CDC 6C051B : Trivia Questions Quiz On Contracting Journeyman!

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CDC 6C051B : Trivia Questions Quiz On Contracting Journeyman! - Quiz

The air force gets under contract with companies or people that have met specific rules and followed lined up procedures. In this trivia quiz on CDC 6C051B on Contracting Journeyman, you will be expected to check what the rules entail. Do give it a try and see if you understood the course as should have been — all the best in your revision.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Inspections performed by the government to determine whether a contractor has fulfilled contract obligations pertaining to quality and quantity are included under what aspect of general contract administration?

    • A.

      Contract quality requirements.

    • B.

      Quality assurance evaluator program.

    • C.

      Government contract quality control.

    • D.

      Government contract quality assurance.

    Correct Answer
    D. Government contract quality assurance.
    Explanation
    Government contract quality assurance refers to inspections conducted by the government to assess whether a contractor has met the contractual obligations regarding quality and quantity. This aspect of general contract administration ensures that the contractor has fulfilled their responsibilities as outlined in the contract.

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  • 2. 

    The Air Force provides GFP to a contractor when necessary to achieve significant economy,

    • A.

      Standardization, or replace obsolete equipment.

    • B.

      Specialization, or replace obsolete equipment.

    • C.

      Standardization, or expedited production.

    • D.

      Specialization, or expedited production.

    Correct Answer
    C. Standardization, or expedited production.
    Explanation
    The Air Force provides GFP (Government-Furnished Property) to a contractor in order to achieve standardization or expedited production. Standardization refers to the use of common equipment or materials across different projects or contractors, which can lead to cost savings and improved efficiency. Expedited production refers to the acceleration of the production process, which can be achieved by providing contractors with the necessary equipment or resources. Both standardization and expedited production can help the Air Force achieve significant economy and replace obsolete equipment.

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  • 3. 

    What part of the FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments?

    • A.

      Part 30.

    • B.

      Part 31.

    • C.

      Part 32.

    • D.

      Part 33.

    Correct Answer
    C. Part 32.
    Explanation
    Part 32 of the FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments. This part specifically addresses contract financing and provides guidance on the use of progress payments, including the criteria for determining when they should be included in a contract. It outlines the requirements and procedures for progress payments, including the calculation and administration of these payments throughout the duration of the contract.

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  • 4. 

    When delivery is late on a commodities contract that exceeds the SAT, the government may take any of the following actions except to

    • A.

      Invoke liquidated damages in the agreed amount until delivery is made or the delivery schedule is renegotiated (if liquidated damages are included in the contract).

    • B.

      Enter into negotiations with the contractor to extend the delivery date, provided the government receives appropriate consideration for doing so.

    • C.

      Terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 49 of the FAR.

    • D.

      Terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.

    Correct Answer
    D. Terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR." This is because Part 12 of the FAR specifically pertains to the acquisition of commercial items, and commodities contracts are not considered commercial items. Therefore, the government cannot terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.

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  • 5. 

    In a commodity contract that has Variations in Quantity clause, the variations that are allowed by the government are those

    • A.

      Known to be acceptable to the contractor.

    • B.

      That meet customary commercial standards.

    • C.

      Caused beyond the reasonable control of the contractor.

    • D.

      Caused by loading, shipping, packing, or allowances within manufacturing processes.

    Correct Answer
    D. Caused by loading, shipping, packing, or allowances within manufacturing processes.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "caused by loading, shipping, packing, or allowances within manufacturing processes." This answer is supported by the statement that the commodity contract has a "Variations in Quantity clause." This clause allows for variations in quantity that are caused by factors such as loading, shipping, packing, or allowances within manufacturing processes. This suggests that the government allows for these specific variations and considers them acceptable within the contract.

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  • 6. 

    What delineates the rights and obligations of the contractor and the government for defective items and services and fosters quality performance?

    • A.

      Warranty.

    • B.

      New Materials clause.

    • C.

      Manufacturer’s guarantee.

    • D.

      Evaluation - Commercial Items clause.

