NHA Phlebotomy Practice Test: Master Your Skills With This Quiz

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NHA Phlebotomy Practice Test: Master Your Skills With This Quiz - Quiz

Step into the world of phlebotomy mastery with the "NHA Phlebotomy Practice Test: Master Your Skills" quiz. Are you ready for this NHA Phlebotomy Practice Test? One can get a diagnosis of what ails them in different ways, and the most common way is through Phlebotomy, where blood is drawn and taken to the lab technicians. Are you on your way to getting the NHA certification on this technique? Take up the quiz below and get to know just how much of the classwork you remember.
Whether you're on the journey to becoming a certified phlebotomy technician or aiming Read moreto sharpen your venipuncture abilities, this quiz is your comprehensive tool for success. Crafted to emulate the National Healthcare Association (NHA) Phlebotomy Technician Certification Exam, this practice test is designed to assess and enhance your knowledge across crucial phlebotomy domains.
Every question comes with detailed explanations, offering a deep dive into the rationale behind correct answers. This ensures a holistic learning experience, allowing you to grasp the nuances of phlebotomy techniques, ethical considerations, and best practices. Whether you're a student preparing for certification or a seasoned professional seeking a knowledge refresher, this quiz is your key to mastering the art and science of phlebotomy. Do not forget to share this free NHA phlebotomy practice test with others also.


NHA Phlebotomy Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    The pulmonic valve is situated between ____________________. 

    • A.

      Upper and lower heart chambers

    • B.

      The right atrium and right ventricle

    • C.

      The right ventricle and pulmonary artery

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. The right ventricle and pulmonary artery
    Explanation
    The pulmonic valve, a cardiac structure, is strategically located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. Its vital role involves regulating blood flow, allowing blood to move from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation while preventing backflow into the heart chambers. This contributes to the heart's efficient pumping function.

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  • 2. 

    The endocardium is in which layer of the heart. 

    • A.

      Outer

    • B.

      Inner

    • C.

      Middle

    • D.

      Not defined

    Correct Answer
    B. Inner
  • 3. 

    Which layer of the heart is the epicardium?

    • A.

      Inner

    • B.

      Middle

    • C.

      Outer

    • D.

      Undefined

    Correct Answer
    C. Outer
    Explanation
    The epicardium is the outermost layer of the heart. It is a protective layer that covers the heart and is composed of connective tissue. It is also known as the visceral pericardium.

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  • 4. 

    What kind of blood do arteries and arterioles carry? 

    • A.

      Deoxygenated

    • B.

      Oxygenated

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Oxygenated
    Explanation
    Arteries and arterioles carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the body's tissues and organs. This blood is rich in oxygen, which is vital for cellular function and metabolism. Arteries and arterioles play a crucial role in distributing oxygenated blood throughout the body to sustain life.

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  • 5. 

    What percentage of formed elements are erythrocytes?

    • A.

      60%

    • B.

      55%

    • C.

      99%

    • D.

      45%

    Correct Answer
    C. 99%
    Explanation
    In a typical blood sample, erythrocytes (red blood cells) make up the majority of the formed elements. On average, erythrocytes account for about 99% of the formed elements in the blood. This means that erythrocytes comprise nearly 99% of the cellular components of blood, with the remaining formed elements, such as leukocytes (white blood cells) and platelets, making up only a small fraction of the total.

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  • 6. 

    Where do blood cells originate? 

    • A.

      Heart

    • B.

      Lungs

    • C.

      Bone marrow

    • D.

      Capillaries

    Correct Answer
    C. Bone marrow
    Explanation
    Blood cells originate in the bone marrow. The bone marrow is a soft tissue found inside the bones, and it is responsible for producing all types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. These cells are essential for various functions in the body, such as carrying oxygen, fighting infections, and clotting blood. The bone marrow continuously produces and releases new blood cells into the bloodstream to maintain a healthy balance.

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  • 7. 

    What is the normal lifespan of an RBC? 

    • A.

