CDC Volume 1 Test - For Those Who Want To Go Into The Air Force

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  • 1/76 Questions

    Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government contracting?

    • Permissive acts, Administrative acts, and legal acts
    • Enabling acts, procedural acts, and permissive acts
    • Permissive acts, Administrative acts, and appropriations acts
    • Enabling acts and procedural acts, authorization acts, and appropriations acts
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About This Quiz

This first volume of CDC provides you with the basic information required for upgrade to the 5 skill level in the contracting career field. The information in this course is general in nature and is not intended to serve as a detailed guideline for accomplishing the various duties and tasks you perform as an Air Force contracting journeyman.

CDC Volume 1 Test - For Those Who Want To Go Into The Air Force - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What agency's objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?

    • Small Business Administration (SBA)

    • General Services Administration (GSA)

    • United States Department of Labor (DOL)

    • Committee for Purchase from People Who are Blind or Severely Disabled 

    Correct Answer
    A. Small Business Administration (SBA)
    Explanation
    The Small Business Administration (SBA) is the agency that provides aid and counseling to small businesses. They aim to support and assist small businesses in various ways, such as providing loans, access to capital, business counseling, and government contracting opportunities. The SBA plays a crucial role in helping small businesses grow and thrive in the United States.

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  • 3. 

    In the principle-agent relationship, which party is the contractor?

    • Agent

    • Principal

    • Third party

    • Agent and third party

    Correct Answer
    A. Third party
    Explanation
    The principle-agent relationship involves two parties: the principal and the agent. The principal is the party that hires the agent to act on their behalf. In this context, the contractor is considered the third party because they are not directly involved in the principal-agent relationship. The contractor is someone who is hired by either the principal or the agent to perform a specific task or provide a service. Therefore, the correct answer is "Third party."

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  • 4. 

    Express actual authority is created by

    • Explicit language, written or oral, from the principal to the agent

    • Information that flows from the third-party to the agent

    • Information that flows from the agent to the third-party

    • The principle's tolerance of the agent's conduct

    Correct Answer
    A. Explicit language, written or oral, from the principal to the agent
    Explanation
    Express actual authority is created when the principal communicates their instructions or authorization to the agent through explicit language, whether it is written or oral. This means that the principal clearly and directly conveys their wishes or grants permission to the agent. This form of authority is based on the principal's explicit communication and ensures that the agent understands their responsibilities and the scope of their authority.

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  • 5. 

    A characteristic of implied authority is that it is

    • Spelled out in oral or written authority when referring to minor details

    • Necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority 

    • Created by explicit language either in writing or orally

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority 
    Explanation
    Implied authority is a type of authority that is not explicitly stated but is understood to be necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority. This means that it is not spelled out in oral or written authority when referring to minor details, but rather it is understood to be a part of the overall authority given.

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  • 6. 

    Estoppel means to prevent

    • The government from acting as an agent for the contractor 

    • Contractors from filing a claim based on apparent authority

    • A party from taking action which the party is legally entitled to take

    • A party from asserting a fact or claim inconsistent with a position that party previously took 

    Correct Answer
    A. A party from asserting a fact or claim inconsistent with a position that party previously took 
    Explanation
    Estoppel refers to the legal principle that prevents a party from asserting a fact or claim that is inconsistent with a position they previously took. This means that if a party has made a certain statement or taken a certain position in the past, they cannot later contradict themselves or claim something different. Estoppel is used to ensure fairness and prevent parties from manipulating the legal system by changing their positions to their advantage.

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  • 7. 

    The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following expect the 

    • Government knew or should have known the true facts

    • Contractor did not know and should not have known the true facts 

    • Government intended that the contractor rely on the acts of the government

    • Contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government
    Explanation
    Equitable estoppel is a legal principle that prevents a party from asserting their rights if they have acted in a way that caused another party to rely on their actions to their detriment. In this case, the elements of equitable estoppel include the government knowing or should have known the true facts, the government intending for the contractor to rely on their actions, and the contractor not knowing and should not have known the true facts. The only element that is not included is that the contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government. This means that for equitable estoppel to apply, the contractor must have reasonably and innocently relied on the government's actions.

