CDC Volume 1 Test - For Those Who Want To Go Into The Air Force

The correct answer is "Enabling acts and procedural acts, authorization acts, and appropriations acts." This answer correctly identifies the various forms of acts that Congress uses to control government contracting. Enabling acts give authority to agencies to enter into contracts, procedural acts establish the rules and regulations for contracting, authorization acts provide the legal basis for specific contracts or programs, and appropriations acts allocate funds for government contracts.

The Small Business Administration (SBA) is the agency that provides aid and counseling to small businesses. They aim to support and assist small businesses in various ways, such as providing loans, access to capital, business counseling, and government contracting opportunities. The SBA plays a crucial role in helping small businesses grow and thrive in the United States.

The principle-agent relationship involves two parties: the principal and the agent. The principal is the party that hires the agent to act on their behalf. In this context, the contractor is considered the third party because they are not directly involved in the principal-agent relationship. The contractor is someone who is hired by either the principal or the agent to perform a specific task or provide a service. Therefore, the correct answer is "Third party."

Express actual authority is created when the principal communicates their instructions or authorization to the agent through explicit language, whether it is written or oral. This means that the principal clearly and directly conveys their wishes or grants permission to the agent. This form of authority is based on the principal's explicit communication and ensures that the agent understands their responsibilities and the scope of their authority.

Implied authority is a type of authority that is not explicitly stated but is understood to be necessary or incidental to carrying out the express authority. This means that it is not spelled out in oral or written authority when referring to minor details, but rather it is understood to be a part of the overall authority given.

Estoppel refers to the legal principle that prevents a party from asserting a fact or claim that is inconsistent with a position they previously took. This means that if a party has made a certain statement or taken a certain position in the past, they cannot later contradict themselves or claim something different. Estoppel is used to ensure fairness and prevent parties from manipulating the legal system by changing their positions to their advantage.

Equitable estoppel is a legal principle that prevents a party from asserting their rights if they have acted in a way that caused another party to rely on their actions to their detriment. In this case, the elements of equitable estoppel include the government knowing or should have known the true facts, the government intending for the contractor to rely on their actions, and the contractor not knowing and should not have known the true facts. The only element that is not included is that the contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government. This means that for equitable estoppel to apply, the contractor must have reasonably and innocently relied on the government's actions.

The correct answer states that only the intended offeree can accept the offer. This means that the offeror cannot direct the offer to a class of people or to the public, intending for any member of the class or the public to have the power to accept. Additionally, it implies that there is always one specific offeree in whom the power of acceptance is vested. Therefore, any acceptance of the offer by someone other than the intended offeree would not be valid.

When no time is stated, an offer continues until the expiration of a reasonable time. This means that if there is no specific deadline mentioned in the offer, it remains open for acceptance until a reasonable amount of time has passed. The determination of what is considered a reasonable time may vary depending on the nature of the offer, the circumstances, and the industry norms. This allows both parties to have a fair opportunity to consider and respond to the offer before it expires.

Revocation refers to the act of an offeror withdrawing their offer before it is accepted by the offeree. This means that the offer is no longer valid and cannot be accepted. Termination, cancellation, and breach of contract all refer to different scenarios and actions that occur after acceptance or the formation of a contract. Therefore, revocation is the correct term to describe the withdrawal of an offer before acceptance.

Proposing a counter offer is an example of rejecting an offer because it indicates that the person is not satisfied with the terms of the original offer and is suggesting alternative terms. By proposing a counter offer, the person is essentially declining the initial offer and presenting their own terms for negotiation. This shows that they are not willing to accept the offer as it was presented to them.

When the offeror specifies the time, place, and means of communication in their offer, only that specific time, place, or means can be considered as acceptance. The offeree does not have the authority to change any of these conditions. However, they are allowed to choose a different time, manner, and other conditions for acceptance if the offeror has not explicitly mentioned them. Additionally, even if the offeror communicated in writing, the offeree can respond orally if the offer did not specify otherwise.

