Security Forces CDC's Vol 1 (5 Level)

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1. An effective way of defeating crawling insects is...

Explanation

Tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots is an effective way of defeating crawling insects. By doing so, you create a barrier that prevents insects from crawling up your legs and reaching exposed skin. This method is commonly used in outdoor activities, especially in areas with high insect populations, to minimize the risk of insect bites and infestations.

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Security Forces CDCs Vol 1 (5 Level) - Quiz

A career development course is a mandatory exam for anyone who is planning to join the Air force. How well prepared are you for the final CDC test?... see moreTake up the revision quiz to polish up on what you remember and get a high score come the exam. Good luck!
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2. What is one of the ways you can prevent the introduction of diseases into your body?

Explanation

Eating and drinking from approved sources only is one of the ways to prevent the introduction of diseases into the body. This means consuming food and beverages that have been deemed safe and free from harmful bacteria or contaminants. By avoiding consumption of potentially contaminated or unregulated food and drinks, the risk of acquiring diseases or infections can be significantly reduced.

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3. There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress can be found where?

Explanation

The correct answer is Personal life and job. Personal life and job are often the main sources of stress for individuals. Personal life includes various factors such as relationships, financial issues, health problems, and family responsibilities, which can all contribute to stress. Similarly, job-related factors like workload, deadlines, conflicts, and job insecurity can also be significant sources of stress. Therefore, the combination of personal life and job can create a high level of stress for individuals.

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4. What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?

Explanation

The first step in finding ways to reduce stress is recognizing stressors. This involves identifying the specific triggers or situations that cause stress. By understanding what is causing stress, individuals can then develop strategies to manage or avoid these stressors. This may include implementing stress management techniques, seeking support, or making lifestyle changes.

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5. Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the U.S. Armed Forces?

Explanation

The correct answer is UCMJ because it stands for the Uniform Code of Military Justice, which is a legal document that applies to all branches of the U.S. Armed Forces. It outlines the laws and regulations that govern the behavior and conduct of military personnel, including offenses such as desertion, insubordination, and misconduct. The UCMJ ensures discipline, order, and justice within the military and is an essential component of military law.

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6. Before releasing a MWD to search buildings, the handler must...

Explanation

The correct answer is to give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog. This is important because it helps to ensure the safety of the individuals inside the building. By giving a verbal warning, people inside the building will be aware that a dog is being released and can take appropriate action to avoid any potential harm. This also allows the handler to maintain control over the situation and ensure that the dog is being deployed in a controlled and safe manner.

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7. Airman Leadership School must be completed prior to...

Explanation

Airman Leadership School must be completed prior to assuming the rank of SSgt. This means that individuals who want to be promoted to the rank of Staff Sergeant must first complete Airman Leadership School. This course is designed to develop leadership skills and prepare airmen for increased responsibilities at the NCO (Non-Commissioned Officer) level. By completing this school, airmen demonstrate their readiness to take on the role of a Staff Sergeant and fulfill the duties and expectations associated with that rank.

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8. What can you use to clean your mouth effectively in the absence of other means?

Explanation

Saltwater can be used to clean the mouth effectively in the absence of other means because it has natural antiseptic properties. Rinsing the mouth with saltwater can help kill bacteria, reduce inflammation, and promote healing. It can also help to alleviate mild pain and discomfort. However, it is important to note that saltwater should be used in moderation and not swallowed, as excessive use can lead to dehydration or irritation of the mouth.

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9. Miroorganisms in blood that cause disease are?

Explanation

Blood born pathogens are microorganisms that are present in the blood and can cause disease. These pathogens can be bacteria, viruses, or other types of microorganisms. They can be transmitted through contact with infected blood, such as through needlestick injuries or transfusions. Blood born pathogens can cause a range of diseases, including hepatitis B and C, HIV/AIDS, and malaria. Therefore, blood born pathogens are the correct answer to the question.

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10. Under what conditions during a lawful stop can a frisk be conducted?

Explanation

During a lawful stop, a frisk can be conducted if there is a reasonable belief that the person is armed and dangerous. This means that there must be a genuine belief, based on specific facts and circumstances, that the person may be carrying a weapon and pose a threat to the safety of the officer or others. The other conditions mentioned, such as the person being in pain, shoplifting, or committing a hit and run traffic violation, do not meet the criteria for a frisk to be conducted.

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11. Most often suicidal persons are overwhelmed with...

Explanation

Suicidal persons are often overwhelmed with a combination of factors such as the loss of a loved one, mental health issues, and divorce. These factors can contribute to feelings of hopelessness, despair, and isolation, which may increase the risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. It is important to address these underlying issues and provide support to individuals who may be experiencing these challenges.

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12. In 1971, Security Forces was split into two seperate functions, what were these functions?

Explanation

In 1971, the Security Forces was divided into two separate functions: law enforcement and security specialties. This division allowed for a more focused approach to maintaining law and order within the organization, as well as ensuring the security and protection of personnel and assets. Law enforcement specialties would handle tasks related to enforcing laws and regulations, while security specialties would focus on safeguarding the organization from potential threats and risks. This split allowed for a more efficient and effective operation of the Security Forces.

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13. Individual weapons training programs are outlined in?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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14. What tactics reduce exposure to blood borne pathogens on the job?

