5 Level CDC, Vol 1

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1. 22. You are entering the warehouse wearing several items.  Which of them must be removed before entering the area?

Explanation

Jewelry must be removed before entering the warehouse because it can pose a safety hazard. Loose jewelry, such as necklaces, bracelets, or rings, can get caught in machinery or equipment, causing injury to the wearer. Additionally, jewelry made of metal can conduct electricity, increasing the risk of electrical shocks. Therefore, it is important to remove jewelry to ensure a safe working environment in the warehouse.

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About This Quiz
CDC Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled '5 Level CDC, Vol 1', assesses knowledge in Air Force specialty codes (AFSC), focusing on duties, career fields, and supervisory roles. It's designed for Airmen... see moreto validate their qualifications and readiness in their respective fields. see less

2. 24. You have acquired a bad safety habit of walking while spotting.  It is important for you to eliminate this poor and unsafe work practice because

Explanation

By eliminating the bad safety habit of walking while spotting, new people can observe your improved work habits and learn from your performance. This is important as it sets a positive example for others and promotes a safe work environment. It allows new employees to understand the correct and safe procedures to follow, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries.

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3. 19. You injured your ankle playing basketball over the weekend.  Your responsibility under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program is to promptly

Explanation

The correct answer is to report the injury to your supervisor. This is because under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program, it is important to promptly report any injuries to ensure proper documentation and follow-up actions can be taken. This helps in maintaining a safe working environment and allows for appropriate medical attention to be provided if necessary.

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4. 28. You are entering the flight line area in a vehicle.  What must you do before entering?

Explanation

Before entering the flight line area in a vehicle, it is necessary to stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check. This is important to ensure that there are no loose objects or debris that could potentially cause damage to aircraft or other equipment on the flight line. It is a safety measure to prevent any accidents or incidents that could occur due to foreign objects on the runway or taxiway.

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5. 57. Which organic aircraft can hold up to six standard pallets and is capable of landing on dirt strips?

Explanation

The C-130 is the correct answer because it is an organic aircraft that has the capability to hold up to six standard pallets and is also capable of landing on dirt strips. The other options, C-5, C-17, and C-141, may have different capabilities or limitations that make them unsuitable for these specific requirements.

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6. 21. You must be mindful of bulky uniform items with cords and stings because

Explanation

Bulky uniform items with cords and strings can pose a safety hazard when working around conveyor belts or moving machinery. If these items get caught in the machinery, it can cause accidents or damage to the equipment. Therefore, it is important to be mindful of these items to prevent any untoward incidents.

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7. 23. You have finished downloading pallets onto the finger docks.  Which is the best way to exit the dock?

Explanation

The best way to exit the dock is to use the ladder located at the end of the dock. This is the safest and most appropriate method for getting off the dock after finishing downloading pallets. Jumping off the edge or riding the rollers with the pallets can be dangerous and can result in injury. Using the ladder ensures a controlled and safe descent from the dock. Stepping onto the K-loader and asking the driver to lower the back end may also be an option, but it is not mentioned in the question and therefore not the best answer.

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8. 40. Your work center is storing some classified material in the vault and you have been asked to let a lightning technician in to fix the lighting. He doesn't have the required "need to know" but must have access to the room to properly complete his job. What is your best course of action?

Explanation

The best course of action is to escort the lightning technician into the vault and stay with him at all times until his work is complete. This ensures that the technician does not have unauthorized access to the classified material and also allows for proper supervision during his job.

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9. 10. Who is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities for training?

Explanation

The trainee is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities for training. As a trainee, it is their duty to engage in training sessions, workshops, and any other learning opportunities provided to them. They should take initiative, be proactive, and make the most out of these opportunities to enhance their knowledge and skills. By actively participating in training, the trainee can contribute to their own personal and professional development, ultimately benefiting themselves and the organization they belong to.

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10. 8. How many days are trainees given to complete each volume of their career development courses (CDC)?

Explanation

Trainees are given 30 days to complete each volume of their career development courses (CDC). This time frame allows trainees a reasonable amount of time to study and complete the required coursework for each volume. It also ensures that trainees are able to progress through the program in a timely manner, without feeling rushed or overwhelmed. By providing a set deadline of 30 days, trainees can effectively manage their time and stay on track with their career development goals.

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11. 30. You are stopped on the flight line at night with your vehicle and its headlights on and an aircraft is approaching your direction.  You are not in the aircraft's path.  What is your best course of action?

Explanation

When stopped on the flight line at night with your vehicle and its headlights on, the best course of action is to turn your headlights off and turn your parking lights/emergency flashers on until the aircraft is out of range. This is important to avoid blinding the pilot with your headlights and causing any potential hazards. By using your parking lights or emergency flashers, you can still make yourself visible to the pilot without interfering with their vision.

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12. 62. The last three digits of a mission number represents the

Explanation

The last three digits of a mission number represents the Julian date on which the mission originated in Zulu or GMT. This means that the numerical value of the last three digits corresponds to a specific date in the Julian calendar, which is used in Zulu or GMT time. This information can be useful for tracking and organizing missions based on their date of origin.

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13. 64. The Global Air transportation Execution System (GATES) allows users to

Explanation

The Global Air transportation Execution System (GATES) is a system that enables users to process, manifest, and track both passengers and cargo. This means that GATES allows users to handle the necessary paperwork and documentation for both passengers and cargo, as well as keep track of their movements and status. It provides a comprehensive solution for managing air transportation operations efficiently and effectively.

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14. 94. When operating the lavatory service truck (LST), how will you know when the waste tank is full?

