3p0x1b CDC Vol 1 (2016)

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

These are the new cdc's with only 2 volumes. 2016 issue


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Access to AF weapons and munition and the information pertaining to them is

    • A.

      Free inforation

    • B.

      Strictly controlled

    • C.

      Determined by rank

    • D.

      For official use only

    Correct Answer
    B. Strictly controlled
    Explanation
    The access to AF weapons and munition and the information related to them is "strictly controlled" to ensure safety and security. This means that there are strict regulations and protocols in place to monitor and restrict access to these resources. This control helps prevent unauthorized individuals from obtaining or misusing the weapons and information, thereby maintaining the integrity and effectiveness of the Air Force operations.

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  • 2. 

    The number of weapons and storage facilities on an installation should be kept

    • A.

      An absolute secret

    • B.

      To an absolute minimum

    • C.

      To amount necessary for the mission

    • D.

      Written in the squadron operating procedures

    Correct Answer
    C. To amount necessary for the mission
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "to amount necessary for the mission." This means that the number of weapons and storage facilities on an installation should only be kept to the minimum required for the mission at hand. This ensures that there are no unnecessary or excessive weapons and storage facilities, reducing the risk of potential security breaches or accidents. By keeping this information confidential, it also helps maintain operational security and prevents unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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  • 3. 

    Which type of eye protection should be used as primary eye and face protection in areas where splashing or dust, rather than impact resistance, is a concern?

    • A.

      Safety glasses

    • B.

      Eye goggles

    • C.

      Wrap shades

    • D.

      Face shield

    Correct Answer
    D. Face shield
    Explanation
    A face shield should be used as primary eye and face protection in areas where splashing or dust is a concern. Unlike safety glasses or eye goggles, a face shield provides full coverage and protection for the entire face, including the eyes, from any potential splashes or dust particles. It offers a barrier against any potential hazards, ensuring the safety of the eyes and face. Wrap shades, on the other hand, are primarily used for protection against sunlight and glare, and may not provide adequate protection against splashes or dust.

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  • 4. 

    Which type of exposure is a result of oxide dust or the fumes of metallic lead from bullets impacting or becoming lodged in backstop surfaces of indoor or outdoor firing ranges?

    • A.

      Zinc

    • B.

      Lead exposure

    • C.

      Noxious gas exposure

    • D.

      Carbon dioxide exposure

    Correct Answer
    B. Lead exposure
    Explanation
    Lead exposure is the correct answer because the question specifically mentions the fumes of metallic lead from bullets impacting or becoming lodged in backstop surfaces of firing ranges. This indicates that the exposure is related to lead, as lead is commonly used in bullets. Zinc, noxious gas, and carbon dioxide exposure are not mentioned in the question and therefore are not relevant to the given scenario.

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  • 5. 

    Who does the Air Force rely on to determine the dangers related to the use of hazardous material (HAZMAT)?

    • A.

      The supplier or manufacturer of the chemical or agent

    • B.

      The Base Environmental Health Department

    • C.

      The Hazardous Materials Department

    • D.

      The Material Data Section

    Correct Answer
    A. The supplier or manufacturer of the chemical or agent
    Explanation
    The Air Force relies on the supplier or manufacturer of the chemical or agent to determine the dangers related to the use of hazardous material (HAZMAT). This is because the supplier or manufacturer has the necessary knowledge and expertise regarding the specific chemical or agent and can provide accurate information about its potential hazards. They are responsible for providing safety data sheets (SDS) that outline the proper handling, storage, and disposal procedures for the HAZMAT, as well as any potential health or environmental risks associated with its use. This information is crucial for the Air Force to ensure the safety of its personnel and the surrounding environment when dealing with hazardous materials.

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  • 6. 

    These data sheets provide in-depth information concerning any hazardous and toxic materials

    • A.

      Hazardous control prevention sheet (HCPS)

    • B.

      Material Safety distribution Sheet (MSDS)

    • C.

      Hazardous materials Department (ACDC)

    • D.

      Base environment safety sheet (BESS)

    Correct Answer
    B. Material Safety distribution Sheet (MSDS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Material Safety distribution Sheet (MSDS). MSDS is a document that provides detailed information about hazardous and toxic materials. It includes information about the composition, physical and chemical properties, health hazards, safety precautions, and emergency response procedures related to the material. MSDS is an important resource for handling, storing, and disposing of hazardous materials safely, and it is commonly used in industries to ensure the safety of workers and the environment.

