NHA Phlebotomy Practice Test: Master Your Skills With This Quiz

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1. What is another name for winged infusion sets? 

Explanation

A winged infusion set is a medical device used for venipuncture, which is the process of accessing a vein for blood sampling or intravenous therapy. The set is called "butterfly" because of its design, which includes small plastic wings on either side of the needle. These wings allow for easier handling and stabilization during the procedure.

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About This Quiz
NHA Phlebotomy Practice Test: Master Your Skills With This Quiz - Quiz

Step into the world of phlebotomy mastery with the NHA Phlebotomy Practice Test. Are you ready to take this test and test your knowledge? As you know, one... see moreof the most common ways to get a diagnosis is through phlebotomy—drawing blood to be analyzed by lab technicians. If you’re preparing for your NHA certification in this essential technique, this quiz is perfect for testing what you remember from classwork.

Every question is followed by a detailed explanation, offering a comprehensive review of each answer’s rationale. This NHA practice test allows for a holistic learning experience, helping you understand phlebotomy techniques, ethical considerations, and best practices. Ideal for students or experienced professionals, this quiz is your tool for mastering phlebotomy skills. Don’t forget to share this free practice test with others on the same certification journey!
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2. An open wound can be a portal of entry in an infection chain.

Explanation

An open wound can be a portal of entry in an infection chain because it provides a direct pathway for microorganisms, such as bacteria or viruses, to enter the body. When the skin is broken, it creates an opportunity for pathogens to invade and cause an infection. This is why it is important to keep wounds clean and properly bandaged to prevent the entry of harmful microorganisms.

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3. What part of the infant is a PKU test performed on? 

Explanation

A PKU test, also known as a newborn screening test, is performed on the heel of an infant. This is because the heel is a convenient and accessible spot for collecting a small blood sample. The test is done to check for the presence of phenylketonuria (PKU), a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to process an amino acid called phenylalanine. By performing the test on the heel, healthcare professionals can quickly and easily obtain the necessary blood sample to screen for PKU in newborns.

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4. Latex sensitivity is an allergic reaction. 

Explanation

Latex sensitivity refers to an allergic reaction to latex. This means that when a person with latex sensitivity comes into contact with latex, their immune system reacts and causes symptoms such as itching, redness, and swelling. Therefore, the statement "Latex sensitivity is an allergic reaction" is true.

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5. If a patient refuses treatment you should 

Explanation

When a patient refuses treatment, it is important to inform your supervisor. This is because your supervisor needs to be aware of the situation and can provide guidance on how to handle it appropriately. They may have specific protocols or procedures in place for dealing with patients who refuse treatment. By informing your supervisor, you ensure that the refusal is documented and that the appropriate steps are taken to address the situation.

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6. Which of the following is a recommended safety practice for a phlebotomist during blood collection?

Explanation

Properly disposing of used needles in a sharps container is a critical safety practice. This prevents needlestick injuries, reduces the risk of contamination, and ensures safe disposal of biohazardous materials. Always follow proper disposal procedures and regulations when working with needles and sharps in healthcare settings.

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7. The proper way to insert a needle is with the bevel facing ____________. 

Explanation

The proper way to insert a needle is with the bevel facing up. This ensures that the needle can easily penetrate the skin and tissue without causing excessive damage or pain. Additionally, inserting the needle with the bevel facing up allows for better control and accuracy during the procedure.

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8. The  most important step in a routine venipuncture. 

Explanation

Identifying the patient is the most important step in a routine venipuncture because it ensures that the correct patient is receiving the procedure. This step helps prevent any mix-ups or errors in patient identification, which is crucial for patient safety and accurate medical records. By confirming the patient's identity, healthcare professionals can proceed with the venipuncture confidently, knowing that they are providing the correct treatment to the right individual.

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9. Which of the following is not considered Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)?

Explanation

Room dividers are not considered personal protective equipment (PPE) because they do not provide any form of protection against hazards or contaminants. PPE is designed to protect the wearer from potential risks in their environment, such as masks for filtering out airborne particles, goggles for protecting the eyes, and gloves for protecting the hands. Room dividers, on the other hand, are typically used for creating separate spaces or dividing a room for organizational or privacy purposes, and do not offer any form of protection.

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10. When you explain the venipuncture procedure to the patient and they agree to the test it is called _______. 

Explanation

Informed consent refers to the process of explaining a medical procedure, such as venipuncture, to a patient and obtaining their agreement to undergo the test. It ensures that patients are fully informed about the procedure, its potential risks and benefits, and any alternative options available to them. Informed consent is an important ethical and legal requirement in healthcare, as it respects the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare.

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11. What is the preferred antiseptic for venipuncture? 

Explanation

Isopropyl alcohol is the preferred antiseptic for venipuncture because it effectively kills bacteria and other microorganisms on the skin, reducing the risk of infection. It is also less likely to cause skin irritation compared to iodine or betadine. Jack Daniels is not a suitable antiseptic for venipuncture as it is an alcoholic beverage and not a medical-grade antiseptic.

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12. What is the most important step in preventing infections? 

Explanation

Handwashing is the most important step in preventing infections because it helps to remove bacteria, viruses, and other germs from our hands. Our hands come into contact with various surfaces throughout the day, and if we touch our face or eat without washing our hands, we can easily introduce these germs into our bodies. Handwashing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds is effective in killing and removing germs, reducing the risk of infections. It is a simple and cost-effective measure that can be practiced by everyone to maintain good hygiene and prevent the spread of infections.

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13. Tubes may lose their vacuum due to ______________________. 

Explanation

Tubes may lose their vacuum due to various factors, including manufacturing defects, expiration, and fine cracks in the tube. These issues compromise the integrity of the vacuum seal, affecting the tube's ability to maintain proper pressure for blood collection. Healthcare professionals must carefully assess tubes for potential defects to ensure accurate and reliable sample collection in clinical settings.

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14. Which additive is usually in a lavender tube? 

Explanation

EDTA is usually found in a lavender tube. EDTA stands for ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid and is commonly used as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes. It works by binding to calcium ions, preventing blood clotting. The lavender tube is typically used for hematology tests, such as complete blood count (CBC) and blood cell differentials.

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15. In a routine blood draw the red tube is drawn before the green tube. 

Explanation

In a routine blood draw, the order in which blood is drawn can vary depending on the specific laboratory's protocol and the tests being conducted. However, it's common practice to draw blood into tubes with different colored stoppers to ensure that the correct tests can be performed. For example, the red-top tube is often used for basic blood chemistry tests, while the green-top tube is used for tests that require plasma, such as certain chemistry and drug tests. Therefore, it's not unusual for the red tube to be drawn before the green tube in a routine blood draw.

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16. What is the preferred site for venipuncture? 

Explanation

The preferred site for venipuncture is the antecubital fossa. This area is located in the bend of the elbow and is commonly used for venipuncture procedures because it is easily accessible and has a large network of veins. The antecubital fossa is also less likely to cause complications such as nerve damage or thrombosis compared to other sites like the ulnar vein or thrombotic vein.

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17.  A patient in the Oncology Dept. is probably being treated for _______________.

Explanation

A patient in the Oncology Dept. is probably being treated for cancer. The Oncology Dept. specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of cancer, so it is likely that a patient in this department is being treated for cancer.

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18. The first drop of blood in a capillary puncture is the best for analysis. 

Explanation

The statement is false because the first drop of blood in a capillary puncture is not always the best for analysis. The first drop of blood can be contaminated with tissue fluid or alcohol from the skin, which can affect the accuracy of the analysis. It is recommended to discard the first drop and collect subsequent drops for analysis.

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19. The following were collected for a routine venipuncture.  Which item is incorrect?

Explanation

The incorrect item for routine venipuncture is the "iodine swab." Typically, alcohol swabs are used for skin disinfection before blood collection, not iodine swabs. The other items listed—tubes, tourniquet, and safety needles—are standard equipment used in routine venipuncture procedures to collect blood samples safely and efficiently. Therefore, iodine swabs do not align with standard practice for venipuncture.

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20.  Which tube contains sodium citrate?

Explanation

The light-blue tube contains sodium citrate. Sodium citrate is commonly used as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes, and the light-blue tube is specifically designed for coagulation tests, which require the blood to be collected in an anticoagulant tube.

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21. Microorganisms that cause diseases

Explanation

Pathogenic microorganisms are those that are capable of causing diseases in humans, animals, or plants. They have the ability to invade and multiply in the host organism, leading to the development of symptoms and illness. These microorganisms can be bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites. In contrast, nonpathogens are microorganisms that do not cause diseases and may even have beneficial effects on the host. The term "pathogenic" is used to describe microorganisms that have the potential to harm and cause illness.

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22. Which tube is drawn last in a standard venipuncture procedure? 

Explanation

In a standard venipuncture procedure, the lavender tube is drawn last. This is because the lavender tube is used to collect blood for a complete blood count (CBC) test, which requires an anticoagulant to prevent clotting. Drawing the lavender tube last ensures that the other tubes, such as the blood culture tube, light-blue tube, and red tube, are collected first to avoid contamination or interference with the lavender tube sample.

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23. Sodium Citrate tubes have what color stoppers? 

Explanation

Sodium Citrate is commonly used as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes. These tubes are color-coded to indicate the type of additive present. Light blue stoppers are typically used for tubes containing sodium citrate. This color coding system helps healthcare professionals easily identify the appropriate tube for specific tests or procedures.

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24.  Sodium Citrate is the additive in which tube?

Explanation

Sodium citrate is commonly used as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes. The light blue tube is specifically designed for coagulation testing, and it contains sodium citrate as the additive. Sodium citrate prevents blood from clotting by binding to calcium ions, which are necessary for the clotting process. This allows for accurate testing of clotting factors and other coagulation parameters. Therefore, the correct answer is light blue.

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25. Where is blood collected, stored and prepared for transfusions? 

