Security Forces CDC's Vol 1 (5 Level)

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Security Forces CDCs Vol 1 (5 Level) - Quiz

A career development course is a mandatory exam for anyone who is planning to join the Air force. How well prepared are you for the final CDC test? Take up the revision quiz to polish up on what you remember and get a high score come the exam. Good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What year was the name of the career field changed to "Security Police"?

    • A.

      1971

    • B.

      1985

    • C.

      1966

    • D.

      1950

    Correct Answer
    C. 1966
    Explanation
    In 1966, the name of the career field was changed to "Security Police".

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  • 2. 

    In 1971, Security Forces was split into two seperate functions, what were these functions?

    • A.

      Police dog units & law enforcement specialties

    • B.

      Law enforcement & security specialties

    • C.

      Security & force protection elements

    • D.

      Security teams & security elements

    Correct Answer
    B. Law enforcement & security specialties
    Explanation
    In 1971, the Security Forces was divided into two separate functions: law enforcement and security specialties. This division allowed for a more focused approach to maintaining law and order within the organization, as well as ensuring the security and protection of personnel and assets. Law enforcement specialties would handle tasks related to enforcing laws and regulations, while security specialties would focus on safeguarding the organization from potential threats and risks. This split allowed for a more efficient and effective operation of the Security Forces.

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  • 3. 

    The law enforcement specialty was responsible for providing...

    • A.

      Weapons storage area security

    • B.

      The protection of personnel only

    • C.

      Duties associated with physical security

    • D.

      The typical police response to safeguard personnel and property

    Correct Answer
    D. The typical police response to safeguard personnel and property
    Explanation
    The given answer correctly states that the law enforcement specialty is responsible for the typical police response to safeguard personnel and property. This means that they are tasked with ensuring the safety and security of individuals and possessions, which includes responding to emergencies, preventing crimes, and implementing measures to protect people and property.

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  • 4. 

    The Vietnam conflict pointed out the need for...

    • A.

      Armored vehicles in support of base defense

    • B.

      Additional security personnel

    • C.

      Less military working dogs

    • D.

      Revised security thinking

    Correct Answer
    D. Revised security thinking
    Explanation
    The Vietnam conflict highlighted the importance of reevaluating and modifying security strategies. The traditional methods of base defense and security personnel were insufficient in addressing the challenges faced during the war. Therefore, the need for revised security thinking arose to develop more effective and adaptable approaches to protect military bases and personnel. This involved considering new tactics, technologies, and strategies to enhance security measures and ensure better preparedness in future conflicts.

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  • 5. 

    The death of SSgt. Terrance Jensen had what effect?

    • A.

      Air Police were no longer posted on the perimeter of air bases

    • B.

      Within 2 months, 149 additional K9 teams were shipped to Vietnam

    • C.

      Air Police leadership was no longer willing to use K9's in base defense roles

    • D.

      It had an adverse public reaction to what Air Force Air Police could accomplish

    Correct Answer
    B. Within 2 months, 149 additional K9 teams were shipped to Vietnam
    Explanation
    The death of SSgt. Terrance Jensen had the effect of prompting the shipment of 149 additional K9 teams to Vietnam within a span of two months.

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  • 6. 

    Operation SAFESIDE provided Security Police with...

    • A.

      Early redeployment from Vietnam

    • B.

      Additional communications equipment

    • C.

      Opportunities to cross-train into other career fields

    • D.

      Training in light infantry tactics and special weapons

    Correct Answer
    D. Training in light infantry tactics and special weapons
    Explanation
    Operation SAFESIDE provided Security Police with training in light infantry tactics and special weapons. This means that the operation aimed to enhance the skills and knowledge of Security Police in combat techniques and the use of specialized weapons. By providing this training, Operation SAFESIDE aimed to improve the capabilities of Security Police in handling security situations that may require a more tactical approach. This training would have prepared Security Police to effectively respond to and mitigate potential threats or attacks.

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  • 7. 

    After Vietnam, what was the next large scale war that Security Police found themselves involved in?

    • A.

      Operation NORTHERN WATCH

    • B.

      Operation DESERT STORM

    • C.

      Operation JUST CAUSE

    • D.