      9-12 days

    • B.

      120 days

    • C.

      365 days

    • D.

      45 days

    Correct Answer
    B. 120 days
    Explanation
    The normal lifespan of a red blood cell (RBC) is 120 days. This means that on average, an RBC will circulate in the bloodstream for about 120 days before being removed by the body's immune system. This lifespan is important for maintaining healthy oxygen transport and overall blood function.

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  • 8. 

    What is the function of a leukocyte? 

    • A.

      Carry oxygen to cells

    • B.

      Protect from infection

    • C.

      Ais in clot formation

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Protect from infection
    Explanation
    Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are responsible for protecting the body from infections. They are part of the immune system and are involved in recognizing and destroying pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses, that can cause diseases. Leukocytes play a crucial role in defending the body against infections and maintaining overall health.

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  • 9. 

     20%-40% of WBCs are composed of _______________.

    • A.

      Lymphocytes

    • B.

      Neutrophils

    • C.

      Basophils

    • D.

      Eosinophils

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocytes
    Explanation
    20%-40% of white blood cells (WBC) are lymphocytes. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances in the body, such as bacteria, viruses, and cancer cells. This high percentage of lymphocytes in the WBC count indicates the importance of these cells in maintaining a healthy immune response.

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  • 10. 

    Which WBC carries histamine? 

    • A.

      Monocytes

    • B.

      Basophils

    • C.

      Eosinophils

    • D.

      Neutrophils

    Correct Answer
    B. Basophils
    Explanation
    Basophils are a type of white blood cell (WBC) that carries histamine. Histamine is a chemical involved in the immune response and allergic reactions. Basophils release histamine in response to an allergen or an infection, causing blood vessels to dilate and increase blood flow to the affected area. This helps to recruit other immune cells to the site of infection or inflammation. Monocytes, eosinophils, and neutrophils are other types of WBCs, but they do not carry histamine.

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  • 11. 

    Another name for thrombocytes is______________. 

    • A.

      White blood cells

    • B.

      Red blood cells

    • C.

      Platelets

    • D.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    C. Platelets
    Explanation
    Platelets are another name for thrombocytes. Thrombocytes are small, colorless cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood clotting. They are produced in the bone marrow and help in the formation of blood clots to prevent excessive bleeding. Platelets are involved in the repair of damaged blood vessels and play a vital role in the body's immune response.

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  • 12. 

    Hemostasis is defined as _______________. 

    • A.

      Steady-state

    • B.

      Stoppage of food

    • C.

      Basil state

    • D.

      Cessation of bleeding

    Correct Answer
    D. Cessation of bleeding
    Explanation
    Hemostasis is the process of stopping or preventing bleeding. It involves a series of events that occur to maintain the integrity of blood vessels and prevent excessive blood loss. This can be achieved through vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, and blood clot formation. Therefore, the correct answer, "stoppage of blood," accurately describes the definition of hemostasis.

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  • 13. 

    The first phase of hemostasis is _________________. 

    • A.

      Platelet phase

    • B.

      Vascular stage

    • C.

      Fibrinolysis

    • D.

      Coagulation stage

    Correct Answer
    B. Vascular stage
    Explanation
    The first phase of hemostasis is the vascular stage. During this stage, blood vessels constrict to reduce blood flow and limit bleeding. This constriction is triggered by the release of chemicals from damaged blood vessels and surrounding tissues. The vascular stage helps to prevent excessive blood loss and prepares the area for the next phases of hemostasis, including platelet aggregation and blood clot formation.

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  • 14. 

     The test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway is called ____________.

    • A.

      PT

    • B.

      APTT

    • C.

      LMN

    • D.

      PX

    Correct Answer
    B. APTT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is APTT. APTT stands for Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time, which is a test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. This pathway is responsible for the formation of a blood clot. APTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot after certain activators are added. It is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy and to diagnose bleeding disorders.

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  • 15. 

    The breakdown and removal of a clot in the hemostasis process is ______________. 

    • A.

