4N051 B Vol 2 UREs

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

    • Evaluate patient
    • Obtain patient's history
    • Transcribe doctor's orders
    • Obtain patient's vitals, height and weight
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled '4N051 B Vol 2 UREs' assesses knowledge on patient management in medical settings, focusing on admission processes, patient treatment authorization, and aeromedical evacuation protocols. It is designed for medical technicians and nursing professionals to ensure compliance and efficiency in patient care.

4N051 B Vol 2 UREs - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?

    • Continue to monitor; this is a normal side effect

    • Place the patient on his or her left side

    • Administer 100 percent oxygen

    • Stop the transfusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the transfusion
    Explanation
    If a patient receiving a blood transfusion exhibits symptoms such as distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential transfusion reaction or fluid overload. Stopping the transfusion is the first and most important step to prevent further complications. By discontinuing the transfusion, the healthcare provider can assess the patient's condition and determine the appropriate course of action. Continuing to monitor the patient without taking immediate action could lead to worsening symptoms and potential harm to the patient.

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  • 3. 

    Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?

    • Crepitus

    • Vibration

    • Resonance

    • Intonation

    Correct Answer
    A. Crepitus
    Explanation
    Crepitus is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. This sound can occur due to various reasons such as arthritis, fractures, or joint injuries. It is often described as a crackling or grinding noise and can be accompanied by pain or discomfort. Crepitus is commonly heard in conditions like osteoarthritis, where the cartilage between bones wears down, causing the bones to rub against each other.

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  • 4. 

    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally 

    • A lifelong process

    • Of no use because they do no fully recover

    • Continued for six months after the injury occured

    • Continued for up to two years after the final surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. A lifelong process
    Explanation
    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a lifelong process because they do not fully recover. Spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and loss of function, requiring ongoing therapy and support to manage the physical, emotional, and practical challenges associated with the injury. The goal of rehabilitation is to maximize the individual's independence and quality of life, adapting to their specific needs and abilities over time. Therefore, lifelong rehabilitation is necessary to optimize the patient's overall well-being and functional abilities.

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  • 5. 

    The side of the body that is affected by stroke is determined by the 

    • Dominant right or left side

    • Side of the body that is weaker

    • Side of the brain that was traumatized

    • Position the patient was in when the stroke occured

    Correct Answer
    A. Side of the brain that was traumatized
    Explanation
    The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the side of the brain that was traumatized. When a stroke occurs, it is usually caused by a blockage or rupture of blood vessels in the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to certain areas. Depending on which side of the brain is affected, the opposite side of the body may experience weakness or paralysis. This is because the brain controls the movement and sensation of the opposite side of the body. Therefore, the side of the brain that was traumatized is the determining factor in which side of the body is affected by a stroke.

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  • 6. 

    When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be 

    • Hypernatremia

    • Hyperkalemia

    • Dehydration

    • Aspiration

    Correct Answer
    A. Dehydration
    Explanation
    When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, dehydration would be a primary concern. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children. Dehydration can be dangerous and can lead to various complications, such as electrolyte imbalances, decreased urine output, and low blood pressure. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the child's fluid intake and provide appropriate rehydration measures to prevent dehydration.

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  • 7. 

    When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using

    • Alcohol

    • Lotion

    • Lanolin

    • Antiseptic soap

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcohol
    Explanation
    Alcohol can be drying and irritating to the skin, especially for elderly individuals who may already have dry or sensitive skin. It can strip the skin of its natural oils and cause further dryness and discomfort. Therefore, it is important to avoid using alcohol-based products when providing skin care for the elderly.

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  • 8. 

    What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance?

    • Draw blood for alcohol and drug testing

    • Monitor vital signs and sustain life

    • Contact the First Sergeant

    • Contact Security Forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitor vital signs and sustain life
    Explanation
    When providing care to a patient who has abused a substance, the priority should be to monitor vital signs and sustain life. This is because the immediate concern is ensuring the patient's safety and well-being. Drawing blood for alcohol and drug testing, contacting the First Sergeant, and contacting Security Forces may be important steps to take, but they are not the immediate priority when it comes to providing care to the patient.

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  • 9. 

    What should yo udo to help patients who become angry and hostile?

