ISTQB- All Chapters Exam 17

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ISTQB- All Chapters Exam 17 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In software testing, what is the purpose of a "boundary value analysis"?

    • A.

      To test the software's performance under extreme conditions 

    • B.

      To assess the overall quality of the software

    • C.

      To identify defects at the boundaries of input ranges

    • D.

      To measure the software's user-friendliness

    Correct Answer
    C. To identify defects at the boundaries of input ranges
    Explanation
    Boundary value analysis is a testing technique that aims to find defects at the edges or boundaries of input domains, where errors are more likely to occur.

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  • 2. 

    Which of these is NOT an expected benefit of testers participating early in a development project?

    • A.

      Testers can find all the defects before a system is released

    • B.

      By participating in high-level design reviews, testers can better plan and schedule test resource needs

    • C.

      Testers can recommend how to make the system easier to test

    • D.

      Because testers have to think about how to test a function of the system, they can help identify ambiguous requirements specifications

    Correct Answer
    A. Testers can find all the defects before a system is released
    Explanation
    Testers participating early in a development project cannot guarantee finding all defects before a system is released. While their involvement can help identify ambiguous requirements specifications, recommend ways to make the system easier to test, and assist in planning and scheduling test resource needs, it is not possible for testers to find all defects before a system is released. Defects can still be discovered during the testing phase, even with early tester involvement.

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  • 3. 

    Mistakes made in design specifications often result in defects and rework in:

    • A.

      Requirements specifications

    • B.

      Designs and code

    • C.

      Hardware and operating systems

    • D.

      Testware

    Correct Answer
    B. Designs and code
    Explanation
    Mistakes made in design specifications often result in defects and rework in designs and code. This is because design specifications serve as the blueprint for creating the software or system, and any errors or misunderstandings in the design can lead to faulty implementation. These mistakes can manifest as defects or bugs in the final product, requiring rework to fix them. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure accurate and thorough design specifications to minimize the likelihood of defects and rework in the designs and code.

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  • 4. 

    In software testing we use the word “defect” in a very precise way. A defect is:

    • A.

      A flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function

    • B.

      The deviation of the component or system from its expected delivery, service, or result

    • C.

      A human action that produces an incorrect result

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function
    Explanation
    A defect in software testing refers to a flaw in a component or system that has the potential to cause the component or system to fail in performing its intended function. This means that the defect can prevent the software from operating as expected or delivering the desired result. It is important to identify and fix defects during testing to ensure the quality and functionality of the software.

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  • 5. 

    Consider the code fragment given below. Input a; If(a>100) { a=a-100; if(a>50) { a=a-50; } } else if (a<100) { Print “ Invalid Input”; } Which answer choice would be correct if this program is executed for a=200, a=110, a=0, and a=50?

    • A.

      100% statement coverage has been achieved but 100% decision coverage has not been achieved.

    • B.

      100% decision coverage has been achieved but 100% statement coverage has not been achieved.

    • C.

      100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage have been achieved.

    • D.

      100% statement and 100% decision coverage have been achieved

    Correct Answer
    D. 100% statement and 100% decision coverage have been achieved
    Explanation
    To evaluate the code coverage of the given program for the inputs a=200, a=110, a=0, and a=50, let's analyze how the code would execute for each of these values and determine if all statements and decisions (branches) are executed:
    Input a = 200
    First if condition a>100 is true.
    a is modified to a = a - 100, thus a becomes 100.
    Second nested if condition a>50 is false because a = 100 (not greater than 50), so a=a-50 is not executed.
    Input a = 110
    First if condition a>100 is true.
    a is modified to a = a - 100, thus a becomes 10.
    Second nested if condition a>50 is false because a = 10, so a=a-50 is not executed.
    Input a = 0
    First if condition a>100 is false.
    else if condition a<100 is true, so "Invalid Input" is printed.
    Input a = 50
    First if condition a>100 is false.
    else if condition a<100 is true, so "Invalid Input" is printed.
    Coverage Analysis:
    Statement Coverage: All parts of the code have been executed with the given inputs. This includes all if and else branches, and the inner block that subtracts 50 from a, as well as the code that prints "Invalid Input".
    Decision Coverage (Branch Coverage): All decision points have been tested. For the first if condition a>100, both true and false cases have been checked. For the second if condition a>50, both the true and false paths have been checked.