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  • 8. 

    Which statement about the offeree is correct?

    • The offeror may not direct the offer to a class of person or to a public intending that any member of the class of public have the power to accept.

    • The intended offeree means in all cases there is one, and only one, specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested

    • The offeror may not direct the offer to more than one person

    • Only the intended offeree can accept the offer

    Correct Answer
    A. Only the intended offeree can accept the offer
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that only the intended offeree can accept the offer. This means that the offeror cannot direct the offer to a class of people or to the public, intending for any member of the class or the public to have the power to accept. Additionally, it implies that there is always one specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested. Therefore, any acceptance of the offer by someone other than the intended offeree would not be valid.

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  • 9. 

    When no time is stated, an offer continues

    • Until the expiration of a reasonable time

    • Until acceptance takes place

    • Indefinitely 

    • For 30 days 

    Correct Answer
    A. Until the expiration of a reasonable time
    Explanation
    When no time is stated, an offer continues until the expiration of a reasonable time. This means that if there is no specific deadline mentioned in the offer, it remains open for acceptance until a reasonable amount of time has passed. The determination of what is considered a reasonable time may vary depending on the nature of the offer, the circumstances, and the industry norms. This allows both parties to have a fair opportunity to consider and respond to the offer before it expires.

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  • 10. 

    An offeror's withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a 

    • Revocation 

    • Termination

    • Cancellation

    • Breach of contract

    Correct Answer
    A. Revocation 
    Explanation
    Revocation refers to the act of an offeror withdrawing their offer before it is accepted by the offeree. This means that the offer is no longer valid and cannot be accepted. Termination, cancellation, and breach of contract all refer to different scenarios and actions that occur after acceptance or the formation of a contract. Therefore, revocation is the correct term to describe the withdrawal of an offer before acceptance.

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  • 11. 

    Which of these is an example of rejecting an offer?

    • Allowing the acceptance period to expire

    • Having no intention of being bound 

    • Proposing a counter offer

    • Delaying performance 

    Correct Answer
    A. Proposing a counter offer
    Explanation
    Proposing a counter offer is an example of rejecting an offer because it indicates that the person is not satisfied with the terms of the original offer and is suggesting alternative terms. By proposing a counter offer, the person is essentially declining the initial offer and presenting their own terms for negotiation. This shows that they are not willing to accept the offer as it was presented to them.

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  • 12. 

    If the offeror expresses time, place, and means of communication

    • Only that time, place, or means constitutes acceptance 

    • Only the offeree may change the time, place, or means of communication

    • A different time, manner, and other condition for acceptance may be chosen

    • The offeree may communicate orally, even if the offeror communicated in writing

    Correct Answer
    A. Only that time, place, or means constitutes acceptance 
    Explanation
    When the offeror specifies the time, place, and means of communication in their offer, only that specific time, place, or means can be considered as acceptance. The offeree does not have the authority to change any of these conditions. However, they are allowed to choose a different time, manner, and other conditions for acceptance if the offeror has not explicitly mentioned them. Additionally, even if the offeror communicated in writing, the offeree can respond orally if the offer did not specify otherwise.

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  • 13. 

    What are the two types of mistakes that the law recognizes as excusing performance?

    • Single and mutual

    • Single and bilateral

    • Unilateral with knowledge and bilateral 

    • Unilateral without knowledge and bilateral 

    Correct Answer
    A. Unilateral with knowledge and bilateral 
    Explanation
    The law recognizes two types of mistakes that can excuse performance: unilateral with knowledge and bilateral. Unilateral with knowledge refers to a mistake made by one party with full awareness or knowledge of the mistake. Bilateral refers to a mistake made by both parties involved in the agreement. These types of mistakes can provide legal grounds for excusing performance of the agreement.