Explanation

Employee work practices, personal protective equipment, and housekeeping are tactics that can effectively reduce exposure to bloodborne pathogens on the job. Employee work practices involve following proper procedures and protocols, such as using safe needle disposal techniques and practicing good hand hygiene. Personal protective equipment, such as gloves, masks, and gowns, provide a physical barrier between the employee and potentially infectious materials. Housekeeping, including regular cleaning and disinfection of work surfaces, helps to minimize the presence of pathogens in the environment. By implementing these tactics, the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens can be significantly reduced.

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15. The law enforcement specialty was responsible for providing...

Explanation

The given answer correctly states that the law enforcement specialty is responsible for the typical police response to safeguard personnel and property. This means that they are tasked with ensuring the safety and security of individuals and possessions, which includes responding to emergencies, preventing crimes, and implementing measures to protect people and property.

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16. Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

Explanation

The Code of Conduct and SF General Orders are both forms of guidance that ensure mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct provides a set of ethical principles and standards that members of the military must adhere to in order to maintain their integrity and uphold the values of their organization. SF General Orders, on the other hand, provide specific instructions and regulations that govern the behavior and actions of military personnel in the performance of their duties. By following both the Code of Conduct and SF General Orders, individuals can ensure that they are acting in accordance with the guidelines set forth by their organization and contribute to the successful completion of their mission.

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17. The MWD's greatest advantage during security operations is...

Explanation

The MWD's greatest advantage during security operations is its detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility. This means that even in foggy or rainy conditions, the MWD is able to effectively detect threats and assist in security operations. This ability is crucial in maintaining security and ensuring the safety of individuals involved in such operations.

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18. Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be...

Explanation

The correct answer is "Of reasonable intensity, duration, and magnitude." This means that the force used to counter hostile acts should be proportional and not excessive. It should be reasonable in terms of its intensity, duration, and magnitude, ensuring that it is not excessive or unnecessary. This principle is important to prevent the use of excessive force and to maintain a balanced and fair response to hostile acts.

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19. When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?

Explanation

During court proceedings, it is important to only give your opinion if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense. This is because as an expert witness, your role is to provide unbiased and objective information based on your expertise. Offering your opinion without being prompted can be seen as biased or unprofessional. It is essential to wait for the prosecution or defense to specifically ask for your opinion before providing it, ensuring that your testimony remains impartial and credible.

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20. The term "Every Airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" is the concept of...

Explanation

The term "Every Airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" refers to the concept of Integrated Base Defense. This concept emphasizes the idea that every individual in the Air Force plays a crucial role in detecting and reporting potential threats to the base's overall defense. It recognizes that every Airman has a responsibility to be vigilant and contribute to the overall security and protection of the base. This concept promotes a collective and integrated approach to base defense, where everyone is actively involved in maintaining the safety and security of the base.

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21. What is considered the most deadly hazard of the Security Forces career field?

Explanation

Stress is considered the most deadly hazard in the Security Forces career field because it can have severe physical and mental health consequences. The high-pressure nature of the job, constant exposure to potentially dangerous situations, and the responsibility of protecting others can lead to chronic stress. This can result in a variety of health issues such as heart disease, depression, anxiety, and even suicide. Additionally, stress can impair decision-making and reaction times, increasing the risk of accidents and errors in judgment. Therefore, managing and mitigating stress is crucial for the well-being and effectiveness of security forces personnel.

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22. Prior to March 1971, basic training graduates could be assigned to SP units without...

Explanation

Prior to March 1971, basic training graduates could be assigned to SP units without formal technical training. This means that they were not required to undergo specialized training in a specific technical field before being assigned to Security Police (SP) units. They may have received basic training, but they were not required to have any additional technical skills or knowledge in a specific area. This suggests that the Air Force did not consider formal technical training to be a prerequisite for assignment to SP units during that time period.

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23. Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with...

Explanation

Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This document provides guidelines and regulations regarding the arming and use of force by Air Force personnel. It ensures that personnel are trained and authorized to use force when necessary and outlines the proper procedures for apprehending suspects. Following this AFI ensures that apprehensions are conducted in a lawful and effective manner, promoting the safety and security of all involved.

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24. If a witness is reluctant to talk because of the possible reprisals they are experiencing...

Explanation

The correct answer is "Fear of involvement." When a witness is reluctant to talk because of possible reprisals, it suggests that they are afraid of getting involved in the situation. They may fear retaliation or harm if they speak up, which leads to their reluctance to provide information or cooperate with authorities. This fear of involvement can be a significant barrier to obtaining crucial evidence or testimony in investigations.

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25. Who determines whether a MWD will search the building on or off-leash?

Explanation

The on duty supervisor and handler are responsible for determining whether a MWD (Military Working Dog) will search the building on or off-leash. This decision is crucial as it affects the safety and effectiveness of the search operation. The on duty supervisor and handler have the necessary expertise and experience to assess the situation and make the appropriate decision based on factors such as the specific mission, the behavior and training of the dog, and the potential risks involved. They work together as a team to ensure the successful execution of the search operation.

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26. What is the MWD's role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?