    Correct Answer
    A. Warranty.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Warranty". A warranty is a legal agreement that outlines the rights and obligations of the contractor and the government regarding defective items and services. It ensures that the contractor is responsible for providing products and services that meet the specified quality standards, and if any defects are found, the contractor is obligated to repair or replace them. The warranty helps foster quality performance by holding the contractor accountable for the quality of their work and providing a mechanism for resolving any issues that may arise.

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  • 7. 

    If an item is customarily warranted in trade practice, the cost of the item when purchased for the government

    • A.

      Should be the same whether or not a warranty is included.

    • B.

      Should be less because the government does not require a warranty.

    • C.

      Will be less because commercial warranties are discounted to the government.

    • D.

      Will be slightly higher because of the higher standard of performance required by the government.

    Correct Answer
    A. Should be the same whether or not a warranty is included.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the cost of the item when purchased for the government should be the same whether or not a warranty is included. This is because if an item is customarily warranted in trade practice, it means that the warranty is a common and expected feature of the item in the industry. Therefore, the cost of the item already includes the cost of the warranty, regardless of whether the government requires it or not.

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  • 8. 

    What document is used to guide discussions during a contract post-award conference?

    • A.

      Contracting Officer’s Guide.

    • B.

      Contract Administrator’s Guide.

    • C.

      DD Form 1484, Post Award Conference Record.

    • D.

      DD Form 1484, Contract Administrator Checklist.

    Correct Answer
    C. DD Form 1484, Post Award Conference Record.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 1484, Post Award Conference Record. This document is used to guide discussions during a contract post-award conference. It serves as a record of the conference, documenting important information such as attendees, agenda items, and action items. The form helps ensure that all relevant topics are discussed and that any decisions or agreements reached during the conference are properly recorded and followed up on. The Contracting Officer’s Guide and Contract Administrator’s Guide may provide general guidance on contract management, but they do not specifically address the post-award conference. DD Form 1484, Contract Administrator Checklist, is not the correct answer as it does not pertain to post-award conferences.

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  • 9. 

    Which contracting party is responsible for quality control?

    • A.

      Contractor.

    • B.

      Contracting officer.

    • C.

      Contract administrator.

    • D.

      Functional director.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Contractor. The contractor is responsible for quality control in a contract. This means that they are responsible for ensuring that the work performed meets the specified quality standards and requirements. They are in charge of implementing quality control processes, conducting inspections, and addressing any issues or deficiencies that may arise. The contractor plays a crucial role in ensuring that the final product or service meets the desired level of quality and satisfies the expectations of the contracting party.

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  • 10. 

    When bonds are required on a construction contract, the contractor’s notice to proceed is issued after the

    • A.

      Award but prior to receipt of bonds.

    • B.

      Contracting officer has received all executed bonds.

    • C.

      Award but prior to contacting surety for proof of issuance of bonds.

    • D.

      Contracting officer has received notification from the contractor that bonds have been secured.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contracting officer has received all executed bonds.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "contracting officer has received all executed bonds." This means that the contracting officer has received all the necessary paperwork and documentation regarding the bonds required for the construction contract. This ensures that the contractor has fulfilled their obligation to provide the necessary bonds before proceeding with the project.

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  • 11. 

     (407) What requires that all work under a construction contract be performed in a skillful and workman like manner?

    • A.

      Davis-Bacon Act.

    • B.

      Service Contract Act.

    • C.

      Material and Workmanship clause.

    • D.

      Apprentices and Trainees standards.

    Correct Answer
    C. Material and Workmanship clause.
    Explanation
    The Material and Workmanship clause requires that all work under a construction contract be performed in a skillful and workmanlike manner. This means that the contractor must use materials and perform the work in a way that meets industry standards and is free from defects. The clause ensures that the quality of the work meets the expectations of the contract and the client.

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  • 12. 

    A progress schedule is required when the performance period exceeds how many days?

    • A.

      30 days.

    • B.

      45 days.

    • C.

      60 days.

    • D.

      90 days.

    Correct Answer
    C. 60 days.
    Explanation
    A progress schedule is required when the performance period exceeds 60 days. This means that if a project is expected to take longer than 60 days to complete, a progress schedule must be created to track and monitor the progress of the project. This helps ensure that the project stays on track and allows for adjustments to be made if necessary.