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  • 14. 

    What is the name given to the exchange of promises?

    • Detriment

    • Sufficiency

    • Acceptance 

    • Consideration

    Correct Answer
    A. Consideration
    Explanation
    Consideration is the name given to the exchange of promises in a contract. It refers to something of value that is given by one party in exchange for the promise of the other party. Consideration is an essential element of a valid contract, as it ensures that both parties have bargained and agreed to the terms of the contract. Without consideration, a contract may be deemed unenforceable.

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  • 15. 

    What is meant by adequate consideration?

    • Actual worth or a promise or an act is more than the offer has the right to commit

    • Consideration has enough value to induce the other party to perform

    • Whether the bargain involves the concepts of benefit and detriment

    • Consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain

    Correct Answer
    A. Consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain
    Explanation
    Adequate consideration refers to a fair bargain in the exchange. It means that the consideration being offered in a contract is of sufficient value to induce the other party to perform their obligations. In other words, both parties are receiving something of value in the exchange, creating a mutually beneficial agreement. This ensures that there is a fair balance in the contract and that both parties are getting a fair deal.

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  • 16. 

    For a contract to be enforceable, its terms must be clear enough to permit

    • The government to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party

    • Each contractor to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party

    • The courts to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party

    • Each party to interpret its own duties and obligations to be performed

    Correct Answer
    A. The courts to interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the courts can interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party. This is because the courts are responsible for interpreting and enforcing contracts. If the terms of a contract are unclear, the courts can step in and interpret the obligations and duties of each party in order to enforce the contract. This ensures that both parties understand their responsibilities and can be held accountable for fulfilling them.

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  • 17. 

    What is meant by the term "competent" in regards to a contracting party?

    • Having an unsound mind

    • Ensuring business is not conducted with minors

    • Having the ability to recognize defective corporations

    • Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound

    Correct Answer
    A. Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound
    Explanation
    The term "competent" in regards to a contracting party refers to their mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. This means that the party has the ability to comprehend and fully grasp the implications and consequences of entering into a contract. It is important for a contracting party to be mentally capable in order for the contract to be considered valid and enforceable. This ensures that both parties involved are able to make informed decisions and fully understand the terms and obligations of the contract.

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  • 18. 

    As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is 

    • Lawful if not challenged with 120 days

    • Unlawful, void, and will not be enforced

    • Lawful only to the party that made the offer

    • Unlawful, but may be enforced under some situations

    Correct Answer
    A. Unlawful, void, and will not be enforced
    Explanation
    A contract that violates a statute is considered unlawful, void, and will not be enforced. This means that if a contract goes against any laws or regulations set by the government, it is not legally valid and cannot be enforced in a court of law. The parties involved in the contract cannot rely on it to protect their rights or obligations, as it is deemed invalid from the beginning.

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  • 19. 

    What occurs when someone other than the contracting officer (CO) tries to make an agreement without the authority?

    • Unauthorized commitment

    • Unpriced purchase order

    • Contract dispute

    • Ratification 

    Correct Answer
    A. Ratification 
    Explanation
    When someone other than the contracting officer (CO) tries to make an agreement without the authority, it is considered an unauthorized commitment. This means that the individual does not have the proper authorization to enter into a contract on behalf of the organization. The correct answer, ratification, refers to the process of approving or validating the unauthorized commitment after the fact. Ratification is typically done by the CO or another authorized individual who has the power to approve such commitments.

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  • 20. 

    Which situation would preclude a ratification?

    • Availability of funds that were available at the time the unauthorized commitment was made

    • Contracting officer (CO) determining the price to be fair and reasonable

    • Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance

    • CO recommending payment and legal counsel concurs 

    Correct Answer
    A. Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance
    Explanation
    If the government does not obtain any benefit from the performance, it would preclude a ratification. This means that if the government does not receive any value or advantage from the actions or services performed, there would be no reason or justification for the government to ratify or approve those actions or services. Ratification typically occurs when the government acknowledges and accepts unauthorized commitments or actions that were made on its behalf. However, if there is no benefit or value gained by the government, there would be no reason for ratification.