The law recognizes two types of mistakes that can excuse performance: unilateral with knowledge and bilateral. Unilateral with knowledge refers to a mistake made by one party with full awareness or knowledge of the mistake. Bilateral refers to a mistake made by both parties involved in the agreement. These types of mistakes can provide legal grounds for excusing performance of the agreement.

Consideration is the name given to the exchange of promises in a contract. It refers to something of value that is given by one party in exchange for the promise of the other party. Consideration is an essential element of a valid contract, as it ensures that both parties have bargained and agreed to the terms of the contract. Without consideration, a contract may be deemed unenforceable.

Adequate consideration refers to a fair bargain in the exchange. It means that the consideration being offered in a contract is of sufficient value to induce the other party to perform their obligations. In other words, both parties are receiving something of value in the exchange, creating a mutually beneficial agreement. This ensures that there is a fair balance in the contract and that both parties are getting a fair deal.

The correct answer is that the courts can interpret the duties and obligations to be performed by either party. This is because the courts are responsible for interpreting and enforcing contracts. If the terms of a contract are unclear, the courts can step in and interpret the obligations and duties of each party in order to enforce the contract. This ensures that both parties understand their responsibilities and can be held accountable for fulfilling them.

The term "competent" in regards to a contracting party refers to their mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. This means that the party has the ability to comprehend and fully grasp the implications and consequences of entering into a contract. It is important for a contracting party to be mentally capable in order for the contract to be considered valid and enforceable. This ensures that both parties involved are able to make informed decisions and fully understand the terms and obligations of the contract.

A contract that violates a statute is considered unlawful, void, and will not be enforced. This means that if a contract goes against any laws or regulations set by the government, it is not legally valid and cannot be enforced in a court of law. The parties involved in the contract cannot rely on it to protect their rights or obligations, as it is deemed invalid from the beginning.

When someone other than the contracting officer (CO) tries to make an agreement without the authority, it is considered an unauthorized commitment. This means that the individual does not have the proper authorization to enter into a contract on behalf of the organization. The correct answer, ratification, refers to the process of approving or validating the unauthorized commitment after the fact. Ratification is typically done by the CO or another authorized individual who has the power to approve such commitments.

If the government does not obtain any benefit from the performance, it would preclude a ratification. This means that if the government does not receive any value or advantage from the actions or services performed, there would be no reason or justification for the government to ratify or approve those actions or services. Ratification typically occurs when the government acknowledges and accepts unauthorized commitments or actions that were made on its behalf. However, if there is no benefit or value gained by the government, there would be no reason for ratification.

Business clearance for noncompetitive contract actions is the approval to begin negotiations. This means that before any negotiations can take place for a noncompetitive contract, the business clearance must be obtained. It is the initial step in the process of entering into a contract and allows the parties involved to discuss and negotiate the terms and conditions of the contract. Once the negotiations are completed, the contract can then be ratified and issued.

In competitive acquisitions conducted without discussion, the approval by the clearance approval authority is required for the source selection authority (SSA) to make the decision to award. This means that the SSA cannot finalize the award decision without obtaining the necessary approval from the clearance approval authority.

An interested party refers to any individual or organization that has a stake or concern in a particular government action. This can include individuals or groups who may be directly affected by the action or have a vested interest in the outcome. They may protest the government action if they believe it will have negative consequences or if they feel their interests are being overlooked or disregarded.

Protests can be made to either the appropriate agency or the Government Accountability Office (GAO). This means that individuals or organizations who have concerns or complaints about a particular issue can choose to address them either directly with the relevant agency or through the GAO. This provides flexibility for individuals to choose the most suitable avenue for raising their concerns and seeking resolution.

