ISTQB- All Chapters Exam8

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ISTQB- All Chapters Exam8 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following lists represents the correct sequence of the main activities of the fundamental test process (leaving out the activity of control which should take place in parallel to all the other activities)? Select one:  

    • A.

      Planning, analysis and reporting, design and implementation, execution, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria.

    • B.

      Planning, analysis, design and implementation, execution, logging, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria.

    • C.

      Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities

    • D.

      Planning, analysis and design, execution, logging and reporting, regression testing

    Correct Answer
    C. Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities." This sequence represents the logical flow of activities in the fundamental test process. Planning, analysis, and design are the initial phases where test objectives and test conditions are defined. Implementation and execution involve the actual execution of test cases and logging any defects found. Evaluation of exit criteria and reporting is done to determine if the testing is complete and to report the results. Finally, test closure activities are performed to wrap up the testing process.

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  • 2. 

    In maintenance testing, What is the relationship between impact analysis and Regression testing? Select one:

    • A.

      The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed

    • B.

      Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in Previous SW release.

    • C.

      There is no relation between impact analysis and regression testing.

    • D.

      Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements when there are new changes integrated (new functionalities).

    Correct Answer
    A. The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed
    Explanation
    Impact analysis is used to assess the potential impact of changes on the existing system. It helps in identifying the areas that are likely to be affected by the changes. Regression testing, on the other hand, is performed to ensure that the changes made to the system do not have any unintended side effects on the existing functionality. Therefore, the impact analysis is used to determine the extent of regression testing that needs to be performed.

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  • 3. 

    Requirement 24.3. A 'Postage Assistant' will calculate the amount of postage due for letters and small packages up to 1 kilogram in weight. The inputs are: the type of item (letter, book or other package) and the weight in grams. Which of the following conform to the required contents of a test case?

    • A.

      Test the three types of item to post and three different weights

    • B.

      Test 1: letter, 10 grams, postage €0.25. Test 2: book, 500 grams, postage €1.00. Test 3: package, 999 gram, postage €2.53

    • C.

      Test 1: letter, 10 grams to Belgium. Test 2: book 500 grams to USA. Test 3: package, 999 grams to South Africa

    • D.

      Test 1: letter 10 grams, Belgium, postage €0.25. Test 2: package 999 grams to South Africa, postage €2.53

    Correct Answer
    B. Test 1: letter, 10 grams, postage €0.25. Test 2: book, 500 grams, postage €1.00. Test 3: package, 999 gram, postage €2.53
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because it includes test cases for all three types of items (letter, book, and package) and three different weights. Each test case specifies the type of item, the weight in grams, and the expected postage amount. This ensures that the Postage Assistant can accurately calculate the postage due for different types of items and weights.

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  • 4. 

    Agile development can be classified as which life cycle model? Select one:

    • A.

      Agile development is not related to any life cycle model

    • B.

      V Model

    • C.

      Iterative or incremental

    • D.

      RAD

    Correct Answer
    C. Iterative or incremental
    Explanation
    Agile development can be classified as an iterative or incremental life cycle model. This is because Agile focuses on delivering software in small, incremental iterations, rather than following a linear, sequential process like the V Model. Agile also emphasizes flexibility and adaptability, allowing for changes and adjustments to be made throughout the development process. RAD (Rapid Application Development) is another life cycle model, but it is not the most suitable classification for Agile development. Therefore, the correct answer is iterative or incremental.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following statements is correct? Select one:

    • A.

      Test planning is an activity that is only performed at the very beginning of the project.

    • B.

      Test planning is influenced by among others, the scope of testing, the risks and the availability of resources.

    • C.

      Since test planning is influenced by the developers work, test planning should not start before the entire project plan of the development team is available.

    • D.

      Because independence of testers enhances quality and improves testing, test planning should not take into account constraints from the development

    Correct Answer
    B. Test planning is influenced by among others, the scope of testing, the risks and the availability of resources.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Test planning is influenced by among others, the scope of testing, the risks and the availability of resources." This statement is correct because test planning involves considering various factors such as the scope of testing, the risks involved, and the availability of resources. These factors play a crucial role in determining the test strategy, test objectives, and test approach. Therefore, test planning is not limited to the beginning of the project but is an ongoing activity that adapts and evolves based on these influences.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to component testing:  i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.  ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.  iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes.  iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.