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  • 6. 

    Given the following reqirement. Requirement ID:2.8 Requirement Description: Additional Entrance Fee Detailed Description: An additional fee of $3 is charged during the weekend, but 1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged. 2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee. 3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee. Age should be an integer of 0 or above. Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive. Which of the following state is NOT Correct?

    • A.

      7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

    • B.

      $3.01 is a valid output boundary value.

    • C.

      Thursday is a valid input boundary value.

    • D.

      A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.

    Correct Answer
    C. Thursday is a valid input boundary value.
    Explanation
    The statement "Thursday is a valid input boundary value" is not correct because the requirement clearly states that the additional fee of $3 is only charged during the weekend, which is defined as Friday to Sunday inclusive. Therefore, Thursday is not a valid input boundary value as it falls outside of the defined weekend period.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following application will be Most suitable for testing by Use Cases?

    • A.

      Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system

    • B.

      The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat

    • C.

      A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based on large number of subscribers parameters.

    • D.

      Accuracy usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system.

    Correct Answer
    C. A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based on large number of subscribers parameters.
    Explanation
    Use cases are a way to test the functionality and behavior of a system or application. In this case, testing the billing system used to calculate monthly charges based on a large number of subscriber parameters would be most suitable for testing by use cases. This is because use cases can help ensure that all possible scenarios and parameters are considered and tested accurately, which is crucial for a billing system that deals with a large number of subscribers and parameters.

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  • 8. 

    A Software Company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations.As part of the Evaluation process,the company decided to assemble a team to test a ..................... Which team would be the most suitable for this project?

    • A.

      A team of users from the accounting department, and have them test the application

    • B.

      Outsource the testing to external company that specializes in accounting software testing.

    • C.

      A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department.

    Correct Answer
    C. A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department.
    Explanation
    A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department would be the most suitable for this project because they would have both the technical knowledge to test the application effectively and the domain expertise to understand the specific requirements and challenges of accounting operations. This combination would ensure that all aspects of the application are thoroughly tested and any issues or bugs are identified and resolved accurately. It would also facilitate effective communication and collaboration between the software testers and the accounting experts, leading to a more efficient and successful evaluation process.

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  • 9. 

    Software defects arise because of:

    • A.

      Mistakes in the software requirements or specification

    • B.

      Poor coding practices

    • C.

      Extremely tight schedules

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Software defects can arise due to various reasons. Mistakes in the software requirements or specification can lead to incorrect functionality or missing features. Poor coding practices can result in bugs and vulnerabilities in the code. Extremely tight schedules can cause developers to rush and overlook potential issues. Therefore, all of the mentioned factors can contribute to the occurrence of software defects.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is NOT a good reason to test software?

    • A.

      Show that the software works as expected

    • B.

      Prove that the software is perfect

    • C.

      Find faults in a system

    • D.

      Prevent errors

    Correct Answer
    B. Prove that the software is perfect
    Explanation
    Testing software is an essential process to identify faults and prevent errors. It helps to ensure that the software works as expected and meets the required specifications. However, it is not possible to prove that software is perfect through testing alone. Testing can only provide evidence of the software's functionality and identify any potential issues or faults. Therefore, proving the software is perfect is not a valid reason for testing.

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  • 11. 

    Consider the following excerpt from a defect report: “To recreate the failure we used test file TST_01_16 .dat, which is available in the common shared folder” Which incident report objective does this except satisfy?

    • A.

      Provides developers with information to isolate the failure

    • B.

      Provides test leaders with information to report test progress

    • C.

      Provides ideas for test process improvement

    • D.

      Does not belong in an incident report.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provides developers with information to isolate the failure
    Explanation
    The excerpt from the defect report provides developers with information on how to recreate the failure by specifying the test file that was used. This information is crucial for developers to isolate the failure and understand the specific conditions under which it occurred. It helps them analyze the issue and identify the root cause more effectively. Therefore, this excerpt satisfies the objective of providing developers with information to isolate the failure.

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  • 12. 

    Exit Criteria may consist of i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures. iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas iv. Verifying the Test Environment.