Explanation

The MWD's role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators is to protect the members of the apprehension team. This means that the MWD is responsible for ensuring the safety of the team members by providing security and assistance during the apprehension process. The MWD may be trained to detect and deter any potential threats or attacks on the team members, thereby safeguarding them from harm.

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27. What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?

Explanation

Waterproof clothing bags are the most suitable option for keeping clothes dry in the field. These bags are specifically designed to prevent water from seeping through and reaching the clothes inside. By using waterproof clothing bags, one can ensure that their clothes remain dry and protected even in wet or rainy conditions. This is especially important in outdoor settings where there may not be access to shelter or laundry facilities. Change them frequently, tree branches, and mosquito nets do not provide the same level of protection against moisture as waterproof clothing bags do.

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28. Operation SAFESIDE provided Security Police with...

Explanation

Operation SAFESIDE provided Security Police with training in light infantry tactics and special weapons. This means that the operation aimed to enhance the skills and knowledge of Security Police in combat techniques and the use of specialized weapons. By providing this training, Operation SAFESIDE aimed to improve the capabilities of Security Police in handling security situations that may require a more tactical approach. This training would have prepared Security Police to effectively respond to and mitigate potential threats or attacks.

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29. The primary task of the S-4 during combat operations is to...

Explanation

The primary task of the S-4 during combat operations is to handle supply and resupply. This means that they are responsible for ensuring that the troops have the necessary equipment, ammunition, and resources to carry out their missions effectively. They work closely with logistics and transportation units to coordinate the delivery of supplies to the frontlines. This role is crucial in maintaining the operational readiness of the military forces and ensuring that they have the necessary support to sustain themselves during combat.

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30. What exists when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place?

Explanation

Probable cause exists when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place. This means that there is enough evidence or information to support a reasonable belief that a crime has been committed and that the evidence can be found in the specified location. It is a legal standard that must be met before a search warrant can be issued or a search can be conducted.

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31. The use of prowords in radio communications help...

Explanation

The use of prowords in radio communications helps to shorten sending time and simplify clear reception. Prowords are specific words or phrases that have standardized meanings in radio communication. By using prowords, operators can convey information quickly and efficiently, reducing the time needed to transmit a message. Additionally, prowords help to ensure clear reception by providing a standardized vocabulary that aids in understanding and eliminates ambiguity. This allows for effective communication, especially in situations where time is of the essence or when dealing with complex information.

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32. The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are...

Explanation

The correct answer is exclusive, concurrent, partial & proprietary. This means that on US government installations, there are certain areas where jurisdiction is exclusively held by the federal government, while in other areas, jurisdiction is shared between the federal government and the state or local government. Additionally, there may be partial jurisdiction where certain aspects are controlled by the federal government and others by the state or local government. Finally, there may be proprietary jurisdiction, which refers to areas that are owned and controlled by the federal government.

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33. What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?

Explanation

AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt, is the correct answer because it is the form used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis. This form is typically used to document the temporary issue of equipment, including firearms, to individuals for a specific period of time. It serves as a receipt and record of accountability for the temporary issue of the firearm, ensuring that the individual is responsible for its safekeeping and return.

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34. The SF Shield serves as a figure of...

Explanation

The SF Shield serves as a figure of legal authority because it represents the power and jurisdiction of the San Francisco law enforcement agencies. The shield is a symbol of the law and the authority that comes with it. It is a recognizable emblem that signifies the ability of law enforcement officers to enforce the law and maintain order in the city. The shield is a visual representation of the legal authority vested in the officers who wear it, and it serves as a reminder to the public of the power and responsibility entrusted to these individuals.

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35. The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects?

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission. It provides a comprehensive overview of the positions needed within a unit to carry out its tasks and responsibilities. By detailing the authorized positions, the UMD ensures that the unit has the necessary manpower to fulfill its mission effectively. It helps in determining the required personnel and their roles, facilitating proper staffing and allocation of resources. The UMD is an essential tool for manpower planning and management within the organization.

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36. Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population...

Explanation

Martial law is the imposition of military control over the civilian population in times of emergency. This means that during a crisis or emergency situation, the military takes over the authority and power to maintain law and order, often suspending normal civil rights and freedoms. It is not dependent on government elections or the direction of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, but rather is declared by state governors or other appropriate authorities in response to an emergency.

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37. Hostile intent is best described as...

Explanation

Hostile intent refers to the imminent threat of force towards US forces. It signifies the intention to cause harm or engage in aggressive actions against the military personnel. This can include individuals or groups who may not possess weapons but exhibit behaviors or actions that indicate their readiness to use force or violence. It is crucial for US forces to identify and respond to hostile intent in order to ensure their own safety and security.

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38. Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed and...

Explanation

Investigative notes should contain important details related to the case, such as the case number, date, and person interviewed. Including the time of the interview in the notes is crucial as it helps establish a timeline of events and provides context for the information gathered. This information can be used to corroborate alibis, determine the sequence of events, and analyze the credibility of the interviewee's statements.

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39. The death of SSgt. Terrance Jensen had what effect?

Explanation

The death of SSgt. Terrance Jensen had the effect of prompting the shipment of 149 additional K9 teams to Vietnam within a span of two months.

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40. After Vietnam, what was the next large scale war that Security Police found themselves involved in?

