in the Federal Register. The Federal Register is a daily publication that provides information on proposed and final rules, notices of meetings, and other federal agency actions. It serves as a public record of the decisions made by government agencies, including the Comptroller General. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Federal Register.

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82. 35. (003) How many days does an interested party have to protest after the basis of a protest is known, or should have been known?

Explanation

An interested party has a maximum of 10 days to protest after they become aware of the basis of the protest or should have become aware of it. This time limit ensures that protests are made in a timely manner and allows for prompt resolution of any issues that may arise. Waiting longer than 10 days could potentially hinder the process and cause unnecessary delays.

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83. 75. (009) When the government cannot use other incentives in fixed-price contracts because it cannot objectively measure contractor performance, it motivates the contractor by using

Explanation

When the government is unable to objectively measure contractor performance and cannot use other incentives in fixed-price contracts, it motivates the contractor by using award-fee provisions. Award-fee provisions allow the government to award additional fees to the contractor based on subjective evaluations of their performance. This provides motivation for the contractor to perform well, even when objective measures are not available.

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84. 22. (001) What action may be taken for a nonratifiable commitment?

Explanation

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85. Which statement identifies the Various forms of acts Congress uses to control Gov't contracting?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts." This answer correctly identifies the various forms of acts that Congress uses to control government contracting. Enabling acts give authority to the government to enter into contracts, procedural acts establish the rules and procedures for government contracting, authorization acts provide the legal basis for specific government contracts, and appropriations acts allocate funds for government contracts.

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86. 33. (003) Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency (under most circumstances) has how many days to submit a complete report to GAO?

Explanation

Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency has 30 days to submit a complete report to GAO.

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87. 21. (001) Which situation would preclude a ratification?

Explanation

Ratification is the act of approving or confirming an unauthorized commitment made by a government employee. In order for ratification to occur, the government must have obtained a benefit from the performance. If the government did not receive any benefit from the performance, there would be no reason to ratify the unauthorized commitment. Therefore, this situation would preclude ratification.

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88. 26. (002) What councils prepare all FAR revisions?

Explanation

The DAR Council and the CAA Council are responsible for preparing all FAR revisions.

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89. 91. (013) What clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project so that construction costs will not exceed a specified amount due to a funding limitation?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Design within Funding Limitations clause. This clause is necessary in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project in such a way that construction costs will not exceed a specified amount due to a funding limitation. This clause ensures that the contractor is aware of the funding limitations and is responsible for designing the project within those limitations to avoid exceeding the specified amount.

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90. 50. (004) What part of FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments?

Explanation

Part 32 of the FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments. This part specifically addresses contract financing, including progress payments, and provides guidance on the criteria for determining when progress payments are appropriate and how they should be structured. It outlines the requirements for progress payment clauses in contracts and the procedures for administering progress payments.

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91. 73. (009) What three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives may be used?

Explanation

The three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives that may be used are cost, delivery, and performance. These incentives are used to motivate and reward contractors based on their ability to meet specific cost targets, deliver products or services on time, and achieve performance objectives. By incorporating these factors into the incentive structure, the government can encourage contractors to perform efficiently, meet deadlines, and deliver high-quality results.

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92. 100. (016) When using the UCF, which section contains evaluation factors for award?

Explanation

The correct answer is Section M. In the UCF (Uniform Contract Format), Section M contains the evaluation factors for award. This section provides the criteria and requirements that will be used to evaluate proposals and determine which one will be awarded the contract. It typically includes information such as the evaluation methodology, the weightage assigned to each evaluation factor, and any specific instructions for the proposal submission.

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93. 79. (010) Which contract type does not require execution of a determination and finding prior to use?

Explanation

Fixed-price contracts do not require execution of a determination and finding prior to use. This means that the contracting officer does not need to make a formal determination and finding that the use of a fixed-price contract is the most appropriate and effective method of contracting for the particular acquisition. Fixed-price contracts are typically used when the scope of work is well-defined and the contractor can reasonably estimate the costs.

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94. 36. (003) How many days does GAO have to issue its recommendation on a protest?

Explanation

The Government Accountability Office (GAO) has 100 days to issue its recommendation on a protest. This means that once a protest is filed, the GAO has a maximum of 100 days to review the case and provide its recommendation. This timeframe allows for a thorough examination of the protest and ensures that a timely decision is made.

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95. 71. (009) Which contract type may be used when it is possible to negotiate a fair and reasonable firmfixed- price for an initial period, but not for subsequent periods of performance?

Explanation

A fixed-price contract with prospective price redetermination allows for negotiation of a fair and reasonable firm-fixed-price for an initial period of performance. However, for subsequent periods, the price may need to be adjusted based on certain predetermined factors, such as changes in labor or material costs. This contract type provides flexibility in adjusting the price to ensure fairness and reasonableness over the course of the contract.