Explanation

To determine when the waste tank is full while operating the lavatory service truck (LST), one should look through the sight window. This window provides a visual indication of the tank's fill level, allowing the operator to easily determine when it is full and needs to be emptied. This method is more practical and efficient than opening the tank or relying on gauges or flow meters, as it provides a direct and immediate visual confirmation of the tank's status.

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15. 4. A group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) requiring basically the same knowledge and skills is known as a

Explanation

A group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) requiring basically the same knowledge and skills is known as a career field. This term refers to a specific area or domain within the Air Force that encompasses multiple job specialties. It is a way to categorize and organize different roles and responsibilities based on the similarity of required skills and knowledge.

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16. 52. Which area is an air terminal located on a prepared airfield that is designated for the sustained air movement of cargo and passengers?

Explanation

An aerial port is an area located on a prepared airfield that is designated for the sustained air movement of cargo and passengers. This is where cargo and passengers are loaded and unloaded from aircraft, and where logistics operations are conducted to support air transportation. Aerial ports are essential for the efficient movement of goods and personnel in military and commercial aviation. They provide the necessary infrastructure and services to ensure the smooth flow of air transportation operations.

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17. 16. The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate

Explanation

The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate how well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject. This means that the scale values provide a measure of the level of proficiency expected from the trainee in order to successfully complete the task or demonstrate understanding of the subject. The higher the scale value, the higher the level of proficiency required. It does not indicate anything about limitations in resources, teaching during wartime or humanitarian operations, or the amount of information to be recited back to the supervisor.

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18. 58. Which programs is where United States commercial airlines augment Departments of Defense's (DOD) airlift capability in time of war or during a President-declared emergency?

Explanation

The Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) program is the correct answer because it is a program where United States commercial airlines assist the Department of Defense's (DOD) airlift capability during times of war or emergency declared by the President. This program allows the military to access commercial aircraft and their crews to transport troops, equipment, and supplies when needed. The CRAF program helps to enhance the overall airlift capability of the United States during critical situations.

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19. 5. A Senior Airman may use the title Supervisor when he or she

Explanation

The correct answer is "has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others." This answer accurately reflects the criteria for a Senior Airman to use the title Supervisor. Graduating ALS (Airman Leadership School) is a requirement, and the individual must also be responsible for supervising the work of others. The other options do not fully meet the criteria mentioned.

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20. 43. Which type of cargo consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort?

Explanation

Defense Courier Service (DCS) material consists of highly classified national security material that requires an escort. This type of cargo is transported under strict security measures to ensure its protection and confidentiality. DCS material may include sensitive military documents, intelligence reports, or other classified materials that need to be securely transported to their destination. The escort is necessary to safeguard the cargo and prevent any unauthorized access or potential threats during transit.

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21. 49. Which command is the US Transportation Command's (USTRANSCOM) single component command for air mobility and provides airlift, air refueling, special air mission and aeromedical evacuation services?

Explanation

Air Mobility Command (AMC) is the correct answer because it is the single component command for air mobility within the US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM). AMC is responsible for providing various air services such as airlift, air refueling, special air missions, and aeromedical evacuation. It plays a crucial role in supporting military operations by ensuring the rapid and efficient movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies.

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22. 2. An Air Force specialty (AFS) is a group of

Explanation

An Air Force specialty (AFS) refers to a specific job or role within the Air Force that requires specific qualifications. These qualifications may include specific skills, knowledge, or experience. The AFS is a way of categorizing positions within the Air Force based on the common qualifications required for those positions. Therefore, the correct answer is "positions requiring common qualifications."

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23. 6. Which specialty is not a part of the transportation career field?

Explanation

Air Traffic Control is not a part of the transportation career field because it is a separate specialty that focuses on managing and directing the movement of aircraft in the air and on the ground. While Air Transportation, Traffic Management, and Vehicle Management are all related to the transportation industry, Air Traffic Control specifically deals with the safe and efficient flow of air traffic.

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24. 27. The Base Weather Station has issued a lightning warning for your location.  What does this warning mean and what should you do?

Explanation

The correct answer states that if the Base Weather Station has issued a lightning warning for your location, it means that lightning is occurring within a 5 nautical mile radius. In this situation, it is important to immediately take shelter in a safe place to protect yourself from the dangers of lightning strikes.

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25. 31. You are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light coming from the control tower.  What should you do?

Explanation

When crossing an active runway and seeing a red and green light coming from the control tower, the correct action to take is to exercise extreme caution. The red and green lights indicate a general warning, which means that there may be potential hazards or aircraft movement in the vicinity. It is important to proceed with caution and be prepared to stop if necessary to ensure safety.

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26. 71. You are helping a customer determine if he and his family are eligible for Department of Defense (DOD) air travel. In which publication would you look?

Explanation

You would look in DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility to determine if the customer and his family are eligible for Department of Defense air travel. This publication specifically addresses air transportation eligibility within the Department of Defense.

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27. 1. An Airman is qualified in two Air Force specialty codes (AFSC).  Which type of AFSC identifies the one in which the Airman is currently performing duty?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC)". This is the type of AFSC that identifies the one in which the Airman is currently performing duty. The DAFSC is the specific job or role that the Airman is assigned to at the present time. It may be different from their Primary AFSC, which is their main or primary job qualification. The DAFSC is important because it determines the Airman's current responsibilities and duties within the Air Force.

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28. 32. You are crossing the active runway and see a flashing white light coming from the control tower.  What should you do?

Explanation

If you see a flashing white light coming from the control tower while crossing an active runway, you should return to your starting point. This flashing white light indicates that there is a problem or an emergency on the runway, and it is not safe to proceed. Returning to your starting point is the appropriate action to take in order to ensure your safety and avoid any potential accidents or conflicts with aircraft on the runway.

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29. 39. You have knowledge of some North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) SECRET information in which one of your coworkers has asked about. Which United States security clearance level must your coworker posses for access to this information?