Explanation

Operation DESERT STORM was the next large-scale war that Security Police found themselves involved in after Vietnam. Operation DESERT STORM refers to the military operation conducted by the United States and its allies in response to Iraq's invasion of Kuwait in 1990. This operation aimed to liberate Kuwait and protect other Middle Eastern countries from Iraqi aggression. The Security Police played a crucial role in providing security and maintaining law and order during this conflict.

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41. The Security Police Shield started out as a/an...

Explanation

The correct answer is Military Police/Air Police brassard. A brassard is a type of armband or sleeve worn on the upper arm to identify a person's affiliation or role. In the case of the Military Police/Air Police, the brassard would have been worn to distinguish them from other personnel and indicate their law enforcement duties.

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42. You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a ticket based on the violater's race?

Explanation

If you issued a ticket based on the violater's race, you have failed to follow the general conduct guideline of personal attitudes. Personal attitudes should not influence decisions or actions in a professional setting, especially when it comes to law enforcement. Issuing a ticket based on race is discriminatory and goes against the principles of fairness and equality. It is important to treat individuals impartially and without bias, regardless of their race or any other personal characteristic.

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43. What example of international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva Conventions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Law of Armed Conflict. The Hague and Geneva Conventions are two major treaties that form the foundation of the Law of Armed Conflict. These conventions establish rules and principles for the conduct of armed conflicts, including the protection of civilians, prisoners of war, and the wounded. They also regulate the use of certain weapons and prohibit certain tactics. The Law of Armed Conflict is essential in maintaining humanitarian standards during times of war and ensuring the protection of individuals affected by armed conflicts.

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44. The Defense Authorization Act authorizes us to assist civil authorities by providing...

Explanation

The Defense Authorization Act authorizes us to assist civil authorities by providing information, equipment, facilities, and training. This means that the act allows us to share important information, supply necessary equipment, provide access to facilities, and offer training to support civil authorities in their efforts. This assistance can help enhance their capabilities and effectiveness in dealing with various situations and challenges they may face.

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45. The four step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing and...

Explanation

The four-step interview process involves preparing for the interview, planning the questions and approach, conducting the actual interview, and finally closing the interview. Conducting refers to the act of carrying out the interview itself, where the interviewer asks the prepared questions and engages in conversation with the interviewee. This step is crucial in gathering information, assessing the candidate's suitability, and evaluating their responses.

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46. What are the types of interview approaches?

Explanation

The types of interview approaches are alternating, direct, and indirect. In an alternating approach, the interviewer switches between open-ended and closed-ended questions to gather different types of information. In a direct approach, the interviewer asks specific questions to gather specific information. In an indirect approach, the interviewer uses more subtle or indirect questions to gather information.

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47. What are the cornerstones of our profession?

Explanation

Ethics and integrity are the cornerstones of any profession. Ethics refers to the moral principles and values that guide our behavior and decision-making, ensuring that we act in a responsible and honest manner. Integrity, on the other hand, refers to the quality of being honest, trustworthy, and having strong moral principles. Together, ethics and integrity form the foundation of a profession, as they ensure that professionals act in a manner that is ethical, responsible, and in the best interest of their clients or stakeholders.

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48. Military working dogs are most effective when they are visible to the public; we ensure this by...

Explanation

Conducting periodic public demonstrations is the most effective way to ensure that military working dogs are visible to the public. These demonstrations allow the public to see the capabilities and skills of the dogs, which can help build trust and confidence in their abilities. Additionally, it serves as a form of outreach and education, as it provides an opportunity for the public to learn about the important role that these dogs play in military operations. By conducting these demonstrations, the military can showcase the effectiveness and value of their working dogs to the public.

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49. When conducting building checks the MWD is normally...

Explanation

When conducting building checks, it is important for the MWD (Military Working Dog) to be on-leash. This ensures that the dog remains under control and can be easily managed by the handler. Being on-leash also helps to prevent the dog from wandering off or getting into potentially dangerous situations. Additionally, having the MWD on-leash allows for better communication and coordination between the handler and the dog during the building check operation.

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50. What are the Rules of Engagement elements of self defense?

Explanation

The Rules of Engagement elements of self-defense involve proportionality and necessity. Proportionality means that the response to an attack should be appropriate and not excessive. It ensures that the level of force used is reasonable and in line with the threat faced. Necessity means that self-defense is only justified when there is a genuine threat or danger. It requires that the response is necessary to protect oneself or others from harm. These two elements work together to guide individuals in determining the appropriate level of force to use in self-defense situations.

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51. Corrections staff personnel should complete or be scheduled to attend...

Explanation

The correct answer is "Service Corrections course (or civilian equivalent)". This means that corrections staff personnel should either complete a Service Corrections course or a civilian equivalent course. This suggests that the training required for corrections staff personnel can be fulfilled by either a course provided by the service or an equivalent course offered by a civilian institution.

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52. When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated...

Explanation

When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated as Flight Commanders. This term is used to describe the officers who have the responsibility and authority to oversee and manage the operations of the flights. They are in charge of ensuring that the flights are conducted safely, efficiently, and in accordance with the established protocols and procedures. The title of Flight Commander signifies their leadership role and their position of authority within the flight operations.