      Coagulation

    • B.

      Fibrinolysis

    • C.

      Vascular

    • D.

      Aggregation

    Correct Answer
    B. Fibrinolysis
    Explanation
    Fibrinolysis is the breakdown and removal of a clot in the hemostasis process. This process involves the activation of plasminogen, which is converted into plasmin. Plasmin is an enzyme that breaks down fibrin, the protein that forms the mesh-like structure of a blood clot. Fibrinolysis helps to dissolve the clot and restore normal blood flow.

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  • 16. 

    What is the preferred site for venipuncture? 

    • A.

      Thrombotic vein

    • B.

      Antecubital fossa

    • C.

      Elbow

    • D.

      Ulnar vein

    Correct Answer
    B. Antecubital fossa
    Explanation
    The preferred site for venipuncture is the antecubital fossa. This area is located in the bend of the elbow and is commonly used for venipuncture procedures because it is easily accessible and has a large network of veins. The antecubital fossa is also less likely to cause complications such as nerve damage or thrombosis compared to other sites like the ulnar vein or thrombotic vein.

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  • 17. 

    Sclerosed veins feel ______________. 

    • A.

      Spongy

    • B.

      Cordlike

    • C.

      Movable

    • D.

      Square

    Correct Answer
    B. Cordlike
    Explanation
    Sclerosed veins feel cordlike because when veins become hardened or fibrotic due to conditions such as chronic venous insufficiency or varicose veins, they lose their elasticity and become thickened. This causes the veins to feel like cords or ropes under the skin.

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  • 18. 

    Crooked or winding veins are also called ___________________. 

    • A.

      Bad

    • B.

      Tortuous

    • C.

      Thrombotic

    • D.

      Sclerosed

    Correct Answer
    B. Tortuous
    Explanation
    Crooked or winding veins are also called "tortuous." This term describes veins that have a twisted or curved shape, often due to underlying conditions such as varicose veins or venous insufficiency. The word "tortuous" is commonly used in medical terminology to describe the abnormal appearance of veins.

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  • 19. 

    What is the preferred antiseptic for venipuncture? 

    • A.

      Betadine

    • B.

      Iodine

    • C.

      Isopropyl alcohol

    • D.

      Jack Daniels

    Correct Answer
    C. Isopropyl alcohol
    Explanation
    Isopropyl alcohol is the preferred antiseptic for venipuncture because it effectively kills bacteria and other microorganisms on the skin, reducing the risk of infection. It is also less likely to cause skin irritation compared to iodine or betadine. Jack Daniels is not a suitable antiseptic for venipuncture as it is an alcoholic beverage and not a medical-grade antiseptic.

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  • 20. 

    What is the size (in inches) of the needle routinely used for venipuncture? 

    • A.

      2-3

    • B.

      1-1.5

    • C.

      2.5-3

    • D.

      2-2.58

    Correct Answer
    B. 1-1.5
    Explanation
    The size (in inches) of the needle routinely used for venipuncture is 1-1.5 inches. This range is typical for the length of needles used for drawing blood, with a gauge size commonly between 21 and 23 for adult venipunctures.

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  • 21. 

    What is another name for winged infusion sets? 

    • A.

      Caterpillar

    • B.

      Dragonfly

    • C.

      Butterfly

    • D.

      Beetlebug

    Correct Answer
    C. Butterfly
    Explanation
    A winged infusion set is a medical device used for venipuncture, which is the process of accessing a vein for blood sampling or intravenous therapy. The set is called "butterfly" because of its design, which includes small plastic wings on either side of the needle. These wings allow for easier handling and stabilization during the procedure.

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  • 22. 

    Which is NOT a reason the tourniquet is used?

    • A.

      To prevent the venous flow of blood

    • B.

      To make veins bulge

    • C.

      To make veins blue

    • D.

      To aid in vein location

    Correct Answer
    C. To make veins blue
    Explanation
    The tourniquet is not used to make veins blue. It is primarily used to prevent the venous flow of blood, to make veins bulge, and to aid in vein location. Making veins blue is not the purpose of using a tourniquet.

