1W0510 CDC Practice Test B Set Book 3

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1W0510 CDC Practice Test B Set Book 3


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Under Wien’s Law, on what is the wavelength of the maximum irradiance of a black body dependent?

    • A.

      Temperature

    • B.

      Wavelength

    • C.

      Color

    • D.

      Distance

    Correct Answer
    A. Temperature
    Explanation
    Wien's Law states that the wavelength of the maximum irradiance of a black body is dependent on its temperature. As the temperature of a black body increases, the wavelength of the maximum irradiance decreases. This means that at higher temperatures, the black body emits more energy at shorter wavelengths, such as ultraviolet or blue light. Conversely, at lower temperatures, the black body emits more energy at longer wavelengths, such as infrared or red light. Therefore, the correct answer is temperature.

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  • 2. 

    Explain Planck’s law.

    • A.

      The amount of radiation emitted by a black body at a given wavelength is proportional to its temperature

    • B.

      The amount of radiation emitted by a black body at a given wavelength is inversely proportional to its temperature

    • C.

      The amount of radiation emitted by a black body at a given wavelength is proportional to its distance

    • D.

      The amount of radiation emitted by a black body at a given wavelength is proportional to its size

    Correct Answer
    A. The amount of radiation emitted by a black body at a given wavelength is proportional to its temperature
    Explanation
    Planck's law states that the amount of radiation emitted by a black body at a given wavelength is proportional to its temperature. This means that as the temperature of a black body increases, the amount of radiation it emits also increases. Conversely, as the temperature decreases, the amount of radiation emitted decreases. This relationship is important in understanding the behavior of black bodies and the distribution of their emitted radiation across different wavelengths.

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  • 3. 

    What METSAT function allows systems to be put in motion?

    • A.

      Animated Looping

    • B.

      Circular Motion

    • C.

      Anthresis

    • D.

      Satellite Visibility Function

    Correct Answer
    A. Animated Looping
    Explanation
    The METSAT function that allows systems to be put in motion is Animated Looping. This function enables the animation of satellite imagery by displaying a sequence of images in a loop, creating the illusion of motion. It is commonly used in weather forecasting and analysis to track the movement of weather systems and phenomena over time.

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  • 4. 

    What is the inclination angle of the polar orbiting satellites?

    • A.

      The inclination angle (88.7°)

    • B.

      The inclination angle (98.7°)

    • C.

      The inclination angle (78.7°)

    • D.

      The inclination angle (108.7°)

    Correct Answer
    B. The inclination angle (98.7°)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the inclination angle (98.7°). The inclination angle refers to the angle between the orbital plane of a satellite and the equator of the Earth. In this case, the polar orbiting satellites have an inclination angle of 98.7°, which means that their orbital planes are almost perpendicular to the equator. This allows the satellites to cover a wide range of latitudes and provide global coverage for various applications such as weather monitoring and Earth observation.

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  • 5. 

    Of what areas do polar orbiting satellites provide coverage?

    • A.

      Approximately 472 nautical miles (nm), allow for global coverage every 4 hours

    • B.

      Approximately 472 nautical miles (nm), allow for global coverage every 8 hours

    • C.

      Approximately 472 nautical miles (nm), allow for global coverage every 12 hours

    • D.

      Approximately 472 nautical miles (nm), allow for global coverage every 6 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. Approximately 472 nautical miles (nm), allow for global coverage every 12 hours
    Explanation
    Polar orbiting satellites provide coverage in an area of approximately 472 nautical miles (nm). They allow for global coverage every 12 hours. This means that the satellite will pass over every point on the Earth's surface within a 472 nm radius every 12 hours, providing comprehensive global coverage.

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  • 6. 

    Geosynchronous satellites orbit the earth at the same angular velocity as what?

    • A.

      The Moon

    • B.

      The Earth

    • C.

      Other Satellites

    • D.

      The Speed of Sound

    Correct Answer
    B. The Earth
    Explanation
    Geosynchronous satellites orbit the earth at the same angular velocity as the Earth itself. This means that they complete one orbit around the Earth in the same amount of time it takes for the Earth to rotate once on its axis. This allows the satellites to remain in a fixed position relative to the Earth's surface, making them ideal for applications such as communication and weather monitoring.

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  • 7. 