    • A.

      Iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.

    • B.

      I,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect

    • C.

      ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect

    • D.

      Iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    B. I,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect. This is because the exit criteria for a testing phase typically includes measures of thoroughness, such as code coverage, functionality coverage, and risk coverage. It also includes estimates of defect density or reliability measures to evaluate the quality of the software. Additionally, the exit criteria may consider residual risks, such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas. However, verifying the test environment is not typically included in the exit criteria.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing: i. Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing. ii. A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques. iii. Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers. iv. Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is specified to work. Select one:

    • A.

      I and ii

    • B.

      Iii and iv

    • C.

      I and iv

    • D.

      ii and iii

    Correct Answer
    A. I and ii
    Explanation
    Developers testing their own code during unit testing is justified because their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing. Additionally, a person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.

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  • 14. 

    During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files ,which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes .which of the following is the next step the tester should prior to recording the deviation?

    • A.

      Send an email to the developers and not report the bug

    • B.

      Report the bug as is without any further action

    • C.

      Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem

    • D.

      Try to recreate the incident before reporting

    Correct Answer
    D. Try to recreate the incident before reporting
    Explanation
    The next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation is to try to recreate the incident before reporting it. This is important because it helps the tester gather more information about the issue, such as the specific steps or conditions that lead to the crash. By recreating the incident, the tester can provide more detailed and accurate information to the developers, which can help them identify and fix the problem more effectively.

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  • 15. 

    Test planning has which of the following major tasks? i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing. ii. Determining the test approach (techniques, test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware) iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements, architecture, design, interface) iv. Determining the exit criteria()

    • A.

      I,ii,iv are true and iii is false

    • B.

      I,,iv are true and ii is false

    • C.

      I,ii are true and iii,iv are false

    • D.

      Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

    Correct Answer
    A. I,ii,iv are true and iii is false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i, ii, iv are true and iii is false. Test planning involves determining the scope and risks, identifying the objectives of testing, determining the test approach, and determining the exit criteria. Reviewing the Test Basis is not a major task in test planning.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following processes is related to ensuring the integrity of the testware?

    • A.

      Project management

    • B.

      Build release

    • C.

      Configuration management.

    • D.

      Test automation.

    Correct Answer
    C. Configuration management.
    Explanation
    Configuration management is the process that ensures the integrity of the testware. It involves managing and controlling changes to the test environment, test data, and test tools. By implementing configuration management, organizations can maintain the consistency and reliability of the testware, ensuring that it remains accurate and up-to-date. This process helps to prevent issues such as using outdated or incorrect test assets, which could lead to unreliable test results. Therefore, configuration management is crucial for maintaining the integrity of the testware.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following lists factors that contribute to PROJECT risks?

    • A.

      Poor software quality characteristics, software does not perform its intended functions

    • B.

      Skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions, Problems in defining the right requirements

    • C.

      Skill and staff shortages, Problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues

    • D.

      Problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; Poor software quality characteristics.

    Correct Answer
    C. Skill and staff shortages, Problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Skill and staff shortages, Problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues. This answer lists three factors that contribute to project risks: skill and staff shortages, problems in defining the right requirements, and contractual issues. These factors can all lead to delays, inefficiencies, and potential failures in the project.

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  • 18. 

    The following open incident report provided? Date:01.01.01 Description : When pressing the stop button the application status remain in “ Attention” instead of “Ready”. Severity: High Life cycle integration Which of the following details are missing in the incident report? i. Identification or configuration of the application. ii.The name of the developer. iii. Recommendations of the developer. iv. The actions and conditions that came before the pressing of the button.

    • A.

      I,ii

    • B.

      Ii,iii

    • C.

      I,iv

    • D.

      Iv

    Correct Answer
    C. I,iv
    Explanation
    The incident report is missing the identification or configuration of the application (i) and the actions and conditions that came before the pressing of the button (iv). The report does not mention the name of the developer (ii) or any recommendations from the developer (iii).

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following are triggers for maintenance testing? 1. The period of time since last regression testing a system 2. New operating system installations 3. Changes in corporate policies and government regulations 4. Converting a legacy system to a software package 5. Developing a new software application  Select one:

    • A.

