2T271 CDC Quiz Practice Questions!

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2T271 CDC Quiz Practice Questions! - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?

    • A.

      Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.

    • B.

      Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed.

    • C.

      Check your email an phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule

    • D.

      Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify the date it was turned in.

    Correct Answer
    A. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.
    Explanation
    When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, it is important to promptly address any issues that may affect the ability to perform the mission. In this case, discovering that a piece of equipment is out of commission requires the individual to take immediate action. The correct answer suggests that the person should find out what is wrong with the equipment, determine when it will be fixed, and inform their chain of command. This ensures that the necessary steps can be taken to address the issue and make alternative arrangements if needed.

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  • 2. 

    Before you can prioritize work assignments, you must review the shift

    • A.

      Schedule to determine when the aircraft and trucks will arrive

    • B.

      Logs to determine when the aircraft and trucks will arrive

    • C.

      Schedule to determine who is available to perform duties

    • D.

      Logs to determine who is available to perform duties

    Correct Answer
    C. Schedule to determine who is available to perform duties
    Explanation
    To prioritize work assignments, it is important to review the schedule to determine who is available to perform duties. This is because the schedule provides information about the availability of individuals and their assigned tasks. By reviewing the schedule, you can identify the available personnel and allocate tasks accordingly, ensuring that the work assignments are prioritized effectively based on the availability of resources.

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  • 3. 

    Which activity would you not do while giving a shift briefing?

    • A.

      Verify all personnel have all required safety equipment and documentation to perform their duties.

    • B.

      Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned.

    • C.

      Give a safety briefing, stressing anything that may apply to the day;s activities.

    • D.

      Take roll, verify all appointments, and identify the daily or weekly goals.

    Correct Answer
    B. Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned." This activity is not typically done during a shift briefing. A shift briefing is a time for the supervisor to communicate important information, ensure that all personnel have the necessary equipment and documentation, give a safety briefing, and review goals and appointments. Sending a runner to request additional support would typically be done separately, as it involves requesting additional personnel to address a staffing shortage.

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  • 4. 

    Which if the following is not a consideration when seeking to develop your subordinates?

    • A.

      Knowing your people and the work center's current future needs. 

    • B.

      Communication your expectations to the work crews. 

    • C.

      Assigning them to the same duties every day. 

    • D.

      Considering their safety and security.

    Correct Answer
    C. Assigning them to the same duties every day. 
    Explanation
    Assigning subordinates to the same duties every day is not a consideration when seeking to develop them. Developing subordinates involves providing them with opportunities to learn and grow, which can be achieved by assigning them to different tasks and responsibilities. This helps them gain new skills, broaden their knowledge, and become more versatile in their roles. Assigning them to the same duties every day may limit their growth and hinder their development.

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  • 5. 

    Within how many days from the last day of the month must the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      45

    Correct Answer
    B. 20
    Explanation
    The Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, must reach AMC within 20 days from the last day of the month. This report is likely used to track and analyze the traffic handling activities of the AMC on a monthly basis. By submitting the report within 20 days, AMC can promptly review and assess the data to make any necessary adjustments or improvements to their operations.

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  • 6. 

    When you have had several aircraft in the month of July that are classified as "other" on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, how do you report those aircraft?

    • A.

      List the number in the block provided only.

    • B.

      Prepare a memo for record with each type of aircraft listed.

    • C.

      Provide a complete listing of those aircraft in section VIII, Authentications.

    • D.

      Identify the aircraft by type and provide a complete listing if those aircraft in Section X.

    Correct Answer
    D. Identify the aircraft by type and provide a complete listing if those aircraft in Section X.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to identify the aircraft by type and provide a complete listing of those aircraft in Section X. This means that when there are several aircraft classified as "other" on the AMC Form 82, you should specify the type of each aircraft and list them all in Section X of the form. This ensures accurate reporting and documentation of these aircraft.

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  • 7. 

    What is the source document used to gather aircraft handled by type information for section IV of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82?

    • A.

      AMC Form 108, Passenger Rehandled Workload.

    • B.

      AMC Form 85, Aircraft Handled by Type.

    • C.

      AMC Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record.

    • D.

      AMC Form 65, Aircraft Reserviced Workload.

    Correct Answer
    B. AMC Form 85, Aircraft Handled by Type.
    Explanation
    The source document used to gather aircraft handled by type information for section IV of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82 is AMC Form 85, Aircraft Handled by Type.