Part 33 of the FAR (Federal Acquisition Regulation) prescribes the actions that are required upon receipt of protests. This part specifically deals with protests, disputes, and appeals in the procurement process. It outlines the procedures and steps that need to be followed when a protest is received, including the timeframes for responding to the protest, conducting investigations, and making a decision. Therefore, Part 33 is the correct answer as it directly addresses the actions required upon receipt of protests.

When an agency receives notice of a protest from the Government Accountability Office (GAO) within 10 days after contract award or within 5 days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract. This is done to allow for a fair and thorough review of the protest. By suspending performance or terminating the contract, the agency ensures that no further actions are taken until the protest is resolved. This helps to maintain the integrity of the procurement process and provides an opportunity for the GAO to investigate the protest and make a determination on its validity.

The Government Accountability Office (GAO) has 100 days to issue its recommendation on a protest. This timeframe allows for a thorough review and evaluation of the protest, ensuring a fair and timely resolution. It provides sufficient time for the GAO to gather all necessary information, conduct investigations, and make an informed decision on the matter. This timeframe also allows for any necessary consultations or discussions with relevant parties involved in the protest. Overall, the 100-day period strikes a balance between efficiency and thoroughness in the GAO's recommendation process.

The document that provides findings, recommendations, and any additional information necessary to assist the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in determining the merits of a protest is the Statement of Facts. This document presents a clear and concise account of the relevant facts related to the protest, which helps the GAO in making an informed decision. It includes information about the actions taken by the contracting officer, the contractor's representations and certifications, and any legal recommendations provided by the Staff Judge Advocate.

When a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement, the contractor may choose to submit a claim under the Disputes clause. This clause is typically included in contracts to provide a mechanism for resolving disputes between the contracting parties. By submitting a claim under this clause, the contractor is initiating a formal process to seek resolution for the dispute. This may involve presenting evidence, participating in negotiations or alternative dispute resolution methods, and potentially leading to a decision or ruling by a third party, such as a mediator or arbitrator.

Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO within 6 years after accrual of a claim, unless the contracting parties have agreed to a shorter period of time. This means that contractors have a maximum of 6 years to submit their claims for consideration and potential resolution. It is important for contractors to be aware of this time limit and ensure that they submit their claims within the specified timeframe to protect their rights and interests.

The AF Legal Operations Agency, Commercial Law and Litigation Directorate is responsible for reviewing the CO's final decision on claims exceeding $500k prior to sending the decision to the contractor.

The correct answer is "As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal." This means that if the Contracting Officer (CO) determines that the contractor should be compensated for a claim, the amount will be paid to them without any delay, regardless of whether there is a possibility of an appeal. This ensures that the contractor receives their compensation promptly and does not have to wait for any potential legal processes to be completed.

The contractor has 90 days to appeal to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals (ASBCA) after receiving the CO's final decision.

The correct answer is Defense Federal Acq Reg Supplement (DFARS), Appendix A. This is because Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules is found in DFARS, Appendix A, which outlines the procedures and requirements for filing an appeal with the ASBCA. The other options mentioned, such as AFFARS Appendix AA, AFFARS Appendix CC, and DFARS Appendix C, do not contain the specific rule mentioned in the question.

Mediation and arbitration are the two most common techniques of alternative dispute resolution (ADR). Mediation involves a neutral third party assisting the parties in reaching a mutually acceptable agreement. The mediator does not make a decision but facilitates communication and negotiation between the parties. On the other hand, arbitration involves a neutral third party, the arbitrator, who listens to both sides and makes a binding decision. The arbitrator acts as a judge and resolves the dispute by rendering a final and enforceable decision. Both mediation and arbitration provide alternative methods to resolve disputes outside of traditional litigation.

The correct answer is DD Form 448, AF Form 9. These two forms are the most common types of funding documents. DD Form 448 is used for Military Interdepartmental Purchase Requests (MIPRs) and AF Form 9 is used for Requests for Funds (RFFs) in the Air Force. These forms are essential for requesting and tracking funding for various purposes within the military.