      The Balkan Conflict

    Correct Answer
    B. Operation DESERT STORM
    Explanation
    Operation DESERT STORM was the next large-scale war that Security Police found themselves involved in after Vietnam. Operation DESERT STORM refers to the military operation conducted by the United States and its allies in response to Iraq's invasion of Kuwait in 1990. This operation aimed to liberate Kuwait and protect other Middle Eastern countries from Iraqi aggression. The Security Police played a crucial role in providing security and maintaining law and order during this conflict.

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  • 8. 

    Prior to March 1971, basic training graduates could be assigned to SP units without...

    • A.

      Weapons qualifications

    • B.

      Formal technical training

    • C.

      Meeting Air Force fitness standards

    • D.

      Recieving their full clothing allowance

    Correct Answer
    B. Formal technical training
    Explanation
    Prior to March 1971, basic training graduates could be assigned to SP units without formal technical training. This means that they were not required to undergo specialized training in a specific technical field before being assigned to Security Police (SP) units. They may have received basic training, but they were not required to have any additional technical skills or knowledge in a specific area. This suggests that the Air Force did not consider formal technical training to be a prerequisite for assignment to SP units during that time period.

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  • 9. 

    When SF Members perform law enforcement functions, they are referred to as...

    • A.

      Force Protectors

    • B.

      Security Police

    • C.

      Police Officers

    • D.

      Defenders

    Correct Answer
    B. Security Police
    Explanation
    When SF Members perform law enforcement functions, they are referred to as "Security Police." This term is commonly used to describe members of the military or security forces who are responsible for maintaining law and order, protecting personnel and property, and enforcing regulations and laws on military installations or in specific areas of operation. "Security Police" implies a specialized role within the military or security forces, indicating their primary responsibility for maintaining security and providing law enforcement services.

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  • 10. 

    The term "SF Member" is used when...

    • A.

      Performing law enforcement functions

    • B.

      Communicating on a tactical radio

    • C.

      Performing security functions

    • D.

      Addressing each other

    Correct Answer
    C. Performing security functions
    Explanation
    The term "SF Member" is used when performing security functions. This suggests that the term is specific to individuals who are involved in security-related tasks or responsibilities. It implies that when engaging in activities such as safeguarding people, property, or assets, the term "SF Member" is used to address or refer to those individuals. It is likely a designation or title given to those who are part of a security team or organization.

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  • 11. 

    The SF Shield serves as a figure of...

    • A.

      History

    • B.

      Jurisdiction

    • C.

      Legal authority

    • D.

      Symbol of power

    Correct Answer
    C. Legal authority
    Explanation
    The SF Shield serves as a figure of legal authority because it represents the power and jurisdiction of the San Francisco law enforcement agencies. The shield is a symbol of the law and the authority that comes with it. It is a recognizable emblem that signifies the ability of law enforcement officers to enforce the law and maintain order in the city. The shield is a visual representation of the legal authority vested in the officers who wear it, and it serves as a reminder to the public of the power and responsibility entrusted to these individuals.

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  • 12. 

    The Security Police Shield started out as a/an...

    • A.

      Distinctive hat worn only by Military Police

    • B.

      Military Police/Air Police brassard

    • C.

      4x4 laminated ID card

    • D.

      Air Police function badge

    Correct Answer
    B. Military Police/Air Police brassard
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Military Police/Air Police brassard. A brassard is a type of armband or sleeve worn on the upper arm to identify a person's affiliation or role. In the case of the Military Police/Air Police, the brassard would have been worn to distinguish them from other personnel and indicate their law enforcement duties.

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  • 13. 

    When was the first trial issue shield approved?

    • A.

      1943

    • B.

      1945

    • C.

      1950

    • D.

      1957

    Correct Answer
    D. 1957
  • 14. 

    What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the Military Working Dog Handler apprentice course?

    • A.

      7CO31M

    • B.

      3PO31B

    • C.

      3PO31A

    • D.

      3MWDX1

    Correct Answer
    C. 3PO31A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3PO31A. This AFSC is awarded upon completion of the Military Working Dog Handler apprentice course.

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  • 15. 

    Airman Leadership School must be completed prior to...

    • A.

      The base Education Office

    • B.

      Assuming the rank of SSgt

    • C.

      Awarding of the 5 skill level

    • D.

      Becoming eligible for Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) testing

    Correct Answer
    B. Assuming the rank of SSgt
    Explanation
    Airman Leadership School must be completed prior to assuming the rank of SSgt. This means that individuals who want to be promoted to the rank of Staff Sergeant must first complete Airman Leadership School. This course is designed to develop leadership skills and prepare airmen for increased responsibilities at the NCO (Non-Commissioned Officer) level. By completing this school, airmen demonstrate their readiness to take on the role of a Staff Sergeant and fulfill the duties and expectations associated with that rank.