      2, 3, 4, and 5

    • B.

      1, 2, 3, and 4

    • C.

      2, 3, and 4

    • D.

      2, 3, and 5

    Correct Answer
    C. 2, 3, and 4
    Explanation
    Triggers for maintenance testing include new operating system installations, changes in corporate policies and government regulations, and converting a legacy system to a software package. These events can potentially introduce new bugs or require modifications to the existing system, making it necessary to conduct maintenance testing to ensure the system continues to function correctly. Developing a new software application is not listed as a trigger for maintenance testing, so option 2, 3, and 4 is the correct answer.

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  • 20. 

    Regression testing means: 

    • A.

      Testing of a previously tested program to ensure that defects have not been introduced or uncovered due to program modifications

    • B.

      Going back and re-executing a previous test level when defects are found() For example, testing the design when coding errors are found()

    • C.

      Testing with respect to user needs, requirements, and business processes to determine whether the system meets its acceptance criteria

    • D.

      Testing to determine the system's or component's compliance to standards, regulations, or conventions

    Correct Answer
    A. Testing of a previously tested program to ensure that defects have not been introduced or uncovered due to program modifications
    Explanation
    Regression testing refers to the process of testing a program that has already been tested in order to ensure that no new defects have been introduced or uncovered as a result of program modifications. This type of testing is crucial to verify that the changes made to the program have not negatively impacted its functionality or introduced any new bugs. By retesting the program, developers can ensure that it still performs as expected and that any modifications have not caused any unintended consequences.

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  • 21. 

    An impact analysis after maintenance to an existing system evaluates: Select one:

    • A.

      The skills and knowledge of testers to perform regression testing

    • B.

      Different test design techniques to use for re-testing after a change

    • C.

      How changes to a system might affect the unchanged areas of the system

    • D.

      How long a legacy system can remain operational and not need replacement

    Correct Answer
    C. How changes to a system might affect the unchanged areas of the system
    Explanation
    An impact analysis after maintenance to an existing system evaluates how changes made to a system might affect the unchanged areas of the system. This analysis helps identify potential risks and dependencies that may arise due to the changes, allowing for appropriate measures to be taken to mitigate any negative impacts on the unaffected areas. It helps ensure that the overall functionality and stability of the system are maintained after the maintenance activities.

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  • 22. 

    Risk is generally expressed in the two dimensions of: Select one:

    • A.

      Impact and likelihood

    • B.

      User loss and organizational loss

    • C.

      Anticipated loss and mitigation cost

    • D.

      Probability and possibility

    Correct Answer
    A. Impact and likelihood
    Explanation
    Risk is generally expressed in the two dimensions of impact and likelihood. Impact refers to the potential consequences or harm that may occur if a risk event were to happen. Likelihood, on the other hand, refers to the probability or chance of the risk event occurring. By considering both the impact and likelihood of a risk, organizations can assess and prioritize risks, develop appropriate mitigation strategies, and make informed decisions to minimize potential losses.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is a product risk? Select one:

    • A.

      Poor system reliability

    • B.

      Poor communication between developers and testers

    • C.

      Poor quality of test data

    • D.

      Lack of needed tester training

    Correct Answer
    A. Poor system reliability
    Explanation
    Poor system reliability is a product risk because it refers to the potential for the system to not function properly or consistently. This can lead to issues such as crashes, errors, or data loss, which can negatively impact the user experience and the overall quality of the product. It can also result in customer dissatisfaction, loss of trust, and potential financial losses for the company. Therefore, poor system reliability poses a risk to the successful development and deployment of the product.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is a project risk?  Select one:

    • A.

      System too costly to operate

    • B.

      Skill and/or staff shortage

    • C.

      Poor system performance

    • D.

      Vital function not implemented

    Correct Answer
    B. Skill and/or staff shortage
    Explanation
    A skill and/or staff shortage can be considered a project risk because it can hinder the successful completion of a project. If a project requires specific skills or expertise that are not readily available within the team or organization, it can lead to delays, errors, or subpar performance. Additionally, a shortage of staff can result in an increased workload for the existing team members, which can negatively impact productivity and the ability to meet project deadlines. Therefore, a skill and/or staff shortage is a potential risk that needs to be addressed and mitigated during project planning and execution.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is NOT a part of the risk management process? Select one:

    • A.