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  • 13. 

     (407) Which clause protects the government from latent defects in construction?

    • A.

      Inspection and Warranty.

    • B.

      Inspection of Construction.

    • C.

      Use and Protection Prior to Completion.

    • D.

      Specifications and Drawings for Construction.

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspection of Construction.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Inspection of Construction." This clause protects the government from latent defects in construction by ensuring that the construction is thoroughly inspected to identify any potential issues or defects. By conducting inspections, the government can catch and address any problems before they become more serious or costly. This helps to protect the government from any financial or legal liabilities that may arise from latent defects in the construction.

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  • 14. 

     (408) What type of modification is used when affecting the substantive rights of either party and sufficient time exists for negotiations?

    • A.

      Bilateral.

    • B.

      Unilateral.

    • C.

      Undefinitized.

    • D.

      Administrative.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bilateral.
    Explanation
    Bilateral modification is used when affecting the substantive rights of either party and sufficient time exists for negotiations. This means that both parties involved in the contract have to agree and negotiate the changes to the contract terms. It requires mutual consent and allows both parties to discuss and make modifications that are acceptable to both sides.

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  • 15. 

    (409) Changes authorized in fixed-price contracts for supplies include each of the following except

    • A.

      Place of delivery.

    • B.

      Methods of shipment or packing.

    • C.

      Drawings, designs, or specifications.

    • D.

      Directed acceleration in performance of work.

    Correct Answer
    D. Directed acceleration in performance of work.
    Explanation
    Changes authorized in fixed-price contracts for supplies can include modifications to the place of delivery, methods of shipment or packing, and drawings, designs, or specifications. However, directed acceleration in performance of work is not typically included as an authorized change in fixed-price contracts for supplies.

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  • 16. 

    (409) A release of claims is required from contractors after the equitable adjustment has been agreed upon to

    • A.

      Prevent on-going negotiation requests from subcontractors.

    • B.

      Prevent unauthorized personnel from representing the contractor in negotiations.

    • C.

      Help contractors understand all legal ramifications of the supplemental agreement.

    • D.

      Help avoid controversy over supplemental agreements resulting from unilateral modifications.

    Correct Answer
    D. Help avoid controversy over supplemental agreements resulting from unilateral modifications.
    Explanation
    A release of claims is required from contractors after the equitable adjustment has been agreed upon to help avoid controversy over supplemental agreements resulting from unilateral modifications. This means that once the adjustment has been agreed upon, the release of claims ensures that there are no further disputes or controversies regarding any additional modifications or changes to the agreement. It helps to establish a clear understanding and agreement between the parties involved, preventing any future conflicts or disagreements.

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  • 17. 

    (409) What actions may the contractor take if an equitable adjustment agreement could not be reached and no release of claims was signed?

    • A.

      Nullify the contracting officer’s final decision under the Disputes clause.

    • B.

      Nullify the contracting officer’s final decision under the Changes clause.

    • C.

      Dispute the contracting officer’s final decision under the Disputes clause.

    • D.

      Dispute the contracting officer’s final decision under the Changes clause.

    Correct Answer
    C. Dispute the contracting officer’s final decision under the Disputes clause.
    Explanation
    If an equitable adjustment agreement could not be reached and no release of claims was signed, the contractor may dispute the contracting officer's final decision under the Disputes clause. This means that the contractor can challenge the decision through the formal dispute resolution process outlined in the contract. By doing so, the contractor seeks to resolve the disagreement and potentially receive compensation or other remedies for any damages incurred.

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  • 18. 

    (410) The contracting officer shall effect a no-cost settlement instead of issuing a termination notice when

    • A.

      Government property was not furnished.

    • B.

      It is known that the contractor will accept one.

    • C.

      There are no outstanding payments, debts due the government, or other contractual obligations.

    • D.