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  • 16. 

    Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

    • A.

      Code of Conduct only

    • B.

      SF General Orders only

    • C.

      Code of Conduct and SF General Orders

    • D.

      Performance Fitness Examination

    Correct Answer
    C. Code of Conduct and SF General Orders
    Explanation
    The Code of Conduct and SF General Orders are both forms of guidance that ensure mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct provides a set of ethical principles and standards that members of the military must adhere to in order to maintain their integrity and uphold the values of their organization. SF General Orders, on the other hand, provide specific instructions and regulations that govern the behavior and actions of military personnel in the performance of their duties. By following both the Code of Conduct and SF General Orders, individuals can ensure that they are acting in accordance with the guidelines set forth by their organization and contribute to the successful completion of their mission.

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  • 17. 

    What are the cornerstones of our profession?

    • A.

      Integrity and Behavior

    • B.

      Ethics and Attitude

    • C.

      Attitude and Behavior

    • D.

      Ethics and Integrity

    Correct Answer
    D. Ethics and Integrity
    Explanation
    Ethics and integrity are the cornerstones of any profession. Ethics refers to the moral principles and values that guide our behavior and decision-making, ensuring that we act in a responsible and honest manner. Integrity, on the other hand, refers to the quality of being honest, trustworthy, and having strong moral principles. Together, ethics and integrity form the foundation of a profession, as they ensure that professionals act in a manner that is ethical, responsible, and in the best interest of their clients or stakeholders.

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  • 18. 

    You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a ticket based on the violater's race?

    • A.

      Seeking favors

    • B.

      Exercising authority

    • C.

      Assistance to others

    • D.

      Personal attitudes

    Correct Answer
    D. Personal attitudes
    Explanation
    If you issued a ticket based on the violater's race, you have failed to follow the general conduct guideline of personal attitudes. Personal attitudes should not influence decisions or actions in a professional setting, especially when it comes to law enforcement. Issuing a ticket based on race is discriminatory and goes against the principles of fairness and equality. It is important to treat individuals impartially and without bias, regardless of their race or any other personal characteristic.

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  • 19. 

    Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with...

    • A.

      AFI 31-205, The Air Force Corrections Program

    • B.

      AFI 31-206, Security Forces Investigation Program

    • C.

      AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel

    • D.

      AFI 31-301, Air Base Defense

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel
    Explanation
    Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This document provides guidelines and regulations regarding the arming and use of force by Air Force personnel. It ensures that personnel are trained and authorized to use force when necessary and outlines the proper procedures for apprehending suspects. Following this AFI ensures that apprehensions are conducted in a lawful and effective manner, promoting the safety and security of all involved.

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  • 20. 

    How many different job titles are normally present in the typical unit structure?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      34

    • D.

      40

    Correct Answer
    C. 34
    Explanation
    In a typical unit structure, there are normally 34 different job titles present.

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  • 21. 

    The typical SF command section includes all of the following except...

    • A.

      Superintendent, Resources and Training

    • B.

      Standardization and Evaluation

    • C.

      Chief, Security Forces

    • D.

      First Sergeant

    Correct Answer
    A. Superintendent, Resources and Training
    Explanation
    The typical SF command section includes various positions responsible for different aspects of security forces operations. The Superintendent, Resources and Training is not typically included in this command section. This position is responsible for managing resources and overseeing training, which are important functions but not directly related to the command and control of security forces. The other positions listed, such as Chief, Security Forces and Standardization and Evaluation, are typically included in the SF command section as they are directly involved in the operational and administrative aspects of security forces. The First Sergeant is also typically included as they provide leadership and support to the security forces unit.

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  • 22. 

    When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated...

    • A.

      Flight Administrators

    • B.

      Flight Commanders

    • C.

      Operations Officers

    • D.

      Flight Chiefs

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight Commanders
    Explanation
    When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated as Flight Commanders. This term is used to describe the officers who have the responsibility and authority to oversee and manage the operations of the flights. They are in charge of ensuring that the flights are conducted safely, efficiently, and in accordance with the established protocols and procedures. The title of Flight Commander signifies their leadership role and their position of authority within the flight operations.