    • A.

      I and ii

    • B.

      I, ii and iii

    • C.

      Iii

    • D.

      Ii and iv

    Correct Answer
    B. I, ii and iii
    Explanation
    The correct answer is I, ii and iii. This combination describes a valid approach to component testing. Functional testing of the component in isolation (i) allows for testing the individual functionality of the component. Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents (ii) involves analyzing the structure of the code to identify potential issues. Automated tests that are run until the component passes (iii) ensure that the component meets the desired criteria. Therefore, this combination covers testing the functionality, structure, and automation aspects of component testing.

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  • 7. 

    Software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are: Group I: 012 Group II: 1318 Group III: over 18 Which of the below represent boundary values? Select one:

    • A.

      (4,5,15,20)

    • B.

      (-1,0,12,13,18,19)

    • C.

      (0,12,13,18,19)

    • D.

      (-1,0,11,12,13,14,18,19)

    Correct Answer
    B. (-1,0,12,13,18,19)
    Explanation
    The correct answer represents boundary values because it includes the minimum and maximum values for each age group. For Group I, the minimum age is 0 and the maximum age is 12. For Group II, the minimum age is 13 and the maximum age is 18. For Group III, the minimum age is 19 and there is no maximum age specified. Therefore, the boundary values are -1, 0, 12, 13, 18, and 19.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following are valid testing principles ? I. Exhaustive testing is in general impossible II. Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused III. Testing may guarantee that a program is correct IV. Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct V. Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product Select one:

    • A.

      II, IV

    • B.

      I, IV, V

    • C.

      I, III

    • D.

      I, V

    Correct Answer
    B. I, IV, V
    Explanation
    Exhaustive testing is generally impossible because it is impractical to test every possible input and scenario. Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct because there may be undiscovered defects or errors. Defects tend to cluster together in certain areas of the product, meaning that there may be specific areas or functionalities that are more likely to have issues. Therefore, the valid testing principles are I, IV, and V.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following activities is most relevant to when a software system is to be retired or replaced? Select one:

    • A.

      Performing regression testing

    • B.

      Testing for data migration or archiving

    • C.

      Performing confirmation testing

    • D.

      Testing the old systems reliability

    Correct Answer
    B. Testing for data migration or archiving
    Explanation
    When a software system is being retired or replaced, it is important to ensure that the data from the old system is successfully migrated or archived in the new system. Therefore, testing for data migration or archiving is the most relevant activity in this scenario. This testing activity helps to verify that the data is transferred accurately and securely, minimizing the risk of data loss or corruption during the transition process.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG? Select one:

    • A.

      Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project

    • B.

      Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques

    • C.

      Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up

    • D.

      Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known

    Correct Answer
    A. Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project
    Explanation
    The statement "Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project" is incorrect because the test effort estimate is based on factors such as the size and complexity of the project, the number of test cases, and the skills and experience of the testing team. The budget of the project may influence the resources allocated for testing, but it does not directly determine the effort estimate.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following tools targets testing of user requirements? Select one:

    • A.

      Code coverage tool

    • B.

      Load test tool

    • C.

      Dynamic analysis tools

    • D.

      Static analysis tool

    Correct Answer
    D. Static analysis tool
    Explanation
    A static analysis tool is used to analyze the source code or program without actually executing it. It helps in identifying potential issues or defects in the code, such as coding standards violations, security vulnerabilities, and adherence to user requirements. By analyzing the code against the user requirements, a static analysis tool can help in testing whether the code meets the specified requirements or not. Therefore, a static analysis tool targets testing of user requirements.

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  • 12. 

    An ecommerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is 10$. The credit cards have a limit of $10,000.00 (Ten Thousand). Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for efficient testing for the amount of money that can be spent? Select one:

    • A.

      10, 10,000, 10,001

    • B.