Explanation

Blood is collected, stored, and prepared for transfusions in a blood bank. A blood bank is a specialized facility that handles the collection, processing, and storage of blood and blood products. It ensures the safety and availability of blood for transfusions by conducting tests to determine blood type, screening for infectious diseases, and properly storing the blood products. The blood bank also prepares blood components such as red blood cells, plasma, and platelets based on specific patient needs.

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26. Which of the following veins in the arm are most subjected to venipuncture? 

Explanation

The median cubital vein is the most commonly used vein for venipuncture in the arm. It is located in the middle of the arm and is often visible and easily accessible. It is preferred for venipuncture because it is relatively large, straight, and does not tend to move or roll during the procedure, making it easier to insert a needle and collect blood samples. The basilic, brachial, and cephalic veins are also commonly used for venipuncture, but the median cubital vein is typically the first choice.

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27. Which needle has the largest gauge? 

Explanation

The needle with the largest gauge is 16. Gauge refers to the size of the needle's opening, with a larger gauge indicating a larger opening. Therefore, out of the given options, the needle with a gauge of 16 has the largest opening.

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28. Taking aspirin is most likely going to effect a BT test. 

Explanation

Taking aspirin is most likely going to affect a BT test. This is because aspirin is a blood thinner and can interfere with the clotting process. A BT test measures the time it takes for blood to clot, so if someone has taken aspirin, it can prolong the clotting time and give inaccurate results. Therefore, it is true that taking aspirin is most likely going to affect a BT test.

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29. The hormone detected in a positive pregnancy test is 

Explanation

The hormone detected in a positive pregnancy test is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). HCG is produced by the placenta during pregnancy and is responsible for maintaining the production of progesterone, which is essential for a healthy pregnancy. When a woman is pregnant, HCG levels rise rapidly, and a pregnancy test detects the presence of this hormone in the urine or blood. Therefore, a positive pregnancy test indicates the presence of HCG in the body.

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30.  The order of draw for venipuncture is:  BC, blue, serum, green, EDTA, gray.

Explanation

The order of draw in venipuncture is critical to avoid cross-contamination from different additives in blood collection tubes. The correct sequence, according to the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI), is:

Blood cultures (BC)

Coagulation tube (Blue)

Serum tubes (Serum)

Heparin tubes (Green)

EDTA tubes (EDTA)

Oxalate/fluoride tubes (Gray)

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31.  Lavender and Green tubes should all be inverted 8 times each.

Explanation

The given statement is true because inverting the tubes helps to mix the contents thoroughly. By inverting the tubes 8 times each, it ensures that the lavender and green substances are well mixed and any components that may have settled at the bottom are evenly distributed. This is important for accurate and consistent results in any experiment or analysis that involves these substances.

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32.  A clean catch test is collected in a:

Explanation

A clean catch test is collected in a sterile cup to ensure that the urine sample is not contaminated by any external factors. The sterile cup helps maintain the integrity of the sample and prevents any introduction of bacteria or other substances that could affect the test results. Using a sterile cup also allows for accurate analysis of the urine sample and helps in diagnosing any potential medical conditions.

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33. There is a 9 to 1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant in a light blue tube. 

Explanation

In a light blue tube, there is a 9 to 1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant. This means that for every 9 parts of blood, there is 1 part of anticoagulant. This ratio is important because it helps prevent the blood from clotting, allowing for accurate testing and analysis.

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34. Using a butterfly may be necessary if the vein collapses with the evacuated tube system. 

Explanation

A butterfly needle is a smaller gauge needle that is used when a patient's vein collapses or is difficult to access. It is commonly used in situations where the evacuated tube system is being used to draw blood. The evacuated tube system involves using a vacuum to draw blood into the collection tubes. If the vein collapses during this process, a butterfly needle may be necessary to successfully draw blood. Therefore, the statement that using a butterfly may be necessary if the vein collapses with the evacuated tube system is true.

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35. Failing to provide reasonable standards of care, causing someone to suffer an injury is known as ____________. 

Explanation

Negligence refers to the failure to provide reasonable standards of care, resulting in someone suffering an injury. It is a legal concept that holds individuals or organizations responsible for their actions or lack of actions that cause harm to others. Negligence requires proving that the defendant owed a duty of care to the plaintiff, breached that duty, and caused harm as a result. In this case, negligence is the correct answer as it accurately describes the situation where someone suffers an injury due to a failure to provide reasonable care.

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36. A drug known to interfere with urine tests should be discontinued 48-72 hours prior to the test. 

Explanation

The statement suggests that a drug that interferes with urine tests should be stopped 48-72 hours before the test. This implies that if the drug is not discontinued within this timeframe, it may still be present in the urine during the test and interfere with the accuracy of the results. Therefore, the statement is true.

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37. Tiny red spots on the skin caused by the rupturing of capillaries are called _____________. 

Explanation

Petechiae are tiny red spots on the skin that occur when capillaries rupture and cause small amounts of blood to leak into the skin. This can be caused by various factors such as injury, certain medical conditions, or certain medications. Phlebitis refers to inflammation of a vein, trauma refers to physical injury, and pimples are small, raised bumps on the skin caused by blocked hair follicles.

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38. Which tube is used for PTT?

Explanation

PTT stands for Partial Thromboplastin Time, which is a blood test used to evaluate the effectiveness of the clotting system. The light blue tube is commonly used for coagulation tests, including PTT, because it contains sodium citrate as an anticoagulant. Sodium citrate prevents the blood from clotting by binding to calcium ions, allowing accurate measurement of clotting time. Therefore, the correct tube for PTT testing is the light blue tube.

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39. Lipemic bloodserum appears: 

Explanation

Lipemic blood serum appears milky due to the presence of excess lipids or fats in the serum. This can be caused by various factors such as high levels of triglycerides, cholesterol, or certain medical conditions. The milky appearance is a result of the scattering of light by the lipid particles suspended in the serum. Lipemic serum is commonly observed in individuals with conditions like hyperlipidemia or after consuming a high-fat meal. It can also be seen in certain medical tests, where the blood sample is not properly fasted before collection.

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40. A green top tube usually contains 

Explanation

A green top tube usually contains heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting by inhibiting the formation of fibrin. It is commonly used for tests that require plasma, such as blood gas analysis, as it prevents clotting and allows for accurate results. EDTA is usually found in purple top tubes, citrate in blue top tubes, and oxalate in gray top tubes.

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41. In a routine venipuncture the lavender tube should be drawn before the red tube. 

Explanation

In a routine venipuncture, the order in which the tubes are drawn is important to ensure accurate test results. The correct order is to draw the tubes in the following sequence: first, the tubes for coagulation tests (usually light blue or green), then the tubes for other tests such as chemistry or immunology (usually red or gold), and finally the tubes for hematology tests (usually lavender or purple). Therefore, the correct answer is false, as the lavender tube should be drawn after the red tube in a routine venipuncture.

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42. Glycolysis occurs faster in newborns. 

Explanation

Glycolysis is the process by which glucose is broken down to produce energy. It is an important metabolic pathway that occurs in all living organisms. In newborns, glycolysis occurs at a faster rate compared to adults. This is because newborns have a higher metabolic rate and energy demand due to their rapid growth and development. Additionally, newborns rely heavily on glycolysis for energy production as their oxidative phosphorylation system is not fully developed. Therefore, it can be concluded that glycolysis occurs faster in newborns.

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43. Where do blood cells originate? 

Explanation

Blood cells originate in the bone marrow. The bone marrow is a soft tissue found inside the bones, and it is responsible for producing all types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. These cells are essential for various functions in the body, such as carrying oxygen, fighting infections, and clotting blood. The bone marrow continuously produces and releases new blood cells into the bloodstream to maintain a healthy balance.

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44. Sclerosed veins feel ______________. 

Explanation

Sclerosed veins feel cordlike because when veins become hardened or fibrotic due to conditions such as chronic venous insufficiency or varicose veins, they lose their elasticity and become thickened. This causes the veins to feel like cords or ropes under the skin.

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45. Which is not a reason for failure to collect blood? 

Explanation

The statement "patient drank too much liquid" is not typically a reason for failure to collect blood during venipuncture because excessive liquid intake does not directly affect the ability to access and draw blood from a vein. Instead, issues like vein visibility, needle placement, or equipment problems are more common causes of collection difficulties.

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46. All patients are presumed to be infectious for ___________. 

Explanation

All patients are presumed to be infectious for blood borne pathogens. This means that healthcare professionals must take precautions to prevent the transmission of diseases that are transmitted through blood, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. This assumption is made to ensure the safety of both the healthcare workers and other patients.

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47. Bacteria and parasites belong to which type of hazard? 

Explanation

Bacteria and parasites belong to the biologic type of hazard because they are living organisms that can cause harm or disease. Unlike chemical or physical hazards, which involve non-living substances or environmental factors, biologic hazards involve the presence of microorganisms that can infect and harm humans or other organisms. These hazards can include bacterial infections, parasitic infestations, and the spread of diseases.

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48.  Which is used for PT and PTT?

Explanation

The light blue top is used for PT (prothrombin time) and PTT (partial thromboplastin time) tests. These tests are used to evaluate the blood's ability to clot and determine if there are any abnormalities in the clotting process. The light blue top tube contains sodium citrate as an anticoagulant, which prevents the blood from clotting during the test. This allows for accurate measurement of the clotting factors in the blood.

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49. What causes vacuum tubes to fill with blood? 

Explanation

Vacuum tubes fill with blood due to the pressure difference created by the tube vacuum. When the tube is inserted into a patient's vein, the vacuum inside the tube causes blood to be drawn into it. This allows for easy and efficient collection of blood samples for various medical tests. The other options mentioned (arterial blood pressure, patient fist pumping, and tourniquet pressure) do not directly cause the vacuum tubes to fill with blood.