Explanation

Your coworker must possess a SECRET security clearance level in order to access the NATO SECRET information. This level of clearance is required to handle classified information that could cause serious damage to national security if disclosed without authorization.

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30. 42. Which one of the following represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability?

Explanation

Taking pictures of the helicopters loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the internet represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability because it exposes sensitive military equipment and potentially compromises operational security. By sharing such information publicly, adversaries can gather intelligence, track movements, and potentially plan attacks or sabotage. This action violates the principle of keeping military operations and equipment confidential to protect national security.

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31. 45. Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces?

Explanation

Sustainment refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies, and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces. It involves providing the necessary resources to sustain the operational capability of the forces in the field, ensuring they have the required support to continue their mission effectively. This can include replenishing supplies, replacing personnel, and maintaining equipment to ensure the ongoing success of the deployed forces.

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32. 55. Which aircraft can hold up to 36 standard pallets and 73 passengers?

Explanation

The C-5 aircraft is capable of holding up to 36 standard pallets and 73 passengers.

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33. 66. Who has responsibility to provide accurate data to the aerial ports or agencies that enter data into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?

Explanation

Individual units have the responsibility to provide accurate data to the aerial ports or agencies that enter data into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES). This means that each unit is responsible for ensuring that the data they provide is accurate and up-to-date, which is crucial for the efficient operation of the transportation system. Truck drivers, superintendents, and ramp supervisors may play a role in the transportation process, but it is ultimately the responsibility of individual units to provide accurate data.

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34. 84. Mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until

Explanation

The correct answer is "all the cargo for the chalk is present and available." This means that the mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until all the cargo that is assigned to a specific group or unit (chalk) is physically present and ready to be inspected. This ensures that the inspection process is efficient and effective, as it would not make sense to start the inspection if some of the cargo is still missing or unavailable.

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35. 97. You are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left by a passenger, what action must you take?

Explanation

If a personal item is left by a passenger, the appropriate action to take is to turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces. This ensures that the item is properly handled and can be returned to the owner if they come looking for it. It is important to follow the correct procedure for lost items to maintain the security and organization of the airport.

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36. 110. As a fleet Service dispatcher, you have just completed and signed an AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet. Who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records?

Explanation

The Fleet Service shift supervisor needs to sign the AMC Form 244 before it can be turned into records. This indicates that the supervisor has reviewed and approved the information on the form.

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37. 18. What is the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) program is to minimize the loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel. This program aims to ensure the safety and well-being of Air Force personnel by implementing safety measures and protocols to prevent accidents, injuries, and property damage. By minimizing loss of resources, the program helps to maintain operational efficiency and effectiveness. Additionally, by protecting personnel, the program ensures their health and welfare while carrying out their duties.

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38. 50. Which agency serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub and plans, directs, schedules, and tracks aircraft operations worldwide?

Explanation

The Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub. It is responsible for planning, directing, scheduling, and tracking aircraft operations worldwide. The TACC plays a crucial role in coordinating and managing the movement of tanker and airlift assets to support global mobility missions.

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39. 69. The Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is set up and used until the

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is used until it is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GATES systems have been set up in its place. This implies that DGATES is used as long as it serves its purpose or until a more advanced system is implemented to replace it.

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40. 20. Your supervisor just conducted very thorough safety training with you that included job hazards, personal protective equipment wear, jewelry safety, manual lifting procedures, and many other areas.  Which form will you and your supervisor use to document this training?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record. This form is used to document safety training and track the safety and health records of employees. It is likely that after conducting thorough safety training, the supervisor will use this form to document the training that was provided to the employee. This form ensures that the training is properly recorded and can be referred to in the future if needed.

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41. 25. Operational risk management (ORM) is a continuous process designed to do what?

Explanation

Operational risk management (ORM) is a continuous process that involves detecting, assessing, and controlling risks while simultaneously enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities. This means that ORM aims to identify potential risks, evaluate their potential impact, and implement measures to mitigate or eliminate them. At the same time, ORM also focuses on improving performance and maximizing combat capabilities, ensuring that the organization can effectively carry out its operations while minimizing the likelihood of adverse events.

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42. 99. You are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take to an aircraft. How must they be when you pick them up so will they stay clean?

Explanation

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43. 3. A duty Air Force Specialty code (DAFSC) is the AFSC

Explanation

The correct answer is "used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty." The duty Air Force Specialty code (DAFSC) is a code that is assigned to an individual in the Air Force to indicate the specific position or job they are assigned to. It helps to identify the role or position in which an individual is currently serving and performing their duties. This code is used for organizational and administrative purposes, such as assignments, training requirements, and promotions.

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44. 29. You have parked our vehicle on the flight line and need to leave it unattended to board the aircraft.  What must you do?

Explanation

When parking a vehicle on the flight line and leaving it unattended, it is important to follow certain safety measures. Leaving the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked allows emergency personnel to move the vehicle if necessary. Turning off the ignition helps prevent accidental starting of the vehicle. Placing the vehicle in park or reverse ensures that it will not roll. Chocking one rear wheel, both in front and behind, adds an extra layer of safety by preventing the vehicle from rolling in case the parking brake fails.

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45. 36. Pollution control consists of which three activities?

Explanation

Pollution control consists of three main activities: recycling, treatment, and disposal. Recycling involves the process of reusing materials to reduce waste and conserve resources. Treatment refers to the process of removing pollutants or contaminants from the environment, such as purifying water or treating air emissions. Disposal involves the proper management and disposal of waste materials in a way that minimizes harm to the environment and human health. These three activities work together to minimize pollution and its impact on the environment.

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46. 37. Which is not a benefit of pollution prevention?

