CDC 6C051B : Ultimate Quiz On Contracting Journeyman! Trivia

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CDC 6C051B : Ultimate Quiz On Contracting Journeyman! Trivia

What we have here is the ultimate CDC 6C051B trivia quiz on Contracting Journeyman. It is perfectly designed to help you revise adequately for the upcoming exam while at the same time seeing how you would have scored if this was your actual exam. Be true to yourself and don’t check the answers first — all the best in your revision.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A negotiated contract is
    • A. 

      A solicitation awarded from an invitation for bids (IFB).

    • B. 

      A contract awarded without discussions.

    • C. 

      Any contract awarded without using sealed bidding.

    • D. 

      An awarded contract using noncompetitive methods.

  • 2. 
    What circumstance allows an invitation for bids (IFB) to be converted to a request for proposal (RFP)?
    • A. 

      Time allows for reasonable bidding time.

    • B. 

      Unreasonable prices or only one bid was received.

    • C. 

      The bids were independently arrived at and not collusive.

    • D. 

      There is a reasonable expectation of at least two or more responsible bidders.

  • 3. 
    When compared to sealed bidding, the negotiation process is considered more
    • A. 

      Rigid

    • B. 

      Flexible.

    • C. 

      Expeditious.

    • D. 

      Competitive.

  • 4. 
    Once it has been determined that negotiation of a contract is in the best interest of the government, the contracting officer
    • A. 

      Must award to the responsible bidder offering the lowest price.

    • B. 

      Must award to the responsible bidder offering the lowest price.

    • C. 

      Has to accept the contractor’s proposed profit and fee.

    • D. 

      Has wide latitude in exercising business judgement.

  • 5. 
    When responding to a solicitation for a negotiated action, contractors submit
    • A. 

      A bid.

    • B. 

      An offer.

    • C. 

      A package.

    • D. 

      A proposal.

  • 6. 
    Exchanging information with industry serves what purpose?
    • A. 

      Shortens large bid lists by eliminating contractors.

    • B. 

      Allows the government to determine the lowest price a contractor will propose.

    • C. 

      Improves the understanding of the government’s requirements and industry capabilities.

    • D. 

      Streamlines the acquisition process by reducing the amount of paperwork required.

  • 7. 
    Which statement best describes oral presentation?
    • A. 

      They may be a substitute for written information

    • B. 

      They occur during the final round of negotiations.

    • C. 

      They are evaluated quantitatively and scored by the government.

    • D. 

      They may contain only the information provided in the offeror’s proposal.

  • 8. 
    When are contracting officers relieved from complying with portions of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) concerning letter request for proposals (RFPs)?
    • A. 

      When supervising foreign procurement.

    • B. 

      When an urgency exists and FAR compliance would be restricted.

    • C. 

      When permitted under circumstances of other than full-and-open competition.

    • D. 

      Using a letter RFP does not eliminate the requirement to comply with other portions of FAR

  • 9. 
    If a negotiated procurement is to be awarded based on other-than-price and price-related factors, this information is found in solicitation Section
    • A. 

      B, Supplies or services and prices/costs.

    • B. 

      C, Description/specifications/work statement.

    • C. 

      L, Instructions, conditions, and notices to offerors and respondents

    • D. 

      M, Evaluation factors for award

  • 10. 
    Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the necessary arrangements?
    • A. 

      Contract specialist.

    • B. 

      Contracting officer.

    • C. 

      Functional commander.

    • D. 

      Quality assurance personnel.

  • 11. 
    When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?
    • A. 

      Quantity, specifications, contract.

    • B. 

      Quantity, contract type, specifications

    • C. 

      Quantity, specifications, delivery schedules

    • D. 

      Defects or ambiguities after the closing date.

  • 12. 
    After the closing date, amendments to request for proposals (RFPs) are provided to
    • A. 

      All interested parties

    • B. 

      Only the top three ranked offerors

    • C. 

      All parties on the original bidders mailing list.

    • D. 

      All offerors that have not been eliminated from the competitive range.

  • 13. 
    Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for proposal (RFP) before closing?
    • A. 

      The incumbent contractor did not submit a proposal

    • B. 

      Several contractors have combined together into a teaming arrangement.

    • C. 

      Changes are so substantial that additional sources likely would have submitted offers.

    • D. 

      The civil servants union submitted a complaint about the ongoing competitive sourcing.

  • 14. 
    The best description of a modification to a proposal is
    • A. 

      A change made to correct a mistake after award.

    • B. 

      A change made after the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • C. 

      A change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • D. 

      All changes made after exceeding the maximum number of amendments.

  • 15. 
    The best description of a revision to a proposal is
    • A. 

      A revision amends a change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • B. 

      A change made after the solicitation closing date at the request of a contracting officer as a result of negotiations.

    • C. 

      A revision corrects a change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • D. 

      A change made after the solicitation closing date made during negotiations at the contractor’s request.

  • 16. 
    Can a proposal be withdrawn at any time before award?
    • A. 

      Yes, by written notice at any time before award.

    • B. 

      No, the proposal is retained with the contract file.

