Nacc PSW Exam Prep: Test Your Knowledge Today

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Nacc PSW Exam Prep: Test Your Knowledge Today - Quiz


Preparing for the NACC PSW Exam can be challenging, but this quiz is tailored to help you succeed. Covering critical areas such as client-centered care, infection control, and workplace safety, this quiz is an excellent tool for mastering the concepts required for personal support workers. Additionally, this quiz includes a variety of NACC exam PSW questions and answers, allowing you to test your knowledge and identify areas that need improvement.

Each question is designed to simulate real-world caregiving scenarios, helping you apply theoretical knowledge to practical situations. With detailed feedback on every answer, this quiz ensures that you gain a Read moredeeper understanding of caregiving principles, ethical practices, and communication techniques essential for your role as a PSW.
Disclaimer: This quiz is for educational purposes and is designed to assist in exam preparation. It does not guarantee success in the official NACC PSW Exam. For official exam requirements, refer to your certification body.


NACC PSW Exam Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    What is the most pressing cause of healthcare reform?

    • A.

      Rising costs of providing technology, drugs and services

    • B.

      The depression

    • C.

      Lack of available technology

    • D.

      Lack of accessibility

    Correct Answer
    A. Rising costs of providing technology, drugs and services
    Explanation
    The rising costs of providing technology, drugs, and services have been the most pressing cause of health care reform. This is because these increasing costs have made healthcare unaffordable for many individuals and have put a strain on healthcare systems and providers. As a result, there is a need for reform to address these rising costs and make healthcare more accessible and affordable for all.

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  • 2. 

    Which Law ensures that every citizen has access to health care?

    • A.

      The long term care facilities act

    • B.

      The Canada health act

    • C.

      The Medical care act

    • D.

      The hospital insurance and diagnostic services act

    Correct Answer
    B. The Canada health act
    Explanation
    The Canada Health Act ensures that every citizen has access to health care. This act sets out the conditions that provinces and territories must meet in order to receive federal funding for health care services. It requires that health care services be provided to all residents of Canada on a prepaid basis, without any direct charges at the point of service. The act also prohibits extra billing by doctors and user fees for medically necessary services. Overall, the Canada Health Act plays a crucial role in ensuring that all citizens have access to necessary health care services.

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  • 3. 

    Support services provided through home care do not include:

    • A.

      Personal care

    • B.

      Assistance with activities of daily living

    • C.

      Respiratory therapy

    • D.

      Assistance with home managament

    Correct Answer
    C. Respiratory therapy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is respiratory therapy. Support services provided through home care typically include personal care, assistance with activities of daily living, and assistance with home management. However, respiratory therapy is not typically included in home care services. Respiratory therapy is a specialized medical service that focuses on treating and managing respiratory conditions, such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and is usually provided in a hospital or clinic setting.

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  • 4. 

    What does a holistic approach to health involve?

    • A.

      Takes a realistic view of a person's health problems

    • B.

      Takes into account the whole person

    • C.

      Focuses on the person's illness or disability

    • D.

      Focuses on the person's physical health

    Correct Answer
    B. Takes into account the whole person
    Explanation
    A holistic approach to health takes into account the whole person, considering not only their physical health but also their mental, emotional, and social well-being. It recognizes that all aspects of a person's life are interconnected and can impact their overall health. This approach aims to address the root causes of health issues rather than just treating the symptoms, and emphasizes the importance of prevention and self-care. By considering the whole person, healthcare professionals can provide more comprehensive and personalized care to promote overall well-being.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is false? People with strong emotional health:

    • A.

      Show their emotions easily

    • B.

      Have strong self steem

    • C.

      Exhibit self control

    • D.

      Are aware of their own strengths and weaknesses

    Correct Answer
    A. Show their emotions easily
    Explanation
    People with strong emotional health do not necessarily show their emotions easily. Emotional health is about having the ability to understand and manage one's emotions effectively, rather than expressing them openly. People with strong emotional health are capable of controlling their emotions and expressing them in a healthy and appropriate manner. They have a strong sense of self-esteem, exhibit self-control, and are aware of their own strengths and weaknesses.