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96. The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the

Explanation

Equitable estoppel is a legal doctrine that prevents one party from denying or asserting a right after leading another party to believe in the existence of that right. The elements of equitable estoppel typically include: the government knew or should have known the true facts, the government intended that the contractor rely on acts of the government, and the contractor did not know and should not have known the true facts. The incorrect element in this case is that the contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government. This means that the contractor must have relied on the government's acts in a reasonable and innocent manner for equitable estoppel to apply.

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97. 25. (002) FAR is issued under the joint authority of the

Explanation

The correct answer is a. The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) is issued under the joint authority of the Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of NASA. This means that these three entities have the power and responsibility to issue and maintain the FAR, which governs the acquisition process for the federal government.

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98. 93. (014) The government can exercise its right to the option period

Explanation

The correct answer is c. without further negotiation or agreement with the contractor. This means that the government has the right to exercise its option period without needing to negotiate or reach an agreement with the contractor. The government can simply choose to exercise this right on its own without any additional steps or requirements.

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99. 38. (003) Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision within

Explanation

Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision within six years after accrual of the claim. This means that contractors have a significant amount of time to submit their claims for consideration and resolution. It allows for potential delays or complications that may arise during the claims process. Additionally, it ensures that contractors have ample opportunity to gather all necessary evidence and documentation to support their claim before submitting it for a decision.

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100. What is the (minimum) APDP level that is required before a person meets the criteria for selection as a CO with a warrant exceeding the SAT but NOT exceeding $5 million.

Explanation

The minimum APDP level required before a person meets the criteria for selection as a CO with a warrant exceeding the SAT but not exceeding $5 million is Level 1.

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101. Adequacy is pertaining to having enough value to induce the other party to perform.

Explanation

It is Sufficiency!

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102. 90. (013) What is the statutory limitation on the contract fee for A-E services for the preparation of designs, plans, drawings, and specifications?

Explanation

The statutory limitation on the contract fee for A-E services for the preparation of designs, plans, drawings, and specifications is six percent of the project's estimated cost to complete construction. This means that the fee charged for these services cannot exceed six percent of the total estimated cost of the construction project.

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103. 41. (003) How long after the contracting officer's final decision does the contractor have to appeal to ASBCA?

Explanation

The contractor has 90 days from the receipt of the contracting officer's decision to appeal to ASBCA.

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104. Match each numbering type with the applicable part. Each letter will be used only once.
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105. 60. (006) What contractor education method may be used to assist new small business concerns achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements?

Explanation

Post-award orientation may be used to assist new small business concerns in achieving a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements. This method is conducted after the award of a contract and provides an opportunity for the contractor to receive guidance and clarification on the contract terms and conditions. It helps the contractor understand their responsibilities, performance expectations, and any specific requirements outlined in the contract. This education method ensures that both parties have a shared understanding of the contract, which can contribute to successful contract performance.

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106. 96. (015) Solicitations types using the letter "R" in the procurement instrument identification number (PIIN) represent

Explanation

The correct answer is b. a RFP. The letter "R" in the procurement instrument identification number (PIIN) indicates that the solicitation type is a Request for Proposal (RFP). An RFP is a type of procurement document used to solicit proposals from potential suppliers or contractors for a specific project or requirement. It is typically used when the government agency or organization wants to evaluate and compare different proposals based on factors such as price, technical capabilities, and past performance.

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107. Match the FAR reference piece that is in brackets with it's correct title. E.g. [    (25).1.08-2    ]  The piece in brackets (25) would refer to PART 25 of the FAR.
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108. 42. (003) Upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in

Explanation

The correct answer is b. DFARS Appendix A. The Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) provides guidance and procedures for contracting officers in the Department of Defense. Appendix A specifically addresses the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA) and outlines the rules that must be followed when an appeal is made to the ASBCA. Therefore, upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in DFARS Appendix A.

Submit
109. 39. (003) Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer's final decision on claims exceeding $100,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?

Explanation

The Air Force Material Command Law Center is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer's final decision on claims exceeding $100,000 before sending the decision to the contractor. This suggests that the Air Force Material Command Law Center has the authority and expertise to ensure that the decision is legally sound and in compliance with relevant regulations and policies.

Submit
110. Who are the key players in Gov't contracting? (check all that apply)

Explanation

The key players in government contracting are the government, contractor, and CO (Contracting Officer). The government is involved as the contracting party, the contractor is responsible for providing goods or services, and the CO is the individual responsible for managing the contracting process on behalf of the government. These three entities play crucial roles in the successful execution of government contracts.