      All of the above requirements have been met.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above requirements have been met.
    Explanation
    When all of the above requirements have been met, the contracting officer shall effect a no-cost settlement instead of issuing a termination notice. This means that if government property was not furnished, if it is known that the contractor will accept a no-cost settlement, and if there are no outstanding payments, debts due the government, or other contractual obligations, then the contracting officer will proceed with a no-cost settlement instead of termination notice.

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  • 19. 

    (410) A notice for termination can be rescinded if it is determined that the items had been completed or shipped before the contractor’s receipt of notice by  

    • A.

      Modification of the notice.

    • B.

      Amendment of the notice.

    • C.

      Converting the termination notice to a cure notice.

    • D.

      Converting the termination notice to a show cause notice.

    Correct Answer
    B. Amendment of the notice.
    Explanation
    If it is determined that the items had been completed or shipped before the contractor's receipt of notice, the notice for termination can be rescinded by amending the notice. This means that the original notice can be modified or changed to reflect the new information that the items were already completed or shipped. This allows for the termination to be cancelled or reversed based on the updated information.

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  • 20. 

    (410) How may a termination for convenience of a fixed-price contract be settled?

    • A.

      Inventory basis or total-cost basis.

    • B.

      Inventory basis or adjusted-cost basis.

    • C.

      Total-price basis or total-cost basis.

    • D.

      Total-price basis or adjusted-cost basis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inventory basis or total-cost basis.
    Explanation
    A termination for convenience of a fixed-price contract can be settled using either the inventory basis or the total-cost basis. The inventory basis involves valuing the materials and supplies on hand at the time of termination, while the total-cost basis considers all costs incurred up to the termination date. Both options provide a way to determine the settlement amount for the termination.

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  • 21. 

     (410) The total-cost basis settlement may be used for terminations for convenience when preapproved by the

    • A.

      Contracting officer and a variable-rate is used.

    • B.

      Terminating contracting officer and a fixed-rate is used.

    • C.

      Terminating contracting officer and a variable-rate is used.

    • D.

      Terminating contracting officer and use of inventory basis is not practicable.

    Correct Answer
    D. Terminating contracting officer and use of inventory basis is not practicable.
  • 22. 

     (411) The government may exercise its right to terminate for default by terminating

    • A.

      The entire contract for default.

    • B.

      The contract for default either completely or partially.

    • C.

      For default after the contractor fails to make the required delivery time.

    • D.

      Only those portions of the contract for which the requirement no longer exists.

    Correct Answer
    B. The contract for default either completely or partially.
    Explanation
    The government has the right to terminate a contract for default, meaning that the contractor has failed to meet the terms and conditions of the contract. In such a situation, the government can choose to terminate the entire contract or only a portion of it, depending on the severity of the default. This gives the government flexibility in addressing the issue and allows them to take appropriate action based on the circumstances.

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  • 23. 

    (411) If a contractor’s failure to perform is due to actions of a subcontractor, will the contractor remain liable for excess costs of repurchase?

    • A.

      Yes, if the subcontractor’s failure was beyond his control.

    • B.

      No. Prime contractors are protected from liability by the Subcontract Protection clause.

    • C.

      No. Contractor can only be held accountable for costs as defined in the contract; the subcontractor will be charged any excess costs.

    • D.

      Yes, if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule.

    Correct Answer
    D. Yes, if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule.
    Explanation
    If a contractor's failure to perform is due to actions of a subcontractor, the contractor will remain liable for excess costs of repurchase if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule. This means that if the contractor could have taken alternative measures to fulfill the contract despite the subcontractor's failure, they will still be held responsible for any additional costs incurred.

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  • 24. 

    (412) What action does the contracting officer take if a claim exceeding $100,000 is submitted without certification?

    • A.

      Notify the contractor of the failure to certify the claim and withhold final decision.

    • B.

      Notify the contractor of the failure to certify the claim and proceed with final decision.

    • C.

      Submit the claim for certification to the head of the contracting activity and proceed with final decision. decision. Submit the claim for certification to the head of the contracting activity and proceed with final decision

    • D.

      Submit the claim for certification to the head of the contracting activity and withhold final decision until certified.