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  • 6. 

    What characterizes an acute illness?

    • A.

      Appears suddenly and lasts a short time

    • B.

      Is a slow, progressive illness

    • C.

      Results in disability

    • D.

      People usually recover

    Correct Answer
    A. Appears suddenly and lasts a short time
    Explanation
    An acute illness is characterized by its sudden onset and short duration. Unlike a slow, progressive illness, an acute illness develops rapidly and resolves quickly. It does not result in disability, as people usually recover from it. This answer accurately describes the defining characteristics of an acute illness.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not true of chronic illness?

    • A.

      It is a slow progressive illness.

    • B.

      The symptoms often appear gradually.

    • C.

      It may result in physical or mental disability.

    • D.

      People usually recover.

    Correct Answer
    D. People usually recover.
    Explanation
    Chronic illness is characterized by long-lasting and persistent health conditions. The given answer states that people usually recover from chronic illness, which is not true. Unlike acute illnesses, chronic illnesses generally cannot be cured completely, and individuals often have to manage their symptoms and treatment for an extended period of time. This answer contradicts the nature of chronic illnesses and their long-term impact on individuals' health and well-being.

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  • 8. 

    Maslow's hierarchy of needs can best be described as?

    • A.

      Another term for psychosocial health

    • B.

      A system that arranges human needs into categories

    • C.

      Physiological and safety needs

    • D.

      Love and belonging needs

    Correct Answer
    B. A system that arranges human needs into categories
    Explanation
    Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a well-known psychological theory that categorizes human needs into different levels or categories. It suggests that individuals have a set of basic physiological and safety needs that must be fulfilled before they can progress to higher-level needs such as love, belonging, esteem, and self-actualization. This theory emphasizes the importance of satisfying lower-level needs before moving on to higher ones, as each level builds upon the previous one. Therefore, the correct answer describes Maslow's hierarchy of needs as a system that arranges human needs into categories.

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  • 9. 

    Which statement about the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms is false?

    • A.

      It is part of the Canadian constitution.

    • B.

      It does not apply at a provincial level.

    • C.

      It protects Canadian's right to equality before and under the law.

    • D.

      It protects Canadian's right to freedom and expression.

    Correct Answer
    B. It does not apply at a provincial level.
    Explanation
    The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms is indeed part of the Canadian constitution. It protects Canadians' right to equality before and under the law, as well as their right to freedom of expression. However, the statement that it does not apply at a provincial level is false. The Charter applies to all levels of government in Canada, including provincial and territorial governments. Therefore, the given answer is incorrect.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following conditions does not usually require a sodium-restricted diet?

    • A.

      Diabetes

    • B.

      Heart disease

    • C.

      Kidney disease

    • D.

      Liver disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    While diabetes requires careful management of blood sugar levels, it does not necessarily require a sodium-restricted diet. Sodium restriction is typically recommended for conditions like heart disease, kidney disease, and liver disease to manage fluid retention and blood pressure. However, people with diabetes should still maintain a balanced diet, with attention to sodium intake as part of overall health management.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not required for a person to give informed consent?

    • A.

      Information about the nature of the treatment

    • B.

      A discussion of the potential risks and side effects of the treatment

    • C.

      Reassurance that the proposed treatment is the best and only option

    • D.

      Information about the likely consequences of not having the treatment

    Correct Answer
    C. Reassurance that the proposed treatment is the best and only option
    Explanation
    Informed consent requires the individual to be provided with comprehensive information about the nature of the treatment, potential risks, side effects, and the likely consequences of not having the treatment. However, it does not require the healthcare provider to reassure the individual that the proposed treatment is the best and only option. Patients should be informed of alternative treatments to make a fully informed decision.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following statements about negligence is false?

    • A.

      It is an unintentional tort.

    • B.

      The negligent person did not act in a reasonable manner.

    • C.

      Harm was caused to a person or a person's property.

    • D.

      A prison term is likely.