    Which satellite allows you to loop imagery to follow fronts, lows, severe weather, and many other cloud and non-cloud features?

    • A.

      Polar Satewllites

    • B.

      Visible Satellites

    • C.

      Orbital

    • D.

      Geostationary Satellites

    Correct Answer
    D. Geostationary Satellites
    Explanation
    Geostationary satellites are positioned in a fixed location above the Earth's equator, allowing them to continuously observe a specific area on the Earth's surface. This makes them ideal for tracking weather patterns such as fronts, lows, and severe weather, as well as other cloud and non-cloud features. Unlike polar satellites, which orbit the Earth and only pass over a specific area a few times a day, geostationary satellites provide a constant view of the same region, allowing for the looping of imagery and real-time monitoring of weather conditions.

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  • 8. 

    What frequencies have two channels to include both horizontal and vertical polarizations?

    • A.

      37 and 85.5GHz

    • B.

      19.3 and 37GHz

    • C.

      19.3 and 85.5GHz

    • D.

      19.3, 37, and 85.5GHz

    Correct Answer
    D. 19.3, 37, and 85.5GHz
    Explanation
    The frequencies 19.3, 37, and 85.5GHz have two channels to include both horizontal and vertical polarizations.

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  • 9. 

    How long does it take the SSM/I sensor to complete one complete revolution of the globe?

    • A.

      98

    • B.

      102

    • C.

      64

    • D.

      96

    Correct Answer
    B. 102
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 102. This is because the SSM/I sensor takes approximately 102 minutes to complete one complete revolution of the globe.

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  • 10. 

    What is the scan width ( in degrees)covered by SSM/I at the earth’s surface?

    • A.

      45

    • B.

      90

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      35

    Correct Answer
    A. 45
    Explanation
    SSM/I (Special Sensor Microwave/Imager) is a satellite-based instrument that measures microwave radiation emitted by the Earth's surface. The scan width refers to the extent of the area covered by the instrument's scanning mechanism. In this case, the correct answer of 45 degrees means that SSM/I can capture microwave radiation from a width of 45 degrees on the Earth's surface.

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  • 11. 

    How accurate (by kelvins) are brightness temperatures for SDRs?

    • A.

      Within 1

    • B.

      Within 3

    • C.

      Within 7

    • D.

      Within 5

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "within 1". This indicates that the accuracy of brightness temperatures for SDRs is within 1 kelvin. In other words, the measured brightness temperatures are expected to be within a range of ±1 kelvin from the actual values.

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  • 12. 

    Why is the exact location of the anticyclone’s circulation center difficult to place?

    • A.

      Because anticyclones are fast moving features

    • B.

      Because anticyclones are slow moving features

    • C.

      Because anticyclones are nearly invisible features

    • D.

      Because anticyclones are large, broad features

    Correct Answer
    D. Because anticyclones are large, broad features
  • 13. 

    What should you look for on infrared imagery to indicate that precipitation is increasing?

    • A.

      Rapidly shrinking and heating cloud tops are an indication precipitation will increase.

    • B.

      Rapidly expanding and heating cloud tops are an indication precipitation will increase.

    • C.

      Rapidly shrinking and cooling cloud tops are an indication precipitation will increase.

    • D.

      Rapidly expanding and cooling cloud tops are an indication precipitation will increase.

    Correct Answer
    D. Rapidly expanding and cooling cloud tops are an indication precipitation will increase.
    Explanation
    Rapidly expanding and cooling cloud tops are an indication that precipitation is increasing. As the cloud tops expand, it suggests that the cloud is growing and becoming more turbulent, which is often associated with an increase in precipitation. Additionally, the cooling of the cloud tops indicates that the cloud is reaching higher altitudes, where temperatures are colder, and this can lead to the formation of ice crystals and ultimately precipitation.

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  • 14. 

    What type of cloud pattern is the first indicator a short-wave trough is interacting with a frontal boundary?

    • A.

      A slight “V” shape developing on the cold-air side of the cloud pattern.

    • B.

      A slight “S” shape developing on the cold-air side of the cloud pattern.

    • C.

      A slight “L” shape developing on the cold-air side of the cloud pattern.

    • D.

      A slight “D” shape developing on the cold-air side of the cloud pattern.

