ISTQB- All Chapters Exam15

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  • 1/40 Questions

    When something unexpected occurs during a test, but it isn’t clear whether or not it is a defect, it should be: Select one:

    • Discussed informally with the developer
    • Ignored unless it happens several times
    • Formally logged for further investigation
    • Classified as a defect until proven otherwise
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About This Quiz

ISTQB- All Chapters Exam15 assesses knowledge across various testing protocols and standards, including the handling of test incidents and the importance of testing independence. It is designed for individuals aiming to certify their expertise in software testing.

ISTQB- All Chapters Exam15 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Incidents may be raised and logged by:

    • Testers

    • Developers

    • Users

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Incidents can be raised and logged by testers, developers, and users. Testers may encounter issues during the testing process and raise incidents to report them. Developers may come across bugs or errors while developing software and log incidents to track and fix them. Users may also encounter problems or have suggestions for improvement, so they can raise incidents to communicate their issues or ideas. Therefore, all of the mentioned options (testers, developers, and users) can raise and log incidents.

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  • 3. 

    The IEEE STD 829 Test Incident Report does not mention: Select one:

    • Inputs

    • The person who caused the incident The person who caused the incident - correct

    • Actual Results and expected results

    • Date and Time

    Correct Answer
    A. The person who caused the incident The person who caused the incident - correct
    Explanation
    The IEEE STD 829 Test Incident Report does not mention the person who caused the incident. This means that the report does not include any information about the individual responsible for the incident. The report may focus on other aspects such as inputs, actual results, expected results, date, and time, but it does not specifically address the person who caused the incident.

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  • 4. 

    Incident reports should contain data elements to record: Select one:

    • A. Impact - the actual or potential damage that could be caused by the incident

    • B. Who performed the tests

    • Neither a nor b

    • Both a and b

    Correct Answer
    A. Both a and b
    Explanation
    Incident reports should contain data elements to record the impact of the incident, which refers to the actual or potential damage that could be caused. Additionally, incident reports should also include information about who performed the tests, as this helps in identifying the individuals involved in the incident and their roles. Therefore, both options a and b are correct as they both represent essential data elements that should be included in incident reports.

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  • 5. 

    As testing independence increases: Select one:

    • The amount of time needed for testing decreases

    • Testers are friendlier with the developers

    • Testers are generally friendlier with the system's end users

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The statement "As testing independence increases, the amount of time needed for testing decreases" is not correct because testing independence refers to the degree of separation between testers and developers, and it does not directly affect the amount of time needed for testing. The statement "Testers are friendlier with the developers" is not correct because testing independence implies that testers should maintain a certain level of objectivity and impartiality, which may not necessarily lead to a friendlier relationship with developers. The statement "Testers are generally friendlier with the system's end users" is not correct because testing independence does not necessarily imply a change in the relationship between testers and end users. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above".

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  • 6. 

    Compared to an internal test team, an external test team is: Select one:

    • Less independent

    • More independent

    • None of the above

    • Equally independent

    Correct Answer
    A. More independent
    Explanation
    An external test team is more independent compared to an internal test team because they are not directly involved in the development process and are not influenced by internal biases or pressures. They can provide an unbiased and objective perspective on the product being tested. Additionally, being external to the organization, they may have a fresh set of eyes and different experiences that can contribute to identifying potential issues and providing valuable feedback.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following statements about developer testing are usually true, and which are usually false? 1.The developer is familiar with her code 2.Developers can efficiently trace errors to their cause 3.Developers who are responsible for testing have a decreased sense of responsibility for quality 4.Developers tend to focus on making software work rather than finding defects 5.Testers are more efficient than developers Select one:

    • 1, 2, and 5 are true; 3 and 4 are false

    • 2, 3 and 4 are true; 1 and 5 are false

    • 1, 2, and 4 are true; 3 and 5 are false

    • 1, 2, and 3 are true; 4 and 5 are false

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2, and 4 are true; 3 and 5 are false
    Explanation
    Developers being familiar with their code is usually true because they are the ones who have written it. Developers can efficiently trace errors to their cause is usually true because they have a deep understanding of the code and can easily identify the root cause of issues. Developers tend to focus on making software work rather than finding defects is usually true because their primary goal is to ensure the functionality of the software. Developers who are responsible for testing have a decreased sense of responsibility for quality is usually false because developers are usually highly invested in the quality of their code. Testers being more efficient than developers is usually false because developers have a better understanding of the code and can quickly identify and fix issues.