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  • 21. 

    Business clearance for noncompetitive contract actions is the approval to

    • Issue the solicitation 

    • Begin negotiations 

    • Ratify the contract

    • Issue a contract

    Correct Answer
    A. Begin negotiations 
    Explanation
    Business clearance for noncompetitive contract actions is the approval to begin negotiations. This means that before any negotiations can take place for a noncompetitive contract, the business clearance must be obtained. It is the initial step in the process of entering into a contract and allows the parties involved to discuss and negotiate the terms and conditions of the contract. Once the negotiations are completed, the contract can then be ratified and issued.

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  • 22. 

    For competitive acquisitions conducted without discussion, approval by the clearance approval authority is needed for the source selection authority (SSA) to

    • Issue the solicitation

    • Make the decision to award 

    • Hold pre-construction meeting 

    • Request final proposal revisions

    Correct Answer
    A. Make the decision to award 
    Explanation
    In competitive acquisitions conducted without discussion, the approval by the clearance approval authority is required for the source selection authority (SSA) to make the decision to award. This means that the SSA cannot finalize the award decision without obtaining the necessary approval from the clearance approval authority.

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  • 23. 

    A government action may be protested by

    • An interested party

    • The next low bidder

    • All responsible bidders 

    • The next low small business bidder

    Correct Answer
    A. An interested party
    Explanation
    An interested party refers to any individual or organization that has a stake or concern in a particular government action. This can include individuals or groups who may be directly affected by the action or have a vested interest in the outcome. They may protest the government action if they believe it will have negative consequences or if they feel their interests are being overlooked or disregarded.

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  • 24. 

    Protests are made to

    • The Comptroller General or the Government Accountability Office (GAO)

    • Either the appropriate agency or the Comptroller General 

    • The appropriate agency or US Court of Appeals 

    • Either the appropriate agency or the GAO

    Correct Answer
    A. Either the appropriate agency or the GAO
    Explanation
    Protests can be made to either the appropriate agency or the Government Accountability Office (GAO). This means that individuals or organizations who have concerns or complaints about a particular issue can choose to address them either directly with the relevant agency or through the GAO. This provides flexibility for individuals to choose the most suitable avenue for raising their concerns and seeking resolution.

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  • 25. 

    Which FAR Prat prescribes actions required upon receipt of protests? 

    • Part 12

    • Part 17

    • Part 33

    • Part 36

    Correct Answer
    A. Part 33
    Explanation
    Part 33 of the FAR (Federal Acquisition Regulation) prescribes the actions that are required upon receipt of protests. This part specifically deals with protests, disputes, and appeals in the procurement process. It outlines the procedures and steps that need to be followed when a protest is received, including the timeframes for responding to the protest, conducting investigations, and making a decision. Therefore, Part 33 is the correct answer as it directly addresses the actions required upon receipt of protests.

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  • 26. 

    When an agency receives notice of a protest from the Government Accountability Office (GAO) within 10 days after contract award or within 5 days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately 

    • Begins consolidating a complete report

    • Provides a 30-day cancellation notice to the contractor 

    • Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract

    • Suspends performance for 60 days, then processes a contract cancellation  

    Correct Answer
    A. Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract
    Explanation
    When an agency receives notice of a protest from the Government Accountability Office (GAO) within 10 days after contract award or within 5 days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract. This is done to allow for a fair and thorough review of the protest. By suspending performance or terminating the contract, the agency ensures that no further actions are taken until the protest is resolved. This helps to maintain the integrity of the procurement process and provides an opportunity for the GAO to investigate the protest and make a determination on its validity.

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  • 27. 

    How many days does Government Accountability Office (GAO) have to issue its recommendation on a protest? 