      9, 10, 9990, 10,000, 10,001, 10,010

    • C.

      9,10, 10,000 and 10,001

    • D.

      9, 10, 11, 9990, 10,000, 10,001 

    Correct Answer
    C. 9,10, 10,000 and 10,001
    Explanation
    The selected set of boundary values includes the minimum amount of money that can be processed (10$), the maximum limit of the credit cards (10,000$), and two values just above and below the maximum limit (10,001$ and 9$). This ensures that the system is tested for the minimum and maximum values allowed, as well as values close to the limits to check for any potential issues or errors in processing payments.

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  • 13. 

    For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests required for statement and branch coverage respectively? discountRate = 1; fare = 1000; If ((person=="senior citizen") and (travelmonth==January)) Bonus points=100+bonuspoints; If (class=="first") discountRate = 5; Fare = fare * discountRate; Select one:

    • A.

      Statement coverage = 1, Branch coverage = 3

    • B.

      Statement coverage = 2, Branch coverage = 4

    • C.

      Statement coverage = 2, Branch coverage = 2

    • D.

      Statement coverage = 1, Branch coverage = 2

    Correct Answer
    D. Statement coverage = 1, Branch coverage = 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Statement coverage = 1, Branch coverage = 2. This is because there are two if statements in the code fragment. The first if statement has two conditions, so there are two branches to consider. The second if statement has only one condition, so there is only one branch to consider. Therefore, the minimum number of tests required for branch coverage is 2. As for statement coverage, there are two assignments in the code fragment, so the minimum number of tests required for statement coverage is 1.

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  • 14. 

    For withdrawing money from an automated teller machine (ATM), the following conditions are required: -The bank card is valid -The PIN code is correct -Money is available in the users account The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM: -The entered card is invalid: The card is rejected  -The PIN code is wrong: The ATM asks for another PIN code  -The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount -The requested amount is available in the user's account: -The ATM dispense the money  Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the input conditions? Select one:

    • A.

      Decision table

    • B.

      Equivalence class partitioning

    • C.

      Use case based testing

    • D.

      Boundary value analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Decision table
    Explanation
    A decision table should be used to cover all possible combinations of the input conditions. A decision table is a testing technique that helps identify all possible combinations of inputs and their corresponding outputs or actions. In this case, the decision table can include the valid/invalid card, correct/incorrect PIN code, and available/unavailable money in the user's account as conditions, and the actions or outputs can be the rejection of the card, asking for another PIN code, asking for another amount, or dispensing the money. By creating a decision table, all possible combinations can be systematically tested to ensure comprehensive coverage.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following statements are true ? I. Defects in a program do not always cause failures. II. A defect in a program may cause more than one failure during execution III. If there is a fault in the program, at least one test will fail IV. After fixing a bug, the program may still fail under test V. Errors in the program lead to sideeffects Select one:

    • A.

      II and III are true. The others are false

    • B.

      I and IV are true. The others are false

    • C.

      I, II and IV are true. The others are false

    • D.

      I and V are true. The others are false

    Correct Answer
    C. I, II and IV are true. The others are false
    Explanation
    Defects in a program do not always cause failures, as there may be situations where the defect does not impact the program's functionality. A defect in a program may cause more than one failure during execution, as multiple parts of the program can be affected by the same defect. If there is a fault in the program, at least one test will fail, as faults represent errors or defects in the program's code. After fixing a bug, the program may still fail under test, as there could be other undiscovered defects or issues in the program. Errors in the program do not necessarily lead to side effects, as not all errors result in unintended consequences.

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  • 16. 

    In what way do configuration management effects testing? Select one:

    • A.

      Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identify the tested item

    • B.

      Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed

    • C.

      There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project

    • D.

      Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

    Correct Answer
    A. Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identify the tested item
    Explanation
    Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identify the tested item. This means that testers can accurately track and manage the specific version or configuration of the item being tested. This is crucial for effective testing as it allows testers to reproduce issues, track changes, and ensure that the correct version of the item is being tested. Without proper configuration management, testers may encounter difficulties in identifying and managing the tested item, leading to inefficiencies and potential errors in the testing process.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is a project risk? Select one:

    • A.

