Security Forces CDC's Vol 1 (5 Level)

100 Questions

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

A career development course is a mandatory exam for anyone who is planning to join the Air force. How well prepared are you for the final CDC test? Take up the revision quiz to polish up on what you remember and get a high score come the exam. Good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What year was the name of the career field changed to "Security Police"?
    • A. 

      1971

    • B. 

      1985

    • C. 

      1966

    • D. 

      1950

  • 2. 
    In 1971, Security Forces was split into two seperate functions, what were these functions?
    • A. 

      Police dog units & law enforcement specialties

    • B. 

      Law enforcement & security specialties

    • C. 

      Security & force protection elements

    • D. 

      Security teams & security elements

  • 3. 
    The law enforcement specialty was responsible for providing...
    • A. 

      Weapons storage area security

    • B. 

      The protection of personnel only

    • C. 

      Duties associated with physical security

    • D. 

      The typical police response to safeguard personnel and property

  • 4. 
    The Vietnam conflict pointed out the need for...
    • A. 

      Armored vehicles in support of base defense

    • B. 

      Additional security personnel

    • C. 

      Less military working dogs

    • D. 

      Revised security thinking

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Air Police were no longer posted on the perimeter of air bases

    • B. 

      Within 2 months, 149 additional K9 teams were shipped to Vietnam

    • C. 

      Air Police leadership was no longer willing to use K9's in base defense roles

    • D. 

      It had an adverse public reaction to what Air Force Air Police could accomplish

  • 6. 
    Operation SAFESIDE provided Security Police with...
    • A. 

      Early redeployment from Vietnam

    • B. 

      Additional communications equipment

    • C. 

      Opportunities to cross-train into other career fields

    • D. 

      Training in light infantry tactics and special weapons

  • 7. 
    After Vietnam, what was the next large scale war that Security Police found themselves involved in?
    • A. 

      Operation NORTHERN WATCH

    • B. 

      Operation DESERT STORM

    • C. 

      Operation JUST CAUSE

    • D. 

      The Balkan Conflict

  • 8. 
    Prior to March 1971, basic training graduates could be assigned to SP units without...
    • A. 

      Weapons qualifications

    • B. 

      Formal technical training

    • C. 

      Meeting Air Force fitness standards

    • D. 

      Recieving their full clothing allowance

  • 9. 
    When SF Members perform law enforcement functions, they are referred to as...
    • A. 

      Force Protectors

    • B. 

      Security Police

    • C. 

      Police Officers

    • D. 

      Defenders

  • 10. 
    The term "SF Member" is used when...
    • A. 

      Performing law enforcement functions

    • B. 

      Communicating on a tactical radio

    • C. 

      Performing security functions

    • D. 

      Addressing each other

  • 11. 
    The SF Shield serves as a figure of...
    • A. 

      History

    • B. 

      Jurisdiction

    • C. 

      Legal authority

    • D. 

      Symbol of power

  • 12. 
    The Security Police Shield started out as a/an...
    • A. 

      Distinctive hat worn only by Military Police

    • B. 

      Military Police/Air Police brassard

    • C. 

      4x4 laminated ID card

    • D. 

      Air Police function badge

  • 13. 
    When was the first trial issue shield approved?
    • A. 

      1943

    • B. 

      1945

    • C. 

      1950

    • D. 

      1957

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      7CO31M

    • B. 

      3PO31B

    • C. 

      3PO31A

    • D. 

      3MWDX1

  • 15. 
    Airman Leadership School must be completed prior to...
    • A. 

      The base Education Office

    • B. 

      Assuming the rank of SSgt

    • C. 

      Awarding of the 5 skill level

    • D. 

      Becoming eligible for Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) testing

  • 16. 
    Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
    • A. 

      Code of Conduct only

    • B. 

      SF General Orders only

    • C. 

      Code of Conduct and SF General Orders

    • D. 

      Performance Fitness Examination

  • 17. 
    What are the cornerstones of our profession?
    • A. 

      Integrity and Behavior

    • B. 

      Ethics and Attitude

    • C. 

      Attitude and Behavior

    • D. 

      Ethics and Integrity

  • 18. 
    You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a ticket based on the violater's race?
    • A. 

      Seeking favors

    • B. 

      Exercising authority

    • C. 

      Assistance to others

    • D. 

      Personal attitudes

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      AFI 31-205, The Air Force Corrections Program

    • B. 

      AFI 31-206, Security Forces Investigation Program

    • C. 

      AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel

    • D. 

      AFI 31-301, Air Base Defense

  • 20. 
    How many different job titles are normally present in the typical unit structure?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      34

    • D. 