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  • 8. 

    Which tasks are not typical for the test manager role?

    • Recommend project actions

    • Execute tests

    • Estimate time and cost

    • Recommend project actions

    Correct Answer
    A. Execute tests
    Explanation
    The test manager role typically involves overseeing and managing the testing process, including planning, coordinating, and monitoring the testing activities. However, executing tests is not a typical task for the test manager. This responsibility usually falls under the domain of test engineers or testers who are responsible for actually performing the tests based on the test plans and test cases provided by the test manager. The test manager's role is to ensure that the testing activities are carried out effectively and efficiently, but they do not directly execute the tests themselves.

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  • 9. 

    Estimating the cost of testing using a metrics-based approach may be difficult because: Select one:

    • Data for previous similar projects are not available

    • The development to test time ratio is unknown

    • Domain subject matter experts are not available to assist

    • Non-functional requirements often are not well documented

    Correct Answer
    A. Data for previous similar projects are not available
    Explanation
    Estimating the cost of testing using a metrics-based approach may be difficult because data for previous similar projects are not available. Without historical data, it becomes challenging to accurately estimate the testing effort and cost required for a project. Historical data helps in understanding the patterns, complexities, and risks associated with testing, which are crucial for estimation. Without this data, estimations would rely solely on assumptions and guesswork, leading to potential inaccuracies and uncertainties in the cost estimation process.

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  • 10. 

    A test plan is: Select one:

    • A document specifying the test conditions for a test item, establishing the detailed test approach and identifying the associated high level test cases

    • A document specifying a set of test cases ( objective, inputs, test actions, expected results and execution preconditions) for a test team

    • A document reporting on any event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation

    • A document describing the scope, approach, resources, and schedule of intended test activities

    Correct Answer
    A. A document describing the scope, approach, resources, and schedule of intended test activities
    Explanation
    A test plan is a document that outlines the scope, approach, resources, and schedule of the intended test activities. It provides a detailed overview of how the testing will be conducted, including the objectives, test conditions, and high-level test cases. The test plan serves as a guide for the test team, ensuring that all necessary aspects of the testing process are considered and executed according to the defined plan. It helps to establish a clear understanding of the testing requirements and ensures that the testing activities align with the project goals and objectives.

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  • 11. 

    The IEEE STD 829 Test Plan has a section for: Select one:

    • Risk-based test approach

    • Business risks of insufficient testing

    • Risks and contingencies

    • Has no section for risks

    Correct Answer
    A. Risks and contingencies
    Explanation
    The IEEE STD 829 Test Plan includes a section for "Risks and contingencies". This section is important because it allows testers to identify potential risks that may impact the testing process and develop contingency plans to mitigate those risks. By addressing risks and having contingency plans in place, the test team can ensure that they are prepared for any unforeseen issues or challenges that may arise during the testing phase.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is a legitimate exit (stopping) criteria for testing? Select one:

    • No medium or high severity defects remain uncorrected

    • All planned test coverage goals have been met

    • All planned test cases have been written, executed, and passed

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above options can be considered legitimate exit criteria for testing. If no medium or high severity defects remain uncorrected, it indicates that the system is stable and ready for release. Similarly, if all planned test coverage goals have been met, it shows that the system has been thoroughly tested. Lastly, if all planned test cases have been written, executed, and passed, it signifies that the system has been tested comprehensively and meets the desired quality standards. Therefore, any of these conditions being met can be used as a valid stopping point for testing.