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50. Which is not true of WBCs? 

Explanation

The statement "they are all the same size and shape" is not true for WBCs. White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, come in different sizes and shapes depending on their type and function. Some WBCs are larger and have irregular shapes, while others are smaller and have more uniform shapes. This diversity in size and shape allows WBCs to perform their various roles in the immune system, such as engulfing pathogens or producing antibodies.

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51. Which is NOT a reason the tourniquet is used?

Explanation

The tourniquet is not used to make veins blue. It is primarily used to prevent the venous flow of blood, to make veins bulge, and to aid in vein location. Making veins blue is not the purpose of using a tourniquet.

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52. POC testing is done _____________. 

Explanation

POC testing, or point-of-care testing, is performed at the patient's bed. This means that the testing is done directly where the patient is located, rather than in a separate medical lab. This allows for quicker results and immediate decision-making regarding the patient's care. It is a convenient and efficient way to perform certain diagnostic tests without the need for transportation of samples to a lab.

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53. Which test must be performed on whole blood? 

Explanation

The test that must be performed on whole blood is CBC (Complete Blood Count). This test provides important information about the different components of blood, such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It helps in diagnosing various conditions like anemia, infections, and blood disorders. By analyzing the CBC results, healthcare professionals can assess a person's overall health and identify any abnormalities or potential underlying issues. Therefore, performing a CBC is crucial for a comprehensive evaluation of a person's blood and overall well-being.

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54. Veins are located deeper than arteries.

Explanation

Veins are not located deeper than arteries. In fact, veins are generally located closer to the surface of the body compared to arteries. This is because veins are responsible for carrying deoxygenated blood back to the heart, while arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart. Veins often appear as blue or greenish in color due to the deoxygenated blood they carry, and they can be seen just beneath the skin in some areas. Arteries, on the other hand, are deeper within the body and are typically not visible from the surface.

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55. Veins have thinner walls than arteries. 

Explanation

Veins have thinner walls than arteries because they are responsible for carrying blood back to the heart at a lower pressure. This lower pressure allows for thinner walls, as they do not need to withstand the same level of force as arteries, which carry blood away from the heart at a higher pressure. Additionally, veins have valves that help prevent the backflow of blood, further contributing to their thinner walls.

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56. What is the function of a leukocyte? 

Explanation

Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are responsible for protecting the body from infections. They are part of the immune system and are involved in recognizing and destroying pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses, that can cause diseases. Leukocytes play a crucial role in defending the body against infections and maintaining overall health.

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57. Permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein. 

Explanation

A fistula is a permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein. This connection allows for improved blood flow and is commonly used in dialysis patients to create access for hemodialysis treatments. It is a preferred option because it has a lower risk of infection and lasts longer compared to other methods of vascular access.

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58. A person should refrain from eating for how many hours before a fasting blood test. 

Explanation

A person should sustain from eating for 8-12 hours prior to a fasting blood test. This is to ensure that the food you eat doesn't affect the results of the test, especially for things like glucose and cholesterol levels.  Sources and related content

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59. What is the recommended depth of a heel puncture on an infant? 

Explanation

The recommended depth of a heel puncture on an infant is 2.0mm. This depth allows for an adequate amount of blood to be collected for testing purposes without causing excessive pain or injury to the infant.

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60. Contact, droplet and airborne are ____________. 

Explanation

The terms "contact," "droplet," and "airborne" refer to different ways in which diseases can be transmitted from one person to another. These are known as modes of transmission. "Contact" refers to direct physical contact with an infected person or their bodily fluids. "Droplet" transmission occurs when respiratory droplets from an infected person are inhaled by others nearby. "Airborne" transmission refers to the spread of infectious particles through the air over longer distances. Therefore, the correct answer is "modes of transmission."

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61. Medical Asepsis is the destruction of pathogens outside the body. 

Explanation

Medical asepsis refers to the practices and procedures used to remove or destroy pathogens outside the body, such as through proper hand hygiene, disinfection of surfaces, and sterilization of equipment. This helps to prevent the spread of infection and maintain a clean and safe healthcare environment. Therefore, the statement "Medical Asepsis is the destruction of pathogens outside the body" is true.

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62. OSHA requires that healthcare professionals receive a vaccine for: 

Explanation

OSHA requires that healthcare professionals receive a vaccine for HBV (Hepatitis B Virus). This is because HBV is highly contagious and can be transmitted through blood and other body fluids. Health care professionals are at a higher risk of exposure to HBV due to their frequent contact with patients and potential exposure to contaminated instruments or equipment. Vaccination helps protect health care professionals from contracting and spreading HBV, reducing the risk of infection and ensuring the safety of both the professionals and their patients.

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63. The additive in a pink tube is: 

Explanation

EDTA is the correct answer because it is commonly used as an additive in pink tubes for blood collection. EDTA, or ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, is a chelating agent that binds calcium ions in the blood, preventing it from clotting. This allows for the collection of whole blood or plasma for various laboratory tests, such as complete blood count (CBC) and blood chemistry analysis. EDTA is particularly effective in preserving cell morphology and preventing clot formation, making it suitable for a wide range of tests.

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64.  The left ventricle delivers oxygenated blood to the aorta.

Explanation

The left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body through the aorta. It is the largest and strongest chamber of the heart, and its main function is to ensure that oxygen-rich blood is distributed to all the organs and tissues. Therefore, the statement is true.

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65. What is the normal lifespan of an RBC? 

Explanation

The normal lifespan of a red blood cell (RBC) is 120 days. This means that on average, an RBC will circulate in the bloodstream for about 120 days before being removed by the body's immune system. This lifespan is important for maintaining healthy oxygen transport and overall blood function.

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66. Accumulation of fluid in the tissues. 

Explanation

Edema is the accumulation of fluid in the tissues. This can be caused by various factors such as inflammation, injury, or underlying medical conditions. The excess fluid causes swelling and can be localized or generalized throughout the body. Edema can be a symptom of an underlying health issue, such as heart failure or kidney disease, or it can be a result of trauma or injury. Treatment for edema depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, lifestyle changes, or medical procedures to remove the excess fluid.

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67. Postprandial means ______________. 

Explanation

Postprandial means "after eating". It is a term used to describe the period of time that occurs after a meal. This term is commonly used in medical and scientific contexts to refer to the physiological changes that take place in the body after consuming food.

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68. Which is NOT a common symptom of shock? 

Explanation

Blinking eyes is not a common symptom of shock. Shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when there is insufficient blood flow to the body's organs and tissues. Common symptoms of shock include clammy skin, weak pulse, and shallow breathing. Blinking eyes, on the other hand, is not typically associated with shock.

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69. To disinfect a surface you can use boiling water or _______________. 

Explanation

Bleach is an effective disinfectant that can be used to kill germs and bacteria on surfaces. It contains chemicals that have antimicrobial properties, making it an ideal choice for disinfection purposes. When mixed with water, bleach creates a solution that can effectively sanitize surfaces and eliminate harmful pathogens.

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70. How many inches above the site should the tourniquet be tied? 

Explanation

The tourniquet should be tied approximately 3-4 inches above the site. This is the correct answer because tying the tourniquet too close to the site may not effectively stop the bleeding, while tying it too far above the site may cause unnecessary discomfort or restrict blood flow to the rest of the limb.

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71. Lavender tubes must be 2/3 full. 

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that lavender tubes must be 2/3 full in order to ensure accurate results. When collecting blood samples, it is important to fill the tubes to the appropriate level to maintain the correct ratio of blood to anticoagulant or additive. Filling the lavender tubes 2/3 full allows for the proper mixing of the blood with the anticoagulant, preventing clotting and ensuring accurate test results.

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72. Another name for blood in the urine: 

Explanation

Hematuria is another name for blood in the urine. It is a medical condition where red blood cells are present in the urine, causing it to appear pink, red, or brown in color. Hematuria can be caused by various factors such as urinary tract infections, kidney stones, bladder or kidney infections, trauma, or certain medical conditions. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hematuria as it can be a sign of a more serious condition such as kidney disease or bladder cancer.

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73. Oxygen-poor blood enters the heart through the right atrium. 

Explanation

Oxygen-poor blood enters the heart through the right atrium. This is because the right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the superior and inferior vena cava. From the right atrium, the blood then flows into the right ventricle and eventually gets pumped to the lungs to receive oxygen. Therefore, the statement is true.

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74. Which test may require a chain of custody? 

Explanation

A drug screen test may require a chain of custody because it is often used in legal and employment settings to determine if an individual has used drugs. The chain of custody ensures that the sample collected from the individual is properly handled and documented throughout the testing process to maintain its integrity and prevent tampering. This is important to ensure accurate and reliable results, as well as to protect the rights of the individual being tested.

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75. Blood cultures are collected in a ___________ tube. 

Explanation

Blood cultures are collected in a yellow tube. This is because the yellow tube contains a specific type of additive called SPS (Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate), which helps to prevent the clotting of blood. Clotting can interfere with the growth of bacteria in the culture, so it is important to use a tube with the appropriate additive to maintain the integrity of the sample.

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76. What organ would a doctor be interested in if he ordered an ALP, AST, ALT, GTT, and bilirubin?

Explanation

A doctor would be interested in the liver if they ordered an ALP, AST, ALT, GTT, and bilirubin test. These tests are commonly used to assess liver function and detect liver diseases or conditions. ALP (alkaline phosphatase), AST (aspartate aminotransferase), ALT (alanine aminotransferase), GTT (glucose tolerance test), and bilirubin levels can provide information about liver enzyme levels, liver inflammation, liver damage, liver function, and the presence of jaundice, which is a symptom of liver dysfunction. Therefore, the liver is the organ of interest in this case.

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77. Invert a gray tube __________ times. 