      40

  • 21. 
    The typical SF command section includes all of the following except...
    • A. 

      Superintendent, Resources and Training

    • B. 

      Standardization and Evaluation

    • C. 

      Chief, Security Forces

    • D. 

      First Sergeant

  • 22. 
    When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated...
    • A. 

      Flight Administrators

    • B. 

      Flight Commanders

    • C. 

      Operations Officers

    • D. 

      Flight Chiefs

  • 23. 
    The term "Every Airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" is the concept of...
    • A. 

      Principles of War

    • B. 

      Rules of Engagement

    • C. 

      Intergrated Base Defense

    • D. 

      Defense Force Doctrine

  • 24. 
    During base defense the S-3 function can be compared to...
    • A. 

      Base defense supply

    • B. 

      Commanders support staff

    • C. 

      The Operations Officer position

    • D. 

      Intelligence Analyst position

  • 25. 
    The primary task of the S-4 during combat operations is to...
    • A. 

      Armory duties

    • B. 

      Supply and resupply

    • C. 

      Intelligence gathering

    • D. 

      Radio/telephone operator duties

  • 26. 
    The authority,capacity,  power and right of the military to police their own is known as...
    • A. 

      Military presence

    • B. 

      Military jurisdiction

    • C. 

      Legal precedence

    • D. 

      Military law

  • 27. 
    Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the U.S. Armed Forces?
    • A. 

      UCMJ

    • B. 

      US Constitution

    • C. 

      Federal Statutes

    • D. 

      International law

  • 28. 
    Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress and are contained in the...
    • A. 

      Bilateral and multilateral agreements

    • B. 

      Status of Force Agreements

    • C. 

      US Constitution

    • D. 

      US Code

  • 29. 
    Laws in the US Code that directly affect the Air Force are covered in...
    • A. 

      Title 2

    • B. 

      Titles 4-6

    • C. 

      Title 10

    • D. 

      Title 18

  • 30. 
    US military authority in host nation territories is governed by...
    • A. 

      Federal statutes

    • B. 

      US Constitution

    • C. 

      Article 2/UCMJ

    • D. 

      Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)

  • 31. 
    What example of international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva Conventions?
    • A. 

      Law of Armed Conflict

    • B. 

      MCM Title 10 statutes

    • C. 

      SOFA agreements

    • D. 

      Rules of War

  • 32. 
    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are...
    • A. 

      Concurrent, current & proprietary

    • B. 

      Partial, exclusive, bilateral & concurrent

    • C. 

      Exclusive, concurrent, partial & propietary

    • D. 

      Exclusive, concurrent, propietary & multilateral

  • 33. 
    When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the state...
    • A. 

      The federal government prevails under the Supremacy Clause

    • B. 

      The federal government must share prosecution rights

    • C. 

      National security concerns must take precedence

    • D. 

      The state has priority to prosecute

  • 34. 
    When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory it is known as...
    • A. 

      A proprietary government

    • B. 

      A military government

    • C. 

      Nationalist regime

    • D. 

      A military state

  • 35. 
    Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population...
    • A. 

      When directed by the Joint Chiefs of Staff

    • B. 

      During government elections

    • C. 

      When declared by state governors

    • D. 

      In a time of emergency

  • 36. 
    Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?
    • A. 

      Qualified

    • B. 

      Exclusive

    • C. 

      Military law

    • D. 

      Absolute

  • 37. 
    During absolute martial law, Security Forces members have the authority to...
    • A. 

      Detain civilians

    • B. 

      Apprehend all offenders

    • C. 

      Apprehend military personnel

    • D. 

      Detain and prosecute offenders

  • 38. 
    Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?
    • A. 

      Article 134

    • B. 

      Article 7b

    • C. 

      Article 1

    • D. 

      Article 5

  • 39. 
    Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to...
    • A. 

      Act in an official law enforcement capacity off base

    • B. 

      Apprehend civilians for on base offenses

    • C. 

      Release military offenders to supervisors

    • D. 

      Detain civilians for on base offenses

  • 40. 
    Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to...
    • A. 

      US Army Military Police

    • B. 

      US Marshals

    • C. 

      City police

    • D. 

      County sheriff's

  • 41. 
    What right could you envoke when apprehending any person for breech of peace?
    • A. 

      Code of Conduct

    • B. 

      Title 10, US Code

    • C. 

      Self-defense right

    • D. 

      Citizens right of arrest

  • 42. 
    You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in...
    • A. 

      The UCMJ

    • B. 

      The Internal Security Act of 1950

    • C. 

      Title 18, Section 1385 US Code

    • D. 