A CO (Contracting Officer) would find guidance on the use of a military interdepartmental purchase request (MIPR) in AFI 65-118. This Air Force Instruction provides specific instructions and procedures for the use of MIPRs, which are used to request the transfer of funds between departments or agencies within the military. It is a comprehensive resource that outlines the requirements and processes involved in using MIPRs, making it the appropriate source for COs seeking guidance on this topic.

The correct answer is "Signature Authority" because this person is responsible for authorizing the purchase of the required service or supply. They have the authority to sign the document and give approval for the purchase to be made.

The Bona-Fide Need Rule states that current year funds must be obligated before the expiration of the funds. This means that the government must commit to spending the funds for the specific purpose they are authorized for within the same year that they will use the supplies or services. This ensures that funds are not carried over from one year to another and are used in a timely manner to meet mission requirements.

The Anti-Deficiency Act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available. This act prohibits federal agencies from spending more money than has been allocated to them by Congress. It is designed to ensure fiscal responsibility and prevent overspending. Violating the Anti-Deficiency Act can result in legal and financial consequences for the organization and its employees.

Operations and Maintenance (O&M) is the appropriate category to fund minor military construction projects under $1,000,000. O&M funds are typically used for the day-to-day operations and maintenance of military facilities, including minor construction projects. This category covers expenses such as repairs, renovations, and upkeep of existing infrastructure. Since the given question specifies minor construction projects, O&M is the most suitable category as it aligns with the purpose of funding smaller-scale construction endeavors within the military.

Both Operations and maintenance (O&M) and military personnel (MILPERS) funds are categorized as annual appropriations because they are allocated on a yearly basis. Annual appropriations are funds that are authorized and appropriated for a specific fiscal year and must be used within that year. This type of appropriation provides funding for ongoing expenses and activities that are required to be funded on an annual basis.

The correct answer is 3400. This appropriations account code specifically identifies operations and maintenance (O&M) funds. It is likely used to track and allocate funds specifically for the ongoing operations and maintenance of various assets or programs within an organization.

Military construction appropriations are available for expenditure for a period of 5 years. This means that the funds allocated for military construction projects can be used within a span of 5 years from the time they are appropriated. After this time, if the funds have not been utilized, they may no longer be available for expenditure. This time limit ensures that the allocated funds are used efficiently and in a timely manner for military construction purposes.

Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated through Morale, Welfare, and Recreation facilities. These facilities, which include services such as fitness centers, theaters, and recreational activities, generate revenue through user fees and other sources. This revenue is then used to support the operation and maintenance of these facilities, as well as to fund additional programs and services that benefit military personnel and their families.

Part 32 of the FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments. This part specifically addresses contract financing, including progress payments, and provides guidance on when and how to use them. It outlines the requirements, procedures, and limitations for progress payments, ensuring that they are used appropriately and in accordance with regulations.

When a partial delivery of commercial items is made, the payment is typically made for that specific delivery. This means that the payment is made for the items that have been delivered and not for the entire order or project. This type of payment is commonly referred to as a "delivery payment" as it is made based on the delivery of the goods or services.

The CO must issue a notice in writing to the contractor to show that funds are available. This written notice serves as proof that the necessary funds have been allocated and are ready to be used for the project. Verbal messages or other forms of communication may not be sufficient or legally binding, so a written notice is necessary to ensure clarity and accountability.

The contracting squadron commander is responsible for ensuring that the local contracting program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFIs. They oversee the contracting operations and make sure that all processes are in line with the necessary requirements and guidelines. This role is crucial in maintaining the integrity and effectiveness of the contracting program within the organization.

The Director of Business Operations (DBO) is responsible for managing small business and other socio-economic programs. This position oversees the operations and strategies related to these programs, ensuring their successful implementation and achievement of goals. The DBO works closely with various stakeholders, including small business owners and community organizations, to support their growth and development. They also play a crucial role in promoting economic opportunities and enhancing the socio-economic landscape.