Explanation

Pollution prevention does not necessarily reduce the need for federal standards and regulations. While pollution prevention efforts can help to minimize pollution and its impacts, regulations and standards are still necessary to ensure that industries and individuals comply with environmental laws and protect public health and the environment. These regulations provide a framework for monitoring and enforcing pollution prevention practices. Therefore, the reduction of federal standards and regulations is not a direct benefit of pollution prevention.

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47. 44. Which type of cargo must you always protect, safeguard, and handle as if it were classified?

Explanation

Registered mail must always be protected, safeguarded, and handled as if it were classified because it contains important and confidential documents or valuable items. It is often used for sending sensitive information or valuable goods that require extra security and protection. Mishandling or negligence in handling registered mail can lead to loss, theft, or damage to the contents, which can have serious consequences. Therefore, it is crucial to handle registered mail with utmost care and follow the necessary protocols to ensure its safety and security.

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48. 56. Which aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift as well as airdrops and aeromedical evacuations?

Explanation

The C-17 aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift, meaning it can transport cargo and personnel over long distances and in various operational theaters. It is also capable of airdrops, which involve delivering supplies or equipment by parachute. Additionally, the C-17 can be used for aeromedical evacuations, allowing for the transport of injured or ill individuals. Therefore, the C-17 is a versatile aircraft that can fulfill multiple roles in military operations.

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49. 9. Who is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment. This role ensures that new employees are properly introduced to their work center and provided with the necessary training and qualifications to perform their job effectively. The supervisor oversees this process to ensure that all necessary information and assessments are completed in a timely manner.

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50. 12. What is the minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level?

Explanation

To be awarded the 7-skill level, a trainee must be in training for a minimum of 12 months. This suggests that the level of skill and proficiency required to achieve the 7-skill level cannot be attained in a shorter time period. It indicates that a significant amount of training and experience is necessary to reach the level of expertise expected at the 7-skill level.

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51. 41. An aircraft diverted into your station with classified material on it and will remain overnight (RON) for repairs. The material is too large to be placed in an approved container. What is the best course of action?

Explanation

The best course of action in this situation is to download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility. This ensures that the material is properly secured and protected while the aircraft undergoes repairs overnight. It is important to follow proper protocols and procedures to safeguard classified information.

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52. 101. What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?

Explanation

Before printing and signing your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen, you must verify that you have every item listed on the form. This ensures that you have received all the necessary items and helps maintain accurate inventory records.

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53. 104. You are stationed at McChord AFB, WA, and a flight just arrived from Kadena AB, Japan, that has unused meals onboard. What must you do with these meals?

Explanation

Unused meals from a flight arriving from Kadena AB, Japan, must be placed in two plastic bags and incinerated or sterilized at an approved facility after USDA inspection and approval. This is the proper protocol for handling unused meals to ensure food safety and prevent any potential health risks.

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54. 46. Which command provided common-user and commercial air, land and sea transportation?

Explanation

US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is the correct answer because it is responsible for providing common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation. USTRANSCOM coordinates and executes transportation operations to support the Department of Defense and other government agencies. It ensures the movement of personnel and supplies around the world through a combination of military and commercial transportation assets.

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55. 68. Radio frequency identification (RFID) technology consist of which three parts?

Explanation

RFID technology consists of three main parts: a TAG, an interrogator, and a data server. The TAG is a small electronic device that contains a unique identifier and can be attached to objects. The interrogator, also known as a reader, is used to communicate with the TAG and retrieve information from it. The data server is where the collected information is stored and managed. These three components work together to enable the tracking and identification of objects using RFID technology.

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56. 95. On the AMC form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record, to conduct an inventory, which form will be used as a source document to annotate the total number of items of on mission aircraft?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist. This form is used to conduct an inventory of fleet service equipment. It serves as a source document to annotate the total number of items on mission aircraft.

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57. 107. You serviced the C-17 with the lavatory service truck (LST); the doughnut seal was faulty, and you came into direct contact with waste from the aircraft. You were wearing all required personal protective equipment (PPE). What actions should you take?

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct action to take is to wash immediately and change clothes. Even though the person was wearing all required personal protective equipment (PPE), coming into direct contact with waste from the aircraft can still pose a risk of contamination. Therefore, it is important to wash off any potential contaminants and change clothes to prevent any further exposure or spread of contaminants.

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58. 13. Before a trainee can be awarded the 5 or 7 skill levels all core tasks must be identified

Explanation

The correct answer states that before a trainee can be awarded the 5 or 7 skill levels, all core tasks must be identified in the CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) and other duty positions tasks identified by the supervisor. This means that in order for the trainee to reach the higher skill levels, they must have completed and been evaluated on all the necessary tasks outlined in the CFETP, as well as any additional tasks assigned by their supervisor in other duty positions.

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59. 38. What can you don each and every day to reduce air emissions at work?

Explanation

The answer suggests that by inspecting, operating, refueling, and maintaining vehicles in accordance with their applicable technical orders (TOs) and other authorized guidance, one can reduce air emissions at work. This is because properly maintained vehicles are likely to have better fuel efficiency and emit fewer pollutants into the air.

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60. 82. Which deployment work center processes all deploying personnel through stations such as legal and finance and is responsible for processing and manifesting passengers and processing their baggage?

Explanation

The Passenger Deployment Function (PDF) is the correct answer because it is responsible for processing all deploying personnel through stations such as legal and finance, as well as processing and manifesting passengers and their baggage. The other options, the Passenger Control Unit (PCU), Passenger Control Center (PCC), and Passenger Operations Function (POF), do not encompass all of these responsibilities.

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61. 98. Which describes the proper way to clean and service an over?