    Correct Answer
    A. Notify the contractor of the failure to certify the claim and withhold final decision.
    Explanation
    If a claim exceeding $100,000 is submitted without certification, the contracting officer will notify the contractor of the failure to certify the claim and withhold the final decision. This means that the contracting officer will inform the contractor that their claim has not been properly certified and will not make a final decision on the claim until it is certified. This allows the contractor the opportunity to rectify the issue and provide the necessary certification before a final decision is made.

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  • 25. 

    (412) When a contractor is paid for a claim, interest will be paid from the date

    • A.

      Of the last payment to the contractor through the date the claim is paid.

    • B.

      The contracting officer received the claim through the date the claim is paid.

    • C.

      Of the last payment to the contractor through the date of the contracting officer’s final decision.

    • D.

      The contracting officer received the claim through the date of the contracting officer’s final decision.

    Correct Answer
    B. The contracting officer received the claim through the date the claim is paid.
    Explanation
    Interest will be paid from the date the contracting officer received the claim through the date the claim is paid. This means that the contractor will receive interest on the claim amount starting from the date the contracting officer received the claim until the date the claim is actually paid.

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  • 26. 

    (413) Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer’s final decision on claims exceeding $100,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?

    • A.

      Functional area chief.

    • B.

      US Court of Federal Claims.

    • C.

      Air Force Material Command Law Center.

    • D.

      Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Material Command Law Center.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Material Command Law Center is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer's final decision on claims exceeding $100,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor.

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  • 27. 

     (413) If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when should the amount be paid to the contractor?

    • A.

      As soon as possible after resolution of any appeal.

    • B.

      As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.

    • C.

      Payment will be made along with final contract payment.

    • D.

      Payment will be made along with the next scheduled contract payment.

    Correct Answer
    B. As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal." This means that once the contracting officer decides that the contractor should be compensated for a claim, the payment should be made as soon as possible without waiting for any appeal process. This ensures that the contractor receives the compensation they are entitled to in a timely manner, without any unnecessary delays.

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  • 28. 

     (413) How long after the contracting officer’s final decision does the contractor have to appeal to the US Court of Federal Claims?

    • A.

      90 days from the date of the contracting officer’s decision.

    • B.

      180 days from the date of the contracting officer’s decision.

    • C.

      6 months from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision.

    • D.

      12 months from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision.

    Correct Answer
    D. 12 months from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision.
    Explanation
    The contractor has 12 months from the receipt of the contracting officer's decision to appeal to the US Court of Federal Claims.

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  • 29. 

     (413) Upon learning of an appeal to the ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in

    • A.

      DFARS, Appendix C.

    • B.

      AFFARS, Appendix CC.

    • C.

      DFARS, Appendix A.

    • D.

      AFFARS, Appendix AA.

    Correct Answer
    C. DFARS, Appendix A.
    Explanation
    Upon learning of an appeal to the ASBCA (Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals), the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in DFARS (Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement), Appendix A.

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  • 30. 

     (414) Three types of ADRs encountered in the local contracting office are

    • A.

      Mitigation, arbitration, and controversy hearings.

    • B.

      Mediation, binding arbitration, and controversy hearings.

    • C.

      Mitigation, binding arbitration, and nonbinding arbitration.

    • D.

      Mediation, binding arbitration, and nonbinding arbitration.

    Correct Answer
    D. Mediation, binding arbitration, and nonbinding arbitration.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mediation, binding arbitration, and nonbinding arbitration. In the local contracting office, these three types of ADRs are encountered. Mediation involves a neutral third party facilitating negotiations between the parties to reach a mutually acceptable agreement. Binding arbitration is a process where a neutral third party makes a final and binding decision after hearing both sides. Nonbinding arbitration is similar to binding arbitration, but the decision made is not legally enforceable. These ADR methods provide alternatives to litigation for resolving disputes in the contracting office.

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  • 31. 

    (414) When may the government make consent to arbitration a condition of entering into a contract?

    • A.

      Only when the contractor is agreeable to such terms.

    • B.

      When it is determined to be in the best interest of the government.

    • C.

      The government may not make consent to arbitration a condition of entering into a contract.

    • D.