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  • 7. 

    Hazardous material (HAZMAT) training is documented on which form?

    • A.

      AF FM 55

    • B.

      DD FM 55

    • C.

      HAZMAT FM 55

    • D.

      HAZCOM FM 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF FM 55
    Explanation
    Hazardous material (HAZMAT) training is documented on AF FM 55.

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  • 8. 

    Who is responsible for contacting the appropriate base agencies on technical issues pertaing to range design?

    • A.

      AF Security Forces Center/Combat Arms

    • B.

      Security Forces Commander

    • C.

      NCOIC Combat Arms

    • D.

      Base Commander

    Correct Answer
    C. NCOIC Combat Arms
    Explanation
    The NCOIC (Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge) of Combat Arms is responsible for contacting the appropriate base agencies on technical issues pertaining to range design. This individual is in a leadership position within the Combat Arms unit and is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the activities related to weapons training and range operations. They would have the necessary knowledge and expertise to address technical issues and communicate with the appropriate base agencies to ensure proper range design.

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  • 9. 

    One important aspect of designing a small arms firing range is to determine

    • A.

      If you have enough personnel to staff it

    • B.

      The type that will best fit your needs

    • C.

      If the local area will support it

    • D.

      The amount of money needed

    Correct Answer
    B. The type that will best fit your needs
    Explanation
    When designing a small arms firing range, it is crucial to determine the type that will best fit your needs. This involves considering factors such as the available space, the type of firearms that will be used, the training requirements, and the specific goals and objectives of the range. By identifying the most suitable type of range, you can ensure that it meets your requirements and provides a safe and effective environment for training and practice.

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  • 10. 

    Which is an angled baffle installed downrange to deflect and contain direct-fired rounds?

    • A.

      An overhead baffle

    • B.

      A platform baffle

    • C.

      A sidewall baffle

    • D.

      A canopy baffle

    Correct Answer
    A. An overhead baffle
    Explanation
    An overhead baffle is installed downrange to deflect and contain direct-fired rounds. It is angled and positioned above the shooting area to ensure that bullets are deflected safely downwards, preventing any potential harm to surrounding areas or individuals. This type of baffle provides effective protection and containment of projectiles, making it a suitable choice for shooting ranges or other similar environments.

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  • 11. 

    Side slope of earth berms must not exceed what vertical to horizontal ratio, unless materials are stabilized?

    • A.

      2:3

    • B.

      3:4

    • C.

      4:1

    • D.

      4:2

    Correct Answer
    A. 2:3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2:3. This means that the vertical height of the side slope should not exceed two-thirds of the horizontal distance. This ratio is important to prevent the side slope from becoming too steep, which could lead to instability and erosion. If materials are stabilized, it may be possible to have steeper side slopes, but without stabilization, the 2:3 ratio is recommended to ensure the stability of the earth berms.

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  • 12. 

    Which type of backstop was typically used on older partially or fully contained firing ranges?

    • A.

      Natural gasses

    • B.

      Metal

    • C.

      Earth

    • D.

      Class

    Correct Answer
    B. Metal
    Explanation
    Metal backstops were typically used on older partially or fully contained firing ranges. Metal backstops provide a durable and sturdy surface to absorb and contain the impact of bullets, ensuring safety by preventing bullets from ricocheting or escaping the range. They are also resistant to deterioration from weather conditions and offer a longer lifespan compared to other materials.

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  • 13. 

    Compliance with environmental cleanup and residue disposal is

    • A.

      Everyones responsibility

    • B.

      Conducted weekly

    • C.

      Madatory

    • D.

      Optional

    Correct Answer
    C. Madatory
    Explanation
    Compliance with environmental cleanup and residue disposal is mandatory, meaning it is required and not optional. It is the responsibility of everyone to ensure that they adhere to the regulations and guidelines for environmental cleanup and residue disposal on a weekly basis.

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  • 14. 

    Designs for rifle, handgun, and shotgun firing ranges should provide for a minimum of how many firing points?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      9

    • C.

      11

    • D.

      13

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    Designs for rifle, handgun, and shotgun firing ranges should provide for a minimum of 7 firing points. This means that the range should have at least 7 designated areas from where shooters can safely fire their weapons. Having an adequate number of firing points ensures that there is enough space for multiple shooters to practice simultaneously and helps prevent overcrowding and accidents. It also allows for efficient use of the range and accommodates different types of firearms.

