ISTQB- All Chapters Exam7

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Abdul Jaleel

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1/40 Questions

A number of critical bugs are fixed in software. All the bugs are in one module, related to reports. The test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.
- The test manager should do only automated regression testing.
- The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other modules
- The test manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do regression testing
- Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one module may affect other modules

About This Quiz

This ISTQB certification exam tests knowledge across all chapters, focusing on software testing principles and techniques. It assesses skills in test design, test process planning, functional testing, and maintenance testing, suitable for professionals aiming to validate their testing expertise.

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2.

Which of the following is TRUE?
- Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
- Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects.
- Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
- Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.
Correct Answer

A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.

Explanation

Confirmation testing is the process of testing fixes to a set of defects. This means that after a defect has been identified and a fix has been implemented, confirmation testing is performed to ensure that the fix has resolved the issue and that no new defects have been introduced. On the other hand, regression testing is the process of testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. This means that regression testing is performed to verify that the changes made to the software have not caused any unintended side effects or introduced new defects.

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3.

Which of the following could be a reason for a failure 1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Environment Fault 5) Documentation Fault
- 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
- 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
- 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
- All of them are valid reasons for failure.
Correct Answer

A. All of them are valid reasons for failure.

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of them are valid reasons for failure." This means that all options listed (1, 2, 3, 4, and 5) could potentially be reasons for a failure. It suggests that any of these factors, including testing faults, software faults, design faults, environment faults, and documentation faults, could lead to a failure.

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4.

Which of these statements about functional testing is true?
- Structural testing is more important than functional testing as it addresses the code.
- Functional testing is useful throughout the life cycle and can be applied by business analysts, testers, developers and users.
- Functional testing is more powerful than static testing as you actually run the system and see what happens.
- Inspection is a form of functional testing.
Correct Answer

A. Functional testing is useful throughout the life cycle and can be applied by business analysts, testers, developers and users.

Explanation

Functional testing is a type of testing that focuses on verifying the functionality of a system or application. It is used to ensure that the system meets the specified requirements and performs as expected. This type of testing is not limited to a specific phase of the development life cycle and can be applied by various stakeholders including business analysts, testers, developers, and users. It helps in identifying defects and ensuring that the system functions correctly from end to end.

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5.

Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
- Test Analysis and Design
- Test Implementation and execution
- Test Closure Activities
- Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Correct Answer

A. Test Analysis and Design

Explanation

Test Analysis and Design is the phase in which the test basis is reviewed. This phase involves analyzing the requirements, identifying test conditions, designing test cases, and preparing test data. During this phase, the test team reviews the test basis, which includes documents like requirement specifications, design documents, and functional specifications. The purpose of reviewing the test basis is to ensure that the test team has a clear understanding of the requirements and can design effective test cases. Therefore, reviewing the test basis is a part of the Test Analysis and Design phase.

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6.

Consider the following excerpt from a test report: "we tested the module AX45T and we got only 1 failure. To recreate the failure, we used test file PR624_DR78_TCB0022.pkr,available under the PR624_DR78 repository in the Ck01 server" Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy? Select one:
- Provides test managers with information to report test progress.
- Does not belong to an incident report
- Provides project managers with information on the project risks.
- Provides developers with information to isolate the failure.
Correct Answer

A. Provides developers with information to isolate the failure.

Explanation

The excerpt from the test report provides developers with information to isolate the failure. It mentions that the module AX45T was tested and only one failure was encountered. It also states the specific test file that was used to recreate the failure, along with its location in the repository. This information is crucial for developers to understand and investigate the cause of the failure, allowing them to isolate and address the issue effectively.

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7.

Which testing technique do you prefer for the following situations? 1. Severe time pressure 2. Inadequate specification
- Decision testing
- Error guessing.
- Statement testing
- Exploratory testing
Correct Answer

A. Exploratory testing

Explanation

Exploratory testing is the preferred testing technique for situations with severe time pressure and inadequate specification. This is because exploratory testing allows testers to quickly explore the system, identify potential issues, and provide immediate feedback. It does not rely heavily on pre-defined test cases or specifications, making it flexible and adaptable to changing circumstances. Additionally, exploratory testing encourages testers to use their domain knowledge and intuition to uncover hidden defects, making it an effective technique in situations where specifications are lacking.