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  • 23. 

    The term "Every Airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" is the concept of...

    • A.

      Principles of War

    • B.

      Rules of Engagement

    • C.

      Intergrated Base Defense

    • D.

      Defense Force Doctrine

    Correct Answer
    C. Intergrated Base Defense
    Explanation
    The term "Every Airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" refers to the concept of Integrated Base Defense. This concept emphasizes the idea that every individual in the Air Force plays a crucial role in detecting and reporting potential threats to the base's overall defense. It recognizes that every Airman has a responsibility to be vigilant and contribute to the overall security and protection of the base. This concept promotes a collective and integrated approach to base defense, where everyone is actively involved in maintaining the safety and security of the base.

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  • 24. 

    During base defense the S-3 function can be compared to...

    • A.

      Base defense supply

    • B.

      Commanders support staff

    • C.

      The Operations Officer position

    • D.

      Intelligence Analyst position

    Correct Answer
    C. The Operations Officer position
    Explanation
    During base defense, the S-3 function is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the overall operations and planning. Similarly, the Operations Officer position is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the day-to-day operations and planning within an organization. Both roles require a strong understanding of logistics, coordination, and strategic planning. Therefore, the Operations Officer position is a suitable comparison for the S-3 function during base defense.

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  • 25. 

    The primary task of the S-4 during combat operations is to...

    • A.

      Armory duties

    • B.

      Supply and resupply

    • C.

      Intelligence gathering

    • D.

      Radio/telephone operator duties

    Correct Answer
    B. Supply and resupply
    Explanation
    The primary task of the S-4 during combat operations is to handle supply and resupply. This means that they are responsible for ensuring that the troops have the necessary equipment, ammunition, and resources to carry out their missions effectively. They work closely with logistics and transportation units to coordinate the delivery of supplies to the frontlines. This role is crucial in maintaining the operational readiness of the military forces and ensuring that they have the necessary support to sustain themselves during combat.

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  • 26. 

    The authority,capacity,  power and right of the military to police their own is known as...

    • A.

      Military presence

    • B.

      Military jurisdiction

    • C.

      Legal precedence

    • D.

      Military law

    Correct Answer
    B. Military jurisdiction
    Explanation
    Military jurisdiction refers to the authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to enforce laws and regulations within their own ranks. It allows the military to maintain discipline, order, and accountability among its members. This jurisdiction ensures that military personnel are subject to a separate legal system that is tailored to the unique needs and requirements of the armed forces. It enables the military to investigate, prosecute, and punish offenses committed by military personnel, ensuring that they are held accountable for their actions.

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  • 27. 

    Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the U.S. Armed Forces?

    • A.

      UCMJ

    • B.

      US Constitution

    • C.

      Federal Statutes

    • D.

      International law

    Correct Answer
    A. UCMJ
    Explanation
    The correct answer is UCMJ because it stands for the Uniform Code of Military Justice, which is a legal document that applies to all branches of the U.S. Armed Forces. It outlines the laws and regulations that govern the behavior and conduct of military personnel, including offenses such as desertion, insubordination, and misconduct. The UCMJ ensures discipline, order, and justice within the military and is an essential component of military law.

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  • 28. 

    Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress and are contained in the...

    • A.

      Bilateral and multilateral agreements

    • B.

      Status of Force Agreements

    • C.

      US Constitution

    • D.

      US Code

    Correct Answer
    D. US Code
    Explanation
    The US Code is the correct answer because it is a compilation of all federal laws passed by Congress. It is organized into titles based on different areas of law, such as criminal law, tax law, and civil rights. The US Code is regularly updated to include new laws and amendments, making it the most comprehensive and authoritative source of federal statutes. Bilateral and multilateral agreements, status of force agreements, and the US Constitution are also important legal documents, but they do not contain the entirety of federal statutes.

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  • 29. 

    Laws in the US Code that directly affect the Air Force are covered in...

    • A.

      Title 2

    • B.

      Titles 4-6

    • C.

      Title 10

    • D.

      Title 18

    Correct Answer
    C. Title 10
    Explanation
    Title 10 of the US Code covers laws that directly affect the Air Force. This title, also known as the "Armed Forces" title, contains provisions related to the organization, structure, and administration of the military, including the Air Force. It outlines the authorities and responsibilities of the Secretary of Defense, the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the various military departments, including the Department of the Air Force. Therefore, Title 10 is the correct answer as it specifically addresses laws that pertain to the Air Force.