      Controlling and mitigating risks

    • B.

      Identifying risks

    • C.

      Comparing identified risks to actual occurrences

    • D.

      Prioritizing risks

    Correct Answer
    C. Comparing identified risks to actual occurrences
    Explanation
    Comparing identified risks to actual occurrences is not a part of the risk management process. Risk management involves identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and impact, prioritizing them based on their severity, and implementing strategies to control and mitigate those risks. Comparing identified risks to actual occurrences falls under the monitoring and evaluation phase of risk management, where the effectiveness of risk mitigation measures is assessed and adjustments are made if necessary.

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  • 26. 

    The test basis is: Select one:

    • A.

      The formal, written requirements document

    • B.

      The set of all test cases, test procedures, input data, and expected results

    • C.

      All documents and sources from which the requirements of a system can be inferred

    • D.

      Another name for the test plan

    Correct Answer
    C. All documents and sources from which the requirements of a system can be inferred
    Explanation
    The test basis refers to all the documents and sources from which the requirements of a system can be inferred. This includes any written or formal requirements document, as well as the set of all test cases, test procedures, input data, and expected results. The test basis provides the foundation for the testing process, as it outlines what needs to be tested and what the expected outcomes should be. It ensures that the testing is aligned with the system requirements and helps to identify any gaps or inconsistencies in the requirements documentation.

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  • 27. 

    You have to specify test cases based on equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis for an internet shop selling baby shoes. The shop provides a selection of shoes based on the following input parameters. There are 4 different sizes, depending on the age of the baby. The system selects the appropriate size based on the following criteria: 1. 0 < age <= 4 months: size 1 2. 4 < age <= 8 months: size 2 3. 8 < age <= 15 months: size 3 4.15 < age <= 24 months: size 4 The gender of the baby: boy or girl Which of the following statements is true? Select one:

    • A.

      The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8

    • B.

      There are two invalid equivalence classes for the age input parameter

    • C.

      All valid equivalence classes could be covered with 6 test cases

    • D.

      All combinations of valid equivalence classes could be covered with 4 test cases

    Correct Answer
    A. The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8
  • 28. 

    ST is a software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge basis. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows: 1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access 2. If ST certified, 5 - 10 years of testing experience - allow full access 3. If not ST certified with 5 - 10 years of testing experience - allow limited access What would be the results for : A - ST certified, 12 years of testing experience B - Not ST certified, 7 years of testing experience C - Not ST certified, 3 years of testing experience Select one:

    • A.

      A-unknown B-limited access C-unknown

    • B.

      A-Full access B-Limited access C-unknown

    • C.

      A-unknown B-Full access C-unknown

    • D.

      A-Full access B-limited access C-limited access

    Correct Answer
    A. A-unknown B-limited access C-unknown
    Explanation
    Based on the given criteria, the results would be as follows:
    A - ST certified, 12 years of testing experience: The question does not provide a specific rule for this scenario, so it is unknown what the access level would be.
    B - Not ST certified, 7 years of testing experience: According to the second rule, if the person is not ST certified but has 5-10 years of testing experience, they would have limited access.
    C - Not ST certified, 3 years of testing experience: The question does not provide a specific rule for this scenario, so it is unknown what the access level would be.

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  • 29. 

    Test implementation and execution do NOT include the following task: Select one:

    • A.

      Exploring the system based on the tester's experience

    • B.

      Analyzing the test basis

    • C.

      Logging test results in chronological order

    • D.

      Creating test data

    Correct Answer
    B. Analyzing the test basis
    Explanation
    Analyzing the test basis is not a task included in test implementation and execution. Test implementation and execution involve activities such as exploring the system based on the tester's experience, logging test results in chronological order, and creating test data. Analyzing the test basis refers to the process of understanding the requirements, specifications, and documentation related to the system under test. This task is typically performed during test planning and preparation stages, rather than during test implementation and execution.

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  • 30. 

    A test plan should include all of the following EXCEPT Select one:

    • A.

      Criteria for when to stop testing

    • B.

      Test design techniques to employ

    • C.

      Results from performing a set of test cases

    • D.