    • C. 

      No, once submitted, the proposal will be opened at closing.

    • D. 

      Yes, at any time before award, provided the contracting officer writes a determination and finding (D&F).

  • 17. 
    When using a tradeoff process, all the evaluation factors that affect award will be disclosed
    • A. 

      In the solicitation.

    • B. 

      During negotiations.

    • C. 

      In presolicitation notices.

    • D. 

      In the notice to unsuccessful offerors.

  • 18. 
    Which statement is true about the lowest price technically acceptable source selection process?
    • A. 

      Any tradeoffs are okay and are encouraged.

    • B. 

      Exchanges with contractors will not be required or allowed.

    • C. 

      Proposals are ranked based on noncost/price factors.

    • D. 

      Award is made to the lowest priced proposal that meets or exceeds standards

  • 19. 
    Performance price tradeoff allows tradeoffs between which two evaluation factors?
    • A. 

      Technical merit and price/cost.

    • B. 

      Price/cost and past performance.

    • C. 

      Past performance and quality.

    • D. 

      Quality and technical merit.

  • 20. 
    When using source selection procedures, the source selection organization consists of personnel representing
    • A. 

      Government and contractor personnel as needed.

    • B. 

      Government personnel, including one technical member and one contracting member.

    • C. 

      Contractor personnel representing the various functional disciplines involved.

    • D. 

      Government and contractor personnel representing various functional and technical disciplines.

  • 21. 
    Who is normally the source selection authority for procurements?
    • A. 

      Contract specialist.

    • B. 

      Contracting officer.

    • C. 

      Functional commander

    • D. 

      Quality assurance personnel.

  • 22. 
    The source selection authority is responsible for
    • A. 

      The contract award portion only.

    • B. 

      Selection and contract award only

    • C. 

      Selecting the source selection evaluation team only.

    • D. 

      Solicitation, evaluation, selection, and contract award.

  • 23. 
    All are distinct parts that are included in the source selection plan (SSP) except a 
    • A. 

      Source selection team.

    • B. 

      Presolicitation activities.

    • C. 

      Evaluation factors and subfactors.

    • D. 

      Source selection approval document.

  • 24. 
    Evaluation factors and subfactors establish the level an offeror’s proposal must meet in order to be judged minimally acceptable. Therefore, the factors should
    • A. 

      Include every aspect of the solicitation.

    • B. 

      Be quantitative, qualitative, or both.

    • C. 

      Be tailored to each proposal.

    • D. 

      Be quantitative only.

  • 25. 
    “Can potentially cause some disruption of schedule, increase in cost, or degradation of performance,” is the definition of which proposal risk?
    • A. 

      Low

    • B. 

      High

    • C. 

      Medium

    • D. 

      Moderate

  • 26. 
    When determining which offerors to include in the competitive range, the contracting officer
    • A. 

      Excludes the bottom 10% of the offerors.

    • B. 

      Only includes the top 10% of the offerors.

    • C. 

      Includes all of the most highly rated proposals.

    • D. 

      Includes all offerors who are technically acceptable.

  • 27. 
    What action is appropriate when the contracting officer decides that a proposal should not be included in the competitive range?
    • A. 

      Begin negotiations with offeror.

    • B. 

      Request the offeror clarify their proposal.

    • C. 

      Allow the offeror one more change to revise their proposal.

    • D. 

      Eliminate from award consideration and provide notice to the offeror.

  • 28. 
    What type of exchanges is held after determining the competitive range?
    • A. 

      Discussions.

    • B. 

      Presentations.

    • C. 

      Clarifications.

    • D. 

      Communications.

  • 29. 
    What comparisons are allowed in a source selection decision document?
    • A. 

      No comparisons are allowed.

    • B. 

      One contractor’s approach to another.

    • C. 

      All of the contractors’ approaches against the SSET’s personal knowledge.

    • D. 

      The top three contractors’ approaches against the SSET’s personal knowledge.

  • 30. 
    Price analysis is preferred over cost analysis because it
    • A. 

      Is less time-consuming.

    • B. 

      Normally determines price reasonableness.

    • C. 

      Is the process of evaluating separate cost elements.

    • D. 

      Requires little or no comparison of proposed prices.

  • 31. 
    What factors are considered in determining whether a cost is allowable?
    • A. 

      Cost and pricing data are certified.

    • B. 

      Costs are not allocable to the contract.

    • C. 

      Rough yardsticks (such as dollars per pound) have been applied.

    • D. 

      Standards have been established by Cost Accounting Standard Board.

  • 32. 
    A cost is reasonable if
    • A. 

      It does not exceed the fair market value paid by the contractor over the last three years.

    • B. 

      It does not exceed 110% of the price last paid by the government for the same item.

    • C. 

      . the amount is determined fair and reasonable by the contracting officer and its nature is not illegal.

    • D. 

      Its nature and amount does not exceed that which would be included by a prudent business person in the conduct of competitive business.

  • 33. 
    Which would be identified as a direct cost?
    • A. 

      The cost of doors for the building being constructed.

    • B. 