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53. A written order by a competant military commander ordering a search is called a/an...

Explanation

A written order by a competent military commander ordering a search is called a search authorization. This document grants permission for military personnel to conduct a search in a specific location or for specific items. It ensures that the search is conducted legally and within the boundaries of the commander's authority. Unlike a search warrant, which is typically issued by a civilian court, a search authorization is specific to military operations.

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54. When SF Members perform law enforcement functions, they are referred to as...

Explanation

When SF Members perform law enforcement functions, they are referred to as "Security Police." This term is commonly used to describe members of the military or security forces who are responsible for maintaining law and order, protecting personnel and property, and enforcing regulations and laws on military installations or in specific areas of operation. "Security Police" implies a specialized role within the military or security forces, indicating their primary responsibility for maintaining security and providing law enforcement services.

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55. When was the first trial issue shield approved?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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56. MWD's should be kept on-leash except when the must...

Explanation

MWD's (Military Working Dogs) should be kept on-leash unless they need to bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building. This means that in situations where there is a need to apprehend a suspect or search a building that is not occupied, the MWD can be off-leash. However, in all other circumstances, they should remain on-leash for control and safety purposes.

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57. A search affidavit of "Probable Cause" supporting your request for...

Explanation

The correct answer is "Search authorization." In this context, a search affidavit of "Probable Cause" is used to support the request for search authorization. This means that the affidavit provides the necessary evidence and justification for law enforcement to obtain legal permission to conduct a search. The search authorization allows them to search a specific location or person for evidence related to a crime.

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58. Investigators will conduct pre-trial preperation with...

Explanation

The staff judge advocate is involved in the pre-trial preparation because they are responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the investigators. They will assist in reviewing the evidence, analyzing the case, and ensuring that all legal procedures are followed correctly. Their expertise in military law and court-martial procedures makes them an essential part of the pre-trial preparation process.

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59. What are the responsibilities of The Chief of Security Forces (CFS)?

Explanation

The responsibilities of the Chief of Security Forces (CFS) include selecting and training personnel operating the AFLETS system. This means that the CFS is in charge of choosing the individuals who will be responsible for operating the AFLETS system, as well as providing them with the necessary training to effectively carry out their duties. The CFS is not responsible for selecting or training civilian officials on the AFLETS program, managing the local NLETS program, or managing the local NCIC program.

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60. What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the Military Working Dog Handler apprentice course?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3PO31A. This AFSC is awarded upon completion of the Military Working Dog Handler apprentice course.

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61. The authority,capacity,  power and right of the military to police their own is known as...

Explanation

Military jurisdiction refers to the authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to enforce laws and regulations within their own ranks. It allows the military to maintain discipline, order, and accountability among its members. This jurisdiction ensures that military personnel are subject to a separate legal system that is tailored to the unique needs and requirements of the armed forces. It enables the military to investigate, prosecute, and punish offenses committed by military personnel, ensuring that they are held accountable for their actions.

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62. US military authority in host nation territories is governed by...

Explanation

The correct answer is Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA). SOFAs are bilateral agreements between the United States and host nations that define the legal status and rights of U.S. military personnel deployed in those countries. These agreements outline the jurisdictional authority, immunities, and privileges granted to U.S. military personnel, as well as the obligations and responsibilities of both parties. SOFAs ensure that U.S. military authority in host nation territories is governed by mutually agreed-upon rules and regulations, providing a legal framework for the presence and operations of U.S. forces abroad.

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63. The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS)) program is to provide what?

Explanation

The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS) program is to provide prompt police information through the use of technology. This means that the program aims to use technology to quickly and efficiently gather and disseminate information for law enforcement purposes. It is not about providing the same capabilities as civilian police or simply using new technology or computers for law enforcement. The focus is specifically on leveraging technology to enhance the speed and effectiveness of police information.

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64. All personel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will...

Explanation

Personnel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will receive firearms training based on their assigned arming group (Group A, B, or C). This means that the training they receive will be determined by the specific arming group they are assigned to, rather than their duty tasking, rank and status, or use of force requirements. The training will be tailored to the specific needs and responsibilities of each arming group, ensuring that personnel are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to safely and effectively handle firearms in their assigned roles.

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65. All inmates are assigned a custody status and classifed as either...

Explanation

The correct answer is "Pre trial detainee, post trial inmates or casual." This answer accurately describes the different classifications of inmates based on their custody status. Pre-trial detainees are individuals who are awaiting trial and have not been convicted of a crime. Post-trial inmates are those who have been convicted and sentenced. Casual inmates are typically individuals who are serving short-term sentences or are in custody for non-criminal reasons.

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66. The MWD team should always approach buildings from the...

Explanation

The MWD team should always approach buildings from the downwind side. This is because if there is a hazardous material release or fire, the wind will carry the smoke, fumes, or flames in the direction of the wind. Approaching from the downwind side ensures that the team is not directly in the path of these hazards, minimizing their exposure and allowing for a safer approach to the building.

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67. What is the main reason supply discipline is mandatory?

Explanation

Supply discipline is mandatory in order to conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property. This ensures that resources are used efficiently and effectively, preventing waste and misuse. By implementing supply discipline, organizations can ensure that supplies are properly stored, maintained, and protected, reducing the risk of damage or loss. Additionally, it helps in managing stock levels, depleting old supplies, and freeing up necessary storage areas. Overall, supply discipline is crucial for the effective management and preservation of government resources.