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8.

Which of the following statements describe why exploratory testing is a useful test design technique? a. It can help derive test cases based on the internal structure of systems. b. It is useful when there are limited specification documents available. c. It is useful when there testing is constrained due to time pressures. d. It is a cheaper alternative to more formal test design techniques.
- b and c
- A and c
- B and d
- C and d
Correct Answer

A. b and c

Explanation

Exploratory testing is a useful test design technique because it is beneficial when there are limited specification documents available, allowing testers to explore the system and identify potential issues. It is also useful when testing is constrained due to time pressures, as it allows for flexibility and adaptability in the testing process.

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9.

Which of the following describes best, when incident reporting may occur? Select one:
- During review and testing of a product
- During development and testing of a product
- During testing and maintenance of a product
- During development, review, testing and use of a product
Correct Answer

A. During development, review, testing and use of a product

Explanation

Incident reporting may occur during development, review, testing, and use of a product. This means that incidents can be reported at any stage of the product's lifecycle, starting from its development phase, through the review and testing stages, and even during its maintenance and use. This comprehensive approach ensures that any issues or problems encountered during any phase of the product's lifecycle are reported and addressed promptly. By reporting incidents throughout the entire lifecycle, it allows for continuous improvement and helps to identify and resolve any potential risks or vulnerabilities in the product.

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10.

How is the scope of maintenance testing assessed?
- Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test
- Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
- Scope is dependent on the amount of regression testing already performed
- Scope is related to the number of system users affected by the change
Correct Answer

A. Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test

Explanation

The scope of maintenance testing is assessed based on the risk associated with the changes being made, the size of those changes, and the size of the system that is being tested. This means that the scope of maintenance testing will vary depending on these factors.

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11.

Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ? i) Regression testing is run ONLY once ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made iii) Regression testing is often automated iv) Regression tests need not be maintained
- Ii, iv
- Ii, iii
- I, iii, iv
- Iii
Correct Answer

A. Ii, iii

Explanation

Regression testing is used after fixes have been made, as it helps ensure that the previously fixed issues have not reappeared. Regression testing is often automated to save time and effort, as it involves retesting the unchanged parts of the software. However, regression tests need to be maintained to keep them up to date with any changes in the software. Therefore, the correct answer is ii, iii.

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12.

The purpose of exit criteria is
- Define when to stop testing
- End of test level
- When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre-condition
- All of the above
Correct Answer

A. All of the above

Explanation

Exit criteria in testing refers to the set of conditions or standards that must be met in order to determine when to stop testing. It includes defining when to stop testing, such as reaching a specific level of test coverage or when all test cases have been executed. It also signifies the end of a particular test level, such as completing system testing or user acceptance testing. Additionally, exit criteria can be based on achieving specific pre-conditions, such as when a set of tests has met certain requirements or objectives. Therefore, all of the given options are correct explanations of the purpose of exit criteria.

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13.

What is a major difference between use case based testing and other specification based testing techniques? Select one:
- Use case based testing cannot be used in agile projects but other techniques can be used for other models.
- Use case based testing is used only for object oriented projects where as other techniques can be used for all types of projects.
- Use case based testing is more efficient than other techniques.
- Use case testing provides end to end scenario based tests.
Correct Answer

A. Use case testing provides end to end scenario based tests.

Explanation

Use case testing provides end to end scenario based tests, which means that it focuses on testing the entire system from start to finish based on real-life scenarios. This is a major difference compared to other specification-based testing techniques, which may only focus on specific requirements or functionalities. Use case testing is not limited to a specific project type or methodology, making it applicable in various contexts. It is important to note that the efficiency of testing techniques can vary depending on the specific project and its requirements, so it cannot be generalized that use case testing is always more efficient than other techniques.

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14.

A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?
- 5, 6, 20
- 4, 5, 80
- 4, 5, 99
- 1, 20, 100
Correct Answer

A. 4, 5, 99

Explanation

The correct answer is 4, 5, 99 because it covers the boundary values for the minimum order quantity of 5 and the discount threshold of 100. By including the values 4, 5, and 99, we can test the behavior of the system at the lower and upper limits of these ranges. This ensures that the system handles these boundary conditions correctly. The other groups of test inputs either do not cover the boundary values or include values that are not relevant to the specific requirements mentioned in the question.