    Correct Answer
    D. A prison term is likely.
    Explanation
    Negligence is a civil wrong (unintentional tort) that involves failure to act in a reasonable manner, causing harm to someone or their property. However, negligence does not usually lead to a prison term. Instead, it often results in compensation or damages for the injured party. It differs from criminal acts, where imprisonment is a possible consequence. Negligence cases typically involve financial restitution rather than criminal penalties.

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  • 13. 

    What does the intentional threat to touch someone without consent represent?

    • A.

      Assault

    • B.

      Battery

    • C.

      Defamation

    • D.

      False imprisonment

    Correct Answer
    A. Assault
    Explanation
    Assault refers to the intentional attempt or threat to touch a person's body without their consent. It involves the act of creating fear or apprehension in the victim, even if physical contact does not occur. This can include actions such as raising a fist or brandishing a weapon, which instill a sense of imminent harm. Battery, on the other hand, involves the actual physical contact or harmful touching without consent. Defamation refers to making false statements that harm a person's reputation, while false imprisonment involves unlawfully restraining someone's freedom of movement.

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  • 14. 

    The illegal restraint of another person's movement is called:

    • A.

      Assault

    • B.

      Battery

    • C.

      Defamation

    • D.

      False imprisionement

    Correct Answer
    D. False imprisionement
    Explanation
    False imprisonment refers to the illegal restraint of another person's movement. It occurs when someone intentionally confines another person without their consent and without lawful justification. This can involve physical barriers, such as locking someone in a room, or the use of threats or intimidation to prevent someone from leaving a certain area. False imprisonment is a civil and criminal offense, and individuals found guilty of this can face legal consequences.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following statements is false?

    • A.

      Race refers to a group of people who share similar physical traits

    • B.

      A country has one ethnic group

    • C.

      A person's culture influences health and illness practises

    • D.

      People within an ethnic community often share a common history and identify with one another

    Correct Answer
    B. A country has one ethnic group
    Explanation
    It is false to say that a country has only one ethnic group. Many countries are home to diverse ethnic groups, each with its own unique culture, language, and traditions. For example, the United States, India, and Brazil are multi-ethnic nations. Ethnicity refers to shared cultural characteristics, and a nation can have a variety of ethnic communities living within it.

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  • 16. 

    You and Mr. Long are talking; Mr. Long avoids facing you and steps back from you. Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      Culture influences communication

    • B.

      Culture may affect roles and responsabilities

    • C.

      All people respond to cultural differences in the same way

    • D.

      Culture affects how people view health care and illness

    Correct Answer
    C. All people respond to cultural differences in the same way
    Explanation
    The statement "All people respond to cultural differences in the same way" is false. Cultural responses can vary greatly among individuals based on their background, experiences, and understanding. Cultural differences affect communication, roles, and perceptions of healthcare, but how people react to these differences is not uniform. Personal and contextual factors influence each individual's response to cultural diversity.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following statements about prejudice is false?

    • A.

      Prejudice is an attitude that judges people based on their group membership

    • B.

      In some cases prejudice is acceptable

    • C.

      Prejudice frequently leads to discrimination

    • D.

      Stereotypes are often associated with prejudice

    Correct Answer
    B. In some cases prejudice is acceptable
    Explanation
    Prejudice is an unjustified negative attitude toward individuals or groups based on characteristics like race, religion, or gender. It is generally harmful and not considered acceptable under any circumstances. Prejudice often leads to discrimination—actions that unfairly disadvantage certain groups. Stereotypes, or oversimplified generalizations, frequently contribute to the development of prejudice. While some may attempt to justify prejudice based on cultural or personal beliefs, this does not make it acceptable. Promoting understanding and inclusivity helps combat prejudice and its associated harmful effects on individuals and society.

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  • 18. 

    What are activities of daily living (ADLs)?

    • A.

      Physical exercises that people perform daily to keep themselves fit

    • B.

      Activities that support workers perform to prevent injuries

    • C.

      Self-care activities that people perform daily to remain independent and to function in society

    • D.