      When it is determined that inclusion of such terms will create an inexpensive and expedition resolution to any resulting issues in controversy.

    Correct Answer
    C. The government may not make consent to arbitration a condition of entering into a contract.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the government may not make consent to arbitration a condition of entering into a contract. This means that the government cannot require parties to agree to arbitration as a prerequisite for entering into a contract. This may be due to various reasons, such as the government wanting to provide equal access to legal remedies for all parties involved in a contract or to ensure that disputes are resolved through the court system rather than through arbitration.

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  • 32. 

     (414) How many days after the close of an arbitration hearing does the arbitrator have to make the award?

    • A.

      30 days.

    • B.

      60 days.

    • C.

      90 days.

    • D.

      There is no exact time requirement in an alternative dispute resolution arbitration.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 days. After the close of an arbitration hearing, the arbitrator is required to make the award within 30 days. This ensures that the parties involved in the dispute receive a timely resolution and can proceed with any necessary actions based on the arbitrator's decision.

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  • 33. 

    (415) How would you close a contract if the contractor becomes bankrupt?

    • A.

      Get approval from your immediate supervisor.

    • B.

      Coordinate with the Officer of General Counsel.

    • C.

      Get approval from your small business specialist.

    • D.

      Coordinate with your quality assurance specialist.

    Correct Answer
    B. Coordinate with the Officer of General Counsel.
    Explanation
    If the contractor becomes bankrupt, coordinating with the Officer of General Counsel would be the appropriate step to take in order to close the contract. The Officer of General Counsel is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance, so they would have the necessary expertise to handle the situation and ensure that all necessary steps are taken to properly close the contract in accordance with legal requirements.

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  • 34. 

    (416) The Buy American Act applies to what kind of contracts?

    • A.

      Supply contracts that exceed the micropurchase threshold.

    • B.

      Construction contracts under the micropurchase threshold.

    • C.

      All contracts that furnish supplies under the micropurchase threshold.

    • D.

      Service contracts without furnishing supplies that exceed the micropurchase threshold.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply contracts that exceed the micropurchase threshold.
    Explanation
    The Buy American Act applies to supply contracts that exceed the micropurchase threshold. This means that any contracts for the purchase of supplies that are above a certain dollar amount must comply with the Buy American Act. The Act requires that the supplies being purchased be manufactured in the United States, unless an exception applies. This is done to promote the use of American-made products and support domestic industries.

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  • 35. 

    (416) Exceptions are allowed under the Buy American Act for articles, materials, and supplies purchased

    • A.

      For use in the United States.

    • B.

      Specifically for commissary resale.

    • C.

      At a reasonable price from a domestic source.

    • D.

      When the contracting officer determines that domestic preference would be in the public’s interest.

    Correct Answer
    B. Specifically for commissary resale.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "specifically for commissary resale." This means that exceptions to the Buy American Act are allowed when articles, materials, and supplies are purchased for the purpose of being resold in commissaries. In this case, the items may not necessarily need to be sourced domestically, as the focus is on their resale rather than their use in the United States.

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  • 36. 

    (416) What action should the CO take if contract award is made on the nonqualifying country offer and the duty is exempted by the Duty-Free clause?

    • A.

      Award the contract at the offered price plus the amount of duty.

    • B.

      Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty.

    • C.

      Withhold award of the contract until certificate of exemption is received.

    • D.

      Withhold award of the contract until additional funds for duty are verified.

    Correct Answer
    B. Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty.
  • 37. 

    (417) What Air Force publication establishes duties and identifies the functions of the servicing contracting office?

    • A.

      AFI 64–301, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.

    • B.

      AFI 63–301, Nonappropriated Fund Acquisitions.

    • C.

      AFMAN 64–302, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.

    • D.

      AFMAN 63–302, Nonappropriated Fund Acquisitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 64–301, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.
  • 38. 

    (417) What Air Force publication governs the procedures for the NAF contracting office?

    • A.

      AFI 64–301, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.

    • B.

      AFI 63–301, Nonappropriated Fund Acquisitions.

    • C.

      AFMAN 64–302, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.

    • D.