Explanation

In laboratory settings, particularly when dealing with blood collection tubes, the instruction to "invert" a tube typically refers to gently turning the tube upside down and back to ensure proper mixing of the sample with any additives in the tube. For most blood collection tubes, it's recommended to invert them 8-10 times to ensure thorough mixing without causing hemolysis.

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78. Always recap your needle before putting it into the sharps container. 

Explanation

The OSHA policy stipulates that, as a general practice, recapping needles is deemed inappropriate. Instead, used needles should be directly disposed of in sharps disposal containers without recapping.

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79. During a phlebotomy procedure, what is the correct order of draw for blood collection tubes to prevent cross-contamination of additives between tubes?

Explanation

The correct order of draw is as follows:

Yellow top (blood culture bottles or tubes with SPS)

Light Blue top (coagulation tubes)

Red top (serum tubes with or without clot activator)

Green top (heparin tubes)

Lavender top (EDTA tubes)

This order is designed to prevent cross-contamination of additives between the tubes, which could potentially interfere with test results.

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80.  Another name for RBC's:

Explanation

RBCs, or erythrocytes, are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues and removing carbon dioxide. They are the most abundant type of blood cell and are characterized by their lack of a nucleus and their red color, which is due to the presence of hemoglobin. Thrombocytes are platelets, not RBCs. Leukocytes are white blood cells, and phagocytes are a type of leukocyte that engulf and destroy foreign particles and bacteria.

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81. When the body has adequate rest and no food for 12 hours it is said to be in the___________state.

Explanation

When the body has adequate rest and no food for 12 hours, it enters a basal state. In this state, the body's metabolism slows down and energy expenditure decreases. This allows the body to conserve energy and maintain essential bodily functions. The basal state is characterized by a lower metabolic rate and a shift towards using stored energy sources, such as glycogen and fat, to meet the body's energy needs.

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82. If someone is cyanotic their skin may appear ____________. 

Explanation

If someone is cyanotic, their skin may appear bluish. Cyanosis is a condition characterized by a bluish discoloration of the skin, lips, and nails. It occurs when there is a lack of oxygen in the blood, leading to poor circulation and inadequate oxygenation of tissues. This bluish color is most noticeable in areas where the skin is thin, such as the lips and fingertips. It is a sign of a serious underlying medical condition and requires immediate medical attention.

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83. Serum is depleted of fibriogen. 

Explanation

When it is stated that serum is depleted of fibrinogen, it means that fibrinogen, a protein responsible for blood clot formation, is absent in the serum. This statement is true because serum is the liquid component of blood that remains after the blood has clotted and fibrinogen has been converted to fibrin. Therefore, in the absence of fibrinogen, the serum is indeed depleted of this protein.

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84. When collecting a Blood culture with a butterfly into culture bottles, which is filled first? 

Explanation

When collecting a blood culture with a butterfly into culture bottles, the aerobic bottle is filled first. This is because aerobic bacteria require oxygen to grow, so by filling the aerobic bottle first, it ensures that the bacteria will have access to oxygen. Anaerobic bacteria, on the other hand, do not require oxygen to grow and can survive in the absence of oxygen. Therefore, the anaerobic bottle is filled after the aerobic bottle to specifically target anaerobic bacteria.

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85. The first tube collected with a butterfly will underfill due to air in the line. 

Explanation

When a butterfly needle is used to collect blood, there is a possibility of air getting trapped in the tubing. This can result in the first tube being underfilled because the air takes up space that would have otherwise been filled with blood. Therefore, it is true that the first tube collected with a butterfly needle may underfill due to air in the line.

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86. Which arteries carry oxygenated blood?

Explanation



Systemic arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the rest of the body. Pulmonary arteries are an exception as they carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.
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87. If the needle passes completely through the vein, you must pull it out of the arm and try another vein. 

Explanation



False. If the needle passes completely through the vein during venipuncture, it's important not to pull it out immediately. Doing so could cause injury and bleeding. Instead, the needle should be withdrawn slightly and redirected to try to enter the vein again.
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88. Which order of draw is correct?

Explanation

The correct order of draw is red, green, lavender. This order is followed in order to prevent cross-contamination of additives between different blood collection tubes. The red tube is used for serum tests, the green tube is used for plasma tests, and the lavender tube is used for whole blood or EDTA tests.

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89. The following is a test of the respiratory system 

Explanation

ABGs stands for Arterial Blood Gases, which is a test used to measure the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, as well as the acidity (pH) of the blood. This test is commonly used to assess the respiratory system and determine if a person is experiencing any respiratory issues, such as hypoxemia or acidosis. It provides important information about the efficiency of gas exchange in the lungs and helps healthcare professionals diagnose and monitor respiratory conditions.

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90.  Direct contact transmission is defined as ___________.

Explanation

Direct contact transmission refers to the spread of infectious diseases through direct physical contact between individuals. In this case, the correct answer is "skin to skin," which means that the transmission occurs when the skin of one person comes into direct contact with the skin of another person. This can happen through activities such as shaking hands, hugging, or sexual contact.

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91. A group of tests collected as one unit: 

Explanation

A group of tests collected as one unit is referred to as a "profile." This term is commonly used in medical and diagnostic settings to describe a collection of tests that are performed together to provide a comprehensive evaluation of a patient's health or condition. The tests included in a profile are typically related to a specific area or system of the body, allowing healthcare professionals to gather important information and make accurate diagnoses.

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92. What gauge multi-sample needle is considered to be standard? 

Explanation

A 21-gauge multi-sample needle is considered the standard in venipuncture because it effectively balances patient comfort with efficient blood collection, minimizing cell damage and accommodating multiple tubes without excessive pressure, making it suitable for most patients and veins.

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93. Another name for thrombocytes is______________. 

Explanation

Platelets are another name for thrombocytes. Thrombocytes are small, colorless cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood clotting. They are produced in the bone marrow and help in the formation of blood clots to prevent excessive bleeding. Platelets are involved in the repair of damaged blood vessels and play a vital role in the body's immune response.

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94. Which should not be done during vein selection? 

Explanation

Patient pumping fist should not be done during vein selection. Pumping the fist can cause an increase in potassium levels due to the release of potassium from muscle cells, which can affect blood test results. The other actions—lowering the patient's arm, palpating the antecubital area, and placing a warm towel on the arm—are common techniques to help dilate the veins and make them more prominent for easier access.

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95. Which fluid is obtained by lumbar puncture. 

Explanation

The fluid obtained by lumbar puncture is cerebrospinal fluid. Lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap, is a procedure in which a needle is inserted into the lower back to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal. Cerebrospinal fluid is a clear, colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing cushioning and protection. It is important in diagnosing and monitoring various neurological conditions.

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96. The endocardium is in which layer of the heart?

Explanation

The endocardium is the innermost layer of the heart wall, composed of endothelial cells and connective tissue. It lines all the internal structures of the heart, including the four chambers (atria and ventricles) and the valves, creating a smooth surface that allows for efficient blood flow and prevents blood clots from forming. The endocardium also plays a role in regulating heart contractions and protecting the heart from infection.

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97. A pad is used to protect the patient's clothing. 

Explanation

Chux is a type of absorbent pad that is commonly used in healthcare settings to protect and correct a patient's clothing. It is designed to absorb any fluids or spills and prevent them from soiling the patient's clothing or bedding. Chux pads are often used during procedures or examinations to provide a clean and dry surface for the patient. They are also used for incontinence care to protect against leaks and accidents. Overall, Chux pads are an essential tool in maintaining cleanliness and hygiene for patients in healthcare settings.

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98. What tube is used for a WBC differential? 

Explanation

The tube used for a WBC (White Blood Cell) differential test is typically the lavender tube. The lavender-top tube contains an anticoagulant called EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid), which helps preserve the blood sample and prevent it from clotting. This type of tube is commonly used for various blood tests, including complete blood counts (CBCs), which include WBC differentials.

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99. Light blue tubes must be filled ____ with blood. 

Explanation

Light blue tubes, utilized in medical testing for coagulation studies, should ideally be completely filled, with a prescribed mixing ratio of 1 part citrate to 9 parts blood, which means it contains 90% blood. This specific ratio is crucial in maintaining the integrity of the collected blood sample. Citrate serves as an anticoagulant, preventing blood from clotting within the tube, which is essential for accurate coagulation test results.

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100. How many minutes does normal coagulation take in a red topped tube? 

Explanation

Normal coagulation takes 30-60 minutes in a red topped tube. Coagulation is the process by which blood forms clots to stop bleeding. In a red topped tube, the blood is collected and allowed to clot. The time it takes for the blood to clot can vary depending on various factors such as the individual's health condition and the presence of any clotting disorders. The range of 30-60 minutes is considered normal for coagulation to occur in a red topped tube.

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101. Sputum is collected to diagnose 

Explanation

Sputum is collected to diagnose tuberculosis because it is a respiratory disease that primarily affects the lungs. Sputum, which is mucus and other substances that are coughed up from the respiratory tract, can contain the bacteria that cause tuberculosis. By analyzing the sputum, doctors can identify the presence of the bacteria and confirm the diagnosis of tuberculosis. This is an important step in initiating the appropriate treatment for the disease.

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102. The heart disorder characterized by fluid buildup in the lungs 

Explanation

Congestive heart failure is a heart disorder that is characterized by fluid buildup in the lungs. This occurs when the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, causing blood to back up into the lungs. As a result, fluid leaks from the blood vessels into the air sacs of the lungs, leading to symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and fatigue. Aortic stenosis, bacterial endocarditis, and myocardial infarction are all different heart conditions that do not specifically involve fluid buildup in the lungs.

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103. What is the size (in inches) of the needle routinely used for venipuncture? 

Explanation



The size (in inches) of the needle routinely used for venipuncture is 1-1.5 inches. This range is typical for the length of needles used for drawing blood, with a gauge size commonly between 21 and 23 for adult venipunctures.
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104. The OGTT test diagnoses ______________. 