    Correct Answer
    B. A slight “S” shape developing on the cold-air side of the cloud pattern.
    Explanation
    A slight "S" shape developing on the cold-air side of the cloud pattern is the first indicator that a short-wave trough is interacting with a frontal boundary.

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  • 15. 

    A theoretically perfect absorber and emitter of radiation is

    • A.

      A gray body.

    • B.

      A black body.

    • C.

      A white body.

    • D.

      An electromagnetic body.

    Correct Answer
    B. A black body.
    Explanation
    A black body is a theoretical object that absorbs all incoming radiation and emits radiation at all wavelengths. It is considered a perfect absorber and emitter of radiation because it absorbs all radiation incident on it, regardless of the wavelength or angle of incidence. This property makes it an ideal reference for studying radiation and thermal equilibrium. A gray body, on the other hand, absorbs and emits radiation to some extent but not as perfectly as a black body. A white body reflects most of the incident radiation and does not absorb or emit it efficiently. An electromagnetic body is not a specific term used to describe an object's radiation properties.

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  • 16. 

    The ratio of the total amount of radiation reflected from an object to the total amount of incident radiation is called

    • A.

      Emissivity.

    • B.

      Scattering.

    • C.

      Reflectivity

    • D.

      Absorptivity.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reflectivity
    Explanation
    Reflectivity refers to the ratio of the total amount of radiation reflected from an object to the total amount of incident radiation. This means that reflectivity measures how much of the incident radiation is reflected back from the object.

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  • 17. 

    Which law says that the amount of radiation emitted by a black body at a given wavelength is proportional to its temperature?

    • A.

      Stefan’s law.

    • B.

      Kirchoff’s law.

    • C.

      Planck’s law.

    • D.

      Wien displacement law.

    Correct Answer
    C. Planck’s law.
    Explanation
    Planck's law states that the amount of radiation emitted by a black body at a given wavelength is proportional to its temperature. This law was formulated by Max Planck in 1900 and is a fundamental principle in quantum physics. It explains the relationship between the intensity and wavelength of radiation emitted by a black body at different temperatures.

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  • 18. 

    Meteorological satellite (METSAT) imagery is more advantageous than synoptic reports because it

    • A.

      Is less contaminated by raw data.

    • B.

      Is a forecast that occurs more frequently.

    • C.

      Is an observation that occurs more frequently.

    • D.

      Shows areas of high temperature and moisture relationships.

    Correct Answer
    C. Is an observation that occurs more frequently.
    Explanation
    Meteorological satellite imagery provides continuous observations of the Earth's atmosphere, allowing for more frequent updates compared to synoptic reports which are typically released only a few times a day. This frequent observation is advantageous as it provides more up-to-date information about weather conditions, allowing for better monitoring and forecasting of weather patterns.

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  • 19. 

    The geosynchronous satellite stays in position because of a combination of

    • A.

      Angular velocity and centripetal force.

    • B.

      Angular velocity and centrifugal force.

    • C.

      Centripetal force and gravity.

    • D.

      Centrifugal force and gravity.

    Correct Answer
    D. Centrifugal force and gravity.
    Explanation
    The geosynchronous satellite stays in position due to a combination of centrifugal force and gravity. Centrifugal force is the outward force experienced by an object moving in a circular path, and it counteracts the inward force of gravity. The satellite's angular velocity allows it to maintain a constant speed and orbit, while the centrifugal force balances the gravitational force, preventing the satellite from falling towards the Earth. Therefore, the combination of centrifugal force and gravity keeps the geosynchronous satellite in its position.

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  • 20. 

    Which is not a geosynchronous satellite?

    • A.

      Meteorological Satellite (METEOSAT).

    • B.

      Defense Meteorological Satellite Program (DMSP) satellite.

    • C.

      Geostationary Meteorological Satellite (GMS).

    • D.

      Geosynchronous Operational Environmental Satellite (GOES).

    Correct Answer
    B. Defense Meteorological Satellite Program (DMSP) satellite.
    Explanation
    The Defense Meteorological Satellite Program (DMSP) satellite is not a geosynchronous satellite because it is part of a polar orbiting satellite system. Geosynchronous satellites orbit the Earth at the same speed as the Earth's rotation, allowing them to remain fixed over a specific location on the Earth's surface. The other options, Meteorological Satellite (METEOSAT), Geostationary Meteorological Satellite (GMS), and Geosynchronous Operational Environmental Satellite (GOES), are all examples of geosynchronous satellites that are used for weather monitoring and forecasting.

