ISTQB-2010-2011-10

30 Questions | Attempts: 160
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ISTQB Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Q. 471: The most important thing about early test design is that it:

    • A.

      Makes test preparation easier.

    • B.

      Means inspections are not required.

    • C.

      Can prevent fault multiplication.

    • D.

      Will find all faults.

    Correct Answer
    C. Can prevent fault multiplication.
  • 2. 

    Q. 472: A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

    • A.

      Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.

    • B.

      Facilities to compare test results with expected results.

    • C.

      The precise differences in versions of software component source code.

    • D.

      Restricted access to the source code library.

    Correct Answer
    B. Facilities to compare test results with expected results.
  • 3. 

    Q. 473: Integration testing in the small:

    • A.

      Tests the individual components that have been developed.

    • B.

      Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.

    • C.

      Only uses components that form part of the live system.

    • D.

      Tests interfaces to other systems.

    Correct Answer
    B. Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
  • 4. 

    Q. 474: Which of the following requirements is testable?

    • A.

      The system shall be user friendly.

    • B.

      The safety-critical parts of the system s all contain 0 faults.

    • C.

      The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.

    • D.

      The system shall be built to be portable.

    Correct Answer
    C. The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
  • 5. 

    Q. 475: An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

    • A.

      Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.

    • B.

      Can be performed by the person who wrote the code.

    • C.

      Can be performed by inexperienced staff.

    • D.

      Are cheap to perform.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
  • 6. 

    . 476: Test cases are designed during:

    • A.

      Test recording.

    • B.

      Test planning.

    • C.

      Test configuration.

    • D.

      Test specification.

    Correct Answer
    D. Test specification.
  • 7. 

    Q. 477: A failure is:

    • A.

      Found in the software; the result of an error.

    • B.

      Departure from specified behaviour.

    • C.

      An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.

    • D.

      A human action that produces an incorrect result.

    Correct Answer
    B. Departure from specified behaviour.
  • 8. 

    Q. 478: How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

    • A.

      Metrics from previous similar projects

    • B.

      Discussions with the development team

    • C.

      Time allocated for regression testing

    • D.

      A. & B.

    Correct Answer
    D. A. & B.
  • 9. 

    Q. 479: Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activitydescriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?v - Test controlw - Test monitoringx - Test estimationy - Incident managementz - Configuration control1 - Calculation of required test resources2 - Maintenance of record of test results3 - Re-allocation of resources when tests overrun4 - Report on deviation from test plan5 - Tracking of anomalous test results

    • A.

      V-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4

    • B.

      V-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3

    • C.

      V-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2

    • D.

      V-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

    Correct Answer
    C. V-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
  • 10. 

    Q. 480: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

    • A.

      £1500

    • B.

      £32001

    • C.

      £33501

    • D.

      £28000

    Correct Answer
    C. £33501
  • 11. 

    Q. 481: Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

    • A.

      Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.

    • B.

      A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.

    • C.

      A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.

    • D.

      Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

    Correct Answer
    C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
  • 12. 

    Q. 482: Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?"IF the customer wants ‘return’Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’Say: "That will be £11:20"ELSESay: "That will be £19:50"ENDIFELSESay: "That will be £9:75"ENDIFNow decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
  • 13. 

    Q. 483: Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

    • A.

      To find faults in the software.

    • B.

      To assess whether the software is ready for release.

    • C.

      To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.

    • D.

      To prove that the software is correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. To prove that the software is correct.
  • 14. 

    Q. 484: Enough testing has been performed when:

    • A.

      Time runs out.

    • B.

      The required level of confidence has been achieved.

    • C.

      No more faults are found.

    • D.

      The users won’t find any serious faults.

    Correct Answer
    B. The required level of confidence has been achieved.
  • 15. 

    Q. 485: Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for UserAcceptance Test scripts?

    • A.

      Actual results

    • B.

      Program specification

    • C.

      User requirements

    • D.

      System specification

    Correct Answer
    C. User requirements
  • 16. 

    Q. 486: Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester?i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play correctly.

    • A.

      I, iii, iv, v.

    • B.

      Ii, iv and v.

    • C.

      I, ii and iv.

    • D.

      I and v.

    Correct Answer
    A. I, iii, iv, v.
  • 17. 

    Q. 487: Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?

    • A.

      All document reviews involve the development team.

    • B.

      Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.

    • C.

      Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.

    • D.

      Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.

    Correct Answer
    C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
  • 18. 

    Q. 488: The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques.ii. Specify the order of test case execution.iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.iv. Specify expected results.According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities?

    • A.

      Iii, i, iv, ii.

    • B.

      Iii, iv, i, ii.

    • C.

      Iii, ii, i, iv.

    • D.

      Ii, iii, i, iv.

    Correct Answer
    A. Iii, i, iv, ii.
  • 19. 

    Q. 489: Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?

    • A.

      An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.

    • B.

      An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software.

    • C.

      An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.

    • D.

      An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.

    Correct Answer
    D. An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.
  • 20. 

    Q. 490: Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are inthe SAME equivalence partition?If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.

    • A.

      17, 18, 19.

    • B.

      29, 30, 31.

    • C.

      18, 29, 30.

    • D.

      17, 29, 31.

    Correct Answer
    C. 18, 29, 30.
  • 21. 

    Q. 491: Consider the following statements:i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

    • A.

      Ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

    • B.

      I & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False

    • C.

      Ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False

    • D.

      Ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

    Correct Answer
    D. Ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
  • 22. 

    Q. 492: What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?

    • A.

      Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives.

    • B.

      Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.

    • C.

      Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages.

    • D.

      Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.

    Correct Answer
    B. Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.
  • 23. 

    Q. 493: During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE testsare needed?

    • A.

      Test implementation and execution.

    • B.

      Evaluating test exit criteria.

    • C.

      Test analysis and design.

    • D.

      Test planning and control.

    Correct Answer
    B. Evaluating test exit criteria.
  • 24. 

    Q. 494: What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?

    • A.

      To communicate how incidents will be managed.

    • B.

      To communicate how testing will be performed.

    • C.

      To produce a test schedule.

    • D.

      To produce a work breakdown structure.

    Correct Answer
    B. To communicate how testing will be performed.
  • 25. 

    Q. 495: Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?

    • A.

      Test plan.

    • B.

      Test procedure specification.

    • C.

      Test case specification.

    • D.

      Test design specification.

    Correct Answer
    B. Test procedure specification.
  • 26. 

    Q. 496: Which of the following is a major task of test planning?

    • A.

      Determining the test approach.

    • B.

      Preparing test specifications.

    • C.

      Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

    • D.

      Measuring and analyzing results.

    Correct Answer
    A. Determining the test approach.
  • 27. 

    Q. 497: What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?

    • A.

      To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.

    • B.

      To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.

    • C.

      To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.

    • D.

      To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.

    Correct Answer
    D. To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
  • 28. 

    Q. 498: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.Any further amount is taxed at 40%.To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

    • A.

      £28000.

    • B.

      £33501.

    • C.

      £32001.

    • D.

      £1500.

    Correct Answer
    B. £33501.
  • 29. 

    Q. 499: Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?

    • A.

      Dynamic Analysis tool.

    • B.

      Test Execution tool.

    • C.

      Static Analysis tool.

    • D.

      Security tool.

    Correct Answer
    B. Test Execution tool.
  • 30. 

    Q. 500: When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that

    • A.

      Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product

    • B.

      Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail

    • C.

      Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design

    • D.

      Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system

    Correct Answer
    A. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 30, 2011
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 18, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Minal_akre
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