      AFMAN 63–302, Nonappropriated Fund Acquisitions.

    Correct Answer
    C. AFMAN 64–302, Nonappropriated Fund Contracting.
  • 39. 

    (418) The government policy requiring contractors to apprise their employees of any hazards to which they may be exposed during contract performance mirrors the

    • A.

      Base Safety Program.

    • B.

      Hazardous Materials clause requirements.

    • C.

      Pollution Control and Clean Air and Water Acts.

    • D.

      OSHA requirements.

    Correct Answer
    D. OSHA requirements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is OSHA requirements. OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration, which is a government agency that sets and enforces safety standards in the workplace. The government policy mentioned in the question is referring to the requirement for contractors to inform their employees about any hazards they may encounter while performing their job duties. This requirement aligns with OSHA's goal of ensuring the safety and health of workers.

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  • 40. 

    (418) What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply hazardous materials to the government?

    • A.

      MSDS.

    • B.

      Proof of liability for potential hazards.

    • C.

      Material Shipping Document Sheet.

    • D.

      EPA notification.

    Correct Answer
    A. MSDS.
    Explanation
    Contractors and vendors must submit a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) when supplying hazardous materials to the government. An MSDS provides important information about the properties, handling, storage, and emergency procedures for hazardous substances. It helps ensure that the government has access to necessary safety information and can handle the materials appropriately. Proof of liability for potential hazards, Material Shipping Document Sheet, and EPA notification are not specifically mentioned as required documents in this context.

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  • 41. 

     (419) Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as

    • A.

      Value engineering contracts.

    • B.

      Professional services contracts.

    • C.

      Architect-engineer services contracts.

    • D.

      Engineering design services contracts.

    Correct Answer
    C. Architect-engineer services contracts.
    Explanation
    Architect-engineer services contracts refer to contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services. This term specifically highlights the combination of architectural and engineering expertise required for these contracts, making it the correct answer.

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  • 42. 

    (419) What course of action may the CO take when a mutually satisfactory contract cannot be negotiated with the selected firm?

    • A.

      Initiate negotiations with the next firm on the final selection list.

    • B.

      Initiate negotiations with the contractor submitting the next lowest bid.

    • C.

      Meet with the customer to determine if adjustments can be made in the government’s requirement. Meet with the customer to determine if adjustments can be made in the government’s requirement.

    • D.

      Meet with the contractors who have submitted bids to determine if adjustments should be made in the government’s requirement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Initiate negotiations with the next firm on the final selection list.
    Explanation
    When a mutually satisfactory contract cannot be negotiated with the selected firm, the CO may choose to initiate negotiations with the next firm on the final selection list. This means that the CO will move on to the next firm that was ranked highly in the selection process and attempt to negotiate a contract with them instead. This course of action allows the CO to explore other potential options and continue the procurement process without wasting time.

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  • 43. 

    (420) The final decision for contractor selection for acquisitions identified under the 8(a) program will be made by the

    • A.

      Contracting officer.

    • B.

      Small business specialist.

    • C.

      SBA.

    • D.

      HCA.

    Correct Answer
    C. SBA.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SBA because the 8(a) program is a Small Business Administration (SBA) program that helps small businesses compete in the federal marketplace. The SBA is responsible for selecting contractors for acquisitions identified under this program, not the contracting officer or the small business specialist. The Head of the Contracting Activity (HCA) may have some oversight, but the final decision lies with the SBA.

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  • 44. 

     (420) Who serves as the 8(a) representative for the contracting office?

    • A.

      Local representative of the SBA.

    • B.

      Small business specialist assigned to the individual contracting activity.

    • C.

      Local representative of the Office of Procurement, Title 5 USC Section 8(a).

    • D.

      Small business specialist assigned to the local SBA.

    Correct Answer
    B. Small business specialist assigned to the individual contracting activity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the small business specialist assigned to the individual contracting activity. This individual is responsible for serving as the 8(a) representative for the contracting office. They work closely with small businesses and provide guidance and support in navigating the 8(a) program. They help ensure that small businesses have equal opportunities to compete for government contracts.

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  • 45. 