      The Manual for Courts-Martial

  • 43. 
    The Defense Authorization Act authorizes us to assist civil authorities by providing...
    • A. 

      Air Force vehicles and fuel

    • B. 

      Funding for civilian law enforcement use

    • C. 

      Information, equipment, facilities & training

    • D. 

      Security Forces with civilian law enforcement positions

  • 44. 
    Military working dogs are most effective when they are visible to the public; we ensure this by...
    • A. 

      Conducting periodic public demonstrations

    • B. 

      Patrolling MWD's in civilian housing areas

    • C. 

      Randomly searching vehicles at base gates

    • D. 

      Searching elementary schools

  • 45. 
    MWD's should be kept on-leash except when the must...
    • A. 

      Search occupied buildings

    • B. 

      Bite and hold multiple suspects

    • C. 

      Search unoccupied buildings and disperse crowds

    • D. 

      Bite and hol a suspect or search an unoccupied building

  • 46. 
    Before releasing a MWD to search buildings, the handler must...
    • A. 

      Give a verbal warning stating they are about to realeas the dog

    • B. 

      Loudly announce their intentions to order the dog to bite

    • C. 

      Place the MWD on a long leash

    • D. 

      Have the dog bark three times

  • 47. 
    When conducting building checks the MWD is normally...
    • A. 

      On-leash

    • B. 

      Off-Leash

    • C. 

      On a long leash

    • D. 

      Left in the vehicle

  • 48. 
    The MWD team should always approach buildings from the...
    • A. 

      Upwind side

    • B. 

      Downwind side

    • C. 

      Crosswind direction

    • D. 

      Front side or street side

  • 49. 
    Who determines whether a MWD will search the building on or off-leash?
    • A. 

      On duty supervisor and handler

    • B. 

      Chief, Security Forces

    • C. 

      Operations officer

    • D. 

      Kennel master

  • 50. 
    The MWD's greatest advantage during security operations is...
    • A. 

      The MWD's ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions

    • B. 

      Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility

    • C. 

      The team's ability to work alone

    • D. 

      It's quick response capability

  • 51. 
    What is the MWD's role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?
    • A. 

      Protect members of the apprehension team

    • B. 

      Dispersing the remaining crowd off-leash

    • C. 

      Biting and holding demonstrators

    • D. 

      Apprehending rioters

  • 52. 
    Hostile intent is best described as...
    • A. 

      Unarmed demonstrators

    • B. 

      Rioters with no weapons

    • C. 

      Verbal warnings of hostile actions

    • D. 

      The imminent threat of force to US forces

  • 53. 
    What are the Rules of Engagement elements of self defense?
    • A. 

      Necessity and authority

    • B. 

      Immediacy and controlled

    • C. 

      Proportionality and necessity

    • D. 

      Proportionality and immediacy

  • 54. 
    Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be...
    • A. 

      Of reasonible intensity, duration and magnitude

    • B. 

      Of the maximum duration under Rules of War

    • C. 

      Of the appropriate non-lethal means

    • D. 

      Used only in defense of foreign nationals

  • 55. 
    A written order by a competant military commander ordering a search is called a/an...
    • A. 

      Consent search

    • B. 

      Search warrant

    • C. 

      Command authority

    • D. 

      Search authorization

  • 56. 
    Who can issue off base search procedures in foreign countries?
    • A. 

      Air Force installation commanders

    • B. 

      Joint rear area commanders

    • C. 

      Staff Judge Advocate

    • D. 

      US Magistrate

  • 57. 
    What exists when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place?
    • A. 

      Plain view rule

    • B. 

      Probable cause

    • C. 

      Lawful searching

    • D. 

      Exigent circumstances

  • 58. 
    A search affidavit of "Probable Cause" supporting your request for...
    • A. 

      Search authorization

    • B. 

      Consent to search

    • C. 

      Plain view seizure

    • D. 

      Authority to Courts-Martial

  • 59. 
    A person who exercises control over property given to them for safe keeping...
    • A. 

      Not give consent to search

    • B. 

      Grant consent to search that property

    • C. 

      May give consent to search that property only

    • D. 

      May allow another person to grant consent

  • 60. 
    Under what conditions during a lawful stop can a frisk be conducted?
    • A. 

      The person stopped appears to be in pain

    • B. 

      The person shoplifted a carton of cigarettes

    • C. 

      You reasonably believe the person is armed and dangerous

    • D. 

      You believe the person commited a hit and run traffic violation

  • 61. 
    Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of...
    • A. 

      Speeding violations

    • B. 

      Lawful apprehensions

    • C. 

      Dress and appearance violations

    • D. 

