ISTQB- All Chapters Exam13

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ISTQB- All Chapters Exam13 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Functional system testing is:

    • A.

      Testing that the system functions with other systems  

    • B.

      Testing that the components that comprise the system function together  

    • C.

      Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole  

    • D.

      Testing the system performs functions within specified response times

    Correct Answer
    C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole  
    Explanation
    Functional system testing is the process of testing the end-to-end functionality of the system as a whole. This means that all components and systems within the overall system are tested to ensure that they work together correctly and that the system functions as intended. This type of testing focuses on verifying that the system meets the specified requirements and performs all necessary functions within the expected response times.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following alternatives contains only non-function testing types?  

    • A.

      Load testing, stress testing, Maintainability testing, structural testing.  

    • B.

      Stress testing, usability testing, portability testing, and maintainability testing.  

    • C.

      System integration testing, load testing, stress testing, and performance testing.  

    • D.

      Performance testing, equivalence class testing, and reliability testing, and load testing.

    Correct Answer
    B. Stress testing, usability testing, portability testing, and maintainability testing.  
  • 3. 

    Beta testing is:

    • A.

      Performed by customers at their own site

    • B.

      Performed by customers at their software developer’s site

    • C.

      Performed by an independent test team

    • D.

      Useful to test bespoke software

    Correct Answer
    A. Performed by customers at their own site
    Explanation
    Beta testing is a type of testing where customers use a software product at their own site before its official release. It allows customers to evaluate the software's functionality, performance, and usability in a real-world environment. This testing phase helps to identify any issues or bugs that may have been missed during the development and testing stages. By involving customers in the testing process, developers can gather valuable feedback and make necessary improvements before the software is made available to the wider market.

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  • 4. 

    For which of the following activates is a static analysis tool not useful?

    • A.

      Quantitative analysis related to the tests(e.g tests passe()  

    • B.

      Enforcement of coding standards.  

    • C.

      Detecting dependencies in software modules.

    • D.

      Calculation of complexity of the code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantitative analysis related to the tests(e.g tests passe()  
    Explanation
    A static analysis tool is not useful for quantitative analysis related to the tests (e.g. tests passed) because static analysis tools focus on analyzing the source code itself rather than the test results. These tools can help with enforcement of coding standards, detecting dependencies in software modules, and calculation of code complexity by analyzing the code structure, syntax, and potential issues. However, they do not directly provide information about the quantitative analysis of test results.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following provides the weakest level of structural coverage?  

    • A.

      Statement coverage.

    • B.

      Conditional coverage.  

    • C.

      Multiple conditional coverage.  

    • D.

      Decision coverage.

    Correct Answer
    A. Statement coverage.
    Explanation
    Statement coverage provides the weakest level of structural coverage because it only ensures that each statement in the code has been executed at least once. It does not guarantee that all possible paths and conditions within the code have been tested. In contrast, conditional coverage ensures that each condition in the code has been evaluated to both true and false, multiple conditional coverage ensures that each combination of conditions has been tested, and decision coverage ensures that all possible outcomes of each decision point in the code have been tested.

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  • 6. 

    The following open incident report provided? Date:01.01.0 Description : When pressing the stop button the application status remain in “ Attention” instead of “Ready”. Severity: High Life cycle integration Which of the following details are missing in the incident report? i. Identification or configuration of the application. ii.The name of the developer. iii. Recommendations of the developer. iv. The actions and conditions that came before the pressing of the button.

    • A.

      I,ii

    • B.

      Ii,iii

    • C.

      I,iv

    • D.

      Iv

    Correct Answer
    C. I,iv
    Explanation
    The incident report is missing the identification or configuration of the application, as well as the actions and conditions that occurred before the pressing of the button. The report does not mention the name of the developer or any recommendations from them.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following lists factors that contribute to PROJECT risks?

    • A.

      Poor software quality characteristics, software does not perform its intended functions  

    • B.

      Skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions, Problems in defining the right requirements  

    • C.