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  • 8. 

    Which organization establishes policy and administration of the Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) program?

    • A.

      USAF EC/MOS

    • B.

      HQ AMC/A4TR

    • C.

      515/521 AMOW

    • D.

      ATSEV unit program manager

    Correct Answer
    B. HQ AMC/A4TR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HQ AMC/A4TR. HQ AMC/A4TR is the organization that establishes the policy and administration of the Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) program. This organization is responsible for overseeing and managing the program, ensuring that standards and evaluations are carried out effectively and consistently.

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  • 9. 

    Who designates, in writing, a full-time Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) manager and evaluators?

    • A.

      HQ AMC/A4TR

    • B.

      AP/AMS TRO

    • C.

      AP/AMS Commander

    • D.

      ATSEV unit program manager

    Correct Answer
    C. AP/AMS Commander
    Explanation
    The AP/AMS Commander designates, in writing, a full-time Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) manager and evaluators. This means that the commander of the AP/AMS unit is responsible for appointing individuals to fulfill the roles of ATSEV manager and evaluators.

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  • 10. 

    Which is not a principle of joint operations?

    • A.

      Mass

    • B.

      Strategy

    • C.

      Maneuver

    • D.

      Offensive

    Correct Answer
    B. Strategy
    Explanation
    The principle of strategy is not a principle of joint operations. Joint operations involve the coordination and integration of military forces from different branches and nations to achieve a common objective. The principles of joint operations include unity of command, objective, offensive, mass, maneuver, economy of force, security, surprise, and simplicity. Strategy, on the other hand, refers to the overall plan or approach to achieve a specific goal. While strategy is important in joint operations, it is not considered one of the specific principles that guide the execution of these operations.

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  • 11. 

    Which is not a level of war?

    • A.

      Tactical

    • B.

      Strategic

    • C.

      Offensive

    • D.

      Operational

    Correct Answer
    C. Offensive
    Explanation
    The question asks for a level of war that is not included in the options. The options provided are tactical, strategic, operational, and offensive. Offensive is not a level of war, but rather a type of military operation that involves attacking the enemy. The correct answer is offensive because it does not fit into the category of levels of war.

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  • 12. 

    Within which level(s) of war does the joint logistics environment exist?

    • A.

      Tactical only

    • B.

      Tactical and strategic only

    • C.

      Strategic, offensive, and tactical

    • D.

      Strategic, operational, and tactical

    Correct Answer
    D. Strategic, operational, and tactical
    Explanation
    The joint logistics environment exists within the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war. This means that logistics operations are crucial at all three levels, from the highest strategic level where decisions are made about overall logistics strategy and resource allocation, to the operational level where logistics plans are developed and executed, to the tactical level where logistics support is provided to individual units and operations on the ground. Having a coordinated and efficient logistics system is essential for the success of military operations at all levels of war.

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  • 13. 

    The key organizations of joint logistics consist of Services, United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM), Joint Staff, and 

    • A.

      Maintenance.

    • B.

      Health Service.

    • C.

      Defense Logisitcs Agency.

    • D.

      Operational Contract Support.

    Correct Answer
    C. Defense Logisitcs Agency.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Logistics Agency. The key organizations of joint logistics include the Services, United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM), Joint Staff, and Defense Logistics Agency. These organizations work together to ensure the effective and efficient movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies to support military operations. The Defense Logistics Agency plays a crucial role in providing logistics support to the armed forces, including procurement, distribution, and maintenance of military supplies and equipment.

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  • 14. 

    Which core capability of joint logistics is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports movement of forces and equipment during deployment?

    • A.

      Supply

    • B.

      Health Services Support

    • C.

      Deployment and distribution

    • D.

      Operational contract support

    Correct Answer
    C. Deployment and distribution
    Explanation
    Deployment and distribution is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics because it involves the movement of forces and equipment during deployment. This core capability ensures that resources are effectively and efficiently transported to the desired location, enabling successful military operations. It encompasses activities such as transportation planning, cargo handling, and coordination with various stakeholders. Without proper deployment and distribution, logistics operations would be hindered, impacting the overall effectiveness of joint military efforts.

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  • 15. 

    Which category of airlift provides continuous air movement from and to the continental United States (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns?

    • A.

      Tactical

    • B.

      Theater

    • C.

      Strategic

    • D.