      Interface complexity

    • B.

      Data integrity

    • C.

      Resource availability

    • D.

      Performance

    Correct Answer
    C. Resource availability
    Explanation
    Resource availability is a project risk because it refers to the availability of necessary resources, such as personnel, equipment, or materials, that are required to complete a project. If there is a lack of resources or if they are not available when needed, it can lead to delays, increased costs, or even project failure. Therefore, resource availability is a potential risk that project managers need to consider and plan for in order to ensure the successful completion of a project.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is NOT a test control activity? Select one:

    • A.

      Set an entry criterion requiring fixes to be retested by a developer before accepting them into a build

    • B.

      Writing test suspension and resumption criteria in the test plan

    • C.

      Repriortize tests because of time pressure

    • D.

      Change the test schedule due to availability of a test environment

    Correct Answer
    B. Writing test suspension and resumption criteria in the test plan
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Writing test suspension and resumption criteria in the test plan." This is not a test control activity because it is a test planning activity. Test control activities are focused on monitoring and adjusting the testing process, such as setting entry criteria, reprioritizing tests, and changing the test schedule. Writing test suspension and resumption criteria is part of the test planning process, where the criteria for when to suspend and resume testing are defined in advance.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following options represents equivalence classes for the station name in the given requirement snippet, If the input is a valid station name(caseinsensitive) then the code corresponding to the station name will be displayed? Select one:

    • A.

      There are three equivalence classes: two with valid names (upper and lower case), one invalid name

    • B.

      There are two equivalence classes, One valid and one invalid station name

    • C.

      This specification is not solvable by equivalence partitioning

    • D.

      There are as many test cases as there are valid station name

    Correct Answer
    B. There are two equivalence classes, One valid and one invalid station name
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that the requirement snippet states that if the input is a valid station name (case-insensitive), then the code corresponding to the station name will be displayed. This means that there are two equivalence classes: one for valid station names (both upper and lower case) and one for invalid station names. The code will only be displayed for valid station names, so there is no need to create test cases for each valid station name separately.

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  • 20. 

    The following program part is given: IF (condition A) or (condition B) Then DO C END IF How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% decision coverage? Select one:  

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    In order to achieve 100% decision coverage, we need to test every possible outcome of the decision. In this case, the decision is the combination of two conditions, A and B. Since there are two conditions, we need to test both the true and false outcomes of each condition. Therefore, we need to test 2 test cases for each condition, resulting in a total of 2 test cases.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of nonfunctional testing? Select one:

    • A.

      It covers the evaluation of the interaction of various specified components

    • B.

      It may include testing the ease of modification of systems

    • C.

      It may be performed at unit, integration, system and acceptance test levels

    • D.

      It tests "how" the system works The

    Correct Answer
    B. It may include testing the ease of modification of systems
    Explanation
    Nonfunctional testing focuses on aspects of a system that are not related to its specific functionality. It evaluates factors such as performance, reliability, usability, and security. Testing the ease of modification of systems is more closely related to functional testing, as it involves assessing how easily the system can be modified or updated. Therefore, it is least likely to be true of nonfunctional testing.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following statements are "testing general principles" ? I. Exhaustive testing is impossible. II. The defects found during the pre release tests, or the operational failures, are uniformly distributed across the systems software modules. III. Testing can show the presence of defects, but cannot demonstrate their absence. IV. Testing is context independent. Select one:

    • A.

      I, IV

    • B.

      II, III

    • C.

      I, III

    • D.

      I, II

    Correct Answer
    C. I, III
  • 23. 

    Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required? Select one:

    • A.

      Budget

    • B.

      Level of risk

    • C.

      Life cycle model

    • D.

      Time

    Correct Answer
    C. Life cycle model
    Explanation
    The extent of testing required is determined by factors such as budget, level of risk, and time. However, the life cycle model is not a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required. The life cycle model refers to the specific approach or methodology used for software development, and while it may impact the overall testing process, it is not directly related to determining the extent of testing required.