      Social and recreational activities

    Correct Answer
    C. Self-care activities that people perform daily to remain independent and to function in society
    Explanation
    The correct answer is self-care activities that people perform daily to remain independent and to function in society. Activities of daily living refer to the basic tasks that individuals need to carry out in order to take care of themselves and maintain their independence. These activities include tasks such as bathing, dressing, eating, using the toilet, and grooming. They are essential for individuals to meet their personal needs and participate in society.

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  • 19. 

    Which statement best describes the role of a Personal Support Worker (PSW) in a healthcare setting?

    • A.

      PSWs are primarily responsible for diagnosing medical conditions and prescribing treatments.

    • B.

      PSWs provide emotional support and counseling to patients and their families.

    • C.

      PSWs assist clients with activities of daily living and provide basic healthcare services under the supervision of registered nurses or other healthcare professionals.

    • D.

      PSWs are trained to perform complex medical procedures such as surgery and anesthesia.

    Correct Answer
    C. PSWs assist clients with activities of daily living and provide basic healthcare services under the supervision of registered nurses or other healthcare professionals.
    Explanation
    Personal Support Workers (PSWs) play a crucial role in assisting clients with activities of daily living, such as bathing, dressing, feeding, and mobility. They may also provide basic healthcare services, such as taking vital signs, monitoring patients' conditions, and administering medications under the supervision of registered nurses or other healthcare professionals. PSWs do not typically diagnose medical conditions or perform complex medical procedures, as these tasks are within the scope of practice of licensed healthcare providers.

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  • 20. 

    What is professionalism?

    • A.

      An approach to work used only by members of regulated professions

    • B.

      An approach to work that demonstrates respect for others, commitment, competence, and appropriate behaviour

    • C.

      A commitment made by regulated professionals

    • D.

      Another term for confidentiality

    Correct Answer
    B. An approach to work that demonstrates respect for others, commitment, competence, and appropriate behaviour
    Explanation
    Professionalism is an approach to work that demonstrates respect for others, commitment, competence, and appropriate behavior. This means that individuals who exhibit professionalism not only show respect towards their colleagues and clients but also display dedication and competence in their work. They adhere to ethical standards, maintain a positive attitude, and conduct themselves in a manner that is appropriate for the workplace. Overall, professionalism encompasses various qualities and behaviors that contribute to a positive work environment and the successful completion of tasks.

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  • 21. 

    Which work setting may provide acute care?

    • A.

      Home care

    • B.

      Long term care facilities

    • C.

      Assisted living facilities

    • D.

      Hospitals

    Correct Answer
    D. Hospitals
    Explanation
    Hospitals may provide acute care because they have the necessary resources, equipment, and medical staff to handle critical and severe medical conditions. They are equipped to provide immediate and intensive medical treatment and interventions for patients who require urgent care. Home care, long term care facilities, and assisted living facilities are not typically equipped to provide the same level of acute care as hospitals.

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  • 22. 

    What type of service aims to provide a temporary break to family caregivers?

    • A.

      Acute-care services

    • B.

      Palliative care

    • C.

      Respite services

    • D.

      Outpatient services

    Correct Answer
    C. Respite services
    Explanation
    Respite services provide temporary relief to family caregivers by giving them a break from caregiving duties. These services can be offered in various settings such as in-home care, adult day programs, or residential care facilities. The goal is to allow caregivers to recharge, reducing the stress and risk of burnout. It helps ensure that caregivers can continue to provide care without compromising their health or well-being.

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  • 23. 

    What type of residents are typically found in retirement facilities?

    • A.

      People with mental illness

    • B.

      Young adults with physical or other disabilities

    • C.

      Frail, older adults with multiple health problems

    • D.

      Older adults with limited care needs

    Correct Answer
    D. Older adults with limited care needs
    Explanation
    Residents in retirement facilities generally include older adults with limited care needs. Retirement facilities are designed to provide housing and support services for older adults who are still relatively independent but may require some assistance with daily activities. These facilities often offer amenities such as meals, housekeeping, transportation, and social activities to enhance the residents' quality of life. The focus is on providing a safe and comfortable environment for older adults who do not require extensive medical or personal care.