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  • 15. 

    Test fire is not required for which type of small arms firing range?

    • A.

      Semipartially contained

    • B.

      Partially contained

    • C.

      Fully contained

    • D.

      Noncontained

    Correct Answer
    D. Noncontained
    Explanation
    A noncontained small arms firing range does not require a test fire. This type of range does not have any physical barriers or structures to contain the bullets or prevent them from escaping the range area. As a result, there is no need for a test fire to ensure the safety of the surrounding environment or nearby personnel.

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  • 16. 

    Who is responsible to train, qualify and certify personnel on Air Force ground weapons and courses of fire?

    • A.

      Range NCOIC

    • B.

      Tower operator

    • C.

      Primary Instructor

    • D.

      Assistant Instructor

    Correct Answer
    C. Primary Instructor
    Explanation
    The primary instructor is responsible for training, qualifying, and certifying personnel on Air Force ground weapons and courses of fire. They have the main role in providing instruction and guidance to ensure that personnel have the necessary skills and knowledge to handle and operate ground weapons effectively and safely. They play a crucial role in maintaining the readiness and proficiency of Air Force personnel in ground weapon operations.

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  • 17. 

    Who is responsible for conducting immediate and remedial actions on the firing line?

    • A.

      Shooter

    • B.

      Tower Operator

    • C.

      Firing line official

    • D.

      Assistant Instructor

    Correct Answer
    A. Shooter
    Explanation
    The shooter is responsible for conducting immediate and remedial actions on the firing line. This means that they are accountable for taking prompt action and addressing any issues or problems that may arise during shooting. They are expected to follow safety protocols, handle their firearm safely, and ensure that the firing line is secure. As the person actively engaged in shooting, the shooter is in the best position to identify and address any immediate or remedial actions that need to be taken.

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  • 18. 

    Who is ultimately responsible for all range operations?

    • A.

      Primary Instructor

    • B.

      Firing line official

    • C.

      Tower Operator

    • D.

      Range NCOIC

    Correct Answer
    C. Tower Operator
    Explanation
    The Tower Operator is ultimately responsible for all range operations. They are responsible for coordinating and overseeing the activities on the range, ensuring the safety of personnel, and maintaining communication with all parties involved. They have the authority to make decisions and take necessary actions to ensure the smooth operation of the range. This includes managing the firing line officials, primary instructors, and the Range NCOIC.

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  • 19. 

    The key to effective firing line operations is clear

    • A.

      Communication

    • B.

      Rank structure

    • C.

      Understanding

    • D.

      Orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Communication
    Explanation
    Effective firing line operations require clear communication. Without effective communication, there can be confusion, misunderstandings, and mistakes that can compromise the safety and success of the operation. Clear communication ensures that everyone understands their roles and responsibilities, the objectives of the operation, and any specific orders or instructions that need to be followed. It allows for efficient coordination and cooperation among team members, enabling them to work together effectively towards a common goal.

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  • 20. 

    How ofter are operating instructions (OI) required to be reviewed?

    • A.

      Semi Annually

    • B.

      As needed

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Monthly

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually
    Explanation
    Operating instructions (OI) need to be reviewed annually to ensure that they are up to date and reflect any changes in processes or equipment. This regular review helps to maintain the accuracy and effectiveness of the instructions, ensuring that employees have the most current information to perform their tasks safely and efficiently. By conducting an annual review, any necessary updates or revisions can be made to address any new developments or improvements in the operating procedures. This helps to ensure that the instructions remain relevant and reliable for the users.

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  • 21. 

    Which number, assigned by the manufacturer, is used to readily identify and account for ammunition?

    • A.

      Ammo Lot number

    • B.

      Functional lot number

    • C.

      Caliber lot number

    • D.

      Lost lot number

    Correct Answer
    A. Ammo Lot number
    Explanation
    The number assigned by the manufacturer to readily identify and account for ammunition is called the "Ammo Lot number". This number is used to track and manage the production, distribution, and usage of ammunition. It helps in ensuring quality control, identifying any issues or defects, and tracing the ammunition back to its source if needed.

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  • 22. 

    Which website shows the training munitions allowances for different career fields and units in the Air Force?

    • A.

      Global Ammunition Control Point (GACP)

    • B.

      Ground Munitions Authorization Tables (GMAT)

    • C.

      World Wide Ammunition Allowance Listing (WWAAL)

    • D.