Explanation

The proper way to clean and service an oven is to remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks, and ensure that the oven is operational. This process ensures that the oven is thoroughly cleaned and ready for use, as well as checking its functionality.

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62. 103. You have delivered 73 meals to a C-5. Who will stow those meals in the gallery or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas?

Explanation

The correct answer is The aircrew members and Fleet Service personnel. Aircrew members and Fleet Service personnel are responsible for stowing the meals in the gallery or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas.

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63. 7. Which is not a component of the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program?

Explanation

The AF OJT Program includes job experience, job knowledge, and job proficiency as components. However, job requirements are not considered a component of the program. Job requirements typically refer to the qualifications or skills necessary for a particular job, whereas the AF OJT Program focuses on providing training and development in job experience, knowledge, and proficiency.

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64. 86. Satisfactory items are identified on the DD Form 2133 by

Explanation

Satisfactory items are identified on the DD Form 2133 by a check mark. This means that when filling out the form, if an item is deemed satisfactory, a check mark is placed in the corresponding block. This allows for clear identification of which items have met the required standards and have been approved. The use of a check mark provides a simple and effective way to indicate that the item has been reviewed and found to be satisfactory.

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65. 108. How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank?

Explanation

The correct answer is 11 gallons. This amount of water or solution is used to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory waste tank. It is important to use the correct amount to ensure proper cleaning and maintenance of the tank.

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66. 33. What is the focus of the Pollution Preventive program?

Explanation

The focus of the Pollution Preventive program is to prevent or reduce the amount of waste that Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem. This means implementing measures and practices that aim to minimize waste generation and promote sustainable practices within the Air Force. The program aims to address the issue at its source, rather than dealing with waste disposal or recycling after it has been created. By focusing on waste prevention and reduction, the program aims to minimize the environmental impact and potential problems associated with waste generation.

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67. 83. In which area of the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) do deploying units have sole responsibility?

Explanation

Deploying units have sole responsibility in the marshalling area of the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF). In this area, units are responsible for organizing and arranging cargo in preparation for deployment. They ensure that the cargo is properly loaded, secured, and ready for transportation. The marshalling area serves as a staging area where units coordinate and consolidate their equipment and supplies before moving them to the next phase of deployment.

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68. 90. What is the capacity of the A-21 cargo bag?

Explanation

The capacity of the A-21 cargo bag is 500 pounds. This means that it can hold up to 500 pounds of weight.

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69. 63. Intransit Visilbity (ITV) provides commanders the

Explanation

Intransit Visibility (ITV) provides commanders with the capability to determine if a force has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission. This means that ITV allows commanders to track and monitor the movement of forces during transit, ensuring that they have arrived at their intended location and are prepared to carry out their assigned tasks. ITV provides real-time information on the location and status of forces, allowing commanders to make informed decisions and effectively manage their resources. It enhances situational awareness and enables commanders to assess the readiness and operational capability of their forces.

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70. 88. Which type of airdrop is used to feed stranded animals in a winter storm?

Explanation

Freedrop is the correct answer because it refers to a type of airdrop where the supplies or materials are simply dropped from the aircraft without the use of a parachute or any other means of slowing down the descent. In the context of feeding stranded animals in a winter storm, a freedrop airdrop would be the most suitable method as it allows for quick and efficient delivery of food to the animals in need. This method is often used in emergency situations where time is of the essence and a precise landing is not necessary.

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71. 109. When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC form 244, such as "latrine serviced by", you should include the initials of the

Explanation

When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC form 244, such as "latrine serviced by", you should include the initials of the person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times. This ensures that there is a clear record of who performed the service, when it was done, and how long it took. Including this information allows for accountability and tracking of the latrine service activities.

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72. 11. Which is not a trainee responsibility in the Air Force On-the-Job Training (AF OJT) Program?

Explanation

In the Air Force On-the-Job Training (AF OJT) Program, trainees are responsible for understanding particular deployment and home station training requirements, obtaining and maintaining knowledge, qualifications, certifications, and appropriate skill levels, and budgeting on and off duty time to complete assigned training tasks within established time limits. However, trainees are not responsible for identifying and certifying position qualifications and skill level upgrade training requirements. This task is typically handled by supervisors or higher-ranking personnel.

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73. 53. Which is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located?

Explanation

An Aerial Port of Debarkation (APOD) is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located. APODs are responsible for the reception, staging, onward movement, and integration of personnel, equipment, and supplies arriving by air. They play a crucial role in facilitating the movement of military forces and resources during deployments and operations. Therefore, the APOD is the correct answer to the question.

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74. 54. Joint forces can be organized on which basis?

Explanation

Joint forces can be organized on a geographical or functional basis. Geographical organization refers to organizing forces based on their physical location or area of operation. This allows for efficient coordination and utilization of resources in a specific geographic area. On the other hand, functional organization involves organizing forces based on their specialized roles or capabilities. This allows for effective task allocation and coordination of different functions within the joint forces. Both geographical and functional organization play a crucial role in ensuring the success of joint military operations.

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75. 76. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is both a process and a collection of automated computer systems used to develop

Explanation

JOPES is a process and a collection of automated computer systems used to develop operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased forced and deployment data (TPFDDs). This means that JOPES is responsible for creating and organizing plans for military operations, as well as managing the deployment of forces and equipment. The system helps in coordinating and synchronizing the efforts of different military branches and units, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and support for successful execution.

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76. 78. Which volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) documents the aircraft activity for each geographical location in support of all regional OPLANs (operational plans) and certain CONPLANs (concept plans)?

Explanation

WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity, is the correct answer because it specifically documents the aircraft activity for each geographical location in support of all regional OPLANs and certain CONPLANs. This volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan provides detailed information on the deployment and utilization of aircraft during wartime operations.