      Risks and contingencies

    Correct Answer
    C. Results from performing a set of test cases
    Explanation
    A test plan is a document that outlines the objectives, scope, approach, and resources required for testing a software application. It should include criteria for when to stop testing, test design techniques to employ, risks and contingencies. However, it should not include results from performing a set of test cases as this information is typically recorded in a separate test execution report.

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  • 31. 

    Among other tasks during test closure, testers: Select one:

    • A.

      Gather together and save all the key artifacts from the testing project

    • B.

      Close the incident reports after defects are corrected

    • C.

      Complete and turn in test design documents

    • D.

      Destroy evidence of bugs that were fixed before releasing the software

    Correct Answer
    A. Gather together and save all the key artifacts from the testing project
    Explanation
    During test closure, testers gather and save all the key artifacts from the testing project. This is important as it allows for future reference and analysis. These artifacts may include test plans, test cases, test data, test scripts, defect reports, and any other relevant documentation. Saving these artifacts ensures that the testing process can be reviewed, audited, and improved upon in future projects. It also helps in maintaining a record of the testing activities and outcomes, which can be useful for legal or compliance purposes.

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  • 32. 

    Exit criteria for stopping testing should be initially established Select one:

    • A.

      During test planning activities

    • B.

      After evaluating the list of remaining defects in the system

    • C.

      After the system is ready for execution

    • D.

      Before recommending releasing the system into operational use

    Correct Answer
    A. During test planning activities
    Explanation
    During test planning activities, the exit criteria for stopping testing should be established. This is because test planning involves defining the objectives, scope, and approach of the testing process. By establishing the exit criteria during this phase, the testing team can determine when to stop testing based on predefined conditions such as achieving a certain level of test coverage, meeting specific quality goals, or completing a certain number of test cycles. This helps ensure that testing is conducted efficiently and effectively, and that the system is thoroughly tested before it is released into operational use.

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  • 33. 

    When reporting defects, testers should: Select one:

    • A.

      Describe the defect and its effects in neutral, factual terms to avoid criticizing the developer personally

    • B.

      Not only describe the defect but also suggest a correction to the code to speed the defect’s correction

    • C.

      Describe the defect and its effects as negatively as possible to get the developers attention

    • D.

      Describe the defect as briefly as possible to maximize their time finding other defects

    Correct Answer
    A. Describe the defect and its effects in neutral, factual terms to avoid criticizing the developer personally
    Explanation
    When reporting defects, it is important for testers to describe the defect and its effects in neutral, factual terms to avoid criticizing the developer personally. This approach promotes a constructive and professional environment where the focus is on resolving the issue rather than blaming individuals. By providing objective information, testers can effectively communicate the problem to the developers without causing unnecessary conflicts or misunderstandings.

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  • 34. 

    Select the statement that best describes the common differences between tester and developer mindsets: Select one:

    • A.

      Developers tend to test what they did, and testers tend to test against requirements

    • B.

      Developers are more skilled than testers

    • C.

      Developers write code, and testers check it

    • D.

      Developers and testers rarely if ever work well together

    Correct Answer
    A. Developers tend to test what they did, and testers tend to test against requirements
    Explanation
    This statement best describes the common differences between tester and developer mindsets. Developers typically focus on testing their own work to ensure it functions correctly, while testers focus on testing against the requirements to ensure the software meets the desired specifications. This highlights the different perspectives and objectives of developers and testers in the software development process.

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  • 35. 

    Consider the code fragment given below. Input a; If(a>100) { a=a-100; if(a>50) { a=a-50; } } else if (a<100) { Print “ Invalid Input”; } Which answer choice would be correct if this program is executed for a=200, a=110, a=0,and a=50?

    • A.

      100% statement coverage has been achieved but 100% decision coverage has not been achieved

    • B.

      100% decision coverage has been achieved but 100% statement coverage has not been achieved

    • C.

      100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage have been achieved

    • D.

      100% statement and 100% decision coverage have been achieved

    Correct Answer
    C. 100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage have been achieved
    Explanation
    The code fragment provided includes all the statements and branches in the code. Therefore, 100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage have been achieved. This means that every statement in the code has been executed at least once, and every possible branch (if and else if conditions) has been taken.