    • Involve the patient in group therapy sessions

    • Allow the patient to become physically abusive

    • Refer the patient to the nurse or physician for counseling

    • Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression
    Explanation
    Allowing patients to channel their hostility through verbal expression can be a helpful strategy in managing their anger and hostility. Verbal expression provides a safe outlet for patients to express their emotions and frustrations, which can help them feel heard and understood. It can also prevent the escalation of anger into physical aggression. By encouraging patients to express themselves verbally, healthcare professionals can create a supportive environment that promotes emotional well-being and facilitates effective communication between the patient and the healthcare team.

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  • 10. 

    To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patients positioning should be changed every

    • One hour

    • Two hours

    • Three hours

    • Four hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Two hours
    Explanation
    To prevent decubitus ulcers, patients should have their positioning changed every two hours. This is because prolonged pressure on certain areas of the body can lead to the development of these ulcers, also known as bedsores. By changing the patient's position regularly, the pressure is redistributed, allowing blood flow to the affected areas and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Changing positions every two hours helps to maintain skin integrity and prevent the formation of decubitus ulcers.

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  • 11. 

    The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned

    • Near patient's shoulder furthest from stretcher

    • At the bottom of the bed on the stretcher side

    • At the head of the bed on the stretcher side

    • Near patient's shoulder closest to stretcher

    Correct Answer
    A. At the head of the bed on the stretcher side
    Explanation
    The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned at the head of the bed on the stretcher side. This position allows the person to have better control and visibility during the transfer process. Being at the head of the bed allows the person to communicate with the patient effectively and ensure their safety. Additionally, being on the stretcher side provides better access to the necessary equipment and allows for a smoother transfer.

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  • 12. 

    What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?

    • Soft

    • Bland

    • Liquid

    • Regular

    Correct Answer
    A. Liquid
    Explanation
    The diet usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract is a liquid diet. This type of diet consists of foods that are in liquid form, such as soups, juices, and smoothies. It is easier for patients with chewing or swallowing difficulties to consume and digest liquids, as they require less effort to break down. Additionally, a liquid diet helps to minimize residue in the digestive tract, making it suitable for individuals who need to avoid certain foods or have specific dietary restrictions.

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  • 13. 

    The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than three days is the

    • Soft diet

    • Full liquid

    • Clear liquid

    • Mineral restricted

    Correct Answer
    A. Clear liquid
    Explanation
    A clear liquid diet consists of only transparent fluids like water, broth, and clear juices. It is low in nutrients and lacks essential proteins, fats, and fibers required for a balanced diet. This diet is typically prescribed for a short period, usually not exceeding three days, to allow the digestive system to rest and recover from illness or surgery. Prolonged adherence to a clear liquid diet can lead to nutritional deficiencies and should be avoided.

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  • 14. 

    Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's nasogastric (NG) tube?

    • Check the physician's orders

    • Check for tube placement

    • Inform the patient

    • Wash your hands

    Correct Answer
    A. Check for tube placement
    Explanation
    Before performing a procedure that uses the patient's nasogastric (NG) tube, it is important to check for tube placement. This is crucial to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the patient's stomach and not in the lungs or other incorrect locations. Checking for tube placement helps to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety and effectiveness of the procedure.

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  • 15. 

    What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?

    • 85 to 88 percent

    • 89 to 91 percent

    • 92 to 95 percent

    • 95 to 98 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 95 to 98 percent
    Explanation
    The higher the number the better for Oxygen saturation, just like money $$$.

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  • 16. 

    What position When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism? 

    • Webber

    • Valsalva

    • Vagal

    • Allen

    Correct Answer
    A. Valsalva
    Explanation
    When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, the maneuver that is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism is the Valsalva maneuver. The Valsalva maneuver involves the patient holding their breath and bearing down, which increases the pressure in the chest and helps to prevent air from entering the bloodstream. This maneuver is commonly used during procedures that involve the insertion of central lines to minimize the risk of air embolism.

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  • 17. 