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  • 13. 

    The Configuration Control Board is: Select one:

    • A group of people responsible for evaluating, approving or disapproving, and monitoring proposed changes items

    • A group of people responsible for preventing changes to items under configuration management control

    • A group of people who make approved changes to items under configuration management control

    • A visible board , posted in a public place, on which items under configuration management control are displayed and tracked

    Correct Answer
    A. A group of people responsible for evaluating, approving or disapproving, and monitoring proposed changes items
    Explanation
    The Configuration Control Board is a group of people responsible for evaluating, approving or disapproving, and monitoring proposed changes items. This means that they are in charge of assessing any proposed changes to items under configuration management control, making decisions on whether to approve or disapprove these changes, and then monitoring the implementation and impact of the approved changes. They play a crucial role in ensuring that any changes made to items under configuration management control are properly evaluated and managed.

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  • 14. 

    All of the following are symptoms of configuration management problems EXCEPT: Select one:

    • It is unclear why code changes were made

    • Regression testing is required

    • Modifications to documents or code are overwritten

    • It is unclear what version of the software is being tested

    Correct Answer
    A. Regression testing is required
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because regression testing is not a symptom of configuration management problems. Regression testing is a process of retesting modified software to ensure that the changes have not introduced new defects or caused existing functionality to break. Configuration management problems, on the other hand, refer to issues related to the management and control of software configurations, such as unclear reasons for code changes, overwriting modifications, or uncertainty about the software version being tested.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following should be maintained under configuration management control? Select one:

    • Test Plans

    • Test Environment

    • Test Scripts

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above should be maintained under configuration management control because they are all important components of the testing process. Test plans outline the objectives, scope, and approach of the testing activities, and should be managed to ensure that they are up to date and reflect any changes in requirements or project scope. Test environments, which include hardware, software, and network configurations, should also be controlled to ensure consistency and reproducibility of test results. Test scripts, which contain the instructions for executing tests, should be managed to track changes and ensure that the correct version is used during testing.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is NOT contained in the IEEE STD 829 Test Summary Report? Select one:

    • Approvals

    • List of all defects found

    • Variances from the test plans

    • Comprehensiveness assessments

    Correct Answer
    A. List of all defects found
    Explanation
    The IEEE STD 829 Test Summary Report contains information about approvals, variances from the test plans, and comprehensiveness assessments. However, it does not include a list of all defects found. This report is used to summarize the testing activities and results, providing an overview of the testing process and any deviations from the planned approach. While it may mention the number or severity of defects, it does not provide a detailed list of each individual defect that was found during testing.

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  • 17. 

    _________ provides feedback to the test team and project stakeholders, including measurements about the overall quality of the system. Select one:

    • Test Control

    • Test Leadership

    • Test monitoring

    • Test design

    Correct Answer
    A. Test monitoring
    Explanation
    Test monitoring provides feedback to the test team and project stakeholders, including measurements about the overall quality of the system. It involves tracking and observing the testing activities, analyzing the test progress, and evaluating the test results. Test monitoring helps in identifying any issues or risks that may affect the quality of the system and allows for timely corrective actions to be taken. It plays a crucial role in ensuring that the testing process is on track and that the system meets the desired quality standards.

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  • 18. 

    Defect density is defined as the number of defects identified in a: Select one:

    • Component or system ordered from highest to lowest risk

    • Component or system per developer

    • Component or system divided by the size of the component or system

    • Component or System

    Correct Answer
    A. Component or system divided by the size of the component or system
    Explanation
    Defect density is a measure of the number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of that component or system. This metric helps in assessing the quality of the software by quantifying the number of defects per unit of size. By dividing the number of defects by the size, it provides a normalized value that can be compared across different components or systems, allowing for a more accurate comparison of defect rates. This helps in identifying areas with higher defect density and prioritizing them for further improvement.

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  • 19. 