      Skill and staff shortages, Problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues  

    • D.

      Problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; Poor software quality characteristics.

    Correct Answer
    C. Skill and staff shortages, Problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues  
    Explanation
    The factors that contribute to project risks include skill and staff shortages, problems in defining the right requirements, and contractual issues. These factors can all lead to challenges and obstacles in successfully completing a project. Skill and staff shortages can result in a lack of expertise and resources needed to complete the project effectively. Problems in defining the right requirements can lead to misunderstandings and miscommunication, causing delays and errors. Contractual issues can create legal and financial complications that impact the project's progress and success.

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  • 8. 

    At what stage of the Fundamental Test Process do testers evaluate the Testability of the test basis? Select one:

    • A.

      Test analysis and design  

    • B.

      Test control  

    • C.

      Evaluating exit criteria and reporting  

    • D.

      Test execution

    Correct Answer
    A. Test analysis and design  
    Explanation
    During the test analysis and design stage of the Fundamental Test Process, testers evaluate the testability of the test basis. This involves assessing whether the test basis, which includes documents like requirements and design specifications, is adequate and suitable for creating test cases and conducting testing activities. Testers analyze the test basis to determine if it is clear, complete, and unambiguous, ensuring that the test cases derived from it will effectively validate the system under test. By evaluating testability during this stage, testers can identify any issues or gaps in the test basis early on and make necessary adjustments before proceeding with test execution.

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  • 9. 

    Which of following statements contradicts the general principles of testing? Select one:  

    • A.

      If new defects are to be found, we should run the same test set more often

    • B.

      Testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project.  

    • C.

      How testing is done, is based on situation in a particular project.  

    • D.

      More defects are found in a small subset of a systems module.

    Correct Answer
    A. If new defects are to be found, we should run the same test set more often
    Explanation
    Running the same test set more often does not contradict the general principles of testing. In fact, it is a common practice in testing to repeat tests in order to identify any new defects that may have been introduced. This helps ensure that the software remains stable and functional over time.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is NOT a major responsibility of a tester? Select one:

    • A.

      Finding root cause of a defect  

    • B.

      Reporting and tracking bugs  

    • C.

      Writing test specifications  

    • D.

      Producing interim test report

    Correct Answer
    A. Finding root cause of a defect  
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Finding root cause of a defect". This is not a major responsibility of a tester because their main role is to identify and report bugs or defects in the software, rather than determining the root cause of those defects. This task is usually assigned to developers or quality assurance engineers who specialize in troubleshooting and fixing issues. Testers focus on executing test cases, writing test specifications, and producing reports to provide feedback on the quality of the software.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following statements about test execution effort is true? Select one:

    • A.

      Test case execution effort is dependent on the build quality.  

    • B.

      An increasing number of testers always reduce testing time.  

    • C.

      A large number of test repetitions mean less test execution effort.  

    • D.

      Test case execution effort is independent of the number of test environments.

    Correct Answer
    A. Test case execution effort is dependent on the build quality.  
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Test case execution effort is dependent on the build quality." This means that the effort required to execute test cases is influenced by the quality of the software build being tested. If the build has many defects or issues, it will require more time and effort to execute the test cases and identify these problems. On the other hand, if the build is of high quality and has fewer defects, the test case execution effort will be reduced.

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  • 12. 

    You are testing an e-commerce system. The system accepts four different types of credit cards; each card has its own rules The following is a portion of the Decision Table for order Management: Condition: Valid card number:    NO            YES    YES Purchase Approved:  NO             NO    YES Action: Reject message:        YES            YES    NO Accept Payment:        NO              NO    YES The combination of the conditions valid card number (NO) +Purchase Approved (YES) is not feasible. You wish to perform a test which completely covers all the combinations of equivalence Partitioning for the different types of credit card according to the rules shown in the above Decision Table. How many test cases do you need?  

    • A.