    When caring for a patient with the electrical burns at a facility,  your first priority is 

    • Apply sterile dressings to the burn sites

    • Management of patients airway

    • Evaluate extend of the burn

    • Infection control

    Correct Answer
    A. Management of patients airway
    Explanation
    When caring for a patient with electrical burns, the first priority is to manage the patient's airway. Electrical burns can cause damage to the respiratory system, including the airway, which can lead to difficulty breathing or even airway obstruction. Therefore, it is crucial to assess and ensure the patency of the airway to maintain proper oxygenation and ventilation. This may involve interventions such as positioning the patient, suctioning if necessary, or providing oxygen support. By prioritizing the management of the airway, healthcare professionals can prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

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  • 18. 

    What is the proper sequence for cleaning a wound?

    • Remove old dressing, don sterile gloves, wipe from the wound out

    • Remove old dressing, don sterile gloves, wipe towards the wound

    • Apply sterile gloves, remove old dressing, wipe from the wound out

    • Apply sterile loves, remove old dressing, wipe towards the wound

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove old dressing, don sterile gloves, wipe from the wound out
    Explanation
    The proper sequence for cleaning a wound is to first remove the old dressing to assess the wound. Then, donning sterile gloves is important to maintain a clean and sterile environment. Finally, wiping from the wound out helps to prevent contamination by moving any debris or bacteria away from the wound site.

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  • 19. 

    What reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time?

    • Reflex vasoconstriction

    • Reflex vasodilatation

    • Babinski's reflex

    • Haab's reflex

    Correct Answer
    A. Reflex vasoconstriction
    Explanation
    If a heat treatment is left in place for a prolonged period of time, the body's natural response would be reflex vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels in the affected area would constrict or narrow, reducing blood flow to that area. This reflex action helps to regulate body temperature and prevent overheating.

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  • 20. 

    What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?

    • Patient's condition and cost of admission per day.

    • Facility policy and patient's distance from home.

    • Patient's condition and facility policy.

    • Facility policy and patient's requests.

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient's condition and facility policy.
    Explanation
    The steps in the routine admission process are determined by the patient's condition and the facility policy. The patient's condition is a crucial factor as it helps determine the level of care and resources required for their admission. Facility policy also plays a role in determining the steps, as it outlines the protocols and procedures that need to be followed during the admission process. Other factors such as cost of admission per day, patient's distance from home, and patient's requests may be important considerations in some cases, but they are not the primary determinants of the steps in the routine admission process.

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  • 21. 

    If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the

    • Patient was likely off the unit having tests complete

    • Patient is doing well and no problems were noted

    • Doctor probably changed the orders verbally

    • Vital signs were not completed

    Correct Answer
    A. Vital signs were not completed
    Explanation
    If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, the most reasonable assumption would be that the vital signs were not completed. This is because if the patient was off the unit having tests complete, it would be expected that the vital signs would still be recorded upon their return. If the patient was doing well and no problems were noted, the vital signs would still need to be monitored. While it is possible that the doctor may have changed the orders verbally, it is more likely that the vital signs were simply not completed as required.

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  • 22. 

    What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet? 

    • No documentation is required at shift change

    • Document all totals in the Remarks section

    • Document in the Grand Total block

    • Circle the last accumulated total

    Correct Answer
    A. Circle the last accumulated total
    Explanation
    The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet is to circle the last accumulated total. This means that at the end of each shift, the total intake and output should be calculated and circled to indicate that it is the final total for that shift. This allows for easy identification and tracking of the cumulative totals for each shift. No additional documentation or remarks are required for shift change totals.

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  • 23. 

    Orthopaedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as

    • Infectious

    • Congenital

    • Pathologic

    • Temporary

    Correct Answer
    A. Congenital
    Explanation
    Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. Congenital means that these deformities are present at birth and are a result of abnormal development or formation of a body part. They are not caused by infection, pathology, or temporary factors.

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  • 24. 

    Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except

    • Hypnosis

    • Psychoanalysis

    • Occupational therapy

    • Electroconvulsive therapy

    Correct Answer
    A. Electroconvulsive therapy
    Explanation
    Psychotherapy is a form of treatment that focuses on improving a person's mental health and well-being. It typically involves talking to a trained therapist or counselor to address psychological issues. Hypnosis, psychoanalysis, and occupational therapy are all commonly used techniques in psychotherapy. However, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not typically considered a form of psychotherapy. ECT is a medical treatment that involves passing electric currents through the brain to induce a controlled seizure, and it is primarily used for severe depression or other mental illnesses that have not responded to other treatments.