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  • 21. 

    Which is a factor that affects the amount of brightness measured by visible meteorological satellite (METSAT) imagery?

    • A.

      Types of radiative transfer taking place.

    • B.

      Type of passive remote sensing device on the satellite.

    • C.

      Angle of the sun.

    • D.

      Type of multispectral color-composite imagery involved.

    Correct Answer
    C. Angle of the sun.
    Explanation
    The angle of the sun affects the amount of brightness measured by visible meteorological satellite (METSAT) imagery. This is because the angle at which the sun's rays hit the Earth's atmosphere and surface can impact the amount of light that is reflected or absorbed. When the sun is directly overhead, the imagery will appear brighter as more sunlight is reflected back to the satellite. However, when the sun is at a lower angle, the imagery may appear darker as more sunlight is scattered or absorbed by the atmosphere.

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  • 22. 

    Most meteorological satellite (METSAT) sensors are designed so that the visual imagery is a combination of

    • A.

      Near and far infrared wave lengths.

    • B.

      Visual and near infrared wave lengths.

    • C.

      Water vapor and far infrared wave lengths.

    • D.

      Visual and far infrared wave lengths.

    Correct Answer
    B. Visual and near infrared wave lengths.
    Explanation
    Meteorological satellites (METSAT) sensors are designed to capture visual imagery using a combination of visual and near infrared wavelengths. This combination allows for a more comprehensive understanding of weather patterns and atmospheric conditions. Visual wavelengths provide information about cloud cover, while near infrared wavelengths help to identify temperature differences and moisture content in the atmosphere. By using both visual and near infrared wavelengths, meteorologists can gather more accurate data for weather forecasting and analysis.

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  • 23. 

    With water vapor (WV) imagery, why do middle and high-level moisture affect the sensor much more than low-level moisture?

    • A.

      Absorption is highest between 610 to 240mb.

    • B.

      Absorption is lowest between 610 to 240 millibars (mb).

    • C.

      Reflectivity is lowest between 610 to 240mb.

    • D.

      Reflectivity is highest between 610 to 240mb.

    Correct Answer
    A. Absorption is highest between 610 to 240mb.
    Explanation
    Water vapor imagery measures the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere. Middle and high-level moisture refers to moisture at altitudes between 610 to 240 millibars (mb). At these altitudes, the water vapor molecules absorb more of the incoming radiation, causing a higher absorption of the sensor's signal. This absorption leads to a decrease in the amount of radiation reaching the sensor, resulting in a stronger signal and a clearer depiction of moisture at those altitudes. On the other hand, low-level moisture at altitudes below 610mb does not absorb as much radiation, causing a weaker signal and less accurate depiction of moisture.

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  • 24. 

    Which is not a use for water vapor imagery?

    • A.

      Identifying potential thunderstorm areas.

    • B.

      Determining the polar front (PFJ) and subtropical jets (STJ).

    • C.

      Identifying circulation centers, troughs, ridges, and wind maximums.

    • D.

      Determining the thickness of mid and upper-level clouds.

    Correct Answer
    D. Determining the thickness of mid and upper-level clouds.
    Explanation
    Water vapor imagery is a useful tool in meteorology for various purposes. It can help in identifying potential thunderstorm areas by detecting areas of high moisture content and instability in the atmosphere. It can also be used to determine the polar front and subtropical jets by observing the movement and concentration of water vapor. Additionally, water vapor imagery is valuable in identifying circulation centers, troughs, ridges, and wind maximums by visualizing the patterns and gradients of water vapor. However, determining the thickness of mid and upper-level clouds is not a use for water vapor imagery as it requires other types of satellite or radar data.

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  • 25. 

    Which far infrared (FIR) enhancement curve is a good all-purpose curve we most commonly use for identifying convective activity?

    • A.

      MB curve.

    • B.

      JG curve.

    • C.

      CC curve.

    • D.

      ZA curve.

    Correct Answer
    A. MB curve.
    Explanation
    The MB curve is a good all-purpose curve commonly used for identifying convective activity in far infrared (FIR) enhancement.

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  • 26. 