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  • 24. 

    The membership of a healthcare team is determined by:

    • A.

      The client's needs

    • B.

      The RN'S needs

    • C.

      The physician's needs

    • D.

      The needs of the client's family

    Correct Answer
    A. The client's needs
    Explanation
    The membership of a healthcare team is determined by the client's needs because the primary goal of any healthcare team is to provide the best possible care and support to the client. The team members are selected based on their expertise and skills that align with the specific needs of the client. This ensures that the client receives appropriate and comprehensive care, tailored to their individual requirements. The client's needs act as the guiding factor in determining the composition of the healthcare team, ensuring that all aspects of their care are addressed effectively.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is a benefit of the team approach to healthcare?

    • A.

      Opportunities for confidenciality

    • B.

      Opportunities for delegation

    • C.

      Opportunities for colaboration

    • D.

      Opportunities for assignment of tasks

    Correct Answer
    C. Opportunities for colaboration
    Explanation
    The team approach to healthcare offers opportunities for collaboration among healthcare professionals. Collaboration allows for the sharing of knowledge, expertise, and resources, leading to improved patient outcomes. By working together, healthcare team members can combine their skills and perspectives to develop comprehensive and effective treatment plans. Collaboration also promotes communication and coordination, ensuring that all team members are on the same page and working towards a common goal. This approach fosters a supportive and cohesive healthcare environment, enhancing the quality of care provided to patients.

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  • 26. 

    In a community setting, who usually assesses, monitors, and evaluates a client's needs and coordinates the services of the healthcare team?

    • A.

      The family physician

    • B.

      The case manager

    • C.

      The occupational therapist

    • D.

      The social worker

    Correct Answer
    B. The case manager
    Explanation
    The case manager is responsible for assessing, monitoring, and evaluating a client's needs in a community setting. They also coordinate the services provided by the healthcare team. This role involves collaborating with various healthcare professionals, such as the family physician, occupational therapist, and social worker, to ensure that the client's needs are met effectively. The case manager plays a crucial role in coordinating and managing the overall care and services provided to the client in a community setting.

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  • 27. 

    If an RN delegates a task to you, which statement is true? 

    • A.

      The RNis completely responsible for your actions, you are not responsible

    • B.

      The RN has overall responsibility for your actions, you are also responsible

    • C.

      You are completely responsible for your actions, the RN is not responsible

    • D.

      Neither you or the RN are responsible

    Correct Answer
    B. The RN has overall responsibility for your actions, you are also responsible
    Explanation
    When an RN delegates a task to you, it means that they are entrusting you with the responsibility of completing that task. However, this does not absolve you from being accountable for your actions. The RN still retains overall responsibility for your actions as they are ultimately responsible for the care provided to the patient. Therefore, both you and the RN are responsible for your actions when a task is delegated to you.

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  • 28. 

    What is stress?

    • A.

      The way you cope with and adjust to every day living

    • B.

      The emotional, behavioral, or physical response to an event or situacion

    • C.

      A mental or emotional disorder

    • D.

      A thought or idea

    Correct Answer
    B. The emotional, behavioral, or pHysical response to an event or situacion
    Explanation
    Stress is the emotional, behavioral, or physical reaction that occurs when individuals face a challenging situation. It can manifest in various ways, such as anxiety, increased heart rate, or irritability. Stress is not inherently a mental or emotional disorder but can contribute to the development of such conditions. The intensity of stress depends on personal factors, such as temperament and coping mechanisms.

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  • 29. 

    Which factor does not influence a person's reaction to a stressor?

    • A.

      Past experiences with the same stressor

    • B.

      The person's sex

    • C.

      The number of stressors present

    • D.

      The person's temperament or personality

    Correct Answer
    B. The person's sex
    Explanation
    A person's sex does not influence their reaction to a stressor. Stressors can affect individuals regardless of their gender. Factors such as past experiences with the same stressor, the number of stressors present, and the person's temperament or personality can all play a role in how an individual reacts to stress. However, gender does not have a direct impact on how a person responds to a stressor.