    If the planned tests are not going to be completed on schedule, which of the following probably is NOT an effective control approach? Select one:

    • Extend the schedule to allow more time to complete the planned tests

    • Automate some of the manual tests

    • Prioritize which tests to perform and which not to perform

    • Add additional testers who have experience on the system under test

    Correct Answer
    A. Automate some of the manual tests
    Explanation
    Automating some of the manual tests may not be an effective control approach if the planned tests are not going to be completed on schedule. This is because automating tests requires time and resources to develop and maintain the automation framework. If the tests are already behind schedule, adding automation may further delay the completion of the tests. It would be more effective to prioritize the tests, extend the schedule, or add additional testers to ensure timely completion.

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  • 20. 

    An intrusive test tool: Select one:

    • Can improve the parameters it is measuring

    • Has no effect on the parameters it is measuring

    • Can adversely affect the parameters it is measuring

    • Does not integrate well into the development and / or testing process

    Correct Answer
    A. Can adversely affect the parameters it is measuring
    Explanation
    An intrusive test tool can adversely affect the parameters it is measuring because it may alter the behavior or performance of the system under test. This can lead to inaccurate measurements and unreliable test results. The tool may introduce additional overhead or interference that can impact the performance or functionality of the system, potentially causing it to behave differently than it would in a production environment. Therefore, it is important to carefully consider the potential impact of using intrusive test tools and mitigate any adverse effects.

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  • 21. 

    Some dynamic analysis tools are able to find: Select one:

    • Memory leaks

    • Ambiguous requirements statements

    • Designs that are too complex

    • Syntax errors in code

    Correct Answer
    A. Memory leaks
    Explanation
    Some dynamic analysis tools have the capability to detect memory leaks in a program. Memory leaks occur when a program does not properly release memory that it has allocated, leading to a gradual accumulation of memory usage over time. These tools can track memory allocations and deallocations during the execution of a program and identify any instances where memory is not being properly freed. By detecting memory leaks, developers can identify and fix potential performance and stability issues in their software.

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  • 22. 

    Test comparators determine and report the differences between: Select one:

    • Files and databases in test results

    • Tests designed and tests executed

    • Coverage planned and coverage achieved

    • Tests required and tests designed

    Correct Answer
    A. Files and databases in test results
    Explanation
    Test comparators are used to determine and report the differences between files and databases in test results. This means that the comparators analyze the data generated from the tests and compare them with the expected results stored in the files and databases. By identifying any discrepancies or variations between the actual test results and the expected results, the comparators can provide valuable insights into the performance and accuracy of the tests. This allows testers to identify any issues or errors in the test results and take appropriate actions to rectify them.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is NOT a typical function of a test management tool? Select one:

    • Trace test cases to requirements specifications

    • Code coverage

    • Interface to incident tracking tools

    • Support test planning and scheduling

    Correct Answer
    A. Code coverage
    Explanation
    A test management tool is primarily used to support test planning and scheduling, trace test cases to requirements specifications, and provide an interface to incident tracking tools. Code coverage, on the other hand, is not a typical function of a test management tool. Code coverage is a measure of how much of the source code is executed during testing, and it is usually provided by separate tools such as code coverage analysis tools.

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  • 24. 

    Scripts generated by capture/replay automated test execution tools: Select one:

    • Are generalized sets of multiple test cases

    • Rarely require revision by the tester

    • By-pass the user interface and interact with the test object directly

    • May be invalidated by small changes in the system

    Correct Answer
    A. May be invalidated by small changes in the system
    Explanation
    Scripts generated by capture/replay automated test execution tools may be invalidated by small changes in the system. This is because these tools record user interactions with the system and generate scripts based on those interactions. If there are any changes in the system, such as UI modifications or updates, the scripts may no longer be compatible and may need to be revised or updated by the tester. Therefore, even small changes in the system can invalidate the generated scripts.

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  • 25. 