      16

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 16
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 16. This is because the decision table shows 2 conditions (valid card number and purchase approved) with 2 possible values (NO and YES) each. Therefore, there are 2^2 = 4 possible combinations of these conditions. Additionally, there are 2 actions (reject message and accept payment) with 2 possible values (YES and NO). So, there are 2^2 = 4 possible combinations of these actions. Multiplying the combinations of conditions and actions together, we get 4 * 4 = 16 possible test cases needed to cover all combinations.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following processes is related to ensuring the integrity of the testware?

    • A.

      Project management  

    • B.

      Build release  

    • C.

      Configuration management.  

    • D.

      Test automation.

    Correct Answer
    C. Configuration management.  
    Explanation
    Configuration management is the process related to ensuring the integrity of the testware. It involves managing and controlling the changes made to the testware, including test cases, test scripts, test data, and test environments. Configuration management ensures that the testware is properly version controlled, documented, and tracked, preventing unauthorized changes and ensuring that the correct versions are used during testing. This process helps maintain the integrity and reliability of the testware throughout the testing lifecycle.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following statement about reviews are TRUE? I.    In Walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author. II.    Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting. III.    Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews. IV.    Management rarely participates in technical review meetings.

    • A.

      II,III  

    • B.

      III,IV  

    • C.

      I,IV  

    • D.

      I,II

    Correct Answer
    C. I,IV  
    Explanation
    In Walkthroughs, the review meeting is typically led by the author, which is stated in statement I. This means that the author of the document being reviewed takes charge of the meeting and guides the discussion.

    Management rarely participates in technical review meetings, as stated in statement IV. This implies that higher-level management personnel are not commonly involved in the review process, leaving it primarily to the technical team.

    Therefore, the correct answer is I, IV.

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  • 15. 

    You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking items .The sold quantities are expressed either in grams or in kilograms. Regardless of the type of item, the smallest valid order of 0.5 units(for example,0.5 grams of cardamom seeds) while the largest valid order is 25 units. Which of the following lists contains a minimum set of test data when testing using the “equivalence partitioning” test technique?

    • A.

      10.0,28.0  

    • B.

      0.2,0.9,29.5  

    • C.

      0.1,0.4,24,25  

    • D.

      0.4,0.5,25.0,25.1

    Correct Answer
    D. 0.4,0.5,25.0,25.1
    Explanation
    Equivalence partitioning is a testing technique that divides input data of a software program into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In essence, it aims to reduce the number of test cases to a minimum necessary set that still covers all scenarios.
    Given the conditions that the smallest valid order is 0.5 units and the largest valid order is 25 units, we would want to test:
    Below the valid range
    Within the valid range at the lower boundary
    Within the valid range but not at the boundary
    At the upper boundary of the valid range
    Above the valid range
    The set 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1 represents:
    0.4: Just below the valid range, testing the system's response to an order too small.
    0.5: The smallest valid order, testing the acceptance of the minimum valid order.
    25.0: The largest valid order, testing the acceptance of the maximum valid order.
    25.1: Just above the valid range, testing the system's response to an order too large.

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  • 16. 

    A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations.As part of the evaluation process, the commercial application. Which team would be the most suitable for this project?

    • A.

      A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department.  

    • B.

      Outsource the testing to external company that specializes in accounting software testing.  

    • C.

      A team of users from the accounting department, and have them test the application.  

    • D.

      The company’s software testing team, due to their experience in testing software.

    Correct Answer
    A. A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department.  
    Explanation
    A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department would be the most suitable for this project because they would have a combination of technical knowledge and domain expertise. The software testers would be able to ensure the application meets the necessary quality standards and functions properly, while the experts from the accounting department would be able to provide insights and test the application from an end-user perspective, ensuring it meets the specific requirements and needs of the accounting operations. This combination of skills would result in a more comprehensive and effective evaluation of the commercial application.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following tool type is MOST likely to generate metrics such as code complexity?

    • A.

      Incident Management Tools  

    • B.

      Static analysis Tools  

    • C.

      Requirement management tools  

    • D.