Explanation

The OGTT test, or Oral Glucose Tolerance Test, is used to diagnose diabetes. It measures how the body metabolizes glucose over a period of time. This test is particularly useful for detecting gestational diabetes in pregnant women and for diagnosing type 2 diabetes in individuals who may have impaired fasting glucose levels. By measuring blood glucose levels before and after consuming a glucose solution, healthcare providers can determine if a person has diabetes or is at risk for developing it.

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105. The most common source of carry over problems is EDTA. 

Explanation

EDTA, which stands for ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, is a common chelating agent used in various industries, including healthcare and laboratory settings. It is known for its ability to bind to metal ions, such as calcium and magnesium, and form stable complexes. However, EDTA can also interfere with certain laboratory tests, particularly those that rely on metal ions for accurate results. This interference can lead to carry over problems, where EDTA from a previous sample contaminates subsequent samples, affecting the accuracy and reliability of the test results. Therefore, it can be concluded that the most common source of carry over problems is indeed EDTA.

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106. Leaving the tourniquet on too long may cause ________________. 

Explanation

Leaving the tourniquet on too long may cause hemoconcentration. This is because when a tourniquet is applied for an extended period of time, it restricts blood flow to the area beyond the tourniquet. As a result, the blood becomes more concentrated with red blood cells and other components, leading to hemoconcentration. This can have negative effects on the body, such as increased viscosity of the blood and impaired circulation.

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107. Blood cultures are used to diagnose ________________. 

Explanation

Blood cultures are used to diagnose FUO, which stands for Fever of Unknown Origin. This condition refers to a persistent fever that cannot be explained by common causes such as infections or inflammatory diseases. Blood cultures are performed to identify any bacteria or fungi in the bloodstream that may be causing the fever. By isolating and identifying the causative organism, appropriate treatment can be initiated to resolve the fever and underlying infection.

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108. Which of the following is the best definition of destruction of red blood cells? 

Explanation

Hemolysis refers to the destruction or breakdown of red blood cells, leading to the release of hemoglobin. This can occur due to various factors such as infections, autoimmune disorders, or certain medications. Hemolysis can result in anemia and other complications, as the body's ability to transport oxygen and remove waste products is compromised.

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109. If an infant is screaming during a CBC test, the  

Explanation

If an infant is screaming during a CBC test, it can cause stress and agitation, leading to an increase in the white blood cell count (WBC). This is because the body's immune system responds to stress by releasing more white blood cells to combat any potential threats. Therefore, the WBC count may be elevated in this situation.

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110. Capillary puncture reference ranges are higher for this analyte. 

Explanation

Capillary puncture reference ranges for glucose are higher compared to other analytes such as calcium, phosphorus, and protein. This means that the normal range for glucose levels in capillary blood is higher than the normal range for these other analytes. This could be due to various factors, such as differences in the way glucose is metabolized and regulated in the body compared to these other analytes.

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111. A urine C & S is ordered to detect 

Explanation

A urine C & S (culture and sensitivity) test is ordered to detect the presence of a urinary tract infection (UTI). This test helps identify any bacteria or other microorganisms that may be causing the infection in the urinary system. By analyzing the urine sample, the test can determine the specific type of bacteria present and also determine the most effective antibiotic treatment. Therefore, the correct answer is the presence of UTI.

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112. Blood types are determined by the presence or absence of which of the following on RBCs. 

Explanation

Blood types are determined by the presence or absence of antigens on red blood cells (RBCs). Antigens are substances that can trigger an immune response in the body. Different blood types have different types of antigens on their RBCs, including A, B, and Rh antigens. These antigens can react with antibodies in the blood, leading to blood type compatibility or incompatibility. Therefore, the presence or absence of antigens on RBCs is crucial in determining an individual's blood type.

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113. Which tube does not contain EDTA?

Explanation

The mottled green and gray topped tubes do not contain EDTA. The other options, such as lavender tube tops, pink plastic top tubes with special blood bank patient ID label, and pearl top tubes with thixotropic gel separator, are all commonly used tubes that contain EDTA as an anticoagulant.

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114. When someone is in shock you should keep them cool. 

Explanation

When someone is in shock, it is important to keep them warm, not cool. This is because shock can cause a drop in body temperature, so keeping the person warm helps to prevent further complications. Cooling them down could worsen their condition.

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115. The ability of the body to achieve "steady state."

Explanation

Homeostasis refers to the ability of the body to maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes. It involves various physiological processes that work together to regulate body temperature, blood pressure, pH levels, and other vital parameters within a narrow range. This balance is crucial for the proper functioning of cells, tissues, and organs. Anabolism and catabolism are metabolic processes involved in building and breaking down molecules, while hemostasis refers to the process of stopping bleeding. However, only homeostasis accurately describes the body's ability to achieve a steady state.

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116. Capillary puncture blood most closely resembles ____________. 

Explanation

Capillary puncture blood most closely resembles arterial blood because both types of blood are oxygenated and have similar levels of carbon dioxide. Capillary blood is obtained by pricking the skin and collecting blood from the capillaries, which are tiny blood vessels that connect arteries and veins. Arterial blood is the oxygen-rich blood that is pumped from the heart to the rest of the body. Both types of blood have similar levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide because the capillaries are responsible for exchanging gases between the arteries and veins.

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117. Which tube can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch? 

Explanation

The pink top EDTA tube can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch. EDTA is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting, and the pink top tube is specifically designed for collecting blood samples for hematological testing, such as blood typing and crossmatching.

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118. Lymph originates from 

Explanation

Lymph originates from tissue fluid. This is because lymph is formed when tissue fluid, which is the fluid that surrounds the cells in tissues, enters the lymphatic vessels. These vessels then carry the tissue fluid, now called lymph, throughout the body. Lymph plays an important role in the immune system, transporting immune cells and removing waste products from tissues.

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119. To measure the diurnal variation of cortisol hormone, what kind of specimen would be required? 

Explanation

To measure the diurnal variation of cortisol hormone, a timed specimen would be required. This means that the specimen would need to be collected at specific intervals throughout the day to accurately capture the fluctuations of cortisol levels. This is because cortisol levels naturally vary throughout the day, with the highest levels typically occurring in the morning and the lowest levels in the evening. Therefore, a timed specimen would provide the most accurate representation of the diurnal variation of cortisol hormone.

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120. The Good Samaritan Law empowers healthcare professionals to administer medical assistance beyond their usual scope of practice without facing legal repercussions or being subject to lawsuits.

Explanation

While Good Samaritan laws generally don't extend legal protection to on-duty doctors, instances in hospital settings have occurred where a physician is considered a Good Samaritan and receives the legal safeguards provided by these laws. Many Good Samaritan laws exclude medical professionals or career emergency responders during on-duty actions, some offer protection to these professionals when they engage in volunteer efforts.

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121. Which is a test of the urinary system? 

Explanation

Creatinine clearance is a test used to measure how well the kidneys are functioning. It involves collecting a 24-hour urine sample and a blood sample to measure the levels of creatinine, a waste product produced by the muscles. By comparing the levels of creatinine in the urine and blood, the creatinine clearance test can determine how efficiently the kidneys are able to filter waste from the blood. This test is commonly used to assess kidney function and diagnose conditions such as chronic kidney disease.

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122. Which body plane divides the body in equal portions? 

Explanation

The midsagittal plane, also known as the median plane, divides the body into equal left and right halves. This plane passes through the midline of the body, specifically through the midline of the skull, sternum, and pelvis. It is an important anatomical reference point and is commonly used in medical imaging and surgical procedures to ensure accurate and symmetrical positioning.

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123. At what intervals should blood be blotted during a bleeding time test? 

Explanation

During a bleeding time test, blood should be blotted at 30-second intervals. This interval allows for an accurate assessment of the bleeding time by measuring the time it takes for bleeding to stop. Blotting the blood at regular intervals ensures that the test is consistent and reliable in determining how long it takes for a person's blood to clot.

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124. Which layer of the heart is the epicardium?

Explanation

The epicardium is the outermost layer of the heart wall, forming a thin, transparent membrane that covers the heart's surface. It is composed of a single layer of mesothelial cells, along with connective tissue and adipose tissue (fat) that provide cushioning and protection for the heart.

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125. The most common complication of phlebotomy. 

Explanation

Hematoma is the correct answer because it is the most common complication of phlebotomy. During phlebotomy, a hematoma can occur when blood leaks from the puncture site and collects under the skin, causing a localized swelling and bruising. This can happen if the needle punctures a larger blood vessel or if pressure is not applied to the puncture site after the procedure. Hematomas are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but in some cases, they may require medical intervention.

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126. To check for trace elements, a phlebotomist would use a ______ tube.

Explanation

A phlebotomist would use a royal blue tube to check for trace elements. This type of tube is specifically designed to collect samples for testing trace elements in the blood. It is important to use the correct tube for each type of test to ensure accurate results.

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127. What is the first link in the chain of infection? 

Explanation

The first link in the chain of infection is the agent. The agent refers to the microorganism or pathogen that causes the infection. It could be a bacteria, virus, or other infectious organism. The agent is responsible for initiating the infection and can be transmitted from one person to another through various modes of transmission.

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128. Tests for this procedure are usually collected in a light blue tube. 

Explanation

Tests for coagulation studies are usually collected in a light blue tube. This tube contains sodium citrate, an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting by binding calcium. Coagulation studies assess the blood's ability to clot and identify potential bleeding or clotting disorders.

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129. When serum is _________ it is a clue that the patient is not fasting. 

Explanation

When serum is lipemic, it appears turbid or milky due to the presence of excess lipids or triglycerides. This can occur when a patient is not fasting and has recently consumed a meal high in fat. Lipemia can interfere with laboratory tests and make it difficult to obtain accurate results. Therefore, the presence of lipemic serum is a clue that the patient is not fasting.