    In keyword-driven testing, tests are: Select one:

    • Represented in a table or spreadsheet describing actions

    • Scripts created automatically by capture/replay tools

    • Scripts created manually by testers

    • Represented in a table or spreadsheet containing decision tables Represented in a table or spreadsheet containing decision tables  

    Correct Answer
    A. Represented in a table or spreadsheet containing decision tables Represented in a table or spreadsheet containing decision tables  
    Explanation
    In keyword-driven testing, tests are represented in a table or spreadsheet containing decision tables. This means that the tests are defined using keywords or actions that describe the steps to be performed. The decision tables in the table or spreadsheet help to define the different scenarios and conditions that need to be tested. This approach allows for easy maintenance and reusability of the tests, as changes can be made in the table or spreadsheet without modifying the underlying test scripts.

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  • 26. 

    To be most effective in introducing a test tool into your organization you should: Select one:

    • Let the tool dictate your processes rather than having your processes dictate your tool

    • Try a pilot or proof-of-concept use before widespread adoption

    • Make sure that your testers have a user manual for the tool

    • Have many projects begin using the tool simultaneously to maximize learning

    Correct Answer
    A. Try a pilot or proof-of-concept use before widespread adoption
    Explanation
    Trying a pilot or proof-of-concept use before widespread adoption is the most effective approach to introducing a test tool into an organization. This allows for testing the tool's functionality, compatibility, and suitability for the organization's specific needs. It also helps identify any potential issues or limitations before committing to widespread adoption. By conducting a pilot or proof-of-concept, the organization can gather feedback, evaluate the tool's effectiveness, and make informed decisions about its implementation. This approach minimizes risks and ensures that the tool aligns with the organization's requirements.

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  • 27. 

    The first three steps in the tool selection and implementation process are: Select one:

    • Pilot project with tool; Assess needs; evaluate tool supplier

    • Assess needs; evaluate tool options; implement tool

    • Assess needs; Obtain training; evaluate tool supplier

    • Assess needs; evaluate tool options; pilot project with tool

    Correct Answer
    A. Assess needs; evaluate tool options; pilot project with tool
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Assess needs; evaluate tool options; pilot project with tool". This is because the first step in the tool selection and implementation process is to assess the needs of the organization or project. This involves identifying the specific requirements and goals that the tool should fulfill. The next step is to evaluate different tool options available in the market that align with the identified needs. This includes considering factors such as features, cost, compatibility, and support. Finally, a pilot project with the selected tool is conducted to test its functionality and effectiveness in a real-world scenario before fully implementing it.

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  • 28. 

    The main purpose of a test procedure or test script is to? Select one:

    • Document the high-level test strategy and testing schedule

    • Describe the sequence of actions to execute one or more test cases within a suite of tests

    • Describe a test case and all of the conditions it tests

    • Document how the system will be tested, what features will be tested, and the pass/fail criteria for each feature

    Correct Answer
    A. Describe the sequence of actions to execute one or more test cases within a suite of tests
    Explanation
    A test procedure or test script describes the sequence of actions that need to be followed in order to execute one or more test cases within a suite of tests. It provides a step-by-step guide for testers to follow, ensuring that the tests are executed consistently and accurately. By following the test procedure or test script, testers can ensure that all necessary actions are performed and that the tests are executed in the intended order. This helps to maintain consistency and reliability in the testing process.

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  • 29. 

    A test case specification document is ________ detailed than a test design specification document? Select one:

    • Equally

    • More

    • Less

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. More
    Explanation
    A test case specification document is more detailed than a test design specification document because it provides specific information about the inputs, actions, and expected outcomes for each test case. This document outlines the steps to be followed during testing and includes detailed test data, test conditions, and expected results. On the other hand, a test design specification document provides a high-level overview of the testing approach, strategies, and techniques to be used. It focuses on the overall test design rather than the specific details of individual test cases.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is NOT a possible test oracle? Select one:

    • The program source code

    • An existing system

    • A user's knowledge

    • A user manual

    Correct Answer
    A. The program source code
    Explanation
    The program source code is not a possible test oracle because it is the implementation of the program itself. Test oracles are used to determine the expected behavior of the program during testing. The program source code cannot be used as a test oracle because it is the thing being tested, not the reference for expected behavior.