      Civil Support

    Correct Answer
    C. Strategic
    Explanation
    Strategic airlift refers to the category of airlift that provides continuous air movement between different overseas locations, major operations, or campaigns, as well as to and from the continental United States (CONUS). This type of airlift is focused on long-range transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies, supporting strategic military objectives. It is different from tactical airlift, which is more focused on short-range transportation within a specific theater of operations. Civil support refers to assistance provided by the military to civil authorities in times of emergency or disaster.

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  • 16. 

    How far in advance does Air Mobility Command (AMC) publish the monthly passenger and cargo schedules, respectively?

    • A.

      90 days and 30 days before the beginning of the operating month

    • B.

      75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month

    • C.

      45 days and 10 days before the beginning of the operating month

    • D.

      30 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month

    Correct Answer
    B. 75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month
    Explanation
    Air Mobility Command (AMC) publishes the monthly passenger and cargo schedules 75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month. This means that the passenger schedule is released 75 days in advance, allowing passengers to plan their travel arrangements well ahead of time. The cargo schedule is released 15 days in advance, providing enough notice for logistics and planning purposes.

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  • 17. 

    If a natural or man-made disaster develops, which type of planning process is used for these types of situations?

    • A.

      Crisis

    • B.

      Long Term

    • C.

      Diplomatic

    • D.

      Contingency

    Correct Answer
    D. Contingency
    Explanation
    Contingency planning is the process used for natural or man-made disasters. It involves preparing and creating strategies in advance to respond effectively to unexpected events. This type of planning helps organizations or individuals to identify potential risks, develop response plans, allocate resources, and minimize the impact of the disaster. It aims to ensure that there is a well-thought-out plan in place to handle emergencies and mitigate their consequences.

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  • 18. 

    If the United States is significantly threatened, the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) uses which type of planning processes in response to these types of situations?

    • A.

      Crisis and contingency

    • B.

      Diplomatic and long term

    • C.

      Deliberate and diplomatic

    • D.

      Short-range mobility and long term

    Correct Answer
    A. Crisis and contingency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Crisis and contingency. In situations where the United States is significantly threatened, the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) uses crisis and contingency planning processes. These processes are specifically designed to address immediate and unexpected threats or emergencies, allowing for quick and flexible responses to mitigate the impact of the threat. This type of planning is essential in ensuring the safety and security of the nation during times of crisis.

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  • 19. 

    If a combatant commander perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that perceived threat?

    • A.

      Operation order (OPORD)

    • B.

      Operational plan (OPLAN)

    • C.

      Concept plan (CONPLAN)

    • D.

      Deployment plan (DEPLAN)

    Correct Answer
    B. Operational plan (OPLAN)
    Explanation
    When a combatant commander perceives a threat, they create an Operational Plan (OPLAN) to counter that perceived threat. An OPLAN is a detailed and comprehensive plan that outlines the objectives, tasks, and resources required to accomplish a specific military operation. It includes the overall concept of the operation, the organization and responsibilities of participating units, and the timeline for executing the plan. OPLANs are developed based on the commander's assessment of the threat and provide a strategic framework for the deployment and employment of forces to counter it.

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  • 20. 

    Which type of plan's extensive information can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation?

    • A.

      Operational plan (OPLAN)

    • B.

      Concept plan (CONPLAN)

    • C.

      Deployment plan (DEPLAN)

    • D.

      Joint operations plan (JOPLAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational plan (OPLAN)
    Explanation
    An operational plan (OPLAN) is a type of plan that contains extensive information and can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when there is a need to execute an operation. This means that an OPLAN provides the necessary details and instructions to carry out a specific operation, allowing for a smooth and efficient execution. Other types of plans, such as concept plans (CONPLAN), deployment plans (DEPLAN), and joint operations plans (JOPLAN), may also provide some level of information, but an OPLAN is specifically designed to be quickly converted into an OPORD for immediate action.

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  • 21. 

    What is the objective of concept planning?

    • A.

      Identify specific units that will provide the needed capability for the operation 

    • B.

      Calculate detailed support requirements and prepare time phased for deployment data (TPFDD)

    • C.

      Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary

    • D.

      Provide strategic guidance that can be used to direct and maintain force data for both major command and base-level purposes

    Correct Answer
    C. Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary
    Explanation
    Concept planning aims to develop operational and support concepts that can be quickly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if needed. This involves creating a solid foundation for the operation by outlining the key strategies and support requirements. By doing so, concept planning ensures that the necessary operational and support concepts are in place, allowing for a smooth transition into the execution phase if an OPORD is required.