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  • 30. 

    US military authority in host nation territories is governed by...

    • A.

      Federal statutes

    • B.

      US Constitution

    • C.

      Article 2/UCMJ

    • D.

      Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)

    Correct Answer
    D. Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA). SOFAs are bilateral agreements between the United States and host nations that define the legal status and rights of U.S. military personnel deployed in those countries. These agreements outline the jurisdictional authority, immunities, and privileges granted to U.S. military personnel, as well as the obligations and responsibilities of both parties. SOFAs ensure that U.S. military authority in host nation territories is governed by mutually agreed-upon rules and regulations, providing a legal framework for the presence and operations of U.S. forces abroad.

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  • 31. 

    What example of international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva Conventions?

    • A.

      Law of Armed Conflict

    • B.

      MCM Title 10 statutes

    • C.

      SOFA agreements

    • D.

      Rules of War

    Correct Answer
    A. Law of Armed Conflict
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Law of Armed Conflict. The Hague and Geneva Conventions are two major treaties that form the foundation of the Law of Armed Conflict. These conventions establish rules and principles for the conduct of armed conflicts, including the protection of civilians, prisoners of war, and the wounded. They also regulate the use of certain weapons and prohibit certain tactics. The Law of Armed Conflict is essential in maintaining humanitarian standards during times of war and ensuring the protection of individuals affected by armed conflicts.

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  • 32. 

    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are...

    • A.

      Concurrent, current & proprietary

    • B.

      Partial, exclusive, bilateral & concurrent

    • C.

      Exclusive, concurrent, partial & propietary

    • D.

      Exclusive, concurrent, propietary & multilateral

    Correct Answer
    C. Exclusive, concurrent, partial & propietary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is exclusive, concurrent, partial & proprietary. This means that on US government installations, there are certain areas where jurisdiction is exclusively held by the federal government, while in other areas, jurisdiction is shared between the federal government and the state or local government. Additionally, there may be partial jurisdiction where certain aspects are controlled by the federal government and others by the state or local government. Finally, there may be proprietary jurisdiction, which refers to areas that are owned and controlled by the federal government.

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  • 33. 

    When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the state...

    • A.

      The federal government prevails under the Supremacy Clause

    • B.

      The federal government must share prosecution rights

    • C.

      National security concerns must take precedence

    • D.

      The state has priority to prosecute

    Correct Answer
    A. The federal government prevails under the Supremacy Clause
    Explanation
    When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the state, the federal government prevails under the Supremacy Clause. This means that federal law takes precedence over state law in cases where there is a conflict between the two. The Supremacy Clause is a provision in the United States Constitution that establishes the federal government as the ultimate authority in cases of conflicting laws between the federal and state governments. Therefore, in this situation, the federal government would have the authority to prosecute the case.

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  • 34. 

    When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory it is known as...

    • A.

      A proprietary government

    • B.

      A military government

    • C.

      Nationalist regime

    • D.

      A military state

    Correct Answer
    B. A military government
    Explanation
    A military government refers to a situation where an occupying power has complete control and authority over an occupied territory. In such a scenario, the occupying power utilizes military forces to govern and administer the occupied area, making all decisions and implementing policies. This type of government is established to maintain control and ensure compliance with the occupying power's objectives and interests.

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  • 35. 

    Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population...

    • A.

      When directed by the Joint Chiefs of Staff

    • B.

      During government elections

    • C.

      When declared by state governors

    • D.

      In a time of emergency

    Correct Answer
    D. In a time of emergency
    Explanation
    Martial law is the imposition of military control over the civilian population in times of emergency. This means that during a crisis or emergency situation, the military takes over the authority and power to maintain law and order, often suspending normal civil rights and freedoms. It is not dependent on government elections or the direction of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, but rather is declared by state governors or other appropriate authorities in response to an emergency.

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  • 36. 

    Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?

    • A.

      Qualified

    • B.

      Exclusive

    • C.

      Military law

    • D.

      Absolute

    Correct Answer
    D. Absolute
    Explanation
    Absolute martial law exists when military authority completely replaces civil authority. In this type of martial law, the military has complete control over all aspects of governance and decision-making, overriding the role of civilian institutions and laws. This means that military personnel have the power to enforce laws, maintain order, and make decisions without any interference or oversight from civilian authorities. Absolute martial law is characterized by a suspension of civil rights and liberties, as the military takes on a dominant role in governing the country.