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15.

Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks? i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts. ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution. iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly. iv. Determining the exit criteria.
- I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
- I,iv are true and ii is false
- I,ii are true and iii,iv are false
- Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Correct Answer

A. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

Explanation

The correct answer is i,ii,iii are true and iv is false. This is because during test implementation and execution, the major tasks include developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures, creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution, and verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly. However, determining the exit criteria is not a major task during test implementation and execution.

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16.

A piece of software has been given for testing. What tests from the following will you perform? 1) Test the areas most critical to business processes 2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum 3) Test the easiest functionalities
- 1&2 are true and 3 is false.
- 1,2&3 are true.
- 1 is true, 2&3 are false.
- 1&2 are false, 3 is true
Correct Answer

A. 1&2 are true and 3 is false.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1&2 are true and 3 is false. This means that when testing a piece of software, it is important to test the areas most critical to business processes and the areas where faults are likely to be maximum. This ensures that the software is thoroughly tested in the areas that are most important and prone to errors. However, testing the easiest functionalities may not provide comprehensive coverage and may miss potential issues in more complex or critical areas of the software.

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17.

Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a functional test set?
- A goal is that no more failures will result from the remaining defects
- A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be identified and fixed
- A goal is to eliminate as much as possible the causes of defects
- A goal is to fulfill all requirements for testing that are defined in the project plan.
Correct Answer

A. A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be identified and fixed

Explanation

The correct answer is "A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be identified and fixed." This statement is a valid goal for a functional test set because the purpose of functional testing is to identify any failures or defects in the system. By finding as many failures as possible, it allows the testers to understand the causes of these failures and work towards fixing them. This goal helps in improving the quality and reliability of the system under test.

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0
18.

If a candidate is giving an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class.
- 23, 24, 25
- 0, 12, 25
- 30, 36, 39
- 32,37,40
Correct Answer

A. 32,37,40

Explanation

The equivalence class for passing the exam is 32, 37, 40. These numbers represent the minimum passing score (25 marks) and any scores above that. So, any score equal to or higher than 32, 37, or 40 would be considered a passing grade.

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19.

What should be taken into account to determine when to stop testing? I. Technical risk II. Business risk III Project constraints IV Product documentation
- I and II are true. III and N are false
- III is true, I, II, and IV are false
- I, II, and IV are true; III is false
- I, II, and III are true, IV is false.
Correct Answer

A. I, II, and III are true, IV is false.

Explanation

The correct answer is I, II, and III are true, IV is false. This means that when determining when to stop testing, technical risk, business risk, and project constraints should be taken into account. These factors can help determine if the testing process has achieved its goals and if further testing is necessary. Product documentation, on the other hand, is not mentioned as a factor to consider when deciding to stop testing.

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20.

Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester?
- Reviewing tests developed by others
- Writing a test strategy for the project
- Deciding what should be automated
- Writing test summary reports
Correct Answer

A. Reviewing tests developed by others

Explanation

A key task of a tester is reviewing tests developed by others. This involves examining the tests created by fellow testers or developers to ensure they meet the necessary requirements, are properly designed, and effectively identify any issues or bugs in the software being tested. By reviewing tests developed by others, the tester can provide valuable feedback, identify any gaps or areas for improvement, and ensure the overall quality of the testing process.

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21.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the benefit of fault attacks?
- They are more effective at finding faults than formal test design techniques
- They are useful when there is limited experience in the test team
- They can evaluate the reliability of a test object by attempting to force specific failures to occur
- They are less structured than other experience-based techniques
Correct Answer

A. They can evaluate the reliability of a test object by attempting to force specific failures to occur

Explanation

Fault attacks can evaluate the reliability of a test object by attempting to force specific failures to occur. This means that by intentionally causing faults, testers can assess how well the test object can handle and recover from these failures. This information can be valuable in identifying weak points and improving the overall reliability of the system.

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22.

Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities:
- Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence class at least once
- Identify all inputs and all outputs
- Identify equivalence classes for each input
- All of the above
Correct Answer

A. All of the above

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above". Equivalence partitioning is a technique used in software testing to divide the input data into different partitions or classes. This technique ensures that test cases cover each input and output equivalence class at least once. It also involves identifying all inputs and outputs and further identifying equivalence classes for each input. Therefore, all of the activities mentioned in the options are part of equivalence partitioning.