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  • 22. 

    Which type of plan is an abbreviated format which will require extensive development before being converted into an operational plan (OPLAN) when it's necessary for an operation?

    • A.

      Operation order (OPLAN)

    • B.

      Concept plan (CONPLAN)

    • C.

      Deployment plan (DEPLAN)

    • D.

      Joint operation plan (JOPLAN)

    Correct Answer
    B. Concept plan (CONPLAN)
    Explanation
    A concept plan (CONPLAN) is an abbreviated format that requires extensive development before being converted into an operational plan (OPLAN) when it is necessary for an operation. This means that a CONPLAN serves as a preliminary outline or blueprint that outlines the general concept and objectives of the plan, but it still needs further development and details before it can be implemented as an OPLAN.

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  • 23. 

    How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?

    • A.

      Through the Global Decision Support System (GDSS) 2 mission remarks

    • B.

      They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans

    • C.

      Headquarters Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC) prepares a report that is distributed to logistics planners for deployment execution

    • D.

      Logistics planners attend an annual joint strategic planning meeting after long-range airlift requirements are submitted to HQ AMC

    Correct Answer
    B. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans
    Explanation
    Base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning through the extraction of these requirements from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans. This suggests that the JSPS serves as a central system where logistics requirements are collected and then integrated into the Air Force plans. This process ensures that base-level personnel have access to the necessary logistics information for contingency planning.

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  • 24. 

    What is the primary system used by the Joint Chiefs of Staff for deliberate planning and providing military advice to the President and Secretary of Defense?

    • A.

      Joint strategic capabilities plan

    • B.

      Joint strategic planning system

    • C.

      Joint operations planning and execution system

    • D.

      Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segments

    Correct Answer
    B. Joint strategic planning system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the joint strategic planning system. This system is used by the Joint Chiefs of Staff to engage in deliberate planning and provide military advice to the President and Secretary of Defense. It helps in developing strategic plans and coordinating military operations. The other options mentioned are not the primary system used for this purpose.

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  • 25. 

    What is the relationship between the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) and an operational plan (OPLAN)?

    • A.

      OPLAN outlines mission details; TPFDD priorities personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support the OPLAN

    • B.

      TPFDD outlines mission details; OPLAN priorities personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the TPFDD

    • C.

      OPLAN is an appendix of the TPFDD that helps leaders execute mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment activities

    • D.

      TPFDD is an appendix of the OPLAN that helps leaders execute mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment activities

    Correct Answer
    A. OPLAN outlines mission details; TPFDD priorities personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support the OPLAN
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the Operational Plan (OPLAN) outlines mission details, while the Time-Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD) priorities personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the OPLAN. This means that the OPLAN provides the overall mission objectives and strategy, while the TPFDD focuses on the specific resources and personnel required to carry out the plan. The TPFDD supports the OPLAN by ensuring that the necessary personnel and equipment are available and properly allocated for successful deployment.

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  • 26. 

    What is the Air Force's war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP)?

    • A.

      Geographic location file (GEOFILE)

    • B.

      Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)

    • C.

      Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS)

    • D.

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)

    Correct Answer
    D. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES). This system is used by the Air Force to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP). DCAPES is a comprehensive planning tool that allows for the development and execution of operational plans, including both deliberate and crisis action planning. It provides a platform for the integration of various data and resources, allowing for effective decision-making and coordination during military operations.

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  • 27. 

    If you are assigned to the Deployment Control Center (DCC) as an air transportation function representative, you will be responsible for

    • A.

      Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System

    • B.

      Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers

    • C.

      Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system

    • D.

      Supervising the loading of deployment cargo aboard aircraft chalks

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System
    Explanation
    As an air transportation function representative assigned to the Deployment Control Center (DCC), your responsibility would be to monitor and report any delays in passenger and cargo processing. This would be done using the Logistics Module System, which allows you to track and manage the movement of passengers and cargo. By monitoring and reporting delays, you can ensure that any issues are addressed promptly and efficiently, minimizing disruptions and ensuring smooth operations.

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  • 28. 

    If you are assigned to the Air Passenger Terminal (APT), you are responsible for

    • A.

      Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system

    • B.

      Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers

    • C.

      Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System

    • D.

      Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers , cargo and flight crew

    Correct Answer
    B. Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers
    Explanation
    If you are assigned to the Air Passenger Terminal (APT), you are responsible for manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers. This means that you are in charge of documenting the passengers on a flight, organizing and loading their luggage onto pallets, and providing them with necessary information and security measures before transporting them.

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  • 29. 

    If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training should you receive?

    • A.

      Initial

    • B.

      Refresher

    • C.

      Weak Area

    • D.

      New procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, you should receive initial training. Initial training is necessary for individuals who are new to a particular role or function and need to acquire the basic knowledge and skills required for the job. It provides a foundation and introduction to the key concepts, processes, and procedures relevant to the deployment function. This type of training is essential to ensure that you have a solid understanding of the fundamentals before moving on to more advanced or specialized training.

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  • 30. 

    Of the following, which is not a purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?

    • A.

      Provide data critical to crisis planning

    • B.

      Provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes

    • C.

      Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Spaces Expeditionary reporting tool data

    • D.

      Used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces of war

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Spaces Expeditionary reporting tool data
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is not to ensure the timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Spaces Expeditionary reporting tool data. SORTS is used to provide data critical to crisis planning, provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes, and used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces of war.

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  • 31. 

    If you are accomplishing Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every 

    • A.

      30 days or before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation

    • B.

      30 days or when changes affect your unit's overall category level (C-level)

    • C.

      90 days or when changes affect your unit's overall C-level

    • D.

      90 days or before every AEF tempo band rotation

    Correct Answer
    B. 30 days or when changes affect your unit's overall category level (C-level)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 days or when changes affect your unit's overall category level (C-level). This means that if there are any changes that impact the unit's overall category level, the report must be submitted within 30 days. Additionally, regardless of any changes, the report must be submitted every 30 days. This ensures that the SORTS reporting is up to date and reflects any changes in the unit's status and training.

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  • 32. 

    Which Air Force (AF) form (or approved facsimile) will you use to accomplish your unit's Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report?

    • A.

      AF Form 732

    • B.

      AF Form 723

    • C.

      AF Form 632 

    • D.

       AF Form 623

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 723
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 723. This form is used to accomplish the unit's Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report.

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  • 33. 

    If your unit possess the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, which category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?

    • A.

      C-1

    • B.

      C-2

    • C.

      C-3

    • D.

      C-4

    Correct Answer
    C. C-3
    Explanation
    If a unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, it will be reported as C-3 during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting. This means that the unit is partially capable and may require additional resources or training to fully perform its designated missions.

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  • 34. 

    If you are assigned to your unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status that is essential to

    • A.

      Keep your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed

    • B.

      Assign valid unit line numbers to the proper taskings

    • C.

      Smooth AEF execution

    • D.

      Ensure a solid C-level

    Correct Answer
    C. Smooth AEF execution
    Explanation
    As the ART monitor for your unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF), it is your responsibility to report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status. This information is crucial for keeping your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed about the readiness of the unit. By providing this information, the UDM can assign valid unit line numbers to the proper taskings, ensuring a smooth execution of the AEF operations. Therefore, the correct answer suggests that reporting accurate and timely information contributes to the smooth execution of AEF operations.

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  • 35. 

    If you are assigned as your unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, which action is not your responsibility?

    • A.

      Processing ART role requests from subordinate units

    • B.

      Updating ART unit type code (UTC) readiness within the ART system

    • C.

      Completing a readiness assessment every 30 days on all assigned UTC's

    • D.

      Resolving UTC posturing issues with MAJCOM functional area managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Processing ART role requests from subordinate units
    Explanation
    As the unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, your responsibility includes updating ART unit type code (UTC) readiness within the ART system, completing a readiness assessment every 30 days on all assigned UTC's, and resolving UTC posturing issues with MAJCOM functional area managers. However, processing ART role requests from subordinate units is not your responsibility.

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  • 36. 

    If you are performing duties as a unit deployment manager (UDM), who must you notify when mismatches exist between unit type code (UTC) authorizations and unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations?

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) and wing manpower office only

    • B.

      MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only

    • C.

      MAJCOM FAM and manpower offices and wing commander only

    • D.

      Wing and MAJCOM manpower office only 

    Correct Answer
    B. MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only
    Explanation
    As a unit deployment manager (UDM), you are responsible for notifying the Major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) and both the wing and MAJCOM manpower offices when there are mismatches between unit type code (UTC) authorizations and unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations. This ensures that the appropriate authorities are aware of the discrepancies and can take the necessary actions to resolve them. The wing commander is not included in the notification process, as they are not directly involved in the authorization and manpower management.