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111. Match the UCF Section with its decription

Explanation

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112. Match the terms!
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113. Match the Position 9 PIIN instruments with their proper code.
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17. (001) What is meant by the term "competent" in regards to a...
18. (001) Which individual would be considered competent to enter into...
81. (011) Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of...
Match each term in column B with the applicable definition in column...
Match.
63. (007) What program is designed to prevent sensitive information...
What agency's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small...
Which statement concerning the CO's appointment or termination is...
19. (001) As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is
64. (007) What is the definition of a classified contract?
65. (007) Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards?
55. (006) A CO responsibility includes
28. (002) Which DFARS reference identifies supplemental information?
44. (004) Which government requirement is violated when the wrong...
20. (001) Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an...
24. (002) Which AFI defines the roles and responsibilities of...
84. (011) An SF44 may be used when
56. (006) Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in...
57. (006) What is a purpose of the customer education program?
61. (007) What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman?
62. (007) What tool assists the contracting management team in...
66. (007) Who must comply with OSHA requirements?
When Gov't personell make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has...
Which is NOT an element of a contract?
34. (003) When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within...
82. (011) When may a contractor be issued a GPC?
54. (005) Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent?
88. (012) A SABER contract
67. (007) What document must contractors and vendors submit when they...
27. (002) What is meant by implementing FAR?
Which party is the contractor?
ADR stands for
48. (004) NAFs are generated through
45. (004) What act is violated when an organization obligates more...
97. (016) The commercial contract format uses the
76. (009) Which written preliminary contractual instrument immediately...
Who is responsible for ascertaining whether gov't agents are...
Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generall decided on the...
43. (003) Two techniques of ADR are
14. (001) Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contract...
46. (004) The Bona-Fide Need rule requires current year funds be...
47. (004) O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?
89. (013) Contracts for professional services of an architectural or...
95. (015) What type of contracting instrument would have the letter...
A CO appointment must be reviewed at least
(001) An offeror's withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called...
74. (009) Which incentive arrangement should motivate contractors to...
86. (011) Sealed bidding should not be used for construction contracts...
87. (012) What factors are multiplied against standard prices in a...
68. (007) Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on...
29. (002) DFARS is updated
32. (003) A government action may be protested by
What are the two categories of actual authority?
15. (001) What is the name given to the exchange of promises?
53. (005) Which position is responsible for managing the...
94. (014) Benefits of options include increased
78. (009) Which of the following contracts provide no positive profit...
99. (016) When using the UCF you include lengthy specifications in
37. (003) What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be...
Which statement about the offeree is correct?
23. (002) What publications series represents Contracting?
58. (006) Which of the following topics is used for contractor...
70. (008) What action should the CO take if contract award is made on...
16. (001) What is meant by adequate consideration?
92. (014) Which of the following is a characteristic of agreements?
49. (004) Who directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities...
69. (008) The Buy American Act allows exceptions for articles,...
72. (009) Incentive contracts are appropriate when the
80. (011) The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures is to
59. (006) The Prompt Payment Act requires that final payment of...
98. (016) When using the UCF, which section title would you find under...
51. (004) The aggregate of commercial advance payments cannot exceed...
30. (002) In determining the action to take in a specific case...
Implied authority IS actual authority.
77. (009) When a contractor will acquire materials and services based...
40. (003) If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be...
Which statement about an offer is correct?
52. (005) Whose job is it to ensure the local purchase program...
83. (011) The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an...
85. (011) Performance-based acquisition
31. (002) Where are short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions...
35. (003) How many days does an interested party have to protest after...
75. (009) When the government cannot use other incentives in...
22. (001) What action may be taken for a nonratifiable commitment?
Which statement identifies the Various forms of acts Congress uses to...
33. (003) Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has...
21. (001) Which situation would preclude a ratification?
26. (002) What councils prepare all FAR revisions?
91. (013) What clause must be included in the contract if the...
50. (004) What part of FAR determines whether to include contract...
73. (009) What three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives...
100. (016) When using the UCF, which section contains evaluation...
79. (010) Which contract type does not require execution of a...
36. (003) How many days does GAO have to issue its recommendation on a...
71. (009) Which contract type may be used when it is possible to...
The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except...
25. (002) FAR is issued under the joint authority of the
93. (014) The government can exercise its right to the option period
38. (003) Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision...
What is the (minimum) APDP level that is required before a...
Adequacy is pertaining to having enough value to induce the other...
90. (013) What is the statutory limitation on the contract fee for A-E...
41. (003) How long after the contracting officer's final decision does...
Match each numbering type with the applicable part. Each letter will...
60. (006) What contractor education method may be used to assist new...
96. (015) Solicitations types using the letter "R" in the procurement...
Match the FAR reference piece that is in brackets with it's...
42. (003) Upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the contracting officer...
39. (003) Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer's...
Who are the key players in Gov't contracting? (check all that...
Match the UCF Section with its decription
Match the terms!
Match the Position 9 PIIN instruments with their proper code.
Alert!

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