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  • 23. 

    A pad is used to protect the patient's clothing. 

    • A.

      Flux

    • B.

      Chux

    • C.

      Tourniquet

    • D.

      Antiseptic

    Correct Answer
    B. Chux
    Explanation
    Chux is a type of absorbent pad that is commonly used in healthcare settings to protect and correct a patient's clothing. It is designed to absorb any fluids or spills and prevent them from soiling the patient's clothing or bedding. Chux pads are often used during procedures or examinations to provide a clean and dry surface for the patient. They are also used for incontinence care to protect against leaks and accidents. Overall, Chux pads are an essential tool in maintaining cleanliness and hygiene for patients in healthcare settings.

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  • 24. 

    The most common complication of phlebotomy. 

    • A.

      Petechiae

    • B.

      Phlebitis

    • C.

      Hemoconcentration

    • D.

      Hematoma

    Correct Answer
    D. Hematoma
    Explanation
    Hematoma is the correct answer because it is the most common complication of phlebotomy. During phlebotomy, a hematoma can occur when blood leaks from the puncture site and collects under the skin, causing a localized swelling and bruising. This can happen if the needle punctures a larger blood vessel or if pressure is not applied to the puncture site after the procedure. Hematomas are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but in some cases, they may require medical intervention.

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  • 25. 

    Leaving the tourniquet on too long may cause ________________. 

    • A.

      Hemolysis

    • B.

      Hemoconcentration

    • C.

      Septicemia

    • D.

      Thrombosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Hemoconcentration
    Explanation
    Leaving the tourniquet on too long may cause hemoconcentration. This is because when a tourniquet is applied for an extended period of time, it restricts blood flow to the area beyond the tourniquet. As a result, the blood becomes more concentrated with red blood cells and other components, leading to hemoconcentration. This can have negative effects on the body, such as increased viscosity of the blood and impaired circulation.

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  • 26. 

    Tiny red spots on the skin caused by the rupturing of capillaries are called _____________. 

    • A.

      Phlebitis

    • B.

      Trauma

    • C.

      Petechiae

    • D.

      Pimples

    Correct Answer
    C. Petechiae
    Explanation
    Petechiae are tiny red spots on the skin that occur when capillaries rupture and cause small amounts of blood to leak into the skin. This can be caused by various factors such as injury, certain medical conditions, or certain medications. Phlebitis refers to inflammation of a vein, trauma refers to physical injury, and pimples are small, raised bumps on the skin caused by blocked hair follicles.

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  • 27. 

    Accumulation of fluid in the tissues. 

    • A.

      Lipids

    • B.

      Edema

    • C.

      Fistula

    • D.

      Trauma

    Correct Answer
    B. Edema
    Explanation
    Edema is the accumulation of fluid in the tissues. This can be caused by various factors such as inflammation, injury, or underlying medical conditions. The excess fluid causes swelling and can be localized or generalized throughout the body. Edema can be a symptom of an underlying health issue, such as heart failure or kidney disease, or it can be a result of trauma or injury. Treatment for edema depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, lifestyle changes, or medical procedures to remove the excess fluid.

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  • 28. 

    Permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein. 

    • A.

      Fistula

    • B.

      Fasting

    • C.

      Suture

    • D.

      Edema

    Correct Answer
    A. Fistula
    Explanation
    A fistula is a permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein. This connection allows for improved blood flow and is commonly used in dialysis patients to create access for hemodialysis treatments. It is a preferred option because it has a lower risk of infection and lasts longer compared to other methods of vascular access.

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  • 29. 

    Which would be considered a pre-analytical error? 

    • A.

      A. Improper time of collection

    • B.

      B. Wrong order of draw

    • C.

      C. Faulty technique

    • D.