    Which far infrared (FIR) enhancement curve was designed for forecasters along the US west coast to enhance weather system cloud tops over the Pacific Ocean?

    • A.

      EC curve.

    • B.

      HF curve.

    • C.

      MB curve.

    • D.

      ZA curve.

    Correct Answer
    B. HF curve.
    Explanation
    The HF curve was designed for forecasters along the US west coast to enhance weather system cloud tops over the Pacific Ocean. This curve specifically focuses on far infrared (FIR) enhancement, which is important for accurately predicting weather patterns and cloud formations in this region. The other curves mentioned (EC, MB, and ZA) do not specifically target cloud tops over the Pacific Ocean or have the same level of effectiveness in enhancing FIR.

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  • 27. 

    The temperature an object appears to have when we measure the intensity of its emitted radiation at a particular wavelength describes the

    • A.

      Brightness temperature.

    • B.

      Apparent temperature.

    • C.

      Wavelength temperature.

    • D.

      Molecular-scale temperature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Brightness temperature.
    Explanation
    The temperature an object appears to have when we measure the intensity of its emitted radiation at a particular wavelength is known as the brightness temperature. This term is used to describe the temperature of an object based on the amount of radiation it emits at a specific wavelength, rather than its actual physical temperature.

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  • 28. 

    How many channels are sensed by special sensor microwave/imagery (SSM/I)?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    D. 7
    Explanation
    The special sensor microwave/imagery (SSM/I) is capable of sensing a total of 7 channels. These channels include both microwave and imagery data, allowing for a comprehensive and detailed analysis of the observed area. The multiple channels provide valuable information about various atmospheric and surface conditions, making the SSM/I an important tool for weather forecasting and climate monitoring.

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  • 29. 

    What is the scan width of the special sensor microwave/imagery (SSM/I) at the earth’s surface?

    • A.

      1,400 kilometers.

    • B.

      1,000 kilometers.

    • C.

      1,400 miles.

    • D.

      1,000 miles.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,400 kilometers.
    Explanation
    The scan width of the special sensor microwave/imagery (SSM/I) at the Earth's surface is 1,400 kilometers. This means that the sensor is able to capture a swath of land that is 1,400 kilometers wide in a single scan.

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  • 30. 

    In what two forms are special sensor microwave/imagery (SSM/I) products available?

    • A.

      Sensor data records (SDRs) and emissivity data records (EDRs).

    • B.

      Satellite data records (SDRs) and emissivity data records (EDRs).

    • C.

      Sensor data records (SDRs) and environmental data records (EDRs).

    • D.

      Satellite data records (SDRs) and environmental data records (EDRs).

    Correct Answer
    C. Sensor data records (SDRs) and environmental data records (EDRs).
    Explanation
    Special Sensor Microwave/Imagery (SSM/I) products are available in the forms of Sensor Data Records (SDRs) and Environmental Data Records (EDRs). SDRs contain raw sensor measurements and calibration information, while EDRs provide derived geophysical parameters such as sea surface temperature, atmospheric water vapor, and rain rates. These records are essential for various applications including weather forecasting, climate monitoring, and environmental research.

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  • 31. 

    What special sensor microwave/imagery (SSM/I) product form is derived from SDRs and contains environmental parameters directly usable by oceanographers?

    • A.

      Environmental Data Records (EDRs).

    • B.

      Emissivity Data Records (EDRs).

    • C.

      Satellite Data Records (SDRs).

    • D.

      Sensor Data Records (SDRs).

    Correct Answer
    A. Environmental Data Records (EDRs).
    Explanation
    The special sensor microwave/imagery (SSM/I) product form that is derived from SDRs and contains environmental parameters directly usable by oceanographers is Environmental Data Records (EDRs).

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  • 32. 

    The processing of sensor data records (SDR) into emissivity data records (EDR) depends on the

    • A.

      Type of data received.

    • B.

      Brightness temperature.

    • C.

      Surface type.

    • D.

      Microwave channel used.

    Correct Answer
    C. Surface type.
    Explanation
    The processing of sensor data records (SDR) into emissivity data records (EDR) depends on the surface type. Different surfaces have different emissivity values, which affect the amount of radiation they emit. Therefore, in order to accurately convert SDR into EDR, it is necessary to consider the surface type and its corresponding emissivity. The type of data received, brightness temperature, and microwave channel used may also provide valuable information, but they are not directly related to the conversion process from SDR to EDR.