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  • 37. 

    During absolute martial law, Security Forces members have the authority to...

    • A.

      Detain civilians

    • B.

      Apprehend all offenders

    • C.

      Apprehend military personnel

    • D.

      Detain and prosecute offenders

    Correct Answer
    B. Apprehend all offenders
    Explanation
    During absolute martial law, Security Forces members have the authority to apprehend all offenders. This means that they can take into custody anyone who is found guilty of committing a crime or violating the law, regardless of whether they are civilians or military personnel. This broad authority allows the Security Forces to maintain control and order during a state of martial law, ensuring that all individuals who break the law are apprehended and held accountable for their actions.

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  • 38. 

    Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?

    • A.

      Article 134

    • B.

      Article 7b

    • C.

      Article 1

    • D.

      Article 5

    Correct Answer
    B. Article 7b
    Explanation
    Article 7b of the UCMJ gives military personnel the authority to apprehend military offenders. This article outlines the specific circumstances and conditions under which military personnel can exercise their authority to apprehend and detain individuals who have violated military laws. It provides guidelines and procedures to ensure that apprehensions are conducted lawfully and in accordance with military regulations.

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  • 39. 

    Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to...

    • A.

      Act in an official law enforcement capacity off base

    • B.

      Apprehend civilians for on base offenses

    • C.

      Release military offenders to supervisors

    • D.

      Detain civilians for on base offenses

    Correct Answer
    B. Apprehend civilians for on base offenses
    Explanation
    Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes individuals to apprehend civilians for on base offenses. This means that individuals who are authorized under this section have the legal authority to detain civilians who have committed offenses on a military base. This provision ensures that appropriate action can be taken against individuals who violate the law on military premises.

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  • 40. 

    Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to...

    • A.

      US Army Military Police

    • B.

      US Marshals

    • C.

      City police

    • D.

      County sheriff's

    Correct Answer
    B. US Marshals
    Explanation
    Under exclusive jurisdiction, detained civilians are normally relinquished to US Marshals. US Marshals are responsible for the enforcement of federal laws and the protection of federal courts. They have the authority to apprehend fugitives, transport prisoners, and provide security for the federal judiciary. Therefore, when civilians are detained under exclusive jurisdiction, it is the responsibility of US Marshals to take custody of them.

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  • 41. 

    What right could you envoke when apprehending any person for breech of peace?

    • A.

      Code of Conduct

    • B.

      Title 10, US Code

    • C.

      Self-defense right

    • D.

      Citizens right of arrest

    Correct Answer
    D. Citizens right of arrest
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Citizens right of arrest." When apprehending a person for breach of peace, citizens have the right to make a citizen's arrest. This means that they can detain the individual until law enforcement arrives. This right allows citizens to take immediate action to prevent further harm or disturbance to the public. However, it is important to note that the exact laws and regulations regarding citizen's arrests may vary depending on the jurisdiction.

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  • 42. 

    You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in...

    • A.

      The UCMJ

    • B.

      The Internal Security Act of 1950

    • C.

      Title 18, Section 1385 US Code

    • D.

      The Manual for Courts-Martial

    Correct Answer
    C. Title 18, Section 1385 US Code
    Explanation
    Title 18, Section 1385 of the US Code is the correct answer because it contains the actual provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act. This section explicitly states that it is unlawful to use the military to enforce civilian laws, ensuring that the military remains separate from domestic law enforcement. The UCMJ, the Internal Security Act of 1950, and the Manual for Courts-Martial may contain related information, but they do not directly provide the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act.

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  • 43. 

    The Defense Authorization Act authorizes us to assist civil authorities by providing...

    • A.

      Air Force vehicles and fuel

    • B.

      Funding for civilian law enforcement use

    • C.

      Information, equipment, facilities & training

    • D.

      Security Forces with civilian law enforcement positions

    Correct Answer
    C. Information, equipment, facilities & training
    Explanation
    The Defense Authorization Act authorizes us to assist civil authorities by providing information, equipment, facilities, and training. This means that the act allows us to share important information, supply necessary equipment, provide access to facilities, and offer training to support civil authorities in their efforts. This assistance can help enhance their capabilities and effectiveness in dealing with various situations and challenges they may face.

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  • 44. 

