CDC 6C051P : Hardest Trivia Quiz On Contracting Journeyman!

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 96

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CDC 6C051P : Hardest Trivia Quiz On Contracting Journeyman!

Do you have what it takes to tackle what is known as the hardest CDC 6c051pTrivia Quiz On Contracting Journeyman? If you said yes then the trivia quiz below was made for you. Give it a try and get to see some of the situations through which one the contracting of the air force is restricted or permitted. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which statement identifies the Various forms of acts Congress uses to control Gov't contracting?
    • A. 

      Enabling acts, procedural acts, and permissive acts.

    • B. 

      Permissive acts, administrative acts, and legal acts.

    • C. 

      Permissive acts, administrative acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts.

    • D. 

      Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts.

  • 2. 
    What agency's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?
    • A. 

      Department of Labor

    • B. 

      General Services Administration

    • C. 

      Small business Administration

    • D. 

      Committee for Purchase from the Blind.

  • 3. 
    Which party is the contractor?
    • A. 

      Agent

    • B. 

      Principal

    • C. 

      Third Party

    • D. 

      Agent and third party

  • 4. 
    What are the two categories of actual authority?
    • A. 

      Implied and assumed

    • B. 

      Implied and apparent

    • C. 

      Express and implied

    • D. 

      Express and apparent

  • 5. 
    When Gov't personell make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has stated that rather than adopt a rule that might injure the public, it is better
    • A. 

      That neither party should suffer from the mistakes

    • B. 

      That the gov't should suffer from their mistakes

    • C. 

      For an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes

    • D. 

      That the individual and the Gov't share the suffering from the mistakes

  • 6. 
    Who is responsible for ascertaining whether gov't agents are acting within the bounds of their authority?
    • A. 

      The CO

    • B. 

      The Gov't

    • C. 

      The Contractor

    • D. 

      The agent

  • 7. 
    The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the
    • A. 

      Gov't knew or should have known the true facts

    • B. 

      Contractor did not know and should have know the true facts

    • C. 

      Gov't intended that the contractor rely on acts of the gov't

    • D. 

      Contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the gov't

  • 8. 
    Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generall decided on the issue of
    • A. 

      Whether the gov't acted in the public's interest

    • B. 

      Whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently

    • C. 

      Who would otherwise have had authority to release the information

    • D. 

      Whether the contractor would have otherwise benefited from the action

  • 9. 
    A CO appointment must be reviewed at least
    • A. 

      Anually

    • B. 

      Every two years

    • C. 

      Every five years

    • D. 

      When requested by the appointing authority

  • 10. 
    Which statement concerning the CO's appointment or termination is true?
    • A. 

      In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive

    • B. 

      Termination of a CO may be retroactive if in the best interest of the gov't

    • C. 

      There is no authority to waive the qualification requirements for a CO as stated in the selection criteria.

    • D. 

      Termination of a CO appointment is made verbally unless Certificate of Appointment contains a provision for automatic termination.

  • 11. 
    Which statement about the offeree is correct?
    • A. 

      The offeror may not direct the offer to a class of person or to a public intending that any member of the class of public have the power to accept.

    • B. 

      The intended offeree means in all cases there is one, and only one, specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested.

    • C. 

      The offeror may not direct the offer to more than one person.

    • D. 

      Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.

  • 12. 
    Which statement about an offer is correct?
    • A. 

      A. It is not enough that only the essential terms of the contract are certain.

    • B. 

      B. Every term in the offer must be absolutely certain to each party of the contract.

    • C. 

      C. The offer must be so definite that the performance to be rendered by each party is reasonably certain.

    • D. 

      D. You cannot enter a contract with the price implied to be “a reasonable price at the time of delivery.”

  • 13. 
    (001) An offeror’s withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a a. cancellation.
    • A. 

      A. cancellation.

    • B. 

      B. termination.

    • C. 

      C. revocation.

    • D. 

      D. breach of contract.

  • 14. 
    14. (001) Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contract is true?
    • A. 

      A. If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time, place, or means will constitute an acceptance.

    • B. 

      B. The offer cannot dictate the place or manner of acceptance.

    • C. 

      C. Acceptance must be communicated by the US mail.

    • D. 

      D. Acceptance must be in writing.

  • 15. 
    15. (001) What is the name given to the exchange of promises?
    • A. 

      A. Sufficiency.

    • B. 

      B. Detriment.

    • C. 

      C. Acceptance.

    • D. 

      D. Consideration.

  • 16. 
    16. (001) What is meant by adequate consideration?
    • A. 

      A. The actual worth or a promise or an act is more than the offer has the right to commit.

    • B. 

      B. The consideration has enough value to induce the other party to perform.

    • C. 

      C. Whether the bargain involves the concepts of benefit and detriment.C

    • D. 

      D. The consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain.

  • 17. 
    17. (001) What is meant by the term “competent” in regards to a contracting party?
    • A. 

      A. Having an unsound mind.

    • B. 

      B. Ensuring business is not conducted with minors.

    • C. 

      C. Having the ability to recognize defective corporations.

    • D. 

      D. Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.

  • 18. 
    18. (001) Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a contract?
    • A. 

      A. A 23-year-old car salesperson.

    • B. 

      B. A 17-year-old college student.

    • C. 

      C. A 25-year-old intoxicated person.

    • D. 

      D. A 50-year-old patient in a mental institution.

  • 19. 
    19. (001) As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is
    • A. 

      A. lawful if not challenged with 120 days.

    • B. 

      B. lawful only to the party who made the offer.

    • C. 

      C. unlawful and void and will not be enforced.

    • D. 

      D. unlawful but may be enforced under some situations.

  • 20. 
    20. (001) Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal contract when
    • A. 

      A. the agreement concerns minor crimes.

    • B. 

      B. only a portion of the contract was illegal.

    • C. 

      C. the agreement was made to restrain trade.

    • D. 

      D. the innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to protect.

  • 21. 
    21. (001) Which situation would preclude a ratification?
    • A. 

      A. Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance.

    • B. 

      B. CO determining the price to be fair and reasonable.

    • C. 

      C. CO recommending payment and legal counsel concurs.

    • D. 

      D. Availability of funds that were available at the time the unauthorized commitment was made.

  • 22. 
    22. (001) What action may be taken for a nonratifiable commitment?
    • A. 

      A. Process of claim under the Disputes Act.

    • B. 

      B. Request of a no-cost settlement from the contractor.

    • C. 

      C. Charge to the individual who committed the unauthorized commitment.

    • D. 

      D. Resolution by the GAO claim procedures.

  • 23. 
    23. (002) What publications series represents Contracting?
    • A. 

      A. 62.

    • B. 

      B. 63.

    • C. 

      C. 64.

    • D. 

      D. 65.

  • 24. 
    24. (002) Which AFI defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron?
    • A. 

      A. AFI 38-101.

    • B. 

      B. AFI 64-102.

    • C. 

      C. AFI 65-109.

    • D. 

      D. AFPD 64-1.

  • 25. 
    25. (002) FAR is issued under the joint authority of the
    • A. 

      A. Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of the NASA.

    • B. 

      B. Administrator of General Services, the National Security Council, and the Administrator of NASA.

    • C. 

      C. Administrator of General Services, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense.

    • D. 

      D. Secretary of Defense, the Administrator of NASA, and the National Security Council.

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