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  • 30. 

    You are angry with a co-worker but yell at a friend instead. What defense mechanism is this?

    • A.

      Denial

    • B.

      Conversion

    • C.

      Displacement

    • D.

      Compensation

    Correct Answer
    C. Displacement
    Explanation
    Displacement is the defense mechanism being exhibited in this scenario. Displacement occurs when a person redirects their feelings or emotions from their original source onto a less threatening target. In this case, the individual is angry with their co-worker but instead of expressing their anger towards them, they yell at their friend. This allows them to release their anger in a safer way, avoiding potential conflict with their co-worker.

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  • 31. 

    Goals should be SMART. What does SMART stand for?

    • A.

      Simple, monthly allowable, reasonable, timely

    • B.

      Specific, ,measurable, achievable, realistic, timely.

    • C.

      Simple, measurable, achievable, reasonable, topical

    • D.

      Specific, monthly, allowable, realistic, topical

    Correct Answer
    B. Specific, ,measurable, achievable, realistic, timely.
    Explanation
    SMART stands for specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and timely. This acronym is commonly used in goal-setting to ensure that goals are well-defined, trackable, attainable, relevant, and have a clear deadline. By setting SMART goals, individuals and organizations can increase their chances of success by providing clarity and focus, enabling effective planning and monitoring progress towards their objectives.

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  • 32. 

    Providing a safe environment is an example of which ethical principle?

    • A.

      Autonomy

    • B.

      Justice

    • C.

      Beneficence

    • D.

      Nonmaleficence

    Correct Answer
    D. Nonmaleficence
    Explanation
    Providing a safe environment is an example of nonmaleficence because it focuses on preventing harm or minimizing the risk of harm to individuals. By creating a safe environment, the intention is to ensure that no harm is caused to others, which aligns with the principle of nonmaleficence. This principle emphasizes the importance of avoiding harm and promoting the well-being of individuals.

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  • 33. 

    Respecting personal preferences is an example of:

    • A.

      Autonomy

    • B.

      Justice

    • C.

      Beneficence

    • D.

      Nonmaleficence

    Correct Answer
    A. Autonomy
    Explanation
    Respecting personal preferences is an example of autonomy because it refers to the individual's right to make decisions and choices regarding their own life, free from external interference or influence. Respecting personal preferences acknowledges and upholds the principle of autonomy, allowing individuals to exercise their own autonomy and have control over their own lives and decisions.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not a function of the health care plan?

    • A.

      To provide a central reference point on the client's health problems, needs, treatment and care

    • B.

      To enable the health care team to communicate with each other about the client

    • C.

      To ensure that everyone provides the same care

    • D.

      To provide information about the client that never changes

    Correct Answer
    D. To provide information about the client that never changes
    Explanation
    While a health care plan does aim to provide comprehensive information about the client's health problems, needs, treatment, and care, it does not necessarily ensure that this information never changes. Client information may change over time due to various factors such as changes in health status, treatments, or personal circumstances. Therefore, the statement that the information never changes is not accurate.

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  • 35. 

    Mrs. Muyama says, "I didn't sleep at all last night because of the pain in my back." This is:

    • A.

      A nursing diagnosis

    • B.

      Subjective data

    • C.

      An intervention

    • D.

      Objective data

    Correct Answer
    B. Subjective data
    Explanation
    Mrs. Muyama's statement reflects her personal experience and perception of the pain she is feeling, which makes it subjective data. Subjective data is information shared by the patient that cannot be directly observed or measured by others. This type of data is crucial in understanding the patient's condition and guiding appropriate care. It provides insight into how the patient feels and their challenges, which helps healthcare professionals in planning treatment and interventions.

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  • 36. 

    What is the purpose of a graphic sheet in healthcare?

    • A.

      Records a client's activities of daily living (ADL's)

    • B.

      Is used to record measurements and observations made three to four times per day

    • C.