      D. Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Pre-analytical errors occur before the actual testing of a specimen begins. Improper time of collection (option A) and wrong order of draw (option B) are both examples of pre-analytical errors as they involve issues with the collection process itself. These errors can lead to inaccurate test results and affect patient care. Option C, faulty technique, would be considered an analytical error as it pertains to errors occurring during the actual analysis or testing of the specimen.

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  • 30. 

     Which would be considered a post-analytical error?

    • A.

      Improper site preparation

    • B.

      Medication interference

    • C.

      Failure to invert tubes

    • D.

      Improper use of serum separator

    Correct Answer
    B. Medication interference
    Explanation
    Medication interference would be considered a post-analytical error. Post-analytical errors occur after the sample has been analyzed and include factors such as incorrect interpretation of results, failure to communicate results effectively, or interference from medications affecting the accuracy of the test results.

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  • 31. 

    The  most important step in a routine venipuncture. 

    • A.

      Gathering equipment

    • B.

      Palpate veins

    • C.

      Identify patient

    • D.

      Tying the tourniquet

    Correct Answer
    C. Identify patient
    Explanation
    Identifying the patient is the most important step in a routine venipuncture because it ensures that the correct patient is receiving the procedure. This step helps prevent any mix-ups or errors in patient identification, which is crucial for patient safety and accurate medical records. By confirming the patient's identity, healthcare professionals can proceed with the venipuncture confidently, knowing that they are providing the correct treatment to the right individual.

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  • 32. 

    How many inches above the site should the tourniquet be tied? 

    • A.

      2-3

    • B.

      3-4

    • C.

      4-5

    • D.

      1-2

    Correct Answer
    B. 3-4
    Explanation
    The tourniquet should be tied approximately 3-4 inches above the site. This is the correct answer because tying the tourniquet too close to the site may not effectively stop the bleeding, while tying it too far above the site may cause unnecessary discomfort or restrict blood flow to the rest of the limb.

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  • 33. 

    Which is not a reason for failure to collect blood? 

    • A.

      Tube lost vacuum

    • B.

      Bevel of the needle against the vein side

    • C.

      Needle not fully in the vein

    • D.

      Patient drank too much liquid

    Correct Answer
    D. Patient drank too much liquid
    Explanation
    The statement "patient drank too much liquid" is not typically a reason for failure to collect blood during venipuncture because excessive liquid intake does not directly affect the ability to access and draw blood from a vein. Instead, issues like vein visibility, needle placement, or equipment problems are more common causes of collection difficulties.

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  • 34. 

    Tubes may lose their vacuum due to ______________________. 

    • A.

      Manufacturing defects

    • B.

      Expired tube

    • C.

      A fine crack in the tube

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Tubes may lose their vacuum due to various factors, including manufacturing defects, expiration, and fine cracks in the tube. These issues compromise the integrity of the vacuum seal, affecting the tube's ability to maintain proper pressure for blood collection. Healthcare professionals must carefully assess tubes for potential defects to ensure accurate and reliable sample collection in clinical settings.

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  • 35. 

    If the needle passes completely through the vein, you must pull it out of the arm and try another vein. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    False. If the needle passes completely through the vein during venipuncture, it's important not to pull it out immediately. Doing so could cause injury and bleeding. Instead, the needle should be withdrawn slightly and redirected to try to enter the vein again.

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  • 36. 

    Using a butterfly may be necessary if the vein collapses with the evacuated tube system. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A butterfly needle is a smaller gauge needle that is used when a patient's vein collapses or is difficult to access. It is commonly used in situations where the evacuated tube system is being used to draw blood. The evacuated tube system involves using a vacuum to draw blood into the collection tubes. If the vein collapses during this process, a butterfly needle may be necessary to successfully draw blood. Therefore, the statement that using a butterfly may be necessary if the vein collapses with the evacuated tube system is true.

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  • 37. 

    A person should sustain from eating for how many hours prior to a fasting blood test. 

    • A.

      8-12

    • B.

      6-7

    • C.

      24-36

    • D.