    Military working dogs are most effective when they are visible to the public; we ensure this by...

    • A.

      Conducting periodic public demonstrations

    • B.

      Patrolling MWD's in civilian housing areas

    • C.

      Randomly searching vehicles at base gates

    • D.

      Searching elementary schools

    Correct Answer
    A. Conducting periodic public demonstrations
    Explanation
    Conducting periodic public demonstrations is the most effective way to ensure that military working dogs are visible to the public. These demonstrations allow the public to see the capabilities and skills of the dogs, which can help build trust and confidence in their abilities. Additionally, it serves as a form of outreach and education, as it provides an opportunity for the public to learn about the important role that these dogs play in military operations. By conducting these demonstrations, the military can showcase the effectiveness and value of their working dogs to the public.

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  • 45. 

    MWD's should be kept on-leash except when the must...

    • A.

      Search occupied buildings

    • B.

      Bite and hold multiple suspects

    • C.

      Search unoccupied buildings and disperse crowds

    • D.

      Bite and hol a suspect or search an unoccupied building

    Correct Answer
    D. Bite and hol a suspect or search an unoccupied building
    Explanation
    MWD's (Military Working Dogs) should be kept on-leash unless they need to bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building. This means that in situations where there is a need to apprehend a suspect or search a building that is not occupied, the MWD can be off-leash. However, in all other circumstances, they should remain on-leash for control and safety purposes.

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  • 46. 

    Before releasing a MWD to search buildings, the handler must...

    • A.

      Give a verbal warning stating they are about to realeas the dog

    • B.

      Loudly announce their intentions to order the dog to bite

    • C.

      Place the MWD on a long leash

    • D.

      Have the dog bark three times

    Correct Answer
    A. Give a verbal warning stating they are about to realeas the dog
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog. This is important because it helps to ensure the safety of the individuals inside the building. By giving a verbal warning, people inside the building will be aware that a dog is being released and can take appropriate action to avoid any potential harm. This also allows the handler to maintain control over the situation and ensure that the dog is being deployed in a controlled and safe manner.

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  • 47. 

    When conducting building checks the MWD is normally...

    • A.

      On-leash

    • B.

      Off-Leash

    • C.

      On a long leash

    • D.

      Left in the vehicle

    Correct Answer
    A. On-leash
    Explanation
    When conducting building checks, it is important for the MWD (Military Working Dog) to be on-leash. This ensures that the dog remains under control and can be easily managed by the handler. Being on-leash also helps to prevent the dog from wandering off or getting into potentially dangerous situations. Additionally, having the MWD on-leash allows for better communication and coordination between the handler and the dog during the building check operation.

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  • 48. 

    The MWD team should always approach buildings from the...

    • A.

      Upwind side

    • B.

      Downwind side

    • C.

      Crosswind direction

    • D.

      Front side or street side

    Correct Answer
    B. Downwind side
    Explanation
    The MWD team should always approach buildings from the downwind side. This is because if there is a hazardous material release or fire, the wind will carry the smoke, fumes, or flames in the direction of the wind. Approaching from the downwind side ensures that the team is not directly in the path of these hazards, minimizing their exposure and allowing for a safer approach to the building.

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  • 49. 

    Who determines whether a MWD will search the building on or off-leash?

    • A.

      On duty supervisor and handler

    • B.

      Chief, Security Forces

    • C.

      Operations officer

    • D.

      Kennel master

    Correct Answer
    A. On duty supervisor and handler
    Explanation
    The on duty supervisor and handler are responsible for determining whether a MWD (Military Working Dog) will search the building on or off-leash. This decision is crucial as it affects the safety and effectiveness of the search operation. The on duty supervisor and handler have the necessary expertise and experience to assess the situation and make the appropriate decision based on factors such as the specific mission, the behavior and training of the dog, and the potential risks involved. They work together as a team to ensure the successful execution of the search operation.

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  • 50. 

    The MWD's greatest advantage during security operations is...

    • A.

      The MWD's ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions

    • B.

      Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility

    • C.

      The team's ability to work alone

    • D.

      It's quick response capability

    Correct Answer
    B. Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility
    Explanation
    The MWD's greatest advantage during security operations is its detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility. This means that even in foggy or rainy conditions, the MWD is able to effectively detect threats and assist in security operations. This ability is crucial in maintaining security and ensuring the safety of individuals involved in such operations.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 11, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Airmangill
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