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  • 37. 

    If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit's ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to 

    • A.

      Request a waiver to the AEF tempo band cycle until the MAJCOM can provide resource support

    • B.

      Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement

    • C.

      Remove your unit from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo band cycle until the deficiencies are corrected

    • D.

      Reclaim your MAJCOMs decision to task your unit for upcoming tempo band cycle until you can obtain the resources you need to correct the deficiencies

    Correct Answer
    B. Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement
    Explanation
    As a unit deployment manager (UDM), if your unit has deployment deficiencies that cannot be corrected by your unit alone, you should report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM). In this situation, the best course of action would be to request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement. This will allow your unit to obtain the necessary resources or make changes to the operational capabilities in order to address the deficiencies.

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  • 38. 

    What are the relationship between the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) and the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGSEP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?

    • A.

      ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about IGESP/ESP

    • B.

      IGESP/ESP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the ESSP

    • C.

      ESSP, the prime focus of part 2 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies limiting factors and shortages

    • D.

      ESSP, the prime focus of part 3 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies overages and shortfalls

    Correct Answer
    A. ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about IGESP/ESP
    Explanation
    The ESSP provides a standardized approach for planning committees to gather, store, and access site data. This data is then utilized to make decisions regarding the IGESP/ESP. In other words, the ESSP serves as a tool to collect and analyze information that is necessary for the development and implementation of the IGESP/ESP.

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  • 39. 

    Which is not one of the three specific objectives within Part 2 of the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and the expeditionary site plan (ESP)?

    • A.

      Assess the ability to support the operation

    • B.

      Allocates resources previously identified in Part 1

    • C.

      Identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC), shortfalls and overages

    • D.

      Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators

    Correct Answer
    D. Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators," is not one of the three specific objectives within Part 2 of the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and the expeditionary site plan (ESP). The three specific objectives within Part 2 are: assessing the ability to support the operation, allocating resources previously identified in Part 1, and identifying limiting factors (LIMFAC), shortfalls, and overages. The given answer does not align with any of these objectives.

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  • 40. 

    What is the relationship between started stocks and swing stocks?

    • A.

      Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation

    • B.

      Swing stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point on intended use; starter stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation

    • C.

      The amount of swing stick authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base allowance from the authorized starter stock

    • D.

      The amount of starter stock authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base allowance from the authorized swing stock

    Correct Answer
    A. Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation
    Explanation
    Starter stocks are stocks that are positioned at or near the point of intended use. They are meant to be readily available for immediate use. On the other hand, swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency and for more than one theater of operation. This means that swing stocks are strategically positioned to be able to support multiple operations and contingencies.

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  • 41. 

    What is the primary purpose of the support agreements?

    • A.

      Identify the specific support functions one party will perform another

    • B.

      Ensure the support process runs efficiently with all units prepared to deploy

    • C.

      Develop local support guidance explaining how all units will deploy from the installation

    • D.

      Define local processes, procedures, and resources that will be used when deploying forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify the specific support functions one party will perform another
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the support agreements is to identify the specific support functions that one party will perform for another. This means that the agreements are meant to clearly outline the roles and responsibilities of each party in providing support to the other. By doing so, the agreements ensure that there is a clear understanding of what support functions need to be performed and by whom, thus facilitating effective and efficient support processes. The other options mentioned, such as ensuring the support process runs efficiently with all units prepared to deploy, developing local support guidance, or defining local processes and resources, may be important aspects of support agreements, but they are not the primary purpose.

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  • 42. 

    If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to an Army unit, which type of support agreement is required?

    • A.

      Intragovernmental

    • B.

      Intergovernmental

    • C.

      Intraservice

    • D.

      Interservice

    Correct Answer
    D. Interservice
    Explanation
    When an Air Force unit is providing a service to an Army unit, the type of support agreement required is an "Interservice" agreement. This agreement is necessary because it involves cooperation and coordination between two different branches of the military, specifically the Air Force and the Army. It ensures that the necessary support and resources are provided effectively and efficiently between the two units.

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  • 43. 

    When developing support agreement, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, resulting in which document?

    • A.

      Memorandum of support (MOS) or a memorandum of functional agreement (MOFA)

    • B.

      Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU)

    • C.

      Installation support plan (ISP) or an MOA

    • D.