      The cost of tools to cut and assemble wood.

    • C. 

      The salary of a management official.

    • D. 

      The cost of two pounds of nails.

  • 34. 
    If a contractor buys a piece of equipment for $1,000, estimates its expected service life at 10 years and projects salvage value of $200, its annual depreciation value under the straight-line method is
    • A. 

      $20.

    • B. 

      $80

    • C. 

      $100

    • D. 

      $120

  • 35. 
    Cost or pricing data is described as
    • A. 

      Factual.

    • B. 

      Subjective.

    • C. 

      Generalized.

    • D. 

      Judgmental.

  • 36. 
    Which is not an exception to obtaining cost and pricing data?
    • A. 

      Acquisition of a commercial item.

    • B. 

      A modification is made to an existing contract.

    • C. 

      Prices agreed upon are based on adequate price competition.

    • D. 

      Prices agreed upon are based on prices set by law or regulation.

  • 37. 
    When cost or pricing data is required, the contracting officer requires the contractor to submit
    • A. 

      A certificate of current cost or pricing data.

    • B. 

      Projections of cost for the first six months of production.

    • C. 

      A certificate of authenticity for each vendor quote provided.

    • D. 

      Affidavits setting maximum expenditures for material and labor.

  • 38. 
    If after award, cost and pricing data are found to be inaccurate, incomplete, or noncurrent, what contract price adjustment is the government entitled to?
    • A. 

      No adjustment.

    • B. 

      Any price increase or decrease that resulted from the faulty data.

    • C. 

      Any price increase that resulted from the faulty data plus a 10% penalty charge.

    • D. 

      Any significant price increase including profit or fee that resulted from the faulty data.

  • 39. 
    A win/win negotiated outcome is preferred in achieving long-term satisfaction because
    • A. 

      Each party feels the “victory” was at the other side’s expense

    • B. 

      Competition enhancement is not as important as being trusting.

    • C. 

      The government is interested in establishing long-lasting relationships.

    • D. 

      Government officials are required to get the lowest price yet remain friendly with suppliers.

  • 40. 
    What helps the contracting officer negotiate a fair and reasonable price?
    • A. 

      Audit report.

    • B. 

      Field pricing report.

    • C. 

      Fact-finding meeting.

    • D. 

      Prenegotiation objective.

  • 41. 
    Due to the importance of unity during the bargaining session, who should be the only the individual designated to speak?
    • A. 

      Functional representative.

    • B. 

      Senior team member.

    • C. 

      Pricing specialist.

    • D. 

      Chief negotiator.

  • 42. 
    How should the physical environment enhance win/win outcomes?
    • A. 

      Facilitates your side “buying” a position.

    • B. 

      Makes the contractor feel as comfortable as possible.

    • C. 

      Gives other side the perception that they are being treated fairly.

    • D. 

      Arranging the conference room gives you a psychological advantage.

  • 43. 
    What is the best sequence for negotiating areas of disagreement?
    • A. 

      No one approach is better than another

    • B. 

      Start negotiating on secondary issue first.

    • C. 

      Start negotiating issues of greatest importance.

    • D. 

      Government negotiates the contractor’s demands first.

  • 44. 
    Once both sides have reached general agreement during negotiations, the next step is to
    • A. 

      Close the negotiations as soon as possible.

    • B. 

      Address specific issues which are still in question.

    • C. 

      Take a short break to allow each side to reconsider each point.

    • D. 

      Wait while your administrative staff finalizes the agreement for signature.

  • 45. 
    During negotiations, how should you handle weaknesses in your negotiation position?
    • A. 

      Do not volunteer weaknesses.

    • B. 

      Immediately reveal them as an act of good faith.

    • C. 

      Divulge your weaknesses if the contractor does the same

    • D. 

      Explain your weaknesses only after agreeing to a final price.

  • 46. 
    Deadlocks in negotiations
    • A. 

      Are not always avoidable.

    • B. 

      Only occur when parties are unfair

    • C. 

      Only occur when parties are unreasonable

    • D. 

      Always signify the end of negotiation attempts

  • 47. 
    Why must a price negotiation memorandum (PNM) permit the rapid reconstruction of the major consideration in pricing the contract?
    • A. 

      So courts can render decisions quicker

    • B. 

      In case the contract file is lost or destroyed.

    • C. 

      It aids in auditing contract file by inspectors.

    • D. 

      Because of the high turnover rate for contracting personnel.

  • 48. 
    A price negotiation memorandum (PNM) must contain all of the following except
    • A. 

      A description of the acquisition

    • B. 

      The basis for profit or fee negotiated.

    • C. 

      The duration of the negotiation session

    • D. 

      Documentation of fair and reasonable pricing.

  • 49. 
    What contract award form is used for construction, alterations, or repair?
    • A. 

      SF 26

    • B. 

      SF 33

    • C. 

      SF 1442

    • D. 

      SF 1447

  • 50. 
    The contracting officer provides written notice of award to the unsuccessful offerors within
    • A. 

      Three days

    • B. 

      Four days

    • C. 

      Five days

    • D. 

      Six days