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77. 93. How much weight will the G-12 parachute support?

Explanation

The G-12 parachute is designed to support a maximum weight of 2,200 pounds. This means that it can safely and effectively carry a load of up to 2,200 pounds without any issues or concerns. It is important to note that exceeding this weight limit could potentially compromise the functionality and safety of the parachute, so it is crucial to adhere to the specified weight limit.

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78. 14. Which training document is the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements?

Explanation

The Master Training Plan (MTP) is the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements because it provides a comprehensive outline of the training necessary for each position within the work center. It includes the specific tasks, knowledge, and skills that individuals need to acquire in order to perform their job effectively. By following the MTP, individuals can ensure that they are receiving the necessary training and are meeting all job requirements. The MTP serves as a roadmap for training and development within the work center, ensuring that all personnel are properly trained and qualified for their roles.

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79. 15. The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a comprehensive

Explanation

The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a core training document that identifies education and training requirements. It serves as a comprehensive guide for individuals in a specific career field, outlining the necessary knowledge and skills they need to acquire. The CFETP helps standardize job knowledge training by providing a structured framework for career development. It ensures that individuals receive the necessary education and training to excel in their chosen field.

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80. 60. Improperly constructed mission numbers

Explanation

Improperly constructed mission numbers can interfere with automated data updates between the various Command and Control (C2) systems. This means that the information and updates related to missions may not be accurately and efficiently communicated between different systems, leading to potential errors, delays, and miscommunication. This can have a negative impact on the overall coordination and effectiveness of military operations, as timely and accurate data is crucial for decision-making and execution.

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81. 65. At a minimum, aerial port personnel should verify in the Global Transprotaion Network (GTN) the

Explanation

The correct answer is the presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code. This is because aerial port personnel need to verify the cargo and passenger data to ensure that the correct items and individuals are being transported. The mission number is important for tracking and coordinating the transportation, and the aerial port code is necessary for identifying the specific port involved in the process.

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82. 77. The time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is

Explanation

The correct answer is the electronic data that exists within the Joint Operation Planning and execution System (JOPES) to help execute deployment in phases. This explanation states that the time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is electronic data that is stored within the Joint Operation Planning and execution System (JOPES). This data is used to assist in the execution of deployment in different phases.

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83. 81. Which deployment work center is the hub of deployment operations and is responsible for the overall control and supervision of deployments?

Explanation

The Deployment Control Center (DCC) is the hub of deployment operations and is responsible for the overall control and supervision of deployments. It is likely that the DCC is the correct answer because it is specifically mentioned as the hub of deployment operations and responsible for overall control and supervision. The other options, Transportation Control Unit (TCU), Control Deployment Function (CDF), and Deployment Vehicle Operations (DVO), do not have the same level of responsibility and control as the DCC.

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84. 89. Which type of airdrop requires large, clear drop zones, because they usually consist of large complex loads?

Explanation

A low-velocity drop requires large, clear drop zones because it usually consists of large complex loads. This type of airdrop involves dropping heavy and bulky items, such as vehicles or equipment, from aircraft at a low velocity. The drop zones need to be spacious and unobstructed to ensure the safe landing of these large loads.

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85. 51. Through which system does does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)?

Explanation

The Air Force provides rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system through the National Air Mobility System (NAMS). This system is responsible for coordinating and managing the transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies for military operations. NAMS ensures that the Air Force has the capability to quickly and efficiently deploy and sustain forces anywhere in the world. It includes a network of air bases, aircraft, and support personnel that work together to enable rapid global mobility.

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86. 59. Which stage of Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) activation supports minor regional crises or small-scale contingencies?

Explanation

Stage I, Committed Expansion of Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) activation supports minor regional crises or small-scale contingencies. This stage involves the activation of a portion of the CRAF assets to meet the immediate airlift requirements of the Department of Defense (DoD) during such situations. It allows for the rapid mobilization and deployment of aircraft and resources to provide support and assistance in these smaller-scale emergencies.

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87. 72. You want to find out if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other. In which publication would you look?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204 (I). This publication would be the appropriate source to consult in order to determine if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other.

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88. 34. A solid waste is any discarded material,

Explanation

The correct answer states that a solid waste includes solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which are abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like. This means that any material that is discarded and falls into these categories can be classified as a solid waste. It can either be abandoned, meaning it is left behind or thrown away, or it can be recycled, or it can be considered inherently waste-like, indicating that it has properties or characteristics that make it waste.

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89. 35. What are the two main elements of minimizing waste?

Explanation

The two main elements of minimizing waste are prevention and control. Prevention involves taking measures to reduce or eliminate waste at the source, such as implementing efficient production processes or using alternative materials. Control refers to managing the waste that is generated, such as through proper disposal methods or recycling. By focusing on both prevention and control, organizations can effectively minimize waste and its negative impacts on the environment and resources.

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90. 61. Which type of mission moves mostly airlift sustainment cargo in which user reimburse the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF)?

Explanation

A channel mission is a type of mission where mostly airlift sustainment cargo is moved, and the user reimburses the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF) for the transportation costs. In this type of mission, the focus is on the efficient movement of cargo through established channels, ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are delivered to the designated locations.

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91. 85. To whom does a copy of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2133 not go?

Explanation

A copy of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2133 does not go to the troop commander with the consolidated flight package and manifest. This form is distributed to various individuals involved in the deployment process, but the troop commander is not one of them.

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92. 70. You are working in the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) for a mobility movement and want to locate information about mobility movement. In which part of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) would you look?

Explanation

In the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR), Part III is the section that contains information about mobility movement. This part of the regulation specifically focuses on the policies, procedures, and guidelines related to the transportation of cargo and personnel during mobility movements. It provides detailed information on topics such as deployment planning, cargo documentation, transportation modes, and special requirements for mobility movements. Therefore, if you are looking for information about mobility movement in the CDF, you would refer to Part III of the DTR.