    (420) In accordance with FAR Part 19, who must approve and sign an 8(a) contract before award can be made by the contracting officer?

    • A.

      Local representative of the SBA.

    • B.

      Small business specialist assigned to the local SBA.

    • C.

      Small business specialist assigned to the individual contracting activity.

    • D.

      Local representative of the Office of Procurement, Title 5 USC Section 8(a).

    Correct Answer
    A. Local representative of the SBA.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the local representative of the SBA. According to FAR Part 19, an 8(a) contract must be approved and signed by the local representative of the SBA before it can be awarded by the contracting officer. This ensures that the contract is in compliance with the requirements and regulations set forth by the Small Business Administration.

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  • 46. 

    (421) The SABER program is best suited for what types of requirements?

    • A.

      Complex, construction, and repair projects that require minor design.

    • B.

      Noncomplex, minor construction, and repair projects that require no design.

    • C.

      Noncomplex, minor construction, and maintenance and repair projects that require minor design.

    • D.

      Complex, minor construction, and maintenance and repair projects that require extensive design.

    Correct Answer
    C. Noncomplex, minor construction, and maintenance and repair projects that require minor design.
    Explanation
    The SABER program is best suited for noncomplex, minor construction, and maintenance and repair projects that require minor design. This means that the program is most effective for projects that are relatively simple and do not require extensive design work. It is specifically designed to handle smaller scale construction and repair tasks that only require minimal design input.

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  • 47. 

    (421) The value limitation of NPIs on an individual SABER delivery order cannot exceed

    • A.

      10% of the total value of the delivery order.

    • B.

      20% of the total value of the delivery order.

    • C.

      10% of the total value of the unit price guides listing.

    • D.

      20% of the total value of the unit price guides listing.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10% of the total value of the delivery order.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10% of the total value of the delivery order. This means that the value limitation of NPIs (Non-Productive Items) on an individual SABER (Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineering Requirements) delivery order cannot exceed 10% of the total value of the delivery order. This ensures that the cost of NPIs does not exceed a certain percentage of the overall project cost.

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  • 48. 

    (422) What term is defined in the AFFARS as an emergency involving military forces caused by natural disasters, terrorists, subversives, or required military operations?

    • A.

      Contingency.

    • B.

      National distress.

    • C.

      National emergency.

    • D.

      International plan of action.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contingency.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Contingency." In the context of the AFFARS (Air Force Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement), a contingency is defined as an emergency situation that involves military forces and is caused by natural disasters, terrorists, subversives, or required military operations. This term is used to describe a variety of unforeseen events that may require immediate response or action from the military. "National distress" refers to a state of extreme hardship or suffering within a country, while "national emergency" refers to a situation that poses a serious threat to a nation's security or well-being. "International plan of action" does not accurately describe the term defined in the AFFARS.

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  • 49. 

     (422) Who maintains functional control over CCO deployed with a unit?

    • A.

      Host nation commander.

    • B.

      Receiving (unified) command.

    • C.

      Squadron commander at home station.

    • D.

      MAJCOM commander of the home station.

    Correct Answer
    B. Receiving (unified) command.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Receiving (unified) command." When a CCO (Command and Control Officer) is deployed with a unit, the receiving (unified) command maintains functional control over them. This means that the command responsible for receiving the unit will also have control over the CCO and their operations. The host nation commander, squadron commander at home station, and MAJCOM commander of the home station may have their own roles and responsibilities, but they do not maintain functional control over the CCO deployed with the unit.

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  • 50. 

    (422) What determines the appropriate certification level and training that contracting personnel should have prior to selection as a CCO?

    • A.

      The individual’s rank.

    • B.

      The particular tasking.

    • C.

      Squadron commander’s discretion.

    • D.

      Individual’s education level held.

    Correct Answer
    B. The particular tasking.
    Explanation
    The appropriate certification level and training that contracting personnel should have prior to selection as a CCO is determined by the particular tasking. This means that the specific requirements and responsibilities of the contracting officer's role will determine the level of certification and training needed. It is not solely based on the individual's rank, squadron commander's discretion, or education level held.

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