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130. The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is 

Explanation

The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is skin antisepsis. Ensuring that the skin is thoroughly disinfected before the needle insertion is crucial to prevent contamination of the blood sample. Contaminated samples can lead to false-positive results, which may cause unnecessary treatments or extended hospital stays. Proper skin antisepsis reduces the risk of introducing skin flora into the blood culture, which is vital for the accuracy of the test and the safety of the patient. Other factors like the amount of specimen, specimen handling, and the needle gauge are also important, but the primary concern is minimizing contamination through effective skin preparation.

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131. Which test is NOT a light-sensitive test? 

Explanation

Ammonia is not a light-sensitive test because it does not require exposure to light for accurate results. Light-sensitive tests, such as bilirubin, beta-carotene, and porphyrins, rely on light absorption or emission to measure the concentration or presence of these substances. However, ammonia testing does not involve light-sensitive reactions and can be performed without the need for light.

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132. Which lab section would analyze the C&S test? 

Explanation

Microbiology would analyze the C&S test because C&S stands for culture and sensitivity, which is a test used to identify the presence of bacteria in a sample and determine the most effective antibiotic to treat the infection. Microbiology is the branch of science that focuses on the study of microorganisms, including bacteria, and their effects on health and disease. Therefore, it is the appropriate lab section to analyze the C&S test.

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133. An example of a nosocomial infection is 

Explanation

A nosocomial infection refers to an infection that is acquired in a hospital or healthcare setting. In this case, the example of a nosocomial infection is when the catheter site of an ICU patient becomes infected. This means that the patient developed an infection at the site where a catheter was inserted, which is a common occurrence in healthcare settings.

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134.  The test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway is called ____________.

Explanation

The correct answer is APTT. APTT stands for Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time, which is a test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. This pathway is responsible for the formation of a blood clot. APTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot after certain activators are added. It is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy and to diagnose bleeding disorders.

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135. What special handling does an ABG require? 

Explanation

An ABG (Arterial Blood Gas) requires special handling in terms of chilling. This means that the sample needs to be kept at a cold temperature to preserve its integrity and prevent any changes in the blood gas levels. Chilling the ABG sample helps to slow down any metabolic processes that could alter the results. It is important to handle and transport the sample carefully to maintain its accuracy.

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136. Microorganism cultures are collected in _____________tubes. 

Explanation

Microorganism cultures are collected in yellow tubes. The color of the tube is important because it helps to identify the type of culture or specimen being collected. Different colors are used for different purposes. In this case, yellow tubes are likely used for the collection of specific types of microorganisms or for specific laboratory tests. The color coding system helps to ensure that the correct tests are performed and that the samples are handled appropriately.

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137. What tube is used for ESR? 

Explanation

ESR stands for erythrocyte sedimentation rate, which is a test used to measure the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a specific period of time. The lavender tube, also known as the EDTA tube, is commonly used for ESR testing. This tube contains the anticoagulant ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), which helps to prevent blood clotting and preserve the integrity of the sample for accurate results. Therefore, the lavender tube is the correct choice for ESR testing.

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138. A CBC would be sent to what lab section? 

Explanation

A CBC (Complete Blood Count) is a common blood test that evaluates the three main types of cells in the blood: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Hematology is the branch of laboratory medicine that deals with the study of blood and blood-forming tissues. Therefore, a CBC would be sent to the hematology lab section for analysis and interpretation.

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139. What are the 3 components of a urinalysis? 

Explanation

A urinalysis consists of three components: physical, chemical, and microscopic exams. The physical exam involves assessing the color, clarity, and specific gravity of the urine. The chemical exam tests for the presence of substances such as glucose, protein, and blood in the urine. Lastly, the microscopic exam involves examining the urine under a microscope to look for the presence of cells, bacteria, or other abnormal particles.

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140. Crooked or winding veins are also called ___________________. 

Explanation

Crooked or winding veins are also called "tortuous." This term describes veins that have a twisted or curved shape, often due to underlying conditions such as varicose veins or venous insufficiency. The word "tortuous" is commonly used in medical terminology to describe the abnormal appearance of veins.

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141. Which would be considered a pre-analytical error? 

Explanation

Pre-analytical errors occur before the actual testing of a specimen begins. Improper time of collection (option A) and wrong order of draw (option B) are both examples of pre-analytical errors as they involve issues with the collection process itself. These errors can lead to inaccurate test results and affect patient care. Option C, faulty technique, would be considered an analytical error as it pertains to errors occurring during the actual analysis or testing of the specimen.

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142. In therapeutic blood monitoring, the trough levels are tested ______________. 

Explanation

In therapeutic blood monitoring, trough levels are tested 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. This timing allows healthcare professionals to measure the lowest concentration of a drug in a patient's bloodstream just before the next dose is administered. By testing the trough levels before the scheduled dose, healthcare professionals can ensure that the drug is being effectively absorbed and metabolized by the patient's body. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate dosage and frequency of administration for optimal therapeutic effects.

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143. Which tube would you use to measure lactic acid? 

Explanation

The gray tube would be used to measure lactic acid. The color of the tube is indicative of the type of additive or anticoagulant present in the tube. Different tubes are used for different types of tests, and the gray tube is specifically designed for tests that require measurement of lactic acid levels.

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144. Which tube is sometimes called a serum separator tube? 

Explanation

The tube that is sometimes called a "serum separator tube" is the Red/Grey tube. This type of tube typically contains a gel separator that separates the serum (the liquid portion of blood) from the blood cells when the blood sample is centrifuged. This separation allows for easy collection and testing of the serum for various laboratory analyses.

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145. According to CLSI which tube is filled last when using a syringe? 

Explanation

The correct answer is EDTA. According to CLSI guidelines, when using a syringe, the tube filled last should be the one containing EDTA. This is because EDTA is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting by binding to calcium ions. By filling the EDTA tube last, it ensures that the blood sample remains free of clotting factors, allowing for accurate testing and analysis.

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146. Which test requires a 24-hour urine specimen? 

Explanation

Creatinine clearance is a test that measures how well the kidneys are functioning by determining the amount of creatinine in a 24-hour urine sample. Creatinine is a waste product produced by the muscles and filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. By measuring the amount of creatinine in the urine, the test can provide information about the kidneys' ability to filter waste products. Therefore, a 24-hour urine specimen is required for this test to accurately measure the creatinine levels over a specific period of time.

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147. Which laboratory section performs blood pregnancy tests? 

Explanation

Blood pregnancy tests typically measure the level of the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. This test is usually performed in the chemistry section of a laboratory, where various biochemical analyses, including hormone levels, are conducted.

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148. What is the correct sequence for putting on Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) to ensure maximum safety and effectiveness?

Explanation



The correct sequence for putting on Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) starts with hand hygiene to avoid contaminating clean equipment. Next, the gown is worn to protect the body. Then the mask is applied to protect the respiratory system. Finally, gloves are put on to protect the hands and prevent the transfer of pathogens. This order ensures maximum barrier protection and minimizes contamination risk.
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149. The relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle is:

Explanation

Diastole is the correct answer because it refers to the relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle. During diastole, the heart muscles relax, allowing the chambers to fill with blood. This is the phase when the heart is at rest and preparing for the next contraction. Bradycardia, systole, and infarction are not related to the relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle.

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150. The internal space of a blood vessel 

Explanation

The correct answer is lumen. The lumen refers to the internal space or cavity of a blood vessel. It is the hollow center through which blood flows. The lumen provides the necessary space for blood to circulate within the blood vessel.

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151. The pulmonic valve is situated between ____________________. 

Explanation

The pulmonic valve, a cardiac structure, is strategically located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. Its vital role involves regulating blood flow, allowing blood to move from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation while preventing backflow into the heart chambers. This contributes to the heart's efficient pumping function.

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152. In the order of draw for capillary specimens, should you draw tubes with or without additives first? 

Explanation



When collecting capillary specimens, the correct order of draw is to fill tubes without additives first, followed by tubes with additives. This helps prevent contamination and ensures accurate test results, as the first blood to flow might contain tissue fluids or other contaminants, which could affect the additives in the tubes if drawn first.
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153. Which tube is used for a sickle cell screen?

Explanation

Lavender tubes are used for a sickle cell screen. This is because lavender tubes contain the anticoagulant EDTA, which helps preserve the blood sample and prevent clotting. Sickle cell screening involves analyzing the blood for the presence of abnormal hemoglobin, which causes sickle cell disease. The EDTA in the lavender tube helps maintain the integrity of the blood sample for accurate testing.

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154.  Invert a tiger top tube ___ times.

Explanation

A tiger top tube (also known as a serum separator tube or SST) should be inverted 8-10 times immediately after drawing blood to ensure proper mixing of the blood with the clot activator. This helps the sample clot appropriately for serum separation during laboratory testing.

Thus, the correct answer is 8-10.

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155. Sodium Fluoride preserves glucose for how many days? 

Explanation

Sodium fluoride is commonly used as a preservative in blood samples to prevent glycolysis, the process by which glucose is broken down. When added to blood samples, sodium fluoride effectively preserves glucose levels for up to 3 days at room temperature. This makes it useful in clinical settings for accurate blood glucose measurements, ensuring that the glucose concentration remains stable and reliable for diagnostic purposes.

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156. This organization develops standards for specimen handling and processing

Explanation

CLSI, or the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute, is an organization that develops standards for specimen handling and processing. They provide guidelines and recommendations for laboratory professionals to ensure accurate and reliable test results. These standards cover various aspects such as collection, transportation, storage, and processing of specimens. By following CLSI standards, laboratories can maintain quality control and improve patient care by minimizing errors and ensuring consistency in specimen handling procedures.

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157.  Which of the following specimens are least likely to require special handling?