    • 30

    • 45

    • 100

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 100
    Explanation
    The Government Accountability Office (GAO) has 100 days to issue its recommendation on a protest. This timeframe allows for a thorough review and evaluation of the protest, ensuring a fair and timely resolution. It provides sufficient time for the GAO to gather all necessary information, conduct investigations, and make an informed decision on the matter. This timeframe also allows for any necessary consultations or discussions with relevant parties involved in the protest. Overall, the 100-day period strikes a balance between efficiency and thoroughness in the GAO's recommendation process.

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  • 28. 

    What document provides findings, recommendations, and any additional information necessary to assist the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in determining the merits of a protest?

    • Statement of Facts

    • Contracting officer's final decision

    • Contractor's Representation & Certifications

    • Staff Judge Advocate's legal recommendation

    Correct Answer
    A. Statement of Facts
    Explanation
    The document that provides findings, recommendations, and any additional information necessary to assist the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in determining the merits of a protest is the Statement of Facts. This document presents a clear and concise account of the relevant facts related to the protest, which helps the GAO in making an informed decision. It includes information about the actions taken by the contracting officer, the contractor's representations and certifications, and any legal recommendations provided by the Staff Judge Advocate.

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  • 29. 

    What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement of the contracting parties?

    • Submit a claim under the Default clause

    • Submit a claim under the Disputes clause

    • File a claim with the US Court of Federal Appeals

    • File a claim with the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Submit a claim under the Disputes clause
    Explanation
    When a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement, the contractor may choose to submit a claim under the Disputes clause. This clause is typically included in contracts to provide a mechanism for resolving disputes between the contracting parties. By submitting a claim under this clause, the contractor is initiating a formal process to seek resolution for the dispute. This may involve presenting evidence, participating in negotiations or alternative dispute resolution methods, and potentially leading to a decision or ruling by a third party, such as a mediator or arbitrator.

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  • 30. 

    After accrual of a claim, what is the maximum amount of time within which contractor claims must be submitted to the CO, unless contracting parties agreed to a shorter period of time?

    • 30 days

    • 180 days

    • 2 years

    • 6 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 years
    Explanation
    Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO within 6 years after accrual of a claim, unless the contracting parties have agreed to a shorter period of time. This means that contractors have a maximum of 6 years to submit their claims for consideration and potential resolution. It is important for contractors to be aware of this time limit and ensure that they submit their claims within the specified timeframe to protect their rights and interests.

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  • 31. 

    Who is responsible for reviewing the CO's final decision on claims exceeding $500k prior to sending the decision to the contractor?

    • Functional area chief

    • US Court of Federal Claims

    • AF Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate 

    • Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate 
    Explanation
    The AF Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate is responsible for reviewing the CO's final decision on claims exceeding $500k prior to sending the decision to the contractor.

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  • 32. 

    If the CO decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor?

    • With final contract payment

    • With the next scheduled contract payment

    • As soon as possible after resolution of any appeal

    • As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal." This means that if the Contracting Officer (CO) determines that the contractor should be compensated for a claim, the amount will be paid to them without any delay, regardless of whether there is a possibility of an appeal. This ensures that the contractor receives their compensation promptly and does not have to wait for any potential legal processes to be completed.

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  • 33. 

    How long after receiving the CO's final decision does the contractor have to appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA)?

    • 90 days

    • 180 days

    • 6 months

    • 12 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 days
    Explanation
    The contractor has 90 days to appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA) after receiving the CO's final decision.

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  • 34. 

    Upon learning of an appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA), the CO must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in

    • Air Force Federal Acq Reg Supplement (AFFARS), Appendix AA

    • Defense Fedreal Acq Reg Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A

    • AFFARS, Appendix CC

    • DFARS, Appendix C 

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Fedreal Acq Reg Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Federal Acq Reg Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A. This is because Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules is found in DFARS, Appendix A, which outlines the procedures and requirements for filing an appeal with the ASBCA. The other options mentioned, such as AFFARS Appendix AA, AFFARS Appendix CC, and DFARS Appendix C, do not contain the specific rule mentioned in the question.