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  • 36. 

    The testing approach with the least independence is: Select one:

    • A.

      Having another developer on the same team write the tests

    • B.

      Having a tester on an independent team write the tests

    • C.

      Having the users write the tests

    • D.

      Having the developer write tests for his own code

    Correct Answer
    D. Having the developer write tests for his own code
    Explanation
    The testing approach with the least independence is having the developer write tests for his own code. This is because the developer may have biases and may not be able to objectively test their own code. There is a higher chance of overlooking errors or not testing all possible scenarios. Having another developer on the same team write the tests or having a tester on an independent team write the tests provides more independence and helps in identifying issues that the developer may have missed. Having the users write the tests may not be feasible or practical in all cases, but it can provide valuable insights from a user's perspective.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following are correct tasks during ‘Test analysis and design’? I. Designing and prioritizing test cases II.Identifying any required infrastructure and tools III.Reviewing the test basis. IV. Creating test data and preparing test harmness V. Writing automated test scripts.

    • A.

      I,II,III

    • B.

      I,II,III,IV

    • C.

      I,II

    • D.

      II,III,IV,V

    Correct Answer
    B. I,II,III,IV
    Explanation
    During the 'Test analysis and design' phase, the correct tasks include designing and prioritizing test cases, identifying any required infrastructure and tools, reviewing the test basis, and creating test data and preparing test harness. These tasks are essential for ensuring that the testing process is well-planned and efficient. Additionally, writing automated test scripts can also be a part of this phase as it helps in automating the testing process and improving test coverage. Therefore, the correct answer is I, II, III, IV.

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  • 38. 

    The Pesticide Paradox means:

    • A.

      Every method you use to find bugs is limited by your knowledge and experience

    • B.

      Every method you use to find bugs works according to the 80-20 rule: 80 percent of the bugs will be found in 20 percent of the code

    • C.

      Every method you use to find bugs finds fewer than the methods you used before

    • D.

      Every method you use to find bugs leaves other bugs against which those tests are ineffective

    Correct Answer
    D. Every method you use to find bugs leaves other bugs against which those tests are ineffective
    Explanation
    The Pesticide Paradox means that every method used to find bugs will inevitably leave behind other bugs that are not detected by those tests. This is because as bugs are fixed, new bugs are introduced or existing bugs are overlooked. Therefore, no matter how thorough or comprehensive the bug-finding methods are, there will always be bugs that remain undetected and are not effectively targeted by the tests.

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  • 39. 

    In If a test suite is executed and anomalies (unexpected results) are found, it could mean: 1.No further investigation is needed 2 The test cases were poorly designed 3 Software defects are in the system 4 The tests were executed improperly

    • A.

      1 and 2 are true; 3 and 4 are false

    • B.

      2 and 3 are true; 1 and 4 are false

    • C.

      2, 3, and 4 are true; 1 is false

    • D.

      1, 2, and 3 are true; 4 is false

    Correct Answer
    C. 2, 3, and 4 are true; 1 is false
    Explanation
    If anomalies (unexpected results) are found during the execution of a test suite, it suggests that there are software defects in the system (option 3). This means that there are issues or bugs in the software being tested. Additionally, it also indicates that the test cases were poorly designed (option 2), as they failed to identify these anomalies. Lastly, it suggests that the tests were executed improperly (option 4), meaning that there may have been mistakes or errors in the way the tests were conducted. However, no further investigation is needed (option 1) because the anomalies already indicate the presence of software defects. Therefore, options 2, 3, and 4 are true, while option 1 is false.

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  • 40. 

    In software testing, what is the primary purpose of boundary value analysis?

    • A.

      To identify the maximum number of test cases

    • B.

      To identify the values that are not included in the test cases

    • C.

      To test the behavior of the software at or near its limits 

    • D.

      To determine the average value for test inputs

    Correct Answer
    C. To test the behavior of the software at or near its limits 
    Explanation
    Boundary value analysis is a software testing technique used to assess the software's behavior at or near its boundary values or limits. This is important because errors often occur at the edges of input ranges or limits. It helps in identifying potential issues related to boundary conditions, which can lead to more effective testing.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 30, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 23, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Abdul Jaleel
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