      Test execution tools

    Correct Answer
    B. Static analysis Tools  
    Explanation
    Static analysis tools are most likely to generate metrics such as code complexity. These tools analyze the source code without executing it and provide insights into the quality, maintainability, and complexity of the code. By analyzing the code structure, dependencies, and patterns, static analysis tools can identify potential issues and provide metrics such as cyclomatic complexity, code duplication, and code smells. Incident management tools, requirement management tools, and test execution tools are not specifically designed for code analysis and are less likely to generate such metrics.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?

    • A.

      Memory leaks

    • B.

      Coding standard violations

    • C.

      Variables that are never used  

    • D.

      Uncalled functions and procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. Memory leaks
    Explanation
    Memory leaks are least likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools because static analysis tools primarily analyze the source code for syntax errors, coding standard violations, and unused variables/functions. Memory leaks, on the other hand, occur at runtime when a program fails to deallocate memory that it no longer needs. Static analysis tools cannot detect memory leaks as they do not execute the code. Memory leaks are typically detected through dynamic analysis techniques such as runtime debugging or memory profiling.

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  • 19. 

    Which activity is the fundamental test process includes test script generation?  

    • A.

      Test closure activity  

    • B.

      Test implementation and execution

    • C.

      Test analysis and design  

    • D.

      Test planning and control

    Correct Answer
    B. Test implementation and execution
    Explanation
    The fundamental test process includes test script generation as part of the test implementation and execution activity. This activity involves executing the planned tests, which includes creating and running test scripts. Test scripts are written to automate the testing process and ensure consistent and repeatable test execution. By generating test scripts, testers can effectively execute the tests and verify the behavior of the system under test.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following statements correctly reflect the relationship between testing and debugging? I.    Debugging identifies the location of a defect in the code II.    Testing can identify the failures caused by defects III.    Debugging finds the failure in system behavior IV.    The testing phase replaces debugging

    • A.

      I,II  

    • B.

      II,IV

    • C.

      I,III

    • D.

      III,IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I,II  
    Explanation
    I. Debugging identifies the location of a defect in the code - This statement is correct because debugging is the process of finding and fixing defects in the code.

    II. Testing can identify the failures caused by defects - This statement is correct because testing is the process of executing the code to identify any failures or issues caused by defects.

    III. Debugging finds the failure in system behavior - This statement is incorrect because debugging focuses on finding and fixing defects in the code, not necessarily on system behavior.

    IV. The testing phase replaces debugging - This statement is incorrect because testing and debugging are two separate phases in the software development process. Testing is done to identify issues and defects, while debugging is done to fix those issues. They complement each other rather than replacing each other.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

    • A.

      Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items.  

    • B.

      Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents.  

    • C.

      Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects  

    • D.

      Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

    Correct Answer
    D. Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program
    Explanation
    A dynamic analysis tool is used to monitor the allocation, use, and de-allocation of memory during the runtime of a program. This helps in identifying any memory-related issues such as memory leaks or inefficient memory usage. By tracking the memory usage, developers can optimize the program's performance and ensure efficient memory management.

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  • 22. 

    You have been asked to verify the fixing a specific bug by re-executing the test that failed previously which testing type best describes work?

    • A.

      Bug reproduction.  

    • B.

      Confirmation testing.

    • C.

      Functional testing.  

    • D.

      Regression testing

    Correct Answer
    B. Confirmation testing.
    Explanation
    Confirmation testing is the testing type that best describes the work of re-executing the test that failed previously to verify the fixing of a specific bug. This type of testing is performed to confirm that the bug has been successfully fixed and does not reoccur. It focuses on retesting the specific functionality or feature that was affected by the bug to ensure that it now works as expected.

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  • 23. 

    When a test manager uses the estimates provided by the test team members for various tasks assigned which of the following is used.

    • A.

      An expert based on a formula

    • B.

      Calculations based on a formula  

    • C.

      Experience from prior project  

    • D.