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93. 102. You have performed final fleet service on a C-17 that blocks out at 0800. Within what time frame are aircrews required to pick up their own meals?

Explanation

Aircrews are required to pick up their own meals within 20 minutes prior to the aircraft blocking out. Since the aircraft blocks out at 0800, the correct time for aircrews to pick up their meals would be 0720.

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94. 17. Which form is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and is used and annotated the sae way as the specialty training standard (STS)?

Explanation

The AF IMT 797 is the correct answer because it is the form that is used and annotated in the same way as the specialty training standard (STS). The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a document that provides a comprehensive overview of the training and education requirements for a specific career field in the Air Force. The AF IMT 797 is a continuation of the CFETP and is used to track and annotate an individual's progress in their training and education within that career field.

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95. 26. Which form would you use to report hazards that cannot be eliminated immediately?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report. This form is used to report hazards that cannot be eliminated immediately. It is specific to the United States Air Force and allows for the documentation and reporting of potential hazards in order to prevent accidents and ensure the safety of personnel and equipment.

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96. 47. Which command is not component of the US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC). USTRANSCOM is responsible for coordinating transportation for the Department of Defense, and it consists of several component commands. The Air Mobility Command (AMC) is responsible for air transportation, the Military Sealift Command (MSC) is responsible for sea transportation, and the Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) is responsible for land transportation. MTAC is not a component of USTRANSCOM and is therefore not part of its responsibilities.

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97. 92. Which parachute if the largest?

Explanation

The correct answer is G-11. This can be inferred from the question which asks for the largest parachute. Since G-11 is the only option provided without any additional information, it can be assumed that G-11 is the largest parachute among the given options.

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98. 48. Which command is the link between Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry?

Explanation

The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) is the link between Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry. SDDC is responsible for the planning and execution of surface deployment and distribution functions, including the movement of personnel and equipment. It works closely with commercial carriers to coordinate and facilitate the transportation of DOD cargo.

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99. 73. A cargo user has received verified approval to ship its equipment via tactical, contingency, or emergency airlift and you need to look up the hazardous cargo restriction and requirements for this type of airlift. Which chapter in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204 (I), Preparing Hazardous Material for Military Air Shipment, would you go to find this information?

Explanation

Chapter 3 of Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204 (I), Preparing Hazardous Material for Military Air Shipment, would contain the information about hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for tactical, contingency, or emergency airlift.

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100. 106. When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank you should fill it with potable water until

Explanation

When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank, you should fill it with potable water until the gauge indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first. This means that you should continue filling the tank until the gauge shows that it is completely full, or until it reaches a capacity of 39 gallons, whichever happens earlier. This ensures that the tank is properly filled and ready for use.

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101. 75. You are loading helicopters on a C-17 aircraft and want to find information on specific procedures for loading the items. Which section number of the IC-17B-9 technical order (TO) contains that information?

Explanation

Section VI of the IC-17B-9 technical order (TO) contains information on specific procedures for loading the items onto the C-17 aircraft.

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102. 79. Which war reserve material (WRM) support is sourced using Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?

Explanation

Small Scale contingencies are the war reserve materials (WRM) support that is sourced using Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). This means that JOPES is used to plan and execute the procurement and allocation of WRM for small scale contingencies.

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103. 96. You have been tasked to load non-expendable supplies on an Air Mobility Command (AMC) C-5, Which form should you use?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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104. 105. When servicing an aircraft with potable water you should fill the aircraft water tank until

Explanation

When servicing an aircraft with potable water, the water should be filled until it discharges from the overflow fitting or reaches the requested capacity. This ensures that the water tank is properly filled and prevents overfilling, which could lead to leakage or damage to the aircraft. The overflow fitting serves as a safety measure to prevent excessive water from entering the tank. The requested capacity is also important to meet the specific requirements of the aircraft.

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105. 74. You are load planning cargo for Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) aircraft and want to look up the aircraft specifications to safely plan the load. In which publication series would you look to find the information?

Explanation

The Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-2 would be the correct publication series to look for aircraft specifications when load planning cargo for Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) aircraft. This publication series is likely to contain the necessary information on the specifications of the aircraft to ensure safe load planning.

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106. 100. A flight is leaving with a departure time of 0800. What is the lastest time passenger service personnel can call in a firm meal order for that flight?

Explanation

Passenger service personnel need to call in a firm meal order for the flight departing at 0800. The latest time they can do so is 0700, as it allows for sufficient time to prepare and deliver the meal before the flight's departure.

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107. 67. Which disk system  is not used to import cargo or passenger information into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES). DCAPES is not used to import cargo or passenger information into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES). GATES is a system used for managing and tracking cargo and passenger information in the air transportation industry. X-MAN, Logistics Modules (LOGMOD), and Manpower and Personnel Module-Base (MANPER-B) are all systems that can be used to import cargo or passenger information into GATES.

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108. 91. For what type of drop is the type V platform used?

Explanation

The type V platform is used for low-velocity drops. This suggests that the platform is specifically designed to handle drops that require less speed or force. It may be used for delivering fragile or sensitive cargo that cannot withstand high-velocity impacts. The platform likely provides a softer landing or cushioning mechanism to ensure the safety of the dropped items.

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109. 80. Which automated system schedules, controls, and monitors the movement of passengers and cargo via air or surface transportation using tasking information?

Explanation

The correct answer is Logistics Module (LOGMOD). LOGMOD is an automated system that is used to schedule, control, and monitor the movement of passengers and cargo via air or surface transportation. It uses tasking information to efficiently manage the logistics operations and ensure the timely movement of resources. This system helps in streamlining the transportation process and optimizing the use of available resources.