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  • 24. 

    In performance testing, tools can be used to collect metrics. Which statement about monitoring tools is correct? Select one:

    • A.

      They are technical tools a used by developers and not testers

    • B.

      They make it possible to observe possible performance problems and give warnings

    • C.

      They supervise the testing effort and report related metrics

    • D.

      They store version information and can be replaced by configuration management tools

    Correct Answer
    B. They make it possible to observe possible performance problems and give warnings
    Explanation
    Monitoring tools in performance testing are used to observe and identify possible performance problems. These tools help in analyzing various metrics and provide warnings or alerts if any performance issues are detected. They enable testers to monitor the system under test in real-time and gather valuable insights into its performance. By continuously monitoring the system, testers can proactively identify bottlenecks, resource utilization, and other performance-related issues, allowing them to take necessary actions to optimize performance.

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  • 25. 

    The following open incident report provided: Date : 01.01.01 Description: When pressing the stop button the application status remain in "Attention"instead of "Ready" Severity: High Life cycle: Integration Which of the following details are missing in the giving incident report? I. Identification or configuration of the application II. The name of the developer III. Recommendation of the developer IV. The actions and/or conditions that came before thepressing of the button Select one:

    • A.

      I, II

    • B.

      II, III

    • C.

      I, IV

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    C. I, IV
    Explanation
    The open incident report is missing the identification or configuration of the application and the actions and/or conditions that came before pressing the button. The report includes the date, description, severity, and life cycle, but does not provide information about the specific application or the context in which the issue occurred. Additionally, it does not mention the name of the developer or their recommendation for resolving the issue. Therefore, the missing details in the incident report are I. Identification or configuration of the application and IV. The actions and/or conditions that came before the pressing of the button.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases? Select one:

    • A.

      Covering all states at least once

    • B.

      Covering only start and end states

    • C.

      Covering all transitions at least once

    • D.

      Can't be determined

    Correct Answer
    C. Covering all transitions at least once
    Explanation
    Covering all transitions at least once results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases because it ensures that every possible transition between states is tested. This coverage criterion ensures that the behavior and interactions between states are thoroughly tested, providing a comprehensive understanding of the system's functionality. By covering all transitions, it is more likely to identify potential issues or errors that may occur during state transitions, leading to a higher level of test coverage.

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  • 27. 

    Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test processes activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed? Select one: 

    • A.

      Analysis and design

    • B.

      Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

    • C.

      Requirements specification

    • D.

      Implementation and execution

    Correct Answer
    B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
    Explanation
    During the activity of evaluating exit criteria and reporting, the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed. This means that stakeholders can review the exit criteria, which are the conditions that must be met for testing to be considered complete, and the corresponding reports to determine if they have received enough information to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. This evaluation helps ensure that the testing process has provided the necessary information for stakeholders to make informed decisions.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following statements about roles in a typical formal review is correct ? Select one:

    • A.

      The author documents the problems and open points

    • B.

      The moderator determines if the review objectives have been met

    • C.

      The manager allocates time in project schedules

    • D.

      The manager is responsible for planning the review

    Correct Answer
    C. The manager allocates time in project schedules
    Explanation
    In a typical formal review, the manager is responsible for allocating time in project schedules. This means that the manager is in charge of determining how much time should be dedicated to the review process within the overall project timeline. This role is important in ensuring that sufficient time is allocated for the review to take place effectively and that it does not disrupt the overall project schedule. The manager's responsibility is specifically related to time allocation, rather than planning the review or documenting problems and open points, which are tasks assigned to other roles.

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  • 29. 

    A system for calculation of taxes has the people's age as input. The "Age" field is supposed to accept integer numbers between 18 and 75 (including). Which is the correct result of boundary value analysis? Select one:

    • A.

      0, 18, 75, 99

    • B.

      0, 17, 18, 75, 76, 99

    • C.

      17, 18, 75, 76

    • D.

      17, 18, 19, 50,75, 76

    Correct Answer
    C. 17, 18, 75, 76
  • 30. 