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  • 31. 

    A library computer system prevents members from checking out more than 10 books and should not allow the librarian to enter less than 1 book for check out. Using equivalence partitioning, what are the valid and invalid classes for the number of books to check out? Select one:

    • Less than 0; 1 through 10; greater than 10

    • 1; 10

    • 0; 5; 15

    • Less than 1; 1 through 10; greater than 10

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 1; 1 through 10; greater than 10
    Explanation
    The valid classes for the number of books to check out are less than 1, 1 through 10, and greater than 10. This means that any number less than 1, any number between 1 and 10 (inclusive), and any number greater than 10 are valid inputs for the system. The invalid classes are not mentioned, but they would include any negative number and zero, as these are not allowed according to the system's rules.

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  • 32. 

    Data in the range 0 through 10 is supplied to a system. Data in the range: 0 through 1 is processed using formula A 1 through 5 is processed using formula B 5 through 10 is processed using formula C Using equivalence class partitioning to choose test cases, which set of test data points is most correct? Select one:

    • 0.5, 5, 50

    • The specification is ambiguous and needs clarification before constructing test cases

    • -0.5, 0.5, 5, 50, 1500

    • -0.5, 0.5, 5, 50

    Correct Answer
    A. The specification is ambiguous and needs clarification before constructing test cases
  • 33. 

    Sales people for Big Pills Pharmaceuticals earn a base salary of $50,000 per year plus commissions on net sales in their are() You are testing a program that computes each salesperson’s commission. You can assume the input has been filtered and only positive whole US dollars can enter the program. The commission computation rules are as follows: 1% commission is paid on net sales of $0 through $49,999 2% commission is paid on net sales of $50,000 through $99,999 3% commission is paid on net sales of $100,000 through $499,999 4% commission is paid on net sales of $500,000 and above Using equivalence class partitioning to choose test cases, the most appropriate set of test cases is: Select one:

    • -32,767; 500; 32,768; 2,000,000

    • 50,000; 60,000; 243,000; 870,000; 1,500,000; 3,500,000

    • 25,000; 75,000; 242,000; 600,000

    • 0; 40,000; 60,000; 80,000; 120,000; 378,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 25,000; 75,000; 242,000; 600,000
    Explanation
    The most appropriate set of test cases is 25,000; 75,000; 242,000; 600,000. These test cases cover all the different ranges of net sales that determine the commission rate. The first test case of 25,000 falls within the range of $0 through $49,999, testing the 1% commission rate. The second test case of 75,000 falls within the range of $50,000 through $99,999, testing the 2% commission rate. The third test case of 242,000 falls within the range of $100,000 through $499,999, testing the 3% commission rate. And finally, the fourth test case of 600,000 falls within the range of $500,000 and above, testing the 4% commission rate.

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  • 34. 

    A medical appointment system allows patients to schedule appointments to see the doctor only Monday through Friday.  Create a set of test cases to check the valid and invalid classes for this requirement with the minimum number of tests. Select one:

    • Monday; Friday; Saturday

    • Monday; Saturday; Sunday

    • Monday; Saturday

    • Saturday; Sunday

    Correct Answer
    A. Monday; Saturday
    Explanation
    This set of test cases covers both valid and invalid classes for the given requirement. Monday is a valid day for scheduling appointments, while Saturday is an invalid day. Including both of these days in the test cases ensures that the system correctly allows appointments on valid days and rejects appointments on invalid days.

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  • 35. 