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  • 35. 

    The 2 most common techniques of alternative dispute resolutions (ADR) are

    • Mitigation and controversy hearings

    • Mediation and controversy hearings

    • Mitigation and arbitration

    • Mediation and arbitration

    Correct Answer
    A. Mediation and arbitration
    Explanation
    Mediation and arbitration are the two most common techniques of alternative dispute resolution (ADR). Mediation involves a neutral third party assisting the parties in reaching a mutually acceptable agreement. The mediator does not make a decision but facilitates communication and negotiation between the parties. On the other hand, arbitration involves a neutral third party, the arbitrator, who listens to both sides and makes a binding decision. The arbitrator acts as a judge and resolves the dispute by rendering a final and enforceable decision. Both mediation and arbitration provide alternative methods to resolve disputes outside of traditional litigation.

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  • 36. 

    The 2 most common types of funding docs are the

    • DD Form 1588, DD Form 448

    • AF Form 9, AF Form 55

    • DD Form 448, AF Form 9

    • AF Form 988, AF Form 911

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 448, AF Form 9
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 448, AF Form 9. These two forms are the most common types of funding documents. DD Form 448 is used for Military Interdepartmental Purchase Requests (MIPRs) and AF Form 9 is used for Requests for Funds (RFFs) in the Air Force. These forms are essential for requesting and tracking funding for various purposes within the military.

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  • 37. 

    Where would a CO find guidance on the use of a military interdepartmental purchase request (MIPR)?

    • FAR Part1

    • AFI 65-118

    • FAR Part 32

    • AFI 36-2903

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 65-118
    Explanation
    A CO (Contracting Officer) would find guidance on the use of a military interdepartmental purchase request (MIPR) in AFI 65-118. This Air Force Instruction provides specific instructions and procedures for the use of MIPRs, which are used to request the transfer of funds between departments or agencies within the military. It is a comprehensive resource that outlines the requirements and processes involved in using MIPRs, making it the appropriate source for COs seeking guidance on this topic.

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  • 38. 

    The doc authorizing the purchase of the required service or supply must be signed by the 

    • CO

    • Signature Authority

    • CO Responsible

    • Customer

    Correct Answer
    A. Signature Authority
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Signature Authority" because this person is responsible for authorizing the purchase of the required service or supply. They have the authority to sign the document and give approval for the purchase to be made.

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  • 39. 

    The Bona-Fide Need Rule requires current year funds be obligated 

    • Prior to expiration of the funds

    • As necessary to meet mission requirements

    • For the purpose the funds are authorized for

    • In the same year the government will use the supplies or services

    Correct Answer
    A. In the same year the government will use the supplies or services
    Explanation
    The Bona-Fide Need Rule states that current year funds must be obligated before the expiration of the funds. This means that the government must commit to spending the funds for the specific purpose they are authorized for within the same year that they will use the supplies or services. This ensures that funds are not carried over from one year to another and are used in a timely manner to meet mission requirements.

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  • 40. 

    What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?

    • Procurement Act

    • Anti-Deficiency Act

    • Misappropriations Act

    • Continuing Appropriations Act

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-Deficiency Act
    Explanation
    The Anti-Deficiency Act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available. This act prohibits federal agencies from spending more money than has been allocated to them by Congress. It is designed to ensure fiscal responsibility and prevent overspending. Violating the Anti-Deficiency Act can result in legal and financial consequences for the organization and its employees.

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  • 41. 

    What Appropriation category may be used to fund minor military construction projects under $1,000,000?

    • Research, development, test and evaluation (RDT&E)

    • Operations and Maintenance (O&M)

    • Military Construction (MILCON)

    • Procurement

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations and Maintenance (O&M)
    Explanation
    Operations and Maintenance (O&M) is the appropriate category to fund minor military construction projects under $1,000,000. O&M funds are typically used for the day-to-day operations and maintenance of military facilities, including minor construction projects. This category covers expenses such as repairs, renovations, and upkeep of existing infrastructure. Since the given question specifies minor construction projects, O&M is the most suitable category as it aligns with the purpose of funding smaller-scale construction endeavors within the military.