      Calculation based on metrics

    Correct Answer
    C. Experience from prior project  
    Explanation
    The test manager uses experience from prior projects to estimate the tasks assigned by the test team members. This means that the manager relies on their past experiences and knowledge gained from similar projects to determine the estimates for the current tasks. This approach is based on the assumption that past projects can provide valuable insights and help in predicting the effort required for similar tasks in the current project.

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  • 24. 

    The testers in company A were part of the development team .Due to an organizational change they moved to be project ? What are the advantages and disadvantages of this change?

    • A.

      Advantage: being closer to customer perspective; Disadvantage: less independence in Perspectives  

    • B.

      Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development; Disadvantage:Pulled to support tasks and having  

    • C.

      Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test; Disadvantage:Isolation form the development team  

    • D.

      Advantage: Pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing ;Disadvantage: less chances to move a tester to

    Correct Answer
    C. Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test; Disadvantage:Isolation form the development team  
    Explanation
    The advantage of the change is that testers have more independence in deciding what and how to test. They are not constrained by the development team's perspective and can approach testing from a customer's point of view. However, the disadvantage is that they may become isolated from the development team. This can lead to communication and collaboration issues, as well as a lack of understanding of the development process.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following tool type is the most useful one for a test manager?  

    • A.

      Defect tracking tool.

    • B.

      Modeling tool.

    • C.

      Coverage measurement tool.  

    • D.

      Static analysis tool.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defect tracking tool.
    Explanation
    A defect tracking tool is the most useful tool for a test manager because it allows them to efficiently track and manage the defects found during testing. This tool helps in recording and prioritizing defects, assigning them to the appropriate team members, and tracking their progress until they are resolved. It also provides valuable insights into the overall quality of the software being tested and helps in making informed decisions regarding defect resolution and release readiness.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

    • A.

      Average number of expected defects per requirement  

    • B.

      Number of test cases run  

    • C.

      Percentage of work done in test environment creation

    • D.

      Deviation from test milestone dates

    Correct Answer
    D. Deviation from test milestone dates
    Explanation
    Deviation from test milestone dates is not an example of a common test metric because it does not measure the effectiveness or quality of the testing process. Test metrics typically focus on factors such as the number of defects, the number of test cases executed, and the progress made in creating the test environment. Deviation from test milestone dates is more related to project management and scheduling, rather than the specific testing activities and outcomes.

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  • 27. 

    Which type of testing would be MOST likely to include code coverage?

    • A.

      Exploratory testing 

    • B.

      Non functional testing  

    • C.

      Functional testing  

    • D.

      Structural testing

    Correct Answer
    D. Structural testing
    Explanation
    Structural testing is the type of testing that is most likely to include code coverage. This type of testing focuses on evaluating the internal structure of the software, including the code and its components. Code coverage measures how much of the code has been executed during the testing process. By performing structural testing, testers can ensure that all parts of the code have been tested and that there are no gaps in the code coverage, thus increasing the overall quality and reliability of the software.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following statement is true

    • A.

      Developers should NOT test their own code because they are not objective their own code.  

    • B.

      Developers not needed testers is the highest level of independence.  

    • C.

      Independence of testers results in efficient finding of bugs during their testing.  

    • D.

      Independence of testing does NOT means that developers should NOT test their own code.

    Correct Answer
    D. Independence of testing does NOT means that developers should NOT test their own code.
    Explanation
    The statement "Independence of testing does NOT mean that developers should NOT test their own code" is true. Independence of testing refers to the concept that testers should be independent from the development process in order to find unbiased and objective bugs. However, this does not imply that developers should never test their own code. Developers can and should perform unit testing to ensure their code functions as intended before handing it over to independent testers for further testing.

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  • 29. 

    Test planning has which of the following major tasks? i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing. ii. Determining the test approach (techniques, test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware) iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements, architecture, design, interface) iv. Determining the exit criteria()

    • A.

      I,ii,iv are true and iii is false  

    • B.

      I,,iv are true and ii is false  

    • C.

      I,ii are true and iii,iv are false  

    • D.

      Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

    Correct Answer
    A. I,ii,iv are true and iii is false  
    Explanation
    Test planning has three major tasks: determining the scope and risks, identifying the objectives of testing, determining the test approach (techniques, test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing, testware), and determining the exit criteria. Therefore, options i, ii, and iv are true. Option iii is false because reviewing the Test Basis is indeed a major task in test planning.

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  • 30. 

    Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-

    • A.

      Test Analysis and Design  

    • B.

      Test Planning and control  

    • C.

      Test Implementation and execution  

    • D.

      Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

    Correct Answer
    A. Test Analysis and Design  
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Test Analysis and Design. This phase involves analyzing the requirements and system to determine the testability of the software. It includes identifying test conditions, designing test cases, and creating test data. By evaluating the testability during this phase, potential issues and challenges in testing can be identified and addressed early on, ensuring that the testing process is effective and efficient.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

    • A.

      Component testing  

    • B.

      Non-functional system testing  

    • C.

      User acceptance testing  

    • D.

      Maintenance testing

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance testing
    Explanation
    Maintenance testing uses Impact Analysis most because it involves testing the changes made to an existing system or software. Impact Analysis helps in determining the potential areas that may be affected by the changes and allows testers to focus their testing efforts on those areas. This ensures that the changes made do not introduce any unintended side effects or break the existing functionality of the system. Therefore, maintenance testing relies heavily on Impact Analysis to identify and mitigate the risks associated with the changes made during maintenance activities.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

    • A.

      State transition testing  

    • B.

      LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)  

    • C.

      Syntax testing  

    • D.

      Boundary value analysis

    Correct Answer
    B. LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)  
    Explanation
    LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump) is not a black box technique because it involves examining the internal structure of the code, specifically the sequence of code statements and jumps. Black box testing techniques, on the other hand, focus on testing the functionality of a system without considering its internal implementation details. State transition testing, syntax testing, and boundary value analysis are all examples of black box techniques as they do not require knowledge of the internal code structure.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following list contains only black-box test techniques?

    • A.

      Use case testing, Statement testing, State transition testing.  

    • B.

      Decision table testing, use case testing, State transition testing.  

    • C.

      Decision table testing, Use case testing, Control flow testing.  

    • D.

      Exploratory testing, State transition testing, Control flow testing.

    Correct Answer
    B. Decision table testing, use case testing, State transition testing.  
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Decision table testing, use case testing, State transition testing. These are all black-box test techniques because they focus on testing the functionality of the system without considering its internal structure or implementation details. Decision table testing involves creating a table to test different combinations of inputs and expected outputs. Use case testing involves testing the system's behavior based on different user scenarios. State transition testing involves testing the system's response to different transitions between states.

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  • 34. 

    Test Manager decided to perform load testing during the system testing phase, which of the following statement is correct?

    • A.

      Load testing can be performed only in the integration testing phase  

    • B.

      Load testing is a functional testing that can be performed at all test levels  

    • C.

      Load testing can’t be performed by the testing team  

    • D.

      Load testing is a non functional testing that can be performed at all test levels

    Correct Answer
    D. Load testing is a non functional testing that can be performed at all test levels
    Explanation
    Load testing is a type of non-functional testing that can be performed at all test levels. This means that load testing can be conducted during any phase of testing, including the system testing phase. It is not limited to the integration testing phase only. The purpose of load testing is to evaluate the system's performance under normal and peak load conditions.

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  • 35. 

    .which of the following tools can be used for the storage of test results and the generation of test progress reports? Select one:

    • A.

      Test management tool

    • B.

      Coverage management tool

    • C.

      Test Data preparation tool  

    • D.

      Review management tool

    Correct Answer
    A. Test management tool
    Explanation
    A test management tool can be used for the storage of test results and the generation of test progress reports. This tool allows testers to store and organize test cases, track the execution of tests, and record the results. It also provides features for generating reports that summarize the progress of testing activities, including information on test coverage, defects found, and overall test status. Using a test management tool can help streamline the testing process and provide valuable insights into the quality of the software being tested.