Explanation

Cholesterol and Uric Acid are least likely to require special handling because they are stable and can be easily measured in routine laboratory tests. Bilirubin and Folate, Gastrin and Lactic Acid, and Homocystine and Renin may require special handling due to their instability or the need for specific storage conditions to ensure accurate results.

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158. Hemostasis is defined as _______________. 

Explanation

Hemostasis is the process of stopping or preventing bleeding. It involves a series of events that occur to maintain the integrity of blood vessels and prevent excessive blood loss. This can be achieved through vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, and blood clot formation. Therefore, the correct answer, "stoppage of blood," accurately describes the definition of hemostasis.

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159. Blood culture tests can be done with a dermal puncture when venipuncture is not possible. 

Explanation

Blood culture tests cannot be done with a dermal puncture when venipuncture is not possible. Venipuncture is the preferred method for obtaining blood samples for culture tests as it allows for a larger volume of blood to be collected, reducing the risk of contamination and increasing the chances of detecting any potential pathogens present in the bloodstream. Dermal puncture, on the other hand, is typically used for collecting small amounts of blood for other types of tests, such as glucose monitoring.

Submit
160. Which of the following tubes is commonly used for a complete blood count (CBC) test in phlebotomy?

Explanation





The lavender-top tube is commonly used for complete blood count (CBC) tests. This tube contains EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) as an anticoagulant, which prevents the blood from clotting. EDTA works by binding to calcium ions in the blood, effectively removing the calcium and preventing the blood clotting cascade from being initiated. CBC tests are essential for evaluating the overall health of a patient, including red and white blood cell counts, hematocrit levels, and more.
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161. Which vein in the antecubital fossa is usually easiest to palpate in an obese patient? 

Explanation

The cephalic vein is usually the easiest to palpate in an obese patient in the antecubital fossa. This is because the cephalic vein is located on the lateral side of the forearm, closer to the surface of the skin, making it more accessible for palpation compared to other veins such as the basilic or ulnar veins.

Submit
162. The breakdown and removal of a clot in the hemostasis process is ______________. 

Explanation

Fibrinolysis is the breakdown and removal of a clot in the hemostasis process. This process involves the activation of plasminogen, which is converted into plasmin. Plasmin is an enzyme that breaks down fibrin, the protein that forms the mesh-like structure of a blood clot. Fibrinolysis helps to dissolve the clot and restore normal blood flow.

Submit
163. What special handling does a cold agglutinin test require? 

Explanation

A cold agglutinin test requires pre-warmed tubes because cold agglutinins are antibodies that can cause red blood cells to clump together at low temperatures. By pre-warming the tubes, the test can be performed at a temperature that prevents the agglutination of red blood cells, ensuring accurate results.

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164. Repeated venipuncture in the same vein can cause: 

Explanation

Repeated venipuncture in the same vein can cause phlebitis, which is the inflammation of the vein. This inflammation can occur due to the repeated trauma to the vein from the needle insertion. Phlebitis can lead to pain, redness, swelling, and tenderness at the site of the venipuncture. If left untreated, it can progress to more serious complications such as blood clots or infection. Therefore, it is important to avoid repeated venipuncture in the same vein to minimize the risk of phlebitis.

Submit
165. The chamber of the heart that receives blood from the systemic circulation 

Explanation

The right atrium is the chamber of the heart that receives blood from the systemic circulation. The systemic circulation refers to the circulation of blood throughout the body, delivering oxygen and nutrients to tissues and organs. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the superior and inferior vena cava, and then contracts to pump this blood into the right ventricle for further circulation.

Submit
166. How many times should a yellow top tube be inverted? 

Explanation

The yellow top tube contains ACD, utilized for whole blood collection in special tests. It is recommended to invert the tube 8-10 times immediately after blood filling to guarantee proper mixing and ensure ample anticoagulation of the specimen, as per the instructions.

Submit
167. Glass particles in serum separator tubes 

Explanation

The presence of glass particles in serum separator tubes enhances clotting. This is because the glass particles provide a surface for the activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the formation of a clot. This clot formation helps in separating the serum from the blood cells, allowing for accurate analysis of the serum components.

Submit
168. What is the primary reason for inverting anticoagulant tubes after collection?

Explanation

After collecting blood into a tube containing an anticoagulant, it is essential to gently invert the tube several times to ensure the blood mixes thoroughly with the anticoagulant. This process prevents the blood from clotting by evenly distributing the anticoagulant throughout the sample, ensuring that the blood remains in a fluid state for analysis. Inverting does not cool down the blood, separate plasma from cells directly (this is achieved through centrifugation), nor increase the blood volume in the tube.


 
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169. In the case of skin punctures, first tube in the order of draw for cap specimens is lavender. 

Explanation

In capillary blood collection (skin punctures), the first tube in the order of draw for capillary specimens is typically a lavender or purple microcollection tube, which is used for hematology tests like complete blood counts (CBC) and blood cell differentials. The is followed by chemistry and blood bank specimens. The order of draw may vary slightly depending on the specific tests required, but lavender tubes usually come first in capillary collections to ensure accurate hematological results.

Submit
170. Cortisol peaks late in the afternoon. 

Explanation

Cortisol does not peak late in the afternoon. In fact, cortisol levels typically peak in the morning, shortly after waking up, and gradually decrease throughout the day. This is known as the cortisol awakening response. Therefore, the statement that cortisol peaks late in the afternoon is incorrect.

Submit
171. An NP culture swab  is collected to help diagnose 

Explanation

An NP culture swab is collected to help diagnose whooping cough. This is because whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is caused by a bacterial infection. The NP culture swab is used to collect a sample from the back of the nose and throat, which can then be tested in a laboratory to identify the presence of the bacteria responsible for whooping cough. This test is an important diagnostic tool in confirming the presence of the infection and guiding appropriate treatment.

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172.  How many times should a light-blue tube be inverted?

Explanation

The light-blue tube should be inverted 3-4 times. This means that the tube should be turned upside down and then returned to its original position 3-4 times. Inverting the tube helps to mix the contents or ensure that any substances inside are evenly distributed. The exact number of inversions may vary depending on the specific instructions or requirements for the tube.

Submit
173.  20%-40% of WBCs are composed of _______________.

Explanation

20%-40% of white blood cells (WBC) are lymphocytes. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances in the body, such as bacteria, viruses, and cancer cells. This high percentage of lymphocytes in the WBC count indicates the importance of these cells in maintaining a healthy immune response.

Submit
174.  Collecting urine by aspiration through the bladder wall

Explanation

Suprapubic catheterization involves the insertion of a catheter through the abdominal wall directly into the bladder. This method is used to collect urine by aspiration through the bladder wall. It is commonly used in pediatric patients and is also used in certain situations such as when a patient cannot empty their bladder or when other methods of urine collection are not feasible. Amnio is not a method of urine collection, and therefore, it is not the correct answer.

Submit
175. Which is the best tube for collecting an ethanol specimen? 

Explanation

Sodium fluoride is the best tube for collecting an ethanol specimen because it inhibits the growth of microorganisms and preserves the ethanol concentration in the sample. This tube is commonly used for alcohol testing in forensic and clinical settings. EDTA, heparin, and sodium citrate are not suitable for collecting ethanol specimens as they do not have the same preservative properties as sodium fluoride.

Submit
176. Which WBC carries histamine? 

Explanation

Basophils are a type of white blood cell (WBC) that carries histamine. Histamine is a chemical involved in the immune response and allergic reactions. Basophils release histamine in response to an allergen or an infection, causing blood vessels to dilate and increase blood flow to the affected area. This helps to recruit other immune cells to the site of infection or inflammation. Monocytes, eosinophils, and neutrophils are other types of WBCs, but they do not carry histamine.

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177. During a phlebotomy procedure, which of the following is the correct order of draw to prevent cross-contamination of additives between tubes?

Explanation

The correct order of draw during a phlebotomy procedure is crucial to prevent cross-contamination of additives between tubes, which can affect test results. The order of draw recommended by most standards is:

Light Blue top (Sodium Citrate): Used for coagulation tests.

Red top (No additive or clot activator): Used for serum tests in chemistry.

Green top (Heparin): Used for plasma tests in chemistry.

Lavender top (EDTA): Used for hematology tests.

Submit
178. What percentage of formed elements are erythrocytes?

Explanation

In a typical blood sample, erythrocytes (red blood cells) make up the majority of the formed elements. On average, erythrocytes account for about 99% of the formed elements in the blood. This means that erythrocytes comprise nearly 99% of the cellular components of blood, with the remaining formed elements, such as leukocytes (white blood cells) and platelets, making up only a small fraction of the total.

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179. Which represents the proper order of blood flow? 

Explanation

The proper order of blood flow starts from arterioles, which are small branches of arteries, then moves to capillaries, which are tiny blood vessels where gas exchange occurs, and finally ends in venules, which are small branches of veins. This order ensures that oxygenated blood is delivered to tissues through the capillaries and deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart through the venules.

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180. Which blood vessel is NOT part of systemic circulation? 

Explanation

The pulmonary artery is not part of systemic circulation because it carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation. Systemic circulation, on the other hand, involves the circulation of oxygenated blood to the rest of the body through arteries and veins.

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181. Arteries have valves that prevent the blood from flowing back. 

Explanation

Arteries do not have valves. Valves are present in veins, not arteries. Veins have valves to prevent the backflow of blood, especially in the lower extremities where blood flow needs to overcome gravity. Arteries, on the other hand, have thick muscular walls that help maintain blood pressure and propel blood away from the heart to the rest of the body.

Submit
182. Which element prevents glycolysis?

Explanation

Sodium fluoride is an antiglycolytic agent that inhibits the enzyme enolase, which is essential for the breakdown of glucose in glycolysis. This prevents the further metabolism of glucose and stabilizes blood glucose levels, making it useful in blood collection tubes for glucose testing. The other options are anticoagulants that prevent blood clotting but do not directly inhibit glycolysis.