      Global Ammunition Authorized Allowance Listing (GMAAL)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global Ammunition Control Point (GACP)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Global Ammunition Control Point (GACP). This website shows the training munitions allowances for different career fields and units in the Air Force. The Ground Munitions Authorization Tables (GMAT) provide information specifically for ground munitions, while the World Wide Ammunition Allowance Listing (WWAAL) and Global Ammunition Authorized Allowance Listing (GMAAL) do not specifically mention training munitions or career fields and units in the Air Force.

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  • 23. 

    What percentage of each weapon type an organization has in extended storage/preferred packaging must be inspected?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      40

    Correct Answer
    B. 20
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 20. This means that 20% of each weapon type in extended storage/preferred packaging must be inspected. This suggests that there is a requirement for regular inspections to ensure the proper maintenance and functionality of the weapons in storage. Inspecting a portion of each weapon type helps to identify any potential issues or concerns and allows for necessary actions to be taken to address them.

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  • 24. 

    The moment during breathing when most of the air has been exhaled from your lungs before you inhale is known as

    • A.

      Diaphragm pause

    • B.

      Oxygen deficiency

    • C.

      Point of re-breeathing

    • D.

      Natural respiratory pause

    Correct Answer
    D. Natural respiratory pause
    Explanation
    The natural respiratory pause refers to the moment during breathing when most of the air has been exhaled from the lungs before inhaling again. This pause allows the body to rest momentarily before the next inhalation. It is a normal and necessary part of the breathing process, allowing for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is probably the most challenging fundamental?

    • A.

      Trigger control

    • B.

      Breath Control

    • C.

      Sight picture

    • D.

      Aiming

    Correct Answer
    A. Trigger control
    Explanation
    Trigger control is likely the most challenging fundamental because it requires the shooter to have precise control and coordination of their finger movement when pulling the trigger. It involves applying steady pressure and smoothly breaking the shot without disturbing the aim or causing the gun to jerk. Mastering trigger control is crucial for accuracy and consistency in shooting, and it requires a significant amount of practice and skill to achieve.

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  • 26. 

    When making a windage adjustment, rotating the knob clockwise will move the strike of the bullet

    • A.

      Up

    • B.

      Down

    • C.

      Right

    • D.

      Left

    Correct Answer
    C. Right
    Explanation
    When making a windage adjustment, rotating the knob clockwise will move the strike of the bullet to the right. This is because windage refers to the horizontal adjustment of the bullet's trajectory to compensate for the wind. By rotating the knob clockwise, the shooter is increasing the rightward deviation of the bullet's path, effectively moving the strike to the right.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is commonly referred to as the push-pull method?

    • A.

      Two handed tension

    • B.

      Isometric Tension

    • C.

      One Handed grip

    • D.

      Isosceles grip

    Correct Answer
    B. Isometric Tension
    Explanation
    Isometric tension is commonly referred to as the push-pull method because it involves applying equal force with both hands in opposite directions, creating a balanced tension or resistance. This method is often used in exercises and weightlifting to engage multiple muscle groups and increase overall strength and stability. It allows for a controlled and controlled movement, promoting better muscle activation and development.

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  • 28. 

    At which stage of the draw will you rotate the weapon towards the target while keeping it close to the body?

    • A.

      Grab

    • B.

      Draw

    • C.

      Smack

    • D.

      Look and press

    Correct Answer
    B. Draw
    Explanation
    During the "Draw" stage of the process, you will rotate the weapon towards the target while keeping it close to the body. This stage involves pulling the weapon out of its holster or sheath in preparation for use. By rotating the weapon towards the target, it allows for a more accurate aim and better control over the weapon. Keeping it close to the body helps to maintain a secure grip and prevent any unwanted movements or accidents.

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  • 29. 

    Correct sight picture for the M203 includes sight alignment and 

    • A.

      Range sensing

    • B.

      Sight alignment

    • C.

      Placing of aiming point

    • D.

      Trigger squeeze and P-R-E-S-S

    Correct Answer
    C. Placing of aiming point
    Explanation
    The correct sight picture for the M203 includes placing of the aiming point. This means that when aiming the M203, the shooter should align the sights with the target and place the aiming point on the desired point of impact. This ensures that the projectile fired from the M203 will hit the intended target accurately.

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  • 30. 

    Determining where a grenade explodes with respect to the target is called 

    • A.

      Estimating

    • B.

      Guessing

    • C.