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  • 36. 

    During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files ,which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. which of the following is the next step the tester should prior to recording the deviation?

    • A.

      Send an email to the developers and not report the bug  

    • B.

      Report the bug as is without any further action  

    • C.

      Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem  

    • D.

      Try to recreate the incident before reporting

    Correct Answer
    D. Try to recreate the incident before reporting
    Explanation
    The next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation is to try to recreate the incident before reporting. This is important because it helps the tester to gather more information about the issue, such as the specific steps or conditions that lead to the crash. By recreating the incident, the tester can also verify if the problem is consistent and determine if it is a reproducible bug. This information is valuable for the developers to investigate and fix the issue effectively.

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  • 37. 

    How many possible ways can be there for 2input fields with numbers 1,2,3,4? Select one:

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      16

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 16
    Explanation
    There are 4 possible choices for the first input field (1, 2, 3, or 4) and 4 possible choices for the second input field (1, 2, 3, or 4). Since each choice for the first input field can be paired with any choice for the second input field, there are a total of 4 x 4 = 16 possible ways.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following factor is LEAST likely to used as a basis for estimating testing effort?

    • A.

      Quality of the test basis  

    • B.

      Skills of the test team  

    • C.

      Requirements for documentation  

    • D.

      Work Breakdown Structure

    Correct Answer
    D. Work Breakdown Structure
    Explanation
    The work breakdown structure (WBS) is least likely to be used as a basis for estimating testing effort because it is a project management tool that breaks down the project into smaller, manageable components. While it helps in organizing and planning the project tasks, it does not directly relate to estimating the effort required for testing. On the other hand, factors like the quality of the test basis, skills of the test team, and requirements for documentation are more relevant in estimating testing effort as they directly impact the complexity and scope of the testing process.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following sentences describes best what "Functional Testing" is? Select one:

    • A.

      A test focused on the efficient interactions among different parts of the system.  

    • B.

      A test in which the test cases and test data are based on the program structure of the test object

    • C.

      A static comparison of test and requirements specification of a test object  

    • D.

      A dynamic test which is based on the specification of the test object

    Correct Answer
    D. A dynamic test which is based on the specification of the test object
    Explanation
    Functional testing is a type of testing that focuses on the dynamic behavior of a system based on its specifications. It involves testing the interactions and functionality of different parts of the system to ensure that it is working as intended. This type of testing is not based on the program structure or a static comparison of test and requirements specifications. Therefore, the correct answer is that functional testing is a dynamic test based on the specification of the test object.

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  • 40. 

    Consider the code fragment given below. Input a; If(a>100) { a=a-100; if(a>50) { a=a-50; } } else if (a<100) { Print “ Invalid Input”; } Which answer choice would be correct if this program is executed for a=200, a=110, a=0, and a=50?

    • A.

      100% statement coverage has been achieved but 100% decision coverage has not been achieved  

    • B.

      100% decision coverage has been achieved but 100% statement coverage has not been achieved

    • C.

      100% statement and 100% decision coverage have been achieved

    Correct Answer
    C. 100% statement and 100% decision coverage have been achieved
    Explanation
    a = 200:
    a > 100 is true, so a becomes 100 (200 - 100).
    Now a > 50 is true, so a becomes 50 (100 - 50).
    a = 110:
    a > 100 is true, so a becomes 10 (110 - 100).
    Now a > 50 is false, so the inner block is not executed.
    a = 0:
    a < 100 is true, so "Invalid Input" is printed.
    a = 50:
    a < 100 is true, so "Invalid Input" is printed.
    Coverage Analysis:
    Statement Coverage:
    All statements (including the print statement) are executed across the given inputs.
    Decision (Branch) Coverage:
    All decision points (conditions) a > 100, a > 50, and a < 100 are evaluated as both true and false at least once across the given inputs.
    Since all statements and decisions have been executed:
    Answer:
    100% statement and 100% decision coverage have been achieved.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 04, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 26, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Abdul Jaleel
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