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  • 33. 

    Straight-line winds of a constant wind speed would characterize a wind field where the only type of pure motion occurring is

    • A.

      Rotation.

    • B.

      Translation.

    • C.

      Divergence.

    • D.

      Deformation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Translation.
    Explanation
    A wind field characterized by straight-line winds of a constant speed would indicate that the wind is moving in a straight path without any rotation or change in direction. This is known as translation, where the wind is simply moving from one location to another in a linear fashion. Divergence refers to the spreading out of wind from a central point, while deformation refers to the change in shape or distortion of the wind field. Therefore, translation is the most appropriate answer in this context.

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  • 34. 

    What is the axis of most rapid stretching where the air parcels are traveling away from the col called?

    • A.

      Axis of dilatation.

    • B.

      Axis of deformation.

    • C.

      Axis of contraction.

    • D.

      Axis of geopotentiality.

    Correct Answer
    A. Axis of dilatation.
    Explanation
    The axis of dilatation refers to the direction in which air parcels are rapidly stretching and moving away from the col. It represents the axis of expansion or spreading out of the air parcels.

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  • 35. 

    What are the two main types of motion responsible for system perspective winds?

    • A.

      Translation and deformation.

    • B.

      Rotation and divergence.

    • C.

      Translation and divergence.

    • D.

      Rotation and deformation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Rotation and deformation.
    Explanation
    Rotation and deformation are the two main types of motion responsible for system perspective winds. Rotation refers to the spinning motion of air around a low-pressure center, known as cyclonic motion in the Northern Hemisphere and anticyclonic motion in the Southern Hemisphere. Deformation, on the other hand, refers to the stretching and squeezing of air as it moves through the atmosphere, leading to changes in wind speed and direction. These two types of motion are crucial in understanding the behavior and formation of winds in different weather systems.

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  • 36. 

    What types of winds are responsible for determining the shape of cloud masses on satellite imagery?

    • A.

      System relative winds.

    • B.

      Earth perspective winds.

    • C.

      System perspective winds.

    • D.

      Earth relative winds.

    Correct Answer
    C. System perspective winds.
    Explanation
    System perspective winds are responsible for determining the shape of cloud masses on satellite imagery. These winds refer to the movement of air within a weather system, taking into account the overall circulation patterns and atmospheric conditions. They play a crucial role in shaping the cloud formations and their movement, which can be observed and analyzed through satellite imagery. Earth relative winds, on the other hand, are winds relative to the Earth's surface and do not directly influence the shape of cloud masses on satellite imagery.

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  • 37. 

    In relation to the coldest cloud tops, where does the heaviest precipitation from synoptic-scale systems tend to fall?

    • A.

      Along the southern edge.

    • B.

      Along the eastern edge.

    • C.

      Along the northern edge.

    • D.

      Along the western edge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Along the southern edge.
    Explanation
    The heaviest precipitation from synoptic-scale systems tends to fall along the southern edge of the coldest cloud tops. This is because the southern edge is usually where warm air meets colder air, creating an unstable atmosphere and leading to the formation of intense thunderstorms and heavy rainfall.

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  • 38. 

    What primarily compose surface winds around a low-pressure area?

    • A.

      Convergence and coallision

    • B.

      Rotation and convergence.

    • C.

      Convergence and sublimation

    • D.

      Rotation and diffluence

    Correct Answer
    B. Rotation and convergence.
    Explanation
    Surface winds around a low-pressure area are primarily composed of rotation and convergence. Rotation refers to the cyclonic circulation of air around the low-pressure center, with air moving counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. Convergence refers to the inward movement of air towards the low-pressure center, causing air to pile up and rise, leading to the formation of clouds and precipitation. These two processes work together to create the characteristic surface winds associated with low-pressure systems.

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  • 39. 

    What is used to draw in moisture patterns when analyzing upper-air products?

    • A.

      Cloud patterns.

    • B.

      Radar Patterns

    • C.

      SKEW-T Soundings

    • D.