      Sensing

    • D.

      Hunch

    Correct Answer
    C. Sensing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sensing" because when a grenade explodes, it emits various signals such as sound, heat, and pressure. By sensing these signals, one can determine the location of the explosion with respect to the target. Sensing involves using one's senses or technology to gather information and make judgments about the environment. In this case, it refers to detecting and interpreting the signals emitted by the grenade to estimate its explosion location.

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  • 31. 

    Which range sensing command indicates you hit part of the target?

    • A.

      Target

    • B.

      Over

    • C.

      Short

    • D.

      Doubtful

    Correct Answer
    A. Target
    Explanation
    The word "target" in this context suggests that the range sensing command "target" indicates that part of the target has been hit.

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  • 32. 

    When zeroing the M203 using either the leaf or quadrant sight, you will engage a target at 

    • A.

      25 meters

    • B.

      50 meters

    • C.

      100 meters

    • D.

      200 meters

    Correct Answer
    D. 200 meters
    Explanation
    When zeroing the M203 using either the leaf or quadrant sight, you will engage a target at 200 meters. This means that when adjusting the sights on the M203 launcher, the user will set it up to accurately hit a target located 200 meters away. This distance is important for ensuring the projectile reaches the intended target accurately and effectively.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is an excellent machine gun firing position that provides a stable firing platform?

    • A.

      Fighting position, bipod-supported

    • B.

      Fighting position, tripod-supported

    • C.

      Prone position, bipod-supported

    • D.

      Prone position, tripod-supported

    Correct Answer
    A. Fighting position, bipod-supported
    Explanation
    A bipod-supported fighting position is an excellent machine gun firing position that provides a stable firing platform. The bipod allows for the gun to be securely supported and stabilized, reducing recoil and increasing accuracy. This position allows the gunner to maintain a low profile while still having a stable firing platform, making it an effective choice for engaging targets. The tripod-supported fighting position may also provide stability, but it is not as versatile or maneuverable as the bipod-supported position. The prone position, whether bipod or tripod-supported, does not offer the same level of stability and control as a fighting position.

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  • 34. 

    In regard to marksmanship techniques, centering the sights within their maximum adjustment ares is the definition for

    • A.

      Adjusted calibration method

    • B.

      Adjusted aiming point

    • C.

      Mechanical zero

    • D.

      Battlesight zero

    Correct Answer
    C. Mechanical zero
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mechanical zero. Mechanical zero refers to centering the sights within their maximum adjustment areas. This means adjusting the sights to their neutral position, where they are neither too high nor too low. By setting the sights to mechanical zero, the shooter ensures that the weapon is properly aligned and ready for accurate aiming and shooting.

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  • 35. 

    To ensure training aids are used effectively, they should

    • A.

      Appeal to one or more of the senses

    • B.

      Be produced locally

    • C.

      Be interesting

    • D.

      Be colorful

    Correct Answer
    A. Appeal to one or more of the senses
    Explanation
    Training aids should appeal to one or more of the senses in order to ensure their effective use. This is because engaging multiple senses during training enhances the learning experience and improves information retention. When training aids are designed to stimulate sight, hearing, touch, or even smell and taste, they create a more immersive and interactive environment for learners. This multisensory approach not only captures attention but also helps individuals better understand and remember the information being presented. Therefore, appealing to the senses is crucial for maximizing the effectiveness of training aids.

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  • 36. 

    Which training aid is probably the most versatile and frequently used?

    • A.

      Overhead transparencies

    • B.

      Dry erase board

    • C.

      Video footage

    • D.

      Handout

    Correct Answer
    B. Dry erase board
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the dry erase board because it is a versatile training aid that can be used in various ways. It allows for easy writing and erasing, making it suitable for brainstorming, illustrating concepts, and engaging the audience during a training session. It can also be used for interactive activities and group discussions. Additionally, the dry erase board is frequently used in classrooms, boardrooms, and training sessions due to its convenience and effectiveness in conveying information.

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  • 37. 

    Which category of training equipment includes items that retain their assigned nomenclature and Federal supply Classification in the training program?

    • A.

      Trainers

    • B.

      Training aids

    • C.

      Instructional aids

    • D.

      Standard equipment

    Correct Answer
    D. Standard equipment
    Explanation
    Standard equipment refers to items that retain their assigned nomenclature and Federal supply Classification in the training program. This means that these items are used in training programs without any modifications or changes to their original specifications or classification. Trainers, training aids, and instructional aids may be used in training programs, but they may not necessarily retain their original nomenclature or classification. Therefore, the correct answer is standard equipment.