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23.

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer. Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10. Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15. Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes? Select one:
- 0-100-2000-6000
- 1-2000-5001-10000
- 0-1999-2000-5000
- 0, 99-1-2000-4999,99
Correct Answer

A. 0-100-2000-6000

Explanation

The question has 4 classes ( Less than 1, EUR 10, EUR 15, More than 5000), so check for data in all these class.
First Class (Less than 1) should have value less than 1 like 0, -ve integer
Second Class (EUR 10) should have value anything from 1 to 1999
Third Class (EUR 15) should have value from 2000 to 5000
Fourth Class ( More than 5000) should have value more than or equal to 5001

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24.

Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Assigning resources. iv) Building the test environment . v) Writing test conditions.
- I, ii &iv are true, iii & v are false.
- Ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false.
- iv& v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
- I, ii & iii are true iv& v are false.
Correct Answer

A. Ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false.

Explanation

The correct answer is ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false. Test planning involves defining the overall approach to testing and assigning resources, which are activities mentioned in options ii and iii. Developing test cases, building the test environment, and writing test conditions are not specifically mentioned as activities in test planning, making options i, iv, and v false.

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25.

Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by the descriptions below? S. Process-compliant approaches T. Heuristic approaches U. Consultative approaches V. Regression-averse approaches 1. Includes reuse of existing test material 2. Listens to suggestions from technology experts 3. Adheres to industry-specific standards 4. Runs test execution and evaluation concurrently
- S4, T3, U2, V1
- S1, T2, U3, V4
- S2, T3, U1, V4
- S3, T4, U2, V1
Correct Answer

A. S3, T4, U2, V1

Explanation

The correct answer is S3, T4, U2, V1. This is because the descriptions provided in the question match the characteristics of the test approaches as follows: S3 - Adheres to industry-specific standards, T4 - Runs test execution and evaluation concurrently, U2 - Listens to suggestions from technology experts, and V1 - Includes reuse of existing test material.

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26.

Which of the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool? Select one:
- Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements where as static analysis can find
- Static analysis targets the code technically whereas peer review is applicable to together aspects.
- Peer reviews find defects while static analysis finds failures.
- Peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.
Correct Answer

A. Static analysis targets the code technically whereas peer review is applicable to together aspects.
27.

The following code segment contains a potential 'divide by 0' error. J=50 K=1 while (J>=10) and (N<=10) loop M [K] = J/N K = K + 1 N = N - 1 end loop Which of the following is the most effective way of detecting this error?
- Boundary testing
- Condition testing
- Compilation of the source code
- Source code inspection
Correct Answer

A. Source code inspection

Explanation

The potential 'divide by 0' error in the code can be detected through source code inspection. By carefully reviewing the code, it is evident that the variable N is initialized to a value that is not given in the code. If N is initialized to 0, it will result in a divide by 0 error when calculating J/N. Therefore, by inspecting the source code, this error can be identified and addressed.

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28.

Considering the following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases for statement coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test cases for decision coverage respectively. READ A READ B READ C IF C>A THEN IF C>B THEN PRINT 'C must be smaller than at least one number' ELSE PRINT 'Proceed to next stage' ENDIF ELSE PRINT 'B can be smaller than C' ENDIF
- 3, 3
- 2, 3
- 2, 4
- 3, 2
Correct Answer

A. 3, 3

Explanation

The minimum number of test cases for statement coverage is 3 because there are three independent statements in the pseudo-code: READ A, READ B, and READ C. Each statement needs to be tested at least once to achieve statement coverage.

The minimum number of test cases for decision coverage is also 3 because there are three independent decisions in the pseudo-code: IF C>A, IF C>B, and ELSE. Each decision needs to be tested in both true and false conditions to achieve decision coverage. Therefore, a minimum of 3 test cases is required for decision coverage as well.

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29.