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68. The Vietnam conflict pointed out the need for...

Explanation

The Vietnam conflict highlighted the importance of reevaluating and modifying security strategies. The traditional methods of base defense and security personnel were insufficient in addressing the challenges faced during the war. Therefore, the need for revised security thinking arose to develop more effective and adaptable approaches to protect military bases and personnel. This involved considering new tactics, technologies, and strategies to enhance security measures and ensure better preparedness in future conflicts.

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69. Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?

Explanation

Article 7b of the UCMJ gives military personnel the authority to apprehend military offenders. This article outlines the specific circumstances and conditions under which military personnel can exercise their authority to apprehend and detain individuals who have violated military laws. It provides guidelines and procedures to ensure that apprehensions are conducted lawfully and in accordance with military regulations.

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70. When does your pre-trial preperation begin?

Explanation

Pre-trial preparation begins as soon as you are dispatched to an incident. This means that once you are notified and dispatched to the scene of an incident, you should start preparing for the pre-trial process. This includes gathering evidence, interviewing witnesses, and conducting any necessary investigations to build a strong case. It is important to start the preparation early to ensure that all necessary information is collected and organized for the trial.

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71. During absolute martial law, Security Forces members have the authority to...

Explanation

During absolute martial law, Security Forces members have the authority to apprehend all offenders. This means that they can take into custody anyone who is found guilty of committing a crime or violating the law, regardless of whether they are civilians or military personnel. This broad authority allows the Security Forces to maintain control and order during a state of martial law, ensuring that all individuals who break the law are apprehended and held accountable for their actions.

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72. Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of...

Explanation

When searching as a result of lawful apprehensions, probable cause is not required. This means that if a person is lawfully apprehended, such as during an arrest or detention, law enforcement officers have the authority to search the person and their immediate surroundings without needing additional evidence or suspicion of criminal activity. This exception to the probable cause requirement allows officers to ensure their safety and prevent the destruction of evidence during the apprehension process.

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73. Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they...

Explanation

Persons with an unfavorable information file will not be tasked to supervise inmates. This suggests that individuals with a negative background or history may not be suitable for overseeing inmates due to potential risks or conflicts of interest. It is important to ensure that those responsible for supervising inmates have a favorable record and are capable of maintaining a safe and secure environment.

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74. The single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace is?

Explanation

Blood is the single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace because it can carry various pathogens such as HIV, hepatitis B and C, and other bloodborne pathogens. When blood comes into contact with broken skin, mucous membranes, or is transferred through contaminated needles or sharps, it can easily transmit these diseases. Therefore, proper precautions must be taken to prevent blood exposure and ensure a safe working environment.

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75. Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index are documented in what federal system?

Explanation

The correct answer is a federal system of records controlled under the Privacy Act of 1974. The question is asking about the documentation of Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index, which are both part of a federal system of records. The Privacy Act of 1974 is the law that governs the collection, use, and dissemination of personal information by federal agencies. This act ensures that individuals have certain rights and protections regarding their personal information held by the government.

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76. What does the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFEPT) identify?

Explanation

The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFEPT) identifies life cycle education and training requirements, both mandatory and desirable. This means that the plan outlines the necessary education and training that individuals in a specific career field need to complete throughout their entire career, including both mandatory requirements that must be fulfilled and desirable requirements that are recommended for professional development.

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77. Stan-Evals will be conducted within?

Explanation

Stan-Evals are evaluations conducted to assess an individual's qualification training. The correct answer states that Stan-Evals will be conducted within 30 duty days after an individual completes qualification training. This means that the evaluations will take place within a month after the training is completed. This timeframe allows for a prompt assessment of the individual's skills and knowledge acquired during the qualification training.

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78. Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?

Explanation

Absolute martial law exists when military authority completely replaces civil authority. In this type of martial law, the military has complete control over all aspects of governance and decision-making, overriding the role of civilian institutions and laws. This means that military personnel have the power to enforce laws, maintain order, and make decisions without any interference or oversight from civilian authorities. Absolute martial law is characterized by a suspension of civil rights and liberties, as the military takes on a dominant role in governing the country.

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79. Which type of interviewee is interviewed to develop facts?

Explanation

Victims are interviewed to develop facts. As the individuals who have experienced a crime or wrongdoing, victims can provide firsthand information about the incident. By interviewing victims, investigators can gather important details, evidence, and testimonies that help in understanding the sequence of events and establishing the truth. This information is crucial for the investigation and legal proceedings.

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80. What right could you envoke when apprehending any person for breech of peace?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Citizens right of arrest." When apprehending a person for breach of peace, citizens have the right to make a citizen's arrest. This means that they can detain the individual until law enforcement arrives. This right allows citizens to take immediate action to prevent further harm or disturbance to the public. However, it is important to note that the exact laws and regulations regarding citizen's arrests may vary depending on the jurisdiction.

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81. Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress and are contained in the...