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  • 38. 

    What should you do with a training aid that supports an old topic?

    • A.

      Leave them out to keep the students' attention

    • B.

      Put them out of sight so the students can reflect

    • C.

      Put them out of sight so they do not distract the students

    • D.

      Place them where the students can review them during a break

    Correct Answer
    C. Put them out of sight so they do not distract the students
    Explanation
    It is important to put the training aid out of sight so that it does not distract the students. This is because if the training aid is visible, it may divert the students' attention away from the current topic being taught. By removing it from sight, the students can focus solely on the new topic and avoid any potential distractions.

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  • 39. 

    Which training exercise is an excellent means of detecting if a shooter is anticipating when the weapon is going to fire?

    • A.

      Pencil drills

    • B.

      Ball and dummy

    • C.

      Dime and washer

    • D.

      Sighting and aiming

    Correct Answer
    B. Ball and dummy
    Explanation
    Ball and dummy training exercises involve mixing live rounds and dummy rounds randomly in a shooter's magazine, without their knowledge. This helps in detecting if the shooter is anticipating the recoil or muzzle blast by observing their reaction when they pull the trigger on a dummy round. If the shooter flinches or jerks the weapon during the shot, it indicates anticipation. This exercise helps in identifying and correcting the shooter's anticipation, improving their shooting technique and accuracy.

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  • 40. 

    Generally, performance tests are developed in a format that meets what type of needs?

    • A.

      Local

    • B.

      MAJCOM

    • C.

      Individual

    • D.

      Air Force

    Correct Answer
    A. Local
    Explanation
    Performance tests are generally developed in a format that meets local needs. This means that the tests are tailored to the specific requirements and conditions of a particular locality or location. By developing tests that are specific to the local context, organizations can ensure that the performance measures and criteria are relevant and meaningful for the individuals or groups being assessed. This approach allows for a more accurate evaluation of performance and enables organizations to identify areas for improvement and make informed decisions based on local needs and conditions.

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  • 41. 

    Whats another name for a performance evaluation checklist?

    • A.

      Objective elimination instrument

    • B.

      Objective evaluation instruction

    • C.

      Objective elimination instruction

    • D.

      Objective evaluation instrument

    Correct Answer
    D. Objective evaluation instrument
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Objective evaluation instrument". This is another name for a performance evaluation checklist because it refers to a tool or instrument used to objectively evaluate or assess an individual's performance. It implies that the checklist is designed to provide an objective and systematic approach to evaluating performance, rather than being subjective or biased.

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  • 42. 

    Which performance evaluation checklist lists the sequential steps the students are to perform?

    • A.

      End-process

    • B.

      End-product

    • C.

      In-product

    • D.

      In-process

    Correct Answer
    D. In-process
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "in-process." This is because the term "in-process" refers to the evaluation of a task or activity while it is being performed. In this context, the evaluation checklist would provide a sequential list of steps that students need to follow during the process of performing a task. This allows for ongoing feedback and assessment of the students' progress and helps identify any areas that may need improvement.

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  • 43. 

    Student feedback the instructor provides generally serves one of two purposes - informational and 

    • A.

      Correctional

    • B.

      Motivational

    • C.

      Inspirational

    • D.

      Educational

    Correct Answer
    B. Motivational
    Explanation
    The instructor provides student feedback for two main purposes: informational and correctional. However, in addition to these two purposes, feedback can also serve as motivation for students. Motivational feedback aims to inspire and encourage students to continue their efforts and improve their performance. It can help boost their confidence, increase their engagement, and foster a positive learning environment.

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  • 44. 

    Students usually accept instructor feedback if it is presented with

    • A.

      Conviction and sincerity

    • B.

      Care and understanding

    • C.

      Insults and putdowns

    • D.

      Anger and bias

    Correct Answer
    A. Conviction and sincerity
    Explanation
    Students usually accept instructor feedback if it is presented with conviction and sincerity. When feedback is delivered with conviction, it shows that the instructor believes in what they are saying, which can make the students more likely to trust and accept the feedback. Sincerity is also important because it shows that the instructor genuinely cares about the student's progress and wants to help them improve. This creates a positive and supportive learning environment, where students are more open to receiving feedback and making necessary changes.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 20, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Don
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