      The execution of a search authorization

  • 62. 
    What are the common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk?
    • A. 

      Biased toward police, resentment and fear of involvement

    • B. 

      Inconvenience, resentment and fear of involvement

    • C. 

      Fear of involvement and biased toward police

    • D. 

      Resentment and inconvenience

  • 63. 
    If a witness is reluctant to talk because of the possible reprisals they are experiencing...
    • A. 

      Prejudice

    • B. 

      Resentment

    • C. 

      Inconvenience

    • D. 

      Fear of involvement

  • 64. 
    Which type of interviewee is interviewed to develop facts?
    • A. 

      Suspects

    • B. 

      Victims

    • C. 

      Witnesses

    • D. 

      Prosecutors

  • 65. 
    The four step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing and...
    • A. 

      Conducting

    • B. 

      Witnessing

    • C. 

      Investigating

    • D. 

      Interrogating

  • 66. 
    What are the types of interview approaches?
    • A. 

      Indirect, alternating

    • B. 

      Reverse, direct, indirect

    • C. 

      Direct, indirect, reverse

    • D. 

      Alternating, direct, indirect

  • 67. 
    Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed and...
    • A. 

      Location of incident

    • B. 

      Other investigators

    • C. 

      Time of interview

    • D. 

      Room number

  • 68. 
    When does your pre-trial preperation begin?
    • A. 

      Trial council contacts you

    • B. 

      You are notified of the courts-martial

    • C. 

      When you advise the suspect of their rights

    • D. 

      As soon as you are dispatched to an incident

  • 69. 
    Investigators will conduct pre-trial preperation with...
    • A. 

      The Chief, Security Forces

    • B. 

      The staff judge advocate

    • C. 

      Witnesses to the case

    • D. 

      The victim and suspect

  • 70. 
    When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?
    • A. 

      During pre-trial preperation

    • B. 

      When answering prosecution questions

    • C. 

      Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense

    • D. 

      Always present your professional opinion as fact

  • 71. 
    The budget process is broken down into two centers of control...
    • A. 

      Supply resources and responsibility center

    • B. 

      Resources and responsibility center

    • C. 

      Man power and cost centers

    • D. 

      Cost centers and responsibility center

  • 72. 
    Who is normally responsible for the responsibility center?
    • A. 

      Squadron commander

    • B. 

      Operations Officer

    • C. 

      Superintendent

    • D. 

      NCOIC

  • 73. 
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects?
    • A. 

      AFSC

    • B. 

      Members PRP status

    • C. 

      Individual position number

    • D. 

      Positions authorized to accomplish the mission

  • 74. 
    What is the main reason supply discipline is mandatory?
    • A. 

      Store, maintain, operate and dispense material on an as needed basis

    • B. 

      Operate, dispense and protect government bench stock items for future resale.

    • C. 

      Maintain adequate stock levels, deplete old supplies, and free up necessary storage areas.

    • D. 

      Conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property.

  • 75. 
    What does the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFEPT) identify?
    • A. 

      Mandatory education and training requirements only

    • B. 

      On duty life cycle education and training requirements

    • C. 

      Just in time education and training requirements, both on and off duty

    • D. 

      Life cycle education and training requirements, both mandatory and desirable.

  • 76. 
    What is the responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM)?
    • A. 

      The NCOIC for the Stan-Eval program

    • B. 

      The commander for the Stan-Eval program

    • C. 

      The superintendent for the Stan-Eval program

    • D. 

      The Operations Officer for the Stan-Eval Program

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      120 duty days after an individual completes qualification training

    • B. 

      90 duty days after an individual completes qualification training

    • C. 

      60 duty days after an individual completes qualification training

    • D. 

      30 duty days after an individual completes qualification training

  • 78. 
    The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS)) program is to provide what?
    • A. 

      The same capabilities as all civilian police

    • B. 

      Law Enforcement with new technology

    • C. 

      Law Enforcement with new computers

    • D. 

      Prompt police information through the use of technology

  • 79. 
    What are the responsibilities of The Chief of Security Forces (CFS)?
    • A. 

      Selecting/training civilian officials on the AFLETS program

    • B. 

      Selecting/training of personnell operating the AFLETS system.

    • C. 

      Managing the local NLETS program

    • D. 

      Managing the local NCIC program

  • 80. 
    Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index are documented in what federal system?
    • A. 

      Logs controlled under the Privacy Act of 1972

    • B. 

      A federal system of logs controlled under the Privacy Act of 1973

    • C. 

      A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy Act of 1974

    • D. 

      A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy Act of 1975

  • 81. 
    • A. 