1.Which of the following would structure-based test design techniques be most likely to be applied to? 1. Boundaries between mortgage interest rate bands. 2. An invalid transition between two different arrear statuses. 3. The business process flow for mortgage approval. 4. Control flow of the program to calculate repayments.
- 2, 3 and 4
- 2 and 4
- 3 and 4
- 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer

A. 3 and 4

Explanation

Structure-based test design techniques are most likely to be applied to the business process flow for mortgage approval and the control flow of the program to calculate repayments. These techniques focus on analyzing the internal structure of the system or component being tested, such as the control flow, data flow, and decision points. In the context of the given options, the boundaries between mortgage interest rate bands and an invalid transition between two different arrear statuses do not directly involve the internal structure of the system or component, making options 1 and 2 less likely to be applied to structure-based test design techniques.

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30.

What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental Test Process? a. Analyze the test basis documents. b. Define the expected results. c. Create the test execution schedule. d. Establish the tracebility of the test conditions
- D, a, c, b
- A, d, b, c
- A, b, c, d
- A, b, d, c
Correct Answer

A. A, d, b, c

Explanation

The usual sequence for performing the activities during the Fundamental Test Process is to first analyze the test basis documents, then establish the traceability of the test conditions, followed by defining the expected results, and finally creating the test execution schedule. This sequence ensures that the testers have a clear understanding of the requirements and objectives before defining the expected results and planning the execution schedule.

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31.

Which of the following statements regarding incidents is NOT true? Select one:
- The discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes need to be logged as incidents
- Since incidents are the discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes they cannot be raised during development
- Incidents may be raised during development, review, testing or use of a software product
- Incidents should be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the solution
Correct Answer

A. Since incidents are the discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes they cannot be raised during development
32.

Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?
- Component testing should be performed by development
- Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing
- Component testing should have completion criteria planned
- Component testing does not involve regression testing
Correct Answer

A. Component testing does not involve regression testing

Explanation

Component testing involves testing individual components or units of a system in isolation to ensure that they function correctly. It is typically performed by the development team. Component testing is also known as isolation or module testing. It is important to have completion criteria planned for component testing to determine when the testing is considered complete. However, it is not true that component testing does not involve regression testing. Regression testing is performed to ensure that changes or fixes made to a component do not introduce new defects or impact existing functionality. Therefore, the given statement is not true.

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33.

Verification involves which of the following :- i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product. iii. Helps in developing the product iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
- Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
- I is true and ii,iii,iv are false
- I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
- Ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.
Correct Answer

A. I is true and ii,iii,iv are false

Explanation

Verification involves checking the quality of the built product. It ensures that the product meets the specified requirements and standards. However, it does not directly involve checking if the right product has been built or contribute to the development of the product. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness is not a part of the verification process. Therefore, option i is true and options ii, iii, and iv are false.

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34.

You are managing the testing of a fluid dynamics package to be used for designing the sewage system of an upcoming city. All testers are domain experts who understand fluid dynamics and hydraulic engineering and all of them have tested similar packages in the past. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true? Select one:
- The tests should be very detailed with step by step procedures, including button clicks, tabs and menu selections
- The test specification should follow IEEE standard template.
- The test specification should be written very detailed to ensure that everyone understands the application.
- The tests can be written with less details because of the testers expertise
Correct Answer

A. The tests can be written with less details because of the testers expertise

Explanation

The testers in this scenario are domain experts who have experience testing similar packages in the past. Therefore, they already have a good understanding of fluid dynamics and hydraulic engineering. As a result, they can write tests with less detail because they have the expertise to fill in any gaps or assumptions.

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35.

Postal rates for 'light letters' are 25p up to 10g, 35p up to 50g plus an extra 10p for each additional 25g up to 100g. Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using equivalence partitioning?
- 8, 42, 82, 102
- 4, 15, 65, 92, 159
- 10, 50, 75, 100
- 5, 20, 40, 60, 80
Correct Answer

A. 4, 15, 65, 92, 159

Explanation

The given question is about selecting test inputs for postal rates based on weight. The postal rates are as follows: 25p for up to 10g, 35p for up to 50g, and an additional 10p for each additional 25g up to 100g. Equivalence partitioning is a technique used to select representative test inputs. In this case, the inputs are divided into different partitions based on the weight ranges mentioned in the postal rates. The selected test inputs (4, 15, 65, 92, 159) cover different weight ranges and help ensure that the postal rate calculations are correctly implemented for each range.

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36.