      ISP or MOU

    Correct Answer
    B. Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU)
    Explanation
    A support agreement is a document that outlines the guidelines and expectations for the support required. This document is developed through a mutual understanding between the parties involved. The memorandum of agreement (MOA) or memorandum of understanding (MOU) accurately describes this type of document, as it signifies an agreement or understanding between the parties regarding the support required. Both terms are commonly used to refer to such documents in various contexts. Therefore, the correct answer is memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).

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  • 44. 

    Augmentation support is usually not provided for

    • A.

      Installation-level exercises

    • B.

      Contingencies and wartime

    • C.

      Normal manpower shortfalls

    • D.

      Emergency situations/scenarios

    Correct Answer
    C. Normal manpower shortfalls
    Explanation
    Augmentation support is typically not provided for normal manpower shortfalls because these shortfalls are expected and can be managed within the existing resources and capabilities of an organization. Augmentation support is usually reserved for contingencies, wartime situations, and emergency scenarios where there is an increased demand for manpower that exceeds the organization's normal capacity.

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  • 45. 

    If SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, who will fund her training and required gear to perform her augmentation duties?

    • A.

      The installation will fund these requirements

    • B.

      The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee

    • C.

      The unit to which SrA Williams is normally assigned

    • D.

      SrA Williams must provide her own gear to be an augmentee

    Correct Answer
    B. The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee. Since SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, it is the responsibility of the unit using her as an augmentee to fund her training and provide the required gear for her to perform her augmentation duties.

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  • 46. 

    A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because

    • A.

      Of a legal, regulatory, and bargaining stipulations that are too difficult to work around

    • B.

      If they work more than eight hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime pay

    • C.

      Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements

    • D.

      Augmentation support must be explicitly documentation in the individual's contract before performing augmentation duties

    Correct Answer
    C. Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements
    Explanation
    A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because they are subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, which takes priority over local augmentation requirements. This means that their primary responsibility is to be available for deployment in a specific operation, and therefore they cannot be assigned additional duties that may interfere with their readiness for deployment.

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  • 47. 

    Which product is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission?

    • A.

      Unit manpower document (UMD)

    • B.

      Work center rotation schedule (WCRS)

    • C.

      Unit personnel management roster (UPMR)

    • D.

      AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report RCS: AMC-A43 (M&Q) 7107

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit manpower document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission. This document outlines the authorized manpower positions within a unit, including the number of personnel needed for each position. It provides a comprehensive overview of the unit's organizational structure and the positions required to fulfill its mission. The UMD is essential for effective personnel management and resource allocation within the unit.

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  • 48. 

    Manpower authorizations are also known as

    • A.

      Validations

    • B.

      Deferments

    • C.

      Funded manpower requirements

    • D.

      Unfunded manpower requirements

    Correct Answer
    C. Funded manpower requirements
    Explanation
    Funded manpower requirements refer to the authorized positions within an organization that have been allocated resources and budget to support them. These positions are typically approved and funded by management based on the needs and priorities of the organization. This term is used to distinguish these authorized positions from unfunded manpower requirements, which are positions that have been identified as necessary but have not yet been allocated resources or budget. Therefore, the correct answer is funded manpower requirements.

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  • 49. 

    A "1" under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicates the

    • A.

      Number of positions that exist for the specified organizational structure code (OSC)

    • B.

      Number of positions that exist for the specified grade

    • C.

      Specified position is unfunded for that quarter

    • D.

      Specified position is funded for that quarter

    Correct Answer
    D. Specified position is funded for that quarter
    Explanation
    A "1" under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicates that the specified position is funded for that quarter. This means that there is budget allocated for that position during that specific time period, and it is approved and supported financially.

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  • 50. 

    The primary mission of the Air Force Emergency Management Program is to save lives, minimize the loss of resources , and

    • A.

      Train

    • B.

      Prevent

    • C.

      Respond

    • D.

      Sustain

    Correct Answer
    D. Sustain
    Explanation
    The primary mission of the Air Force Emergency Management Program is to sustain. This means that their main goal is to maintain and support the necessary resources, infrastructure, and systems to ensure the continued functioning and effectiveness of the program. By sustaining, they are able to save lives, minimize the loss of resources, and effectively train and respond to emergencies. Sustaining also implies the ability to adapt and endure in the face of challenges and ensure the long-term success of the program.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 24, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 16, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Nicole Parks
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