      Receive firearms training based on their duty tasking

    • B. 

      Receive firearms training based on their rank and status

    • C. 

      Receive firearms training based on use of force requirements

    • D. 

      Receive firearms training based on their assigned arming group (Group A, B, or C)

  • 82. 
    Individual weapons training programs are outlined in?
    • A. 

      AFI 31-201, Security Police Procedures

    • B. 

      AFI 31-101, Installation Security Programs

    • C. 

      AFMAN 31-201, Volume 1, Security Forces History and Organization

    • D. 

      AFMAN 36-226, Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons

  • 83. 
    What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
    • A. 

      AF Form 522, Ground Weapon Training Data

    • B. 

      AF Form 629, Small Arms Hand Receipt

    • C. 

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

    • D. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualifications Standard

  • 84. 
    The use of prowords in radio communications help...
    • A. 

      Aids in transmitting and reception

    • B. 

      Clarify understanding of the message being sent

    • C. 

      Distract and confuse unauthorized listeners

    • D. 

      Shorten sending time and to simplify clear reception

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      Are of the same sex as the inmate

    • B. 

      Are of the opposite sex of the inmate

    • C. 

      Have an unfavorable information file

    • D. 

      Are personally involved with the inmate

  • 86. 
    Corrections staff personnel should complete or be scheduled to attend...
    • A. 

      Service Corrections course (or civilian equivelant)

    • B. 

      Civilian Corrections course only

    • C. 

      Base corrections course only

    • D. 

      State Corrections Certification Course

  • 87. 
    All inmates are assigned a custody status and classifed as either...
    • A. 

      Pre trial detainee, post trial inmates or casual

    • B. 

      Pre-trial detainee, post-trial detainee

    • C. 

      Post trial inmate or trial inmate

    • D. 

      Pre-trial casual or Casual

  • 88. 
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      48 hours

    • C. 

      72 hours, or as soon as possible

    • D. 

      24 hours, or the next duty day

  • 89. 
    What can you use to clean your mouth effectively in the absence of other means?
    • A. 

      Saltwater

    • B. 

      Sulfuric Acid

    • C. 

      Tree branches

    • D. 

      Weapons cleaning brush

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      Contact, internal, water born, insect and animal born

    • B. 

      Contact, external, water born, insect and animal born

    • C. 

      Contact, inhaling, insect, insect and animal born

    • D. 

      Contact, intestinal, water born, insect and animal born

  • 91. 
    What is one of the ways you can prevent the introduction of diseases into your body?
    • A. 

      Eating baby food while in the field

    • B. 

      Not eating and drinking only water

    • C. 

      Eating and drinking from approved sources only

    • D. 

      Treating contaminated water with salt and vinegar

  • 92. 
    An effective way of defeating crawling insects is...
    • A. 

      Not wearing socks

    • B. 

      Spraying your boots with Windex

    • C. 

      Not washing your pants bottoms

    • D. 

      Tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots

  • 93. 
    What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?
    • A. 

      Water proof clothing bags

    • B. 

      Change them frequently

    • C. 

      Tree branches

    • D. 

      Mosquito nets

  • 94. 
    What is considered the most deadly hazard of the Security Forces career field?
    • A. 

      Fires

    • B. 

      Stress

    • C. 

      Major accidents

    • D. 

      Traffic accidents

  • 95. 
    There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress can be found where?
    • A. 

      Personal life and job

    • B. 

      Personal life and nightclubs

    • C. 

      Job and recreational activities

    • D. 

      Job and off duty employment

  • 96. 
    What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?
    • A. 

      Finding the right stress medication

    • B. 

      Recognizing stressors

    • C. 

      Running daily

    • D. 

      Relaxing

  • 97. 
    Most often suicidal persons are overwhelmed with...
    • A. 

      Too much money, divorce, and work problems

    • B. 

      Pending legal action, work problems, or having fun

    • C. 

      Loss of a loved one, mental health, and divorce

    • D. 

      Relationship difficulties, divorce, and going on vacation

  • 98. 
    Miroorganisms in blood that cause disease are?
    • A. 

      "A" cells

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Cancer causing cells

    • D. 

      Blood born pathogens

  • 99. 
    The single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace is?
    • A. 

      Sweat

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Syringes

    • D. 

      Body Fluids

  • 100. 
    What tactics reduce exposure to blood borne pathogens on the job?
    • A. 

      Employee work practices, personal protective equipment, and housekeeping.

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B vaccine, misuse of personal protective equipment

    • C. 

      Personal protective equipment, unsanitary housekeeping

    • D. 

      Unsafe work practices, Hepatitis B vaccine