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  • 25. 

    Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed?

    • Size and capabilities of the patient

    • Size and capabilities of the technicians

    • Size of the patient and capabilities of the technicians

    • Size of the patient, capabilities of the technicians and available equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Size and capabilities of the patient
    Explanation
    The technique used to move a patient up in bed is determined by the size and capabilities of the patient. Different techniques may be required depending on the patient's size and physical abilities. For example, a larger patient may require the use of a mechanical lift, while a smaller patient may be able to be moved manually. The patient's capabilities, such as their ability to assist with the movement or follow instructions, also play a role in determining the appropriate technique.

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  • 26. 

    What actions should you take when moving a patient on a venturi mask?

    • Monitor in transport

    • Reduce oxygen flow in transport

    • Monitor in transport and reassess patient on arrival

    • Reduce oxygen flow in transport and reassess patient on arrival

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitor in transport and reassess patient on arrival
    Explanation
    When moving a patient on a venturi mask, it is important to monitor the patient during transport to ensure their condition remains stable. This involves closely observing their vital signs, oxygen saturation levels, and any signs of distress. Additionally, it is necessary to reassess the patient upon arrival to ensure their oxygen needs haven't changed and to make any necessary adjustments to their treatment plan. This is crucial for providing the best possible care and ensuring the patient's safety and well-being during the transfer.

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  • 27. 

    What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant? 

    • Isolation is necessary

    • No precautions are necessary

    • A lead apron is placed over patient

    • Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolation is necessary
    Explanation
    Isolation is necessary for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant to prevent the spread of radiation to others. Radioisotopes can emit radiation, which can be harmful to individuals who come into close contact with the patient. Therefore, isolating the patient helps to protect others from potential radiation exposure.

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  • 28. 

    What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

    • Nasogastric(NG) Tube

    • Tourniquet

    • Oxygen

    • Suction

    Correct Answer
    A. Tourniquet
    Explanation
    A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb to control bleeding and prevent excessive blood loss. It is used to apply pressure to the limb, compressing the blood vessels and stopping the flow of blood. This helps in minimizing the risk of hemorrhage and maintaining hemostasis.

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  • 29. 

    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause

    • Aspiration

    • Cardiac arrest

    • Disorientation

    • Respiratory arrest

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac arrest
    Explanation
    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest. This is because rapid movement or rotation of the body can lead to a sudden decrease in blood pressure, which can result in inadequate blood flow to the heart. This can disrupt the heart's normal rhythm and lead to cardiac arrest, where the heart stops pumping blood effectively. It is important to handle patients with spinal cord injuries carefully and avoid sudden movements to prevent such complications.

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  • 30. 

    Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?

    • Physician needs to suture the child's face

    • Child continues to climb out of bed in the night

    • Prevent the child from falling out of a high chair

    • You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child

    Correct Answer
    A. You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
    Explanation
    The reason "You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child" is not appropriate for restraining a child because it prioritizes the caregiver's convenience over the child's safety and well-being. It is important to ensure the child's safety and provide appropriate supervision, especially in situations where there is a risk of injury or harm. Neglecting to provide proper supervision can lead to accidents or incidents that could have been prevented.

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  • 31. 

    How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

    • Explain the importance of nutrition

    • Ask the patient to try new foods

    • Cater to the patient's customs

    • Bring a tray full of choices

    Correct Answer
    A. Cater to the patient's customs
    Explanation
    Option D not that bad.

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  • 32. 

    Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher?

    • Drawsheet and trapeze

    • Drawsheet and roller board

    • Drawsheet and patient hoist

    • Roller board and patient hoist

    Correct Answer
    A. Drawsheet and roller board
    Explanation
    Drawsheets and roller boards are devices commonly used in healthcare settings to safely transfer patients from a bed to a stretcher. A drawsheet is a flat sheet placed under the patient, which can be grasped and pulled to help slide the patient. A roller board is a specialized board with wheels that can be placed next to the bed, allowing the patient to be slid onto it and then rolled onto the stretcher. By using both a drawsheet and a roller board together, healthcare professionals can ensure a smooth and efficient transfer of the patient from the bed to the stretcher.