      4-6

    Correct Answer
    A. 8-12
    Explanation
    Typically, individuals are required to fast for 8 to 12 hours before a fasting blood test. This period of fasting helps ensure accurate test results by preventing interference from food intake.

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  • 38. 

    To measure the diurnal variation of cortisol hormone, what kind of specimen would be required? 

    • A.

      Timed

    • B.

      Fasting

    • C.

      Therapeutic

    • D.

      Blood culture

    Correct Answer
    A. Timed
    Explanation
    To measure the diurnal variation of cortisol hormone, a timed specimen would be required. This means that the specimen would need to be collected at specific intervals throughout the day to accurately capture the fluctuations of cortisol levels. This is because cortisol levels naturally vary throughout the day, with the highest levels typically occurring in the morning and the lowest levels in the evening. Therefore, a timed specimen would provide the most accurate representation of the diurnal variation of cortisol hormone.

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  • 39. 

    Postprandial means ______________. 

    • A.

      After eating

    • B.

      After sleeping

    • C.

      After blood testing

    • D.

      After midnight

    Correct Answer
    A. After eating
    Explanation
    Postprandial means "after eating". It is a term used to describe the period of time that occurs after a meal. This term is commonly used in medical and scientific contexts to refer to the physiological changes that take place in the body after consuming food.

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  • 40. 

    The OGTT test diagnoses ______________. 

    • A.

      High blood pressure

    • B.

      Cholesterol

    • C.

      Diabetes

    • D.

      Hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    C. Diabetes
    Explanation
    The OGTT test, or Oral Glucose Tolerance Test, is used to diagnose diabetes. It measures how the body metabolizes glucose over a period of time. This test is particularly useful for detecting gestational diabetes in pregnant women and for diagnosing type 2 diabetes in individuals who may have impaired fasting glucose levels. By measuring blood glucose levels before and after consuming a glucose solution, healthcare providers can determine if a person has diabetes or is at risk for developing it.

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  • 41. 

    In therapeutic blood monitoring, the trough levels are tested ______________. 

    • A.

      30 minutes before the scheduled dose

    • B.

      30 minutes after the scheduled dose

    • C.

      2 hours postprandial

    • D.

      2 hours diurnal

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 minutes before the scheduled dose
    Explanation
    In therapeutic blood monitoring, trough levels are tested 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. This timing allows healthcare professionals to measure the lowest concentration of a drug in a patient's bloodstream just before the next dose is administered. By testing the trough levels before the scheduled dose, healthcare professionals can ensure that the drug is being effectively absorbed and metabolized by the patient's body. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate dosage and frequency of administration for optimal therapeutic effects.

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  • 42. 

    Blood cultures are used to diagnose ________________. 

    • A.

      Diabetes

    • B.

      FUO

    • C.

      FAQ

    • D.

      PT

    Correct Answer
    B. FUO
    Explanation
    Blood cultures are used to diagnose FUO, which stands for Fever of Unknown Origin. This condition refers to a persistent fever that cannot be explained by common causes such as infections or inflammatory diseases. Blood cultures are performed to identify any bacteria or fungi in the bloodstream that may be causing the fever. By isolating and identifying the causative organism, appropriate treatment can be initiated to resolve the fever and underlying infection.

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  • 43. 

    What part of the infant is a PKU test performed on? 

    • A.

      Toe

    • B.

      Finger

    • C.

      Heel

    • D.

      Forehead

    Correct Answer
    C. Heel
    Explanation
    A PKU test, also known as a newborn screening test, is performed on the heel of an infant. This is because the heel is a convenient and accessible spot for collecting a small blood sample. The test is done to check for the presence of phenylketonuria (PKU), a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to process an amino acid called phenylalanine. By performing the test on the heel, healthcare professionals can quickly and easily obtain the necessary blood sample to screen for PKU in newborns.

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  • 44. 

    What special handling does a cold agglutinin test require? 

    • A.

      Ice bath

    • B.

      Sitz bath

    • C.

      Pre-warmed tubes

    • D.