If the pseudo code below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage? 1. If x=3 then 2. Display_messageX; 3. If y=2 then 4. Display_messageY; 5. Else 6. Display_messageZ; 7. Else 8. Display_messageZ;
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Correct Answer

A. 3

Explanation

In order to achieve 100% statement coverage, each statement in the code needs to be executed at least once. In the given pseudo code, there are 4 statements (lines 2, 4, 6, and 8).

To cover line 2, a test case where x=3 needs to be executed.

To cover line 4, a test case where y=2 needs to be executed.

To cover line 6, a test case where x is not equal to 3 and y is not equal to 2 needs to be executed.

Therefore, a minimum of 3 tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage.

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37.

For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests required for statement and branch coverage respectively? Discount rate=1; Fare = 1000; If ((person == 'senior citizen') and ('travel month = January')) Bonuspoints = 100+Bonuspoints If (class=='first') discountRate = 5; Fare = fare * discountRate;
- Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 2
- Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 2
- Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 3
- Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 4
Correct Answer

A. Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 2

Explanation

The correct answer is Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 2. This is because there is only one statement in the code fragment that needs to be covered, which is the assignment of the discount rate. However, there are two branches in the code, one for the first if statement and one for the second if statement. Therefore, to achieve branch coverage, both branches need to be tested.

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38.

One of the differences between the Modified Condition Decision Coverage and the Condition Coverage is:
- The Condition Coverage ensures all paths through a module are executed whereas the Modified Condition Decision Coverage ensures each path in a decision can independently affect the outcome.
- The Modified Condition Decision Coverage ensures all alternative paths are executed whereas the Condition Coverage ensure all main paths are executed.
- The Condition Coverage ensures each condition takes all possible outcomes at lease once whereas the Modified Condition Decision Coverage requires both maximum and minimum values within each field.
- The Modified Condition Decision Coverage relies on the tester’s skill and past experience whereas the Condition Coverage relies on the way in which the system moves from one condition to another.
Correct Answer

A. The Condition Coverage ensures all paths through a module are executed whereas the Modified Condition Decision Coverage ensures each path in a decision can independently affect the outcome.

Explanation

The Condition Coverage focuses on ensuring that all possible paths through a module are executed, meaning that every condition in the code is tested with at least one true and one false outcome. On the other hand, the Modified Condition Decision Coverage goes a step further by ensuring that each path in a decision, which includes multiple conditions, can independently affect the outcome. This means that all combinations of true and false outcomes for each condition within a decision are tested. Therefore, the correct answer accurately distinguishes between the two coverage criteria based on their specific objectives.

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39.

Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage? if width > length then biggest_dimension = width if height > width then biggest_dimension = height end_if else biggest_dimension = length if height > length then biggest_dimension = height end_if end_if
- 3
- 4
- 2
- 1
Correct Answer

A. 4

Explanation

The code fragment contains two decision points: the first one is the condition "width > length" and the second one is the condition "height > width". In order to achieve 100% decision coverage, we need to test all possible outcomes of these two decisions.

For the first decision, we need to test both when it is true (width is greater than length) and when it is false (width is not greater than length).

For the second decision, we need to test both when it is true (height is greater than width) and when it is false (height is not greater than width).

Therefore, we need to perform 2 tests for the first decision and 2 tests for the second decision, resulting in a total of 4 tests for 100% decision coverage.

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40.

Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning? a. Scheduling test analysis and design. b. Designing Test Conditions. c. Monitoring test progress. d. Identifying the objectives of testing. e. Evaluating test tools. f. Selecting test metrics for monitoring and control.
- B, c and d
- A, d and f
- A, d and e
- B, c and f
Correct Answer

A. B, c and d

Explanation

During test planning, it is normally expected to undertake the following activities:

b. Designing Test Conditions: This involves identifying and creating test conditions that will be used to determine whether the system under test is functioning correctly.

c. Monitoring test progress: This involves keeping track of the progress of the testing activities, including the number of test cases executed, defects found, and any other relevant metrics.

d. Identifying the objectives of testing: This involves determining the goals and objectives of the testing effort, such as ensuring the system meets specified requirements, identifying defects, and ensuring the system is reliable and stable.

These activities are essential for effective test planning and ensuring that the testing process is well-defined and aligned with the project objectives.

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