    Which one of the following statements about independent testing is not correct? Select one:

    • A.

      Independent testing can be performed by developers with the right mindset

    • B.

      Independent testing is not appropriate for unit testing

    • C.

      Independent testing may be performed at any level of testing

    • D.

      Independent testing is often more effective at finding defects and failures

    Correct Answer
    B. Independent testing is not appropriate for unit testing
    Explanation
    Independent testing is not appropriate for unit testing because unit testing is typically performed by the developers themselves to ensure that their individual units of code are functioning correctly. Independent testing is more suitable for higher levels of testing, such as integration testing and system testing, where the focus is on testing the interactions between different components or systems.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following test execution outcomes are likely to increase the overall quality of the software: I. A test case passes II. A test case fails, defect gets logged which subsequently gets fixed III. Some tests are differed because test environment is not available IV. A bug is found but there is no corresponding test case Select one:

    • A.

      I, II and III

    • B.

      I and IV

    • C.

      I and II

    • D.

      I, II and IV

    Correct Answer
    D. I, II and IV
    Explanation
    Passing test cases (I) indicate that the software is functioning correctly and meets the expected requirements. When a test case fails (II), a defect is identified and logged, which can then be fixed to improve the software's quality. Even if a bug is found without a corresponding test case (IV), it still contributes to the overall quality as it highlights areas that need improvement. However, deferring tests (III) due to the unavailability of the test environment does not directly impact the quality of the software. Therefore, the correct answer is I, II, and IV.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following statements correctly characterize experiencebased techniques ? I. "Error guessing" is an experience based technique. II. Experience based techniques are alternative to systematic techniques. III. The fault attack is a structured approach to "error guessing". IV. Exploratory testing is an experience based technique, especially useful when the specifications are complete and the time schedule is not pressing. Select one:

    • A.

      I, II

    • B.

      I, III

    • C.

      II, III

    • D.

      I, III, IV

    Correct Answer
    B. I, III
    Explanation
    Experience-based techniques are testing techniques that rely on the tester's knowledge, intuition, and past experience. "Error guessing" is an experience-based technique because it involves the tester using their experience to identify potential errors or faults in the system. The fault attack, mentioned in statement III, is a structured approach to "error guessing," indicating that it is a specific technique within the broader category of experience-based techniques. Exploratory testing, mentioned in statement IV, is also an experience-based technique that is particularly useful when the specifications are complete and there is no time pressure. Therefore, the correct statements are I and III.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following statements is true? Select one:

    • A.

      It is impossible to achieve 100% statement coverage

    • B.

      100% statement coverage means 100% branch coverage

    • C.

      100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage and vice versa

    • D.

      100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage

    Correct Answer
    D. 100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage
    Explanation
    100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage because branch coverage refers to the percentage of branches in the code that have been executed, while statement coverage refers to the percentage of statements in the code that have been executed. Since every branch contains at least one statement, achieving 100% branch coverage implies that every statement in the code has been executed, resulting in 100% statement coverage as well. Therefore, the two terms are equivalent in this context.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is NOT an example of dynamic testing? Select one:

    • A.

      Code inspection

    • B.

      Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

    • C.

      Coverage analysis 

    • D.

      Testing for performance

    Correct Answer
    A. Code inspection
    Explanation
    Dynamic testing refers to testing techniques that involve executing the code and observing its behavior. It focuses on evaluating the software's functionality, performance, and reliability during runtime. Code inspection, on the other hand, is a static testing technique that involves reviewing the code without executing it. It aims to identify defects, improve code quality, and ensure adherence to coding standards. Since code inspection does not involve executing the code, it is not an example of dynamic testing.

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  • 35. 

    Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project? Select one:  

    • A.

      To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies

    • B.

      To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers

    • C.

      To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs

    • D.

      To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact

    Correct Answer
    D. To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact
    Explanation
    The main goals of risk management in a software project are to reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact. This means identifying and assessing potential risks, implementing strategies to mitigate or avoid them, and monitoring and controlling risks throughout the project lifecycle. By doing so, the project team can minimize the likelihood of negative events occurring and minimize the impact if they do occur, ultimately increasing the chances of project success.