    A high school drivers education program accepts student who are at least 16 years old but not more than 19. Using the 3-point approach for boundary value analysis, what is the most appropriate set of test cases to create? Select one:

    • 0, 15, 16, 18, 19, 20

    • 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20

    • 15, 16, 19, 20, 25

    • 15, 16, 19, 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20
    Explanation
    The high school drivers education program has a minimum age requirement of 16 and a maximum age requirement of 19. The 3-point approach for boundary value analysis suggests testing the minimum and maximum values, as well as the values just below and above the boundaries. Therefore, the most appropriate set of test cases to create would be 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20. These values cover all the possible scenarios within the given age range.

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  • 36. 

    If a decision table has four independent conditions where Condition-1 can have values Y, N Condition-2 can have values Y, N, M Condition-3 can have values >= 1, <1 Condition-4 can have values A, B, C, D and two actions where Action - 1 can be W, X Action - 2 can be Y, Z What is the maximum number of rules the decision table needs? Select one:

    • 48

    • 42

    • 6

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 48
    Explanation
    The maximum number of rules in a decision table can be calculated by multiplying the number of possibilities for each condition and action. In this case, there are 2 possibilities for Condition-1, 3 possibilities for Condition-2, 2 possibilities for Condition-3, and 4 possibilities for Condition-4. There are also 2 possibilities for Action-1 and 2 possibilities for Action-2. Multiplying all these possibilities together gives us a total of 48 possible rules for the decision table.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following statements is true?

    • In state-transition testing, test cases are constructed from state/event combinations.

    • State-transition testing is a static test technique

    • In state-transition testing, the requirements are in the form of a task-event matrix

    • State-transition testing is a technique which uses a graphical representation of combinations of code control points and expected outputs.

    Correct Answer
    A. In state-transition testing, test cases are constructed from state/event combinations.
    Explanation
    State-transition testing is a technique used to test systems that can be described as a finite number of states and transitions between those states. In this technique, test cases are constructed based on the different combinations of states and events that the system can undergo. By testing these state/event combinations, it is possible to verify if the system behaves correctly and transitions between states as expected. This approach helps to identify any defects or issues related to the system's state transitions.

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  • 38. 

    An actor in use cases Select one:

    • Can be a person, another application , or an external system playing a role

    • Can pretend to do whatever it wants

    • Is different for each individual use case

    • Is a user or customer with in the system or application

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be a person, another application , or an external system playing a role
    Explanation
    The actor in use cases can be any entity that interacts with the system, whether it is a person, another application, or an external system. The actor plays a specific role in the use case scenario and can initiate actions or receive outputs from the system. The flexibility of the actor being able to play different roles allows for a versatile and adaptable use case model.

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  • 39. 

    Use cases can serve as the foundation for creating: Select one:

    • Integration test cases

    • System and acceptance test cases

    • Conformance test cases

    • Unit Test cases

    Correct Answer
    A. System and acceptance test cases
    Explanation
    Use cases can serve as the foundation for creating system and acceptance test cases because they describe the interactions between the system and its users. By analyzing the use cases, testers can identify the different scenarios and conditions that need to be tested during system and acceptance testing. Use cases provide a clear understanding of the system's functionality and help in designing test cases that cover all the possible user interactions and expected outcomes. Therefore, system and acceptance test cases can be derived from the use cases to ensure that the system meets the specified requirements and performs as expected.

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  • 40. 

    Use cases are: Select one:

    • The sequential flow of messages from module (Unit) to module to implement a particular Use(Function)

    • A list of uses(functions) that the system provides

    • A screen diagram listing the functions that the system implements

    • Scenarios that describe the use of a system by an actor to accomplish a specific goal

    Correct Answer
    A. Scenarios that describe the use of a system by an actor to accomplish a specific goal
    Explanation
    Scenarios that describe the use of a system by an actor to accomplish a specific goal provide a detailed description of how the system will be used in real-world situations. These scenarios outline the specific steps and interactions between the user (actor) and the system to achieve a desired outcome. They help in understanding the system's functionality, identifying potential issues, and ensuring that the system meets the user's needs.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 22, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Abdul Jaleel

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