The contracting superintendent is responsible for advising the commander on enlisted issues, managing the self-inspection program, and serving as a military career advisor. However, appointing the CO is not a function of the contracting superintendent. This task is typically carried out by higher-ranking officers or individuals in positions of authority within the military hierarchy.

The flight responsible for managing the GPC program is "Plans and programs." This implies that within the organization, the Plans and Programs flight is in charge of overseeing and coordinating the GPC program.

The CO's responsibility includes ensuring that contractors receive equitable treatment. This means that the CO is responsible for ensuring that all contractors are treated fairly and without bias. This includes things like providing equal opportunities for bidding on contracts, ensuring fair evaluation and selection processes, and monitoring contractor performance to ensure compliance with contractual obligations. By ensuring equitable treatment, the CO helps to maintain a level playing field for all contractors and promotes transparency and fairness in the procurement process.

The customer is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a PR. As the one who is requesting the product or service, the customer knows exactly what they need and can provide detailed specifications and expectations for the requirement. The customer's input is crucial in ensuring that the final product or service meets their specific needs and requirements.

The purpose of the customer education program is to develop open lines of communication. This means that the program aims to establish effective and transparent communication channels between the company and its customers. By doing so, the company can better understand the needs and concerns of its customers, address any issues or questions they may have, and ultimately build stronger relationships with them. This can lead to improved customer satisfaction and loyalty, as well as increased opportunities for collaboration and feedback.

Contractors must be registered in the System for Award Management (SAM) prior to receiving a contract award. SAM is a government-wide portal that consolidates various federal procurement systems and databases. It is used for purposes such as registering as a federal contractor, searching for contracting opportunities, and managing contracts. By being registered in SAM, contractors can ensure that they are eligible to receive federal contracts and that their information is up-to-date and accessible to government agencies.

The correct answer is 30 days of acceptance by the government. The Prompt Payment Act is a law that requires timely payment for construction contracts. It ensures that the final payment for these contracts is made within 30 days of acceptance by the government. This ensures that contractors and suppliers are paid promptly for their work and helps to maintain a healthy cash flow in the construction industry.

The CO (Contracting Officer) uses a firm-fixed-price (FFP) or fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract when acquiring commercial items. These types of contracts provide a predetermined price that is not subject to adjustment, ensuring that the contractor bears the risk of any cost overruns. The economic price adjustment clause allows for adjustments to the contract price based on changes in specified economic factors, such as inflation or labor costs. This provides some flexibility to account for changing market conditions while still maintaining a fixed price structure.

The correct answer is "firmed target and successive targets." This refers to a type of fixed-price incentive contract where the contractor is given a firm target to meet, and if they exceed that target, they are given successive targets to achieve. This type of contract provides incentives for the contractor to perform well and exceed expectations, as they have the opportunity to earn additional rewards or fees for meeting or surpassing the targets.

The correct answer is Indefinite-Quantity. This type of contract is used when the government cannot determine the exact quantities of supplies or services that will be needed during the contract period, but they have a minimum requirement that must be met. This allows for flexibility in the quantity of supplies or services that can be ordered throughout the contract period.

According to the given information, within the multiple award contract, the contracting officer (CO) must provide each awardee a fair opportunity to be considered for each order issued exceeding a certain amount. The specific amount mentioned in the answer is $3,500. This means that for any order issued that exceeds $3,500, each awardee must be given a fair chance to compete for that order.

In the case that the CO doesn't give each awardee fair opportunity, it is necessary to document the justification for exemption. This documentation would explain the reasons behind the decision to exclude certain contractors and provide a valid justification for not providing them with the same opportunities as others. This documentation is important for transparency and accountability purposes, ensuring that the decision-making process is properly documented and can be reviewed if necessary.

The correct answer is "w/in 14 days after placing an order exceeding the SAT." This is because the question is asking for the timeframe in which the justification for exception to fair opportunity must be posted. The SAT refers to the Simplified Acquisition Threshold, which is the maximum dollar value for purchases made using simplified acquisition procedures. If an order exceeds this threshold, the justification for exception must be posted within 14 days after placing the order.