Explanation

The US Code is the correct answer because it is a compilation of all federal laws passed by Congress. It is organized into titles based on different areas of law, such as criminal law, tax law, and civil rights. The US Code is regularly updated to include new laws and amendments, making it the most comprehensive and authoritative source of federal statutes. Bilateral and multilateral agreements, status of force agreements, and the US Constitution are also important legal documents, but they do not contain the entirety of federal statutes.

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82. You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in...

Explanation

Title 18, Section 1385 of the US Code is the correct answer because it contains the actual provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act. This section explicitly states that it is unlawful to use the military to enforce civilian laws, ensuring that the military remains separate from domestic law enforcement. The UCMJ, the Internal Security Act of 1950, and the Manual for Courts-Martial may contain related information, but they do not directly provide the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act.

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83. Laws in the US Code that directly affect the Air Force are covered in...

Explanation

Title 10 of the US Code covers laws that directly affect the Air Force. This title, also known as the "Armed Forces" title, contains provisions related to the organization, structure, and administration of the military, including the Air Force. It outlines the authorities and responsibilities of the Secretary of Defense, the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the various military departments, including the Department of the Air Force. Therefore, Title 10 is the correct answer as it specifically addresses laws that pertain to the Air Force.

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84. What are the common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk?

Explanation

The common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk include inconvenience, resentment, and fear of involvement. This means that the interviewee may feel that participating in the interview is inconvenient for them, they may hold resentment towards the situation or the interviewer, and they may have a fear of getting involved in the process. These factors can contribute to their reluctance to openly communicate during the interview.

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85. How many different job titles are normally present in the typical unit structure?

Explanation

In a typical unit structure, there are normally 34 different job titles present.

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86. When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the state...

Explanation

When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the state, the federal government prevails under the Supremacy Clause. This means that federal law takes precedence over state law in cases where there is a conflict between the two. The Supremacy Clause is a provision in the United States Constitution that establishes the federal government as the ultimate authority in cases of conflicting laws between the federal and state governments. Therefore, in this situation, the federal government would have the authority to prosecute the case.

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87. Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to...

Explanation

Under exclusive jurisdiction, detained civilians are normally relinquished to US Marshals. US Marshals are responsible for the enforcement of federal laws and the protection of federal courts. They have the authority to apprehend fugitives, transport prisoners, and provide security for the federal judiciary. Therefore, when civilians are detained under exclusive jurisdiction, it is the responsibility of US Marshals to take custody of them.

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88. The term "SF Member" is used when...

Explanation

The term "SF Member" is used when performing security functions. This suggests that the term is specific to individuals who are involved in security-related tasks or responsibilities. It implies that when engaging in activities such as safeguarding people, property, or assets, the term "SF Member" is used to address or refer to those individuals. It is likely a designation or title given to those who are part of a security team or organization.

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89. All inmates will have an initial confinement examination within...

Explanation

According to the given options, the correct answer is 24 hours. This means that all inmates will have an initial confinement examination within 24 hours of their arrival. This examination is important to assess the health and condition of the inmates and ensure that any necessary medical care or treatment is provided promptly. It is crucial to conduct this examination within a reasonable time frame to ensure the well-being and safety of the inmates.

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90. When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory it is known as...

Explanation

A military government refers to a situation where an occupying power has complete control and authority over an occupied territory. In such a scenario, the occupying power utilizes military forces to govern and administer the occupied area, making all decisions and implementing policies. This type of government is established to maintain control and ensure compliance with the occupying power's objectives and interests.

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91. The typical SF command section includes all of the following except...

Explanation

The typical SF command section includes various positions responsible for different aspects of security forces operations. The Superintendent, Resources and Training is not typically included in this command section. This position is responsible for managing resources and overseeing training, which are important functions but not directly related to the command and control of security forces. The other positions listed, such as Chief, Security Forces and Standardization and Evaluation, are typically included in the SF command section as they are directly involved in the operational and administrative aspects of security forces. The First Sergeant is also typically included as they provide leadership and support to the security forces unit.

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92. During base defense the S-3 function can be compared to...

Explanation

During base defense, the S-3 function is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the overall operations and planning. Similarly, the Operations Officer position is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the day-to-day operations and planning within an organization. Both roles require a strong understanding of logistics, coordination, and strategic planning. Therefore, the Operations Officer position is a suitable comparison for the S-3 function during base defense.

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93. What year was the name of the career field changed to "Security Police"?

Explanation

In 1966, the name of the career field was changed to "Security Police".

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94. Who is normally responsible for the responsibility center?

Explanation

The squadron commander is normally responsible for the responsibility center. As the leader of the squadron, they have overall authority and accountability for the operations and performance of the unit. They are responsible for setting goals, making decisions, allocating resources, and ensuring the mission is accomplished effectively and efficiently. The squadron commander is also responsible for the welfare and development of the personnel under their command.

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95. What are the four major groups for the transmission of communicable diseases?

Explanation

The four major groups for the transmission of communicable diseases are contact, intestinal, waterborne, and insect and animal-borne. Contact transmission refers to the spread of diseases through direct physical contact with an infected person or their bodily fluids. Intestinal transmission occurs when diseases are transmitted through contaminated food or water. Waterborne transmission refers to the spread of diseases through contaminated water sources. Insect and animal-borne transmission occurs when diseases are transmitted through the bites or contact with infected insects or animals.