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110. 87. Which hazardous material certifications allow personnel to sign the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hazardous materials preparer and technical specialist." These certifications allow personnel to sign the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG). The hazardous materials preparer certification ensures that personnel are knowledgeable and trained in properly preparing hazardous materials for shipment. The technical specialist certification ensures that personnel have expertise in the technical aspects of hazardous materials handling and can accurately assess and classify dangerous goods. Together, these certifications provide the necessary qualifications for personnel to sign the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods.

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22. You are entering the warehouse wearing several items.  Which...
24. You have acquired a bad safety habit of walking while...
19. You injured your ankle playing basketball over the weekend. ...
28. You are entering the flight line area in a vehicle.  What...
57. Which organic aircraft can hold up to six standard pallets...
21. You must be mindful of bulky uniform items with cords and stings...
23. You have finished downloading pallets onto the finger docks. ...
40. Your work center is storing some classified material in the vault...
10. Who is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities...
8. How many days are trainees given to complete each volume of their...
30. You are stopped on the flight line at night with your vehicle and...
62. The last three digits of a mission number represents the
64. The Global Air transportation Execution System (GATES) allows...
94. When operating the lavatory service truck (LST), how will you know...
4. A group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) requiring...
52. Which area is an air terminal located on a prepared airfield that...
16. The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate
58. Which programs is where United States commercial airlines...
5. A Senior Airman may use the title Supervisor when he or she
43. Which type of cargo consists of highly classified national...
49. Which command is the US Transportation Command's (USTRANSCOM)...
2. An Air Force specialty (AFS) is a group of
6. Which specialty is not a part of the transportation career field?
27. The Base Weather Station has issued a lightning warning for your...
31. You are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light...
71. You are helping a customer determine if he and his family are...
1. An Airman is qualified in two Air Force specialty codes...
32. You are crossing the active runway and see a flashing white light...
39. You have knowledge of some North Atlantic Treaty Organization...
42. Which one of the following represents an operational security...
45. Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies...
55. Which aircraft can hold up to 36 standard pallets and 73...
66. Who has responsibility to provide accurate data to the aerial...
84. Mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until
97. You are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item...
110. As a fleet Service dispatcher, you have just completed and signed...
18. What is the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire...
50. Which agency serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air...
69. The Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES)...
20. Your supervisor just conducted very thorough safety training with...
25. Operational risk management (ORM) is a continuous process designed...
99. You are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee...
3. A duty Air Force Specialty code (DAFSC) is the AFSC
29. You have parked our vehicle on the flight line and need to leave...
36. Pollution control consists of which three activities?
37. Which is not a benefit of pollution prevention?
44. Which type of cargo must you always protect, safeguard, and handle...
56. Which aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift as...
9. Who is responsible for conducting and documenting work center...
12. What is the minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training...
41. An aircraft diverted into your station with classified material on...
101. What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF...
104. You are stationed at McChord AFB, WA, and a flight just...
46. Which command provided common-user and commercial air, land and...
68. Radio frequency identification (RFID) technology consist of which...
95. On the AMC form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record, to conduct an...
107. You serviced the C-17 with the lavatory service truck (LST); the...
13. Before a trainee can be awarded the 5 or 7 skill levels all core...
38. What can you don each and every day to reduce air emissions at...
82. Which deployment work center processes all deploying personnel...
98. Which describes the proper way to clean and service an over?
103. You have delivered 73 meals to a C-5. Who will stow those meals...
7. Which is not a component of the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF...
86. Satisfactory items are identified on the DD Form 2133 by
108. How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air...
33. What is the focus of the Pollution Preventive program?
83. In which area of the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) do deploying...
90. What is the capacity of the A-21 cargo bag?
63. Intransit Visilbity (ITV) provides commanders the
88. Which type of airdrop is used to feed stranded animals in a winter...
109. When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC...
11. Which is not a trainee responsibility in the Air Force On-the-Job...
53. Which is a station that serves as an authorized port to process...
54. Joint forces can be organized on which basis?
76. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is both...
78. Which volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) documents...
93. How much weight will the G-12 parachute support?
14. Which training document is the foundation for ensuring the...
15. The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a...
60. Improperly constructed mission numbers
65. At a minimum, aerial port personnel should verify in the Global...
77. The time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is
81. Which deployment work center is the hub of deployment operations...
89. Which type of airdrop requires large, clear drop zones, because...
51. Through which system does does the Air Force provide rapid global...
59. Which stage of Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) activation supports...
72. You want to find out if two pieces of hazardous cargo are...
34. A solid waste is any discarded material,
35. What are the two main elements of minimizing waste?
61. Which type of mission moves mostly airlift sustainment cargo in...
85. To whom does a copy of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2133...
70. You are working in the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) for a...
102. You have performed final fleet service on a C-17 that blocks out...
17. Which form is a continuation of the Career Field Education and...
26. Which form would you use to report hazards that cannot be...
47. Which command is not component of the US Transportation Command...
92. Which parachute if the largest?
48. Which command is the link between Department of Defense (DOD)...
73. A cargo user has received verified approval to ship its equipment...
106. When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water...
75. You are loading helicopters on a C-17 aircraft and want to find...
79. Which war reserve material (WRM) support is sourced using Joint...
96. You have been tasked to load non-expendable supplies on an Air...
105. When servicing an aircraft with potable water you should fill the...
74. You are load planning cargo for Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF)...
100. A flight is leaving with a departure time of 0800. What is...
67. Which disk system  is not used to import cargo or passenger...
91. For what type of drop is the type V platform used?
80. Which automated system schedules, controls, and monitors the...
87. Which hazardous material certifications allow personnel to sign...
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