The purpose of SAP is to reduce administrative costs and the administrative burden on the government and contractors. This means that SAP aims to streamline the process of acquiring goods and services, making it more efficient and cost-effective for both the government and contractors. By reducing administrative costs and burdens, SAP can help improve the overall efficiency and effectiveness of government contracting, allowing resources to be allocated more effectively and promoting better competition in the marketplace.

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The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a CONUS vendor for use overseas is $10,000. This means that overseas cardholders can make supply purchases from a CONUS vendor for use overseas without having to go through a formal procurement process if the total cost does not exceed $10,000. This threshold allows for simplified and streamlined purchasing procedures for small-scale supply purchases made by overseas cardholders.

The correct answer is $2,500. The Service Contract Labor Standards (SCLA) apply to all services exceeding this amount. This means that any service contract with a value of $2,500 or more must comply with the labor standards set forth by the SCLA.

Performance-based acquisition allows contractors the freedom and flexibility to determine how they will meet the objectives outlined in the contract. Instead of dictating specific processes or methods, this approach gives contractors the latitude to use their expertise and resources to achieve the desired results. The government provides minimal oversight, allowing the contractors to take responsibility for their performance and make decisions accordingly. This approach promotes efficiency, innovation, and accountability, as contractors have the freedom to choose the most effective and efficient methods to meet the contract objectives.

The Davis-Bacon and Related Acts apply to construction contracts in excess of $2,000. These acts require that contractors and subcontractors pay prevailing wages to laborers and mechanics working on federally funded construction projects. By setting a threshold of $2,000, the acts ensure that even smaller construction contracts are subject to the prevailing wage requirements, promoting fair compensation for workers in the construction industry.

Architect-engineering services contracts are contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services. This type of contract specifically refers to the combination of architectural and engineering services, indicating that both disciplines are required for the project.

The correct answer is 6 percent of the project's estimated cost to complete construction. This means that the contract fee for architect-engineer services and fees for the preparation of designs, plans, drawings, and specifications cannot exceed 6 percent of the estimated cost to complete construction for the project. This limitation ensures that the fees are reasonable and proportional to the overall project cost.

If an architect-engineer's design, drawing, or specifications contain errors or deficiencies, the government has the option to require the contractor to make the necessary corrections under the original contract at no cost to the government. This means that the contractor will be responsible for fixing any mistakes or deficiencies in their work without any additional charges to the government. This option ensures that the contractor takes responsibility for their errors and provides a cost-effective solution for the government.

The correct answer is "Design w/in funding limitations clause." This clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project in a way that ensures construction costs will not exceed a specified amount due to funding limitations. This clause would outline the specific requirements and restrictions related to the project's design in order to stay within the allocated budget.

The first 6 positions of a procurement instrument identifier (PIID) represent the DoD DODAAC. DODAAC stands for Department of Defense Activity Address Code, which is a unique code assigned to each DoD activity or organization. The first 6 positions of the PIID would therefore indicate the specific DoD activity or organization associated with the procurement instrument.

A Purchase Order is a type of contracting instrument that would have the letter "P" in the 9th position of the PIID (Procurement Instrument Identification Number). A Purchase Order is a document issued by a buyer to a seller, indicating the types, quantities, and agreed prices for products or services that the seller will provide to the buyer. The PIID is a unique identifier assigned to each procurement instrument, and the letter "P" in the 9th position indicates that it is a Purchase Order.

Supplemental PIIDs are used to identify amendments to solicitations. An amendment to a solicitation is a change or modification made to the original solicitation document. It may include changes to the requirements, terms and conditions, or any other aspect of the solicitation. The use of a supplemental PIID helps to track and differentiate these amendments from the original solicitation, ensuring that all interested parties are aware of the changes and can respond accordingly.