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96. Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to...

Explanation

Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes individuals to apprehend civilians for on base offenses. This means that individuals who are authorized under this section have the legal authority to detain civilians who have committed offenses on a military base. This provision ensures that appropriate action can be taken against individuals who violate the law on military premises.

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97. A person who exercises control over property given to them for safe keeping...

Explanation

This person has the authority to give permission for a search to be conducted on the property that has been entrusted to them for safekeeping. They have the power to allow someone else to search the property or they can personally grant consent for the search to take place.

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98. The budget process is broken down into two centers of control...

Explanation

The budget process is divided into two centers of control: cost centers and responsibility center. Cost centers refer to the departments or units within an organization that incur costs but do not directly generate revenue. Responsibility center, on the other hand, is a unit within an organization that is accountable for its own performance and has control over the resources allocated to it. By separating the budget process into these two centers, organizations can effectively allocate resources, monitor costs, and hold responsible units accountable for their performance.

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99. Who can issue off base search procedures in foreign countries?

Explanation

US Magistrates have the authority to issue off base search procedures in foreign countries. They are judicial officers appointed by the United States district courts and have the power to issue warrants, including search warrants, within their jurisdiction. This authority extends to foreign countries when necessary, allowing them to authorize search procedures conducted outside of U.S. territory.

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100. What is the responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM)?

Explanation

The responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM) is to be the commander for the Stan-Eval program. This means that the SFM is in charge of overseeing and managing the Security Forces evaluation program. They are responsible for ensuring that the program is carried out effectively and efficiently, and that all security forces personnel are properly evaluated and trained. The SFM is also responsible for making decisions and implementing changes to improve the program and ensure the security forces are meeting the required standards.

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An effective way of defeating crawling insects is...
What is one of the ways you can prevent the introduction of diseases...
There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress...
What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?
Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the...
Before releasing a MWD to search buildings, the handler must...
Airman Leadership School must be completed prior to...
What can you use to clean your mouth effectively in the absence of...
Miroorganisms in blood that cause disease are?
Under what conditions during a lawful stop can a frisk be conducted?
Most often suicidal persons are overwhelmed with...
In 1971, Security Forces was split into two seperate functions, what...
Individual weapons training programs are outlined in?
What tactics reduce exposure to blood borne pathogens on the job?
The law enforcement specialty was responsible for providing...
Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
The MWD's greatest advantage during security operations is...
Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be...
When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?
The term "Every Airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base...
What is considered the most deadly hazard of the Security Forces...
Prior to March 1971, basic training graduates could be assigned to SP...
Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance...
If a witness is reluctant to talk because of the possible reprisals...
Who determines whether a MWD will search the building on or off-leash?
What is the MWD's role when the riot control team is apprehending...
What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?
Operation SAFESIDE provided Security Police with...
The primary task of the S-4 during combat operations is to...
What exists when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is...
The use of prowords in radio communications help...
The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are...
What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
The SF Shield serves as a figure of...
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that...
Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population...
Hostile intent is best described as...
Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person...
The death of SSgt. Terrance Jensen had what effect?
After Vietnam, what was the next large scale war that Security Police...
The Security Police Shield started out as a/an...
You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued...
What example of international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva...
The Defense Authorization Act authorizes us to assist civil...
The four step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing...
What are the types of interview approaches?
What are the cornerstones of our profession?
Military working dogs are most effective when they are visible to the...
When conducting building checks the MWD is normally...
What are the Rules of Engagement elements of self defense?
Corrections staff personnel should complete or be scheduled to...
When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are...
A written order by a competant military commander ordering a search is...
When SF Members perform law enforcement functions, they are referred...
When was the first trial issue shield approved?
MWD's should be kept on-leash except when the must...
A search affidavit of "Probable Cause" supporting your request for...
Investigators will conduct pre-trial preperation with...
What are the responsibilities of The Chief of Security Forces (CFS)?
What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the Military Working Dog...
The authority,capacity,  power and right of the military to...
US military authority in host nation territories is governed by...
The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS))...
All personel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position...
All inmates are assigned a custody status and classifed as either...
The MWD team should always approach buildings from the...
What is the main reason supply discipline is mandatory?
The Vietnam conflict pointed out the need for...
Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military...
When does your pre-trial preperation begin?
During absolute martial law, Security Forces members have the...
Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of...
Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they...
The single most important source of disease transmission in the...
Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification...
What does the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFEPT)...
Stan-Evals will be conducted within?
Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally...
Which type of interviewee is interviewed to develop facts?
What right could you envoke when apprehending any person for breech of...
Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress and are contained in...
You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in...
Laws in the US Code that directly affect the Air Force are covered...
What are the common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk?
How many different job titles are normally present in the typical unit...
When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the...
Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained...
The term "SF Member" is used when...
All inmates will have an initial confinement examination within...
When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied...
The typical SF command section includes all of the following except...
During base defense the S-3 function can be compared to...
What year was the name of the career field changed to "Security...
Who is normally responsible for the responsibility center?
What are the four major groups for the transmission of communicable...
Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to...
A person who exercises control over property given to them for safe...
The budget process is broken down into two centers of control...
Who can issue off base search procedures in foreign countries?
What is the responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM)?
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