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  • 33. 

    What position should a patient be placed in for insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein?

    • Left lateral recumbent

    • Right lateral recumbent

    • Trendelenburg

    • Supine

    Correct Answer
    A. Trendelenburg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Trendelenburg. When inserting a central venous pressure line into a neck vein, the patient should be placed in the Trendelenburg position. This position involves the patient lying flat on their back with the head tilted downward and the legs elevated. This position helps to increase venous return and reduce the risk of air embolism during the procedure.

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  • 34. 

    A burn is classified as moderate if it involves

    • Full-thickness burns that involve 2 to 10 percent of the body surface

    • Partial thickness burns that involve less than 15 percent of the body surface

    • Partial thickness burns involving more than 30 percent of the body surface

    • Full thickness burns involving more than 10 percent of the body surface

    Correct Answer
    A. Full-thickness burns that involve 2 to 10 percent of the body surface
    Explanation
    A burn is classified as moderate if it involves full-thickness burns that involve 2 to 10 percent of the body surface. This means that the burn affects the entire thickness of the skin and covers a moderate amount of the body surface area. Full-thickness burns are more severe than partial thickness burns because they involve damage to all layers of the skin, including the dermis and underlying tissues. The percentage of body surface area affected is important in determining the severity of the burn, with 2 to 10 percent being considered moderate.

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  • 35. 

    How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound?

    • Dry

    • Wet

    • Wet to dry

    • Wet to wet

    Correct Answer
    A. Wet to dry
    Explanation
    To apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound, the wet to dry method is used. This involves moistening a sterile gauze with a saline solution or wound cleanser and placing it onto the wound bed. As the dressing dries, it adheres to the wound and absorbs any debris or dead tissue. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away the debris along with it, promoting wound healing. This method is effective in removing necrotic tissue and promoting a clean wound bed for healing.

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  • 36. 

    What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?

    • Sedation

    • Back massage

    • Oxygen Therapy

    • Preoperative teaching

    Correct Answer
    A. Preoperative teaching
    Explanation
    Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, potential risks, and what to expect during recovery, patients can feel more prepared and informed. This can help alleviate anxiety and address any questions or fears they may have, ultimately improving their overall experience and outcome.

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  • 37. 

    Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can results in a depressed respiratory system?

    • Application of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation(TENS) devices

    • Injection of long duration local anesthetic into the incisional area

    • Administration of oral analgesics

    • Administration of narcotics

    Correct Answer
    A. Administration of narcotics
    Explanation
    Don't do drugs kids.

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  • 38. 

    During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?

    • Early infancy

    • Preschool

    • School age

    • Adolescence

    Correct Answer
    A. Preschool
    Explanation
    During the preschool stage, children typically experience separation anxiety as they begin to develop a sense of independence and autonomy. This stage, usually between the ages of 3 and 5, is a time when children are starting to separate from their primary caregivers and venture into new environments such as preschool or daycare. The unfamiliarity and uncertainty of these new settings can cause significant stress and anxiety for young children, leading to separation anxiety. Therefore, the preschool stage is considered the most stressful period for separation anxiety.

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  • 39. 

    The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is

    • Fantasy

    • Projection

    • Regression

    • Displacement

    Correct Answer
    A. Regression
    Explanation
    Regression is the correct answer because it refers to the psychological process where individuals revert back to earlier, more childlike behaviors and thought patterns in order to cope with feelings of loss of control. When children experience a loss of control, they may exhibit behaviors that they have outgrown, such as bed-wetting or temper tantrums. This regression allows them to temporarily escape from the stress and anxiety caused by the loss of control and regain a sense of security and comfort.

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  • 40. 

    Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

    • Compulsion

    • Delusion

    • Anxiety

    • Conflict

    Correct Answer
    A. Compulsion
    Explanation
    This is an example of compulsion. Starting to loose my mind powering through the creation of this reviewer.

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  • 41. 

    Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be 

    • Excited

    • Consistent

    • Demanding

    • Unsympathetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Consistent
    Explanation
    When a patient is anxious, it is important for healthcare professionals to maintain a consistent behavior or approach. Consistency helps to establish trust and provides a sense of stability for the patient. By being consistent in their actions and communication, healthcare professionals can help to alleviate the patient's anxiety and create a calm and reassuring environment. This approach also ensures that the patient receives the same level of care and attention regardless of their anxiety levels.

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  • 42. 

    A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior and hurt displays a behavior of 

    • Withdrawal

    • Suspicion

    • Anxiety

    • Anger

    Correct Answer
    A. Withdrawal
    Explanation
    A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt may display a behavior of withdrawal. This means that the person may isolate themselves from others, avoid social interactions, and may not actively participate in activities or conversations. They may feel the need to withdraw from others because they believe that they are not valued or loved, which can lead to feelings of loneliness and sadness.

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  • 43. 

    What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises?

    • Report the suspected abuse

    • Only report if the parents admit to abuse

    • Counsel the parent on his or her actions

    • Nothing, the technician is not responsible for reporting abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Report the suspected abuse
    Explanation
    If a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises, it is important to report the suspected abuse. This is necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of the child. Reporting the suspected abuse can help initiate an investigation by the appropriate authorities, who can then take necessary actions to protect the child and provide the necessary support and intervention. It is the responsibility of all individuals to report suspected abuse, as it is a matter of child protection and welfare.

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  • 44. 

    Which type of patients exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise?

    • Isometric

    • Isotonic

    • Passive

    • Active

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive
    Explanation
    Passive exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise. This type of exercise involves the therapist or caregiver moving the patient's limbs or body through a range of motion without any effort from the patient. It helps maintain joint flexibility, prevent muscle atrophy, and improve circulation in patients who are unable to move on their own or have restrictions on physical activity.

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  • 45. 

    When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram(g) of diaper weight is equal to 

    • One milliliter

    • Two ml

    • Three ml

    • Four ml

    Correct Answer
    A. One milliliter
    Explanation
    When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram of diaper weight is equal to one milliliter. This means that for every gram of weight gained by the diaper, it indicates that the infant has produced one milliliter of urine. This measurement is commonly used to monitor the hydration status and kidney function of infants.

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  • 46. 

    When using an oxygen tent, how frequently should oxygen concentrations and temperature be checked? 

    • 1 to 2 hours

    • 3 to 4 hours

    • 4 to 8 hours

    • 8 to 12 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 to 2 hours
    Explanation
    When using an oxygen tent, oxygen concentrations and temperature should be checked every 1 to 2 hours. This is important to ensure that the oxygen levels are appropriate and the temperature is maintained within a safe range for the patient. Regular monitoring helps in preventing any potential risks or complications that may arise due to fluctuations in oxygen concentration or temperature.

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  • 47. 

    The physiological function that the hear sound S1(Lub) is associated with is

    • A closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves

    • Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves

    • Opening of the aortic and pulmonic valves

    • Opeining of the itral and tricuspid valves

    Correct Answer
    A. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
    Explanation
    The correct answer is closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. The sound S1, also known as Lub, is the first heart sound that occurs during ventricular systole. It is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, which prevent blood from flowing back into the atria when the ventricles contract. This closure of the valves creates a sound that can be heard with a stethoscope.

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  • 48. 

    How are corneal abrasions detected?

    • X-ray

    • Venogram

    • Angiogram

    • Fluorescein stain

    Correct Answer
    A. Fluorescein stain
    Explanation
    Fluorescein stain is used to detect corneal abrasions. This is because the stain is applied to the eye and any areas of the cornea that have been damaged or scratched will absorb the stain, appearing green under a blue light. This allows healthcare professionals to easily identify the presence and location of corneal abrasions, aiding in diagnosis and treatment. X-ray, venogram, and angiogram are not used for detecting corneal abrasions as they are imaging techniques that are more suitable for examining other parts of the body.

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  • 49. 

    There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure withing how many minutes of the accident?

    • 10

    • 20

    • 30

    • 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The explanation for the correct answer is that there is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within 30 minutes of the accident. This is because the sooner the tooth is re-implanted, the higher the chances of it successfully reattaching to the bone and gums. Waiting longer than 30 minutes decreases the likelihood of a successful tooth replacement procedure.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 14, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Frskn.prado

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