Submit
183. The first phase of hemostasis is _________________. 

Explanation

The first phase of hemostasis is the vascular stage. During this stage, blood vessels constrict to reduce blood flow and limit bleeding. This constriction is triggered by the release of chemicals from damaged blood vessels and surrounding tissues. The vascular stage helps to prevent excessive blood loss and prepares the area for the next phases of hemostasis, including platelet aggregation and blood clot formation.

Submit
184. Fluid aspirated from the peritoneal cavity. 

Explanation

Ascites refers to the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, which is the space between the abdominal organs and the abdominal wall. This condition can be caused by various factors such as liver disease, heart failure, kidney disease, or cancer. The fluid is typically clear or straw-colored and can be aspirated for diagnostic purposes or to relieve discomfort. Therefore, the correct answer is ascites.

Submit
185.  Which would be considered a post-analytical error?

Explanation

A post-analytical error occurs after the laboratory test has been performed, typically during the handling, processing, or reporting of results. Improper use of a serum separator is a post-analytical error because it can occur during the final stage of sample processing, leading to compromised results. The other options, such as improper site preparation (A), medication interference (B), and failure to invert tubes (C), are considered pre-analytical errors since they affect the sample before or during collection.

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Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |
Clinical Pharmacist
Amanda Nwachukwu, holding a Doctorate in Pharmacy from Texas Tech University Health Sciences Center, adeptly simplifies complex medical concepts into accessible content. With clinical proficiency, she ensures optimal patient care, while her adept medical writing skills facilitate comprehension and accessibility of healthcare information.

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What is another name for winged infusion sets? 
An open wound can be a portal of entry in an infection...
What part of the infant is a PKU test performed on? 
Latex sensitivity is an allergic reaction. 
If a patient refuses treatment you should 
Which of the following is a recommended safety practice for a...
The proper way to insert a needle is with the bevel facing...
The  most important step in a routine venipuncture. 
Which of the following is not considered Personal Protective Equipment...
When you explain the venipuncture procedure to the patient and they...
What is the preferred antiseptic for venipuncture? 
What is the most important step in preventing infections? 
Tubes may lose their vacuum due to ______________________. 
Which additive is usually in a lavender tube? 
In a routine blood draw the red tube is drawn before the green...
What is the preferred site for venipuncture? 
 A patient in the Oncology Dept. is probably being treated for...
The first drop of blood in a capillary puncture is the best for...
The following were collected for a routine venipuncture.  Which...
 Which tube contains sodium citrate?
Microorganisms that cause diseases
Which tube is drawn last in a standard venipuncture procedure? 
Sodium Citrate tubes have what color stoppers? 
 Sodium Citrate is the additive in which tube?
Where is blood collected, stored and prepared for...
Which of the following veins in the arm are most subjected to...
Which needle has the largest gauge? 
Taking aspirin is most likely going to effect a BT test. 
The hormone detected in a positive pregnancy test is 
 The order of draw for venipuncture is:  BC, blue, serum,...
 Lavender and Green tubes should all be inverted 8 times...
 A clean catch test is collected in a:
There is a 9 to 1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant in a light blue...
Using a butterfly may be necessary if the vein collapses with the...
Failing to provide reasonable standards of care, causing...
A drug known to interfere with urine tests should be discontinued...
Tiny red spots on the skin caused by the rupturing of capillaries are...
Which tube is used for PTT?
Lipemic bloodserum appears: 
A green top tube usually contains 
In a routine venipuncture the lavender tube should be drawn before the...
Glycolysis occurs faster in newborns. 
Where do blood cells originate? 
Sclerosed veins feel ______________. 
Which is not a reason for failure to collect blood? 
All patients are presumed to be infectious for ___________. 
Bacteria and parasites belong to which type of hazard? 
 Which is used for PT and PTT?
What causes vacuum tubes to fill with blood? 
Which is not true of WBCs? 
Which is NOT a reason the tourniquet is used?
POC testing is done _____________. 
Which test must be performed on whole blood? 
Veins are located deeper than arteries.
Veins have thinner walls than arteries. 
What is the function of a leukocyte? 
Permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein. 
A person should refrain from eating for how many hours before a...
What is the recommended depth of a heel puncture on an infant? 
Contact, droplet and airborne are ____________. 
Medical Asepsis is the destruction of pathogens outside the...
OSHA requires that healthcare professionals receive a vaccine...
The additive in a pink tube is: 
 The left ventricle delivers oxygenated blood to the aorta.
What is the normal lifespan of an RBC? 
Accumulation of fluid in the tissues. 
Postprandial means ______________. 
Which is NOT a common symptom of shock? 
To disinfect a surface you can use boiling water or...
How many inches above the site should the tourniquet be tied? 
Lavender tubes must be 2/3 full. 
Another name for blood in the urine: 
Oxygen-poor blood enters the heart through the right atrium. 
Which test may require a chain of custody? 
Blood cultures are collected in a ___________ tube. 
What organ would a doctor be interested in if he ordered an...
Invert a gray tube __________ times. 
Always recap your needle before putting it into the sharps...
During a phlebotomy procedure, what is the correct order of draw for...
 Another name for RBC's:
When the body has adequate rest and no food for 12 hours it is said to...
If someone is cyanotic their skin may appear ____________. 
Serum is depleted of fibriogen. 
When collecting a Blood culture with a butterfly into culture bottles,...
The first tube collected with a butterfly will underfill due to air in...
Which arteries carry oxygenated blood?
If the needle passes completely through the vein, you must pull...
Which order of draw is correct?
The following is a test of the respiratory system 
 Direct contact transmission is defined as ___________.
A group of tests collected as one unit: 
What gauge multi-sample needle is considered to be standard? 
Another name for thrombocytes is______________. 
Which should not be done during vein selection? 
Which fluid is obtained by lumbar puncture. 
The endocardium is in which layer of the heart?
A pad is used to protect the patient's clothing. 
What tube is used for a WBC differential? 
Light blue tubes must be filled ____ with blood. 
How many minutes does normal coagulation take in a red topped...
Sputum is collected to diagnose 
The heart disorder characterized by fluid buildup in...
What is the size (in inches) of the needle routinely used for...
The OGTT test diagnoses ______________. 
The most common source of carry over problems is EDTA. 
Leaving the tourniquet on too long may cause ________________. 
Blood cultures are used to diagnose ________________. 
Which of the following is the best definition of destruction of...
If an infant is screaming during a CBC test, the  
Capillary puncture reference ranges are higher for this analyte. 
A urine C & S is ordered to detect 
Blood types are determined by the presence or absence of which of the...
Which tube does not contain EDTA?
When someone is in shock you should keep them cool. 
The ability of the body to achieve "steady state."
Capillary puncture blood most closely resembles ____________. 
Which tube can be used to collect blood for a type and...
Lymph originates from 
To measure the diurnal variation of cortisol hormone, what kind of...
The Good Samaritan Law empowers healthcare professionals to administer...
Which is a test of the urinary system? 
Which body plane divides the body in equal portions? 
At what intervals should blood be blotted during a bleeding time...
Which layer of the heart is the epicardium?
The most common complication of phlebotomy. 
To check for trace elements, a phlebotomist would use a ______ tube.
What is the first link in the chain of infection? 
Tests for this procedure are usually collected in a light blue...
When serum is _________ it is a clue that the patient is not...
The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is 
Which test is NOT a light-sensitive test? 
Which lab section would analyze the C&S test? 
An example of a nosocomial infection is 
 The test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway is called...
What special handling does an ABG require? 
Microorganism cultures are collected in _____________tubes. 
What tube is used for ESR? 
A CBC would be sent to what lab section? 
What are the 3 components of a urinalysis? 
Crooked or winding veins are also called...
Which would be considered a pre-analytical error? 
In therapeutic blood monitoring, the trough levels are...
Which tube would you use to measure lactic acid? 
Which tube is sometimes called a serum separator tube? 
According to CLSI which tube is filled last when using a...
Which test requires a 24-hour urine specimen? 
Which laboratory section performs blood pregnancy tests? 
What is the correct sequence for putting on Personal Protective...
The relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle is:
The internal space of a blood vessel 
The pulmonic valve is situated between ____________________. 
In the order of draw for capillary specimens, should you draw tubes...
Which tube is used for a sickle cell screen?
 Invert a tiger top tube ___ times.
Sodium Fluoride preserves glucose for how many days? 
This organization develops standards for specimen handling and...
 Which of the following specimens are least likely to require...
Hemostasis is defined as _______________. 
Blood culture tests can be done with a dermal puncture when...
Which of the following tubes is commonly used for a complete blood...
Which vein in the antecubital fossa is usually easiest to palpate in...
The breakdown and removal of a clot in the hemostasis process is...
What special handling does a cold agglutinin test...
Repeated venipuncture in the same vein can cause: 
The chamber of the heart that receives blood from the systemic...
How many times should a yellow top tube be inverted? 
Glass particles in serum separator tubes 
What is the primary reason for inverting anticoagulant tubes after...
In the case of skin punctures, first tube in the order of draw for...
Cortisol peaks late in the afternoon. 
An NP culture swab  is collected to help diagnose 
 How many times should a light-blue tube be inverted?
 20%-40% of WBCs are composed of _______________.
 Collecting urine by aspiration through the bladder wall
Which is the best tube for collecting an ethanol specimen? 
Which WBC carries histamine? 
During a phlebotomy procedure, which of the following is the correct...
What percentage of formed elements are erythrocytes?
Which represents the proper order of blood flow? 
Which blood vessel is NOT part of systemic circulation? 
Arteries have valves that prevent the blood from flowing...
Which element prevents glycolysis?
The first phase of hemostasis is _________________. 
Fluid aspirated from the peritoneal cavity. 
 Which would be considered a post-analytical error?
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