      Chilling

    Correct Answer
    C. Pre-warmed tubes
    Explanation
    A cold agglutinin test requires pre-warmed tubes because cold agglutinins are antibodies that can cause red blood cells to clump together at low temperatures. By pre-warming the tubes, the test can be performed at a temperature that prevents the agglutination of red blood cells, ensuring accurate results.

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  • 45. 

    What special handling does an ABG require? 

    • A.

      Warming

    • B.

      Chilling

    • C.

      Shaking

    • D.

      Pre-warmed tubes

    Correct Answer
    B. Chilling
    Explanation
    An ABG (Arterial Blood Gas) requires special handling in terms of chilling. This means that the sample needs to be kept at a cold temperature to preserve its integrity and prevent any changes in the blood gas levels. Chilling the ABG sample helps to slow down any metabolic processes that could alter the results. It is important to handle and transport the sample carefully to maintain its accuracy.

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  • 46. 

    Which test is NOT a light-sensitive test? 

    • A.

      Bilirubin

    • B.

      Beta-carotene

    • C.

      Porphyrins

    • D.

      Ammonia

    Correct Answer
    D. Ammonia
    Explanation
    Ammonia is not a light-sensitive test because it does not require exposure to light for accurate results. Light-sensitive tests, such as bilirubin, beta-carotene, and porphyrins, rely on light absorption or emission to measure the concentration or presence of these substances. However, ammonia testing does not involve light-sensitive reactions and can be performed without the need for light.

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  • 47. 

    What is the recommended depth of a heel puncture on an infant? 

    • A.

      2.0mm

    • B.

      1.2mm

    • C.

      3.0mm

    • D.

      .02mm

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.0mm
    Explanation
    The recommended depth of a heel puncture on an infant is 2.0mm. This depth allows for an adequate amount of blood to be collected for testing purposes without causing excessive pain or injury to the infant.

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  • 48. 

    Blood culture tests can be done with a dermal puncture when venipuncture is not possible. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Blood culture tests cannot be done with a dermal puncture when venipuncture is not possible. Venipuncture is the preferred method for obtaining blood samples for culture tests as it allows for a larger volume of blood to be collected, reducing the risk of contamination and increasing the chances of detecting any potential pathogens present in the bloodstream. Dermal puncture, on the other hand, is typically used for collecting small amounts of blood for other types of tests, such as glucose monitoring.

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  • 49. 

    In the case of skin punctures, first tube in the order of draw for cap specimens is lavender. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In capillary blood collection (skin punctures), the first tube in the order of draw for capillary specimens is typically a lavender or purple microcollection tube, which is used for hematology tests like complete blood counts (CBC) and blood cell differentials. The is followed by chemistry and blood bank specimens. The order of draw may vary slightly depending on the specific tests required, but lavender tubes usually come first in capillary collections to ensure accurate hematological results.

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  • 50. 

    In the order of draw for capillary specimens, should you draw tubes with or without additives first? 

    • A.

      Without

    • B.

      With

    Correct Answer
    A. Without
    Explanation
    In the order of draw for capillary specimens, it is important to draw tubes without additives first. This is because additives present in tubes could contaminate subsequent samples, affecting test results. Drawing tubes without additives first ensures that samples are collected without any risk of contamination from additives present in other tubes. This helps maintain the integrity and accuracy of the samples collected for testing.

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Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |
Medical Expert
Amanda, holding a Doctorate in Pharmacy from Texas Tech University Health Sciences Center, adeptly simplifies complex medical concepts into accessible content. With clinical proficiency, she ensures optimal patient care, while her adept medical writing skills facilitate comprehension and accessibility of healthcare information. Utilizing her education and expertise, Amanda meticulously reviews medical science quizzes, ensuring accuracy and clarity. Her commitment to excellence in healthcare education drives her passion for delivering quality content, ultimately benefiting both healthcare professionals and patients alike.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 26, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team

    Expert Reviewed by
    Amanda Nwachukwu
  • Nov 02, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Toony72201
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