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  • 36. 

    You have to specify test cases based on equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis for an internet shop selling baby shoes. The shop provides a selection of shoes based on the following input parameters.  There are 4 different sizes, depending on the age of the baby. The system selects the appropriate size based on the following criteria: 1. 0 < age <= 4 months: size 1 2. 4 < age <= 8 months: size 2 3. 8 < age <= 15 months: size 3 4.15 < age <= 24 months: size 4 The gender of the baby: boy or girl Which of the following statements is true? Select one:

    • A.

      There are two invalid equivalence classes for the age input parameter

    • B.

      The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8

    • C.

      All valid equivalence classes could be covered with 6 test cases

    • D.

      All combinations of valid equivalence classes could be covered with 4 test cases

    Correct Answer
    B. The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8." This is because there are 4 different sizes based on the age of the baby and 2 options for the gender of the baby. Therefore, the total number of combinations is 4 (age) * 2 (gender) = 8.

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  • 37. 

    Consider the following excerpt from a defect report, "To recreate the failure we used test file TST_01_TC_16.dat, which is available in the common shared folder." Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy? Select one:

    • A.

      Provides test leaders with information to report test progress

    • B.

      Does not belong in an incident report 

    • C.

      Provides developers with information to isolate the failure

    • D.

      Provides ideas for test process improvement

    Correct Answer
    C. Provides developers with information to isolate the failure
    Explanation
    This excerpt satisfies the objective of providing developers with information to isolate the failure. It specifies the test file that was used to recreate the failure, which helps the developers in identifying and resolving the issue.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following statements are correct ? I. System testing is often carried out by an independent test team. II. The main goal in acceptance testing is to find defects III. Component testing may include testing of functionalityand non functional characteristics. IV. User acceptance testing typically verifies the fitness for use of the system by business users. V. The environment for system testing should correspond to the production environment. Select one:

    • A.

      I, II, V

    • B.

      I, III, IV, V

    • C.

      II, III, V

    • D.

      II, III, IV

    Correct Answer
    B. I, III, IV, V
    Explanation
    Statement I is correct as system testing is often carried out by an independent test team to ensure unbiased and objective testing.
    Statement III is correct as component testing involves testing both functionality and non-functional characteristics like performance, security, etc.
    Statement IV is correct as user acceptance testing is done by business users to verify if the system is fit for use according to their requirements.
    Statement V is correct as the environment for system testing should ideally correspond to the production environment to simulate real-world conditions.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following statements correctly describe Black box testing? Select one: 

    • A.

      Test of the interfaces between components and of the interactions with different parts of a system

    • B.

      Test on an individual software component in isolation from other components, to avoid external influence

    • C.

      Tests that investigate the input vs. the output behavior of a software system

    • D.

      Test derived from the ability of the testers and their intuition and experience with similar applications and technologies sometimes used to strengthen systematic techniques)

    Correct Answer
    C. Tests that investigate the input vs. the output behavior of a software system
    Explanation
    Black box testing is a method of software testing where the internal workings of the system being tested are not known to the tester. It focuses on testing the behavior of the system based on its inputs and outputs. This means that the tester does not need to know the internal code or structure of the system, but rather focuses on testing the functionality and correctness of the system's response to different inputs. Therefore, the statement "Tests that investigate the input vs. the output behavior of a software system" correctly describes Black box testing.

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  • 40. 

    When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage? Select one:

    • A.

      Multiple condition coverage

    • B.

      Statement coverage

    • C.

      Decision table

    • D.

      Use case testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple condition coverage
    Explanation
    Multiple condition coverage is a structural based coverage technique that ensures that all possible combinations of conditions within an if statement are tested. This technique is important in mission critical systems as it helps identify potential flaws or errors that may occur due to different combinations of conditions. By achieving high coverage through multiple condition coverage, the system can be thoroughly tested and potential risks can be mitigated, ensuring the reliability and effectiveness of the mission critical system.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 20, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Abdul Jaleel
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