      Rotational Diffluence

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloud patterns.
    Explanation
    Cloud patterns are used to draw in moisture patterns when analyzing upper-air products. Clouds are visible indicators of moisture in the atmosphere and their patterns can provide valuable information about the distribution and movement of moisture. By studying cloud patterns, meteorologists can gain insights into weather patterns, such as the presence of fronts, areas of instability, or potential for precipitation. Therefore, analyzing cloud patterns is an important tool in understanding moisture distribution in the upper atmosphere.

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  • 40. 

    What are the cloud features that make up a synoptic-scale comma cloud?

    • A.

      Anticyclonic zone clouds, vort clouds, and deformation zone clouds.

    • B.

      Baroclinic zone clouds, vorticity comma clouds, and deformation zone clouds.

    • C.

      Cyclonic zone clouds, vorticity comma clouds, and formation zone clouds.

    • D.

      Baroclinic zone clouds, vorticity comma clouds, and formation zone clouds.

    Correct Answer
    B. Baroclinic zone clouds, vorticity comma clouds, and deformation zone clouds.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is baroclinic zone clouds, vorticity comma clouds, and deformation zone clouds. These cloud features are characteristic of a synoptic-scale comma cloud. Baroclinic zone clouds form along the boundary between warm and cold air masses, while vorticity comma clouds have a comma-like shape due to the rotation of air around a low-pressure system. Deformation zone clouds occur in the area of strong wind shear and deformation along the frontal boundary. These three cloud features together contribute to the formation and structure of a synoptic-scale comma cloud.

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  • 41. 

    What is another name for the surge region?

    • A.

      Dry Slot

    • B.

      Moist Slot

    • C.

      Deformation Zone

    • D.

      Baroclinic Region

    Correct Answer
    A. Dry Slot
    Explanation
    The surge region is commonly referred to as the "Dry Slot." This term is used to describe a region within a weather system where dry air is present and separates areas of moist air. The dry slot is typically associated with a low-pressure system and is often found on the western side of the system. It is characterized by clear or partly cloudy skies and a decrease in precipitation. The term "Dry Slot" is widely used in meteorology to describe this specific meteorological phenomenon.

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  • 42. 

    Which clouds form parallel to, and on the equatorward side of the jet stream flow and needs at least 60 knots for formation?

    • A.

      Cirrus streaks.

    • B.

      Rotor clouds

    • C.

      Stratus decks

    • D.

      Cumuliform clouds

    Correct Answer
    A. Cirrus streaks.
    Explanation
    Cirrus streaks form parallel to and on the equatorward side of the jet stream flow and require a minimum wind speed of 60 knots for their formation.

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  • 43. 

    Where is the jet stream axis located in relation to baroclinic zone cirrus?

    • A.

      About 1 latitude on the equatorward side of the sharp cloud edge.

    • B.

      About 1 latitude on the poleward side of the sharp cloud edge.

    • C.

      About 5 latitude on the poleward side of the sharp cloud edge.

    • D.

      About 5 latitude on the equatorward side of the sharp cloud edge.

    Correct Answer
    B. About 1 latitude on the poleward side of the sharp cloud edge.
    Explanation
    The jet stream axis is located about 1 latitude on the poleward side of the sharp cloud edge. This means that the jet stream, which is a fast-moving, narrow air current, is found slightly north of the sharp cloud edge. The baroclinic zone cirrus refers to the area where there is a strong temperature gradient, and the jet stream is typically found just north of this zone.

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  • 44. 

    Where would the jet axis be located with lee-of-the-mountain cirrus?

    • A.

      About 5 deg of latitude on the poleward side of the cirrus cloud.

    • B.

      About 5 deg of latitude on the equatorward side of the cirrus cloud.

    • C.

      About 1 deg of latitude on the poleward side of the cirrus cloud.

    • D.

      About 1 deg of latitude on the equatorward side of the cirrus cloud.

    Correct Answer
    C. About 1 deg of latitude on the poleward side of the cirrus cloud.
    Explanation
    The jet axis would be located about 1 degree of latitude on the poleward side of the cirrus cloud.

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  • 45. 

    What effect do you consider when you interpret lower-level wind flow that you do not consider in upper-level wind flow analysis?

    • A.

      Temperatures effects on clouds

    • B.

      The terrain’s effects on clouds

    • C.

      Moistures effects on clouds

    • D.