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  • 42. 

    Operations and maintenance (O&M) and military personnel (MILPERS) funds are both categorized as what type of appropriation?

    • Annual

    • No-year

    • Continuing

    • Multiple-year

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual
    Explanation
    Both Operations and maintenance (O&M) and military personnel (MILPERS) funds are categorized as annual appropriations because they are allocated on a yearly basis. Annual appropriations are funds that are authorized and appropriated for a specific fiscal year and must be used within that year. This type of appropriation provides funding for ongoing expenses and activities that are required to be funded on an annual basis.

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  • 43. 

    What appropriations account code identifies operations and maintenance (O&M) funds?

    • 3300

    • 3400

    • 3500

    • 3600

    Correct Answer
    A. 3400
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3400. This appropriations account code specifically identifies operations and maintenance (O&M) funds. It is likely used to track and allocate funds specifically for the ongoing operations and maintenance of various assets or programs within an organization.

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  • 44. 

    How many years are military construction appropriations available for expenditure?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    Military construction appropriations are available for expenditure for a period of 5 years. This means that the funds allocated for military construction projects can be used within a span of 5 years from the time they are appropriated. After this time, if the funds have not been utilized, they may no longer be available for expenditure. This time limit ensures that the allocated funds are used efficiently and in a timely manner for military construction purposes.

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  • 45. 

    Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated through

    • Taxpayers dollars

    • The Appropriations Act

    • Enabling and Procedural Acts

    • Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities

    Correct Answer
    A. Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities
    Explanation
    Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated through Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities. These facilities, which include services such as fitness centers, theaters, and recreational activities, generate revenue through user fees and other sources. This revenue is then used to support the operation and maintenance of these facilities, as well as to fund additional programs and services that benefit military personnel and their families.

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  • 46. 

    What part of the FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments?

    • Part 30

    • Part 31

    • Part 32

    • Part 33

    Correct Answer
    A. Part 32
    Explanation
    Part 32 of the FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments. This part specifically addresses contract financing, including progress payments, and provides guidance on when and how to use them. It outlines the requirements, procedures, and limitations for progress payments, ensuring that they are used appropriately and in accordance with regulations.

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  • 47. 

    What type of payment is made for partial delivery of commercial items? 

    • Performance-Based

    • Progress

    • Advance

    • Delivery

    Correct Answer
    A. Delivery
    Explanation
    When a partial delivery of commercial items is made, the payment is typically made for that specific delivery. This means that the payment is made for the items that have been delivered and not for the entire order or project. This type of payment is commonly referred to as a "delivery payment" as it is made based on the delivery of the goods or services.

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  • 48. 

    What must the CO issue to the contractor to show that funds are available?

    • Notice to proceed

    • AF Form 9, RFP

    • Notice in writing that funds are available

    • Verbal message stating funds are available 

    Correct Answer
    A. Notice in writing that funds are available
    Explanation
    The CO must issue a notice in writing to the contractor to show that funds are available. This written notice serves as proof that the necessary funds have been allocated and are ready to be used for the project. Verbal messages or other forms of communication may not be sufficient or legally binding, so a written notice is necessary to ensure clarity and accountability.

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  • 49. 

    Whose job is it to ensure the local contracting program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regs, and AFIs?

    • Director of business operations (DBO)

    • Contracting squadron commander

    • Plans and programs flight chief 

    • Contracting superintendent 

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting squadron commander
    Explanation
    The contracting squadron commander is responsible for ensuring that the local contracting program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFIs. They oversee the contracting operations and make sure that all processes are in line with the necessary requirements and guidelines. This role is crucial in maintaining the integrity and effectiveness of the contracting program within the organization.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 04, 2021
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3

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