      Pressures effects on clouds

    Correct Answer
    B. The terrain’s effects on clouds
    Explanation
    When interpreting lower-level wind flow, one must consider the effects of the terrain on clouds. The terrain, such as mountains or valleys, can disrupt the flow of air and cause changes in wind direction and speed. These changes can then impact the formation and movement of clouds in the lower atmosphere. In contrast, when analyzing upper-level wind flow, the terrain's effects on clouds are not as significant since the upper atmosphere is less influenced by the topography.

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  • 46. 

    Where are low-level deformation zones commonly found?

    • A.

      Poleward of the comma cloud

    • B.

      At the center of the comma cloud

    • C.

      At the head of the comma cloud

    • D.

      At the tail end of the comma cloud

    Correct Answer
    D. At the tail end of the comma cloud
    Explanation
    Low-level deformation zones are commonly found at the tail end of the comma cloud. This is because the comma cloud is associated with extratropical cyclones, which have a characteristic comma-shaped cloud pattern. The tail end of the comma cloud is where the cold front and warm front meet, creating a zone of low-level deformation. This zone is often associated with areas of enhanced precipitation and atmospheric instability, making it an important region for weather forecasting and analysis.

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  • 47. 

    What phenomena are caused by the wind flow interacting with an ocean island?

    • A.

      Tsunamis, hurricanes, and tornadoes

    • B.

      Cu fields, open Cell Cu, and closed cell cu

    • C.

      Bow waves, plume clouds, and Karman vortices.

    • D.

      Waves, cirrus, and ship trails

    Correct Answer
    C. Bow waves, plume clouds, and Karman vortices.
    Explanation
    When wind flows interact with an ocean island, it can cause the formation of bow waves, plume clouds, and Karman vortices. Bow waves are formed when the wind encounters the island and creates a wave-like pattern in the water. Plume clouds are formed when the wind blows over the island and lifts moisture or particles into the air, creating a cloud-like formation. Karman vortices are swirling patterns of air that form behind the island due to the interaction between the wind and the island's shape. These phenomena are all caused by the wind flow interacting with the island's topography and can be observed in such conditions.

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  • 48. 

    What is the best METSAT imagery to use for low-level deformation zone analysis?

    • A.

      Visual

    • B.

      IR

    • C.

      IR 2-4

    • D.

      IR MB

    Correct Answer
    A. Visual
    Explanation
    Visual imagery is the best option for low-level deformation zone analysis because it provides a clear and detailed view of the area. Visual imagery allows for easy identification of any changes or deformations in the landscape, making it ideal for analyzing low-level deformation zones. IR imagery, on the other hand, focuses on heat signatures and may not provide the same level of detail or accuracy for this specific analysis. IR 2-4 and IR MB imagery also focus on different aspects of the environment and may not be as suitable for deformation zone analysis as visual imagery.

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  • 49. 

    Name the conveyor belts associated with a comma cloud.

    • A.

      The windward conveyor belt (WCB), calm conveyor belt (CCB), and dry-air conveyor belt (DACB).

    • B.

      The warm conveyor belt (WCB), cold conveyor belt (CCB), and dry-air conveyor belt (DACB).

    • C.

      The west conveyor belt (WCB), cooler conveyor belt (CCB), and dry-air conveyor belt (DACB).

    • D.

      The wet conveyor belt (WCB), climate conveyor belt (CCB), and day conveyor belt (DACB).

    Correct Answer
    B. The warm conveyor belt (WCB), cold conveyor belt (CCB), and dry-air conveyor belt (DACB).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the warm conveyor belt (WCB), cold conveyor belt (CCB), and dry-air conveyor belt (DACB). These are the conveyor belts associated with a comma cloud. The warm conveyor belt is responsible for transporting warm, moist air into the comma cloud, while the cold conveyor belt transports cold air into the cloud. The dry-air conveyor belt brings in dry air, which helps to stabilize the cloud system.

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  • 50. 

    In which comma cloud pattern does the PFJ separate baroclinic zone cirrus from deformation zone cirrus?

    • A.

      Type A pattern.

    • B.

      Type B pattern.

    • C.

      Type C pattern.

    • D.

      Type D pattern.

    Correct Answer
    A. Type A pattern.
    Explanation
    The PFJ (Polar Front Jet) separates baroclinic zone cirrus from deformation zone cirrus in the Type A pattern.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 18, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Truste307
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