      Contains information about the care given, the client responses to care, and observations about the client's condition

    • D.

      Summarizes a client's care and services over a period of time

    Correct Answer
    B. Is used to record measurements and observations made three to four times per day
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is used to record measurements and observations made three to four times per day". This answer accurately describes the purpose and function of a graphic sheet. It explains that the sheet is used to record measurements and observations, and specifies that these recordings are made three to four times per day. This suggests that the graphic sheet is a tool for tracking and monitoring a client's activities and progress throughout the day.

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  • 37. 

    In 24-hour time, what does 1330 represent?

    • A.

      3:30 pm

    • B.

      3:30 am

    • C.

      1:30 pm

    • D.

      1:30 am

    Correct Answer
    C. 1:30 pm
    Explanation
    In 24-hour time, the first two digits (13) represent the hour, and the last two digits (30) represent the minutes. Since 13 hours is in the afternoon (after 12 PM), 1330 represents 1:30 PM. The 24-hour clock system is commonly used in military and medical settings, where the time starts at 00:00 (midnight) and goes until 23:59. It eliminates the need for AM or PM designations.

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  • 38. 

    During an exchange of information, a message is sent from:

    • A.

      From a speaker to receiver

    • B.

      From a receiver to a speaker

    • C.

      From a speaker to speaker

    • D.

      Without feedback

    Correct Answer
    A. From a speaker to receiver
    Explanation
    During an exchange of information, a message is sent from a speaker to a receiver. This implies that the speaker is the one initiating the communication by conveying the message, while the receiver is the intended recipient of the message. The other options, such as "from a receiver to a speaker" or "from a speaker to speaker," do not accurately represent the typical flow of communication where one person is speaking and the other is listening. Additionally, the option "without feedback" is not chosen as it does not specify the direction of the message.

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  • 39. 

    Which statement is false about verbal communication?

    • A.

      Verbal communication involves the spoken word

    • B.

      Verbal communication is the truest reflexion of a person's feelings

    • C.

      Messages can be sent by facial expressions, gestures, posture, body movements, appearance, and eye contact

    • D.

      Touch means different things to different people

    Correct Answer
    B. Verbal communication is the truest reflexion of a person's feelings
    Explanation
    Verbal communication involves the spoken word, but it is not necessarily the truest reflection of a person's feelings. Non-verbal communication, which includes facial expressions, gestures, posture, body movements, appearance, and eye contact, can also convey a person's emotions and thoughts. Touch, on the other hand, can have different meanings to different people, further highlighting the complexity of communication and the limitations of relying solely on verbal expression to understand someone's feelings.

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  • 40. 

    You and Mrs Jones are talking about her surgery. Which of the following is a closed question?

    • A.

      Do you feel better now?

    • B.

      Tell me what your plans are for home?

    • C.

      What would you do when you fully recover?

    • D.

      You said that you would be off work for a while?

    Correct Answer
    A. Do you feel better now?
    Explanation
    A closed question is one that can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no," providing limited information. "Do you feel better now?" is a closed question because it does not encourage elaboration or discussion. In contrast, open-ended questions such as "Tell me what your plans are for home" require the respondent to provide more detailed answers, promoting dialogue. Closed questions are useful for gathering specific information quickly, but they may not foster deeper conversations or insights, which are often necessary in therapeutic or supportive contexts.

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  • 41. 

    When is focusing a useful communication tool?

    • A.

      A person is rambling

    • B.

      You want to make sure you understand the message

    • C.

      You want the person to share thoughts and feelings

    • D.

      You need information

    Correct Answer
    A. A person is rambling
    Explanation
    Focusing is a useful communication tool when a person is rambling because it helps to bring the conversation back on track and maintain clarity. When someone is rambling, they may be going off-topic or providing excessive information that is not relevant to the main message. By using focusing techniques, such as asking specific questions or summarizing key points, you can redirect the conversation and ensure that the intended message is understood.

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  • 42. 

    Which statement will promote communication?

    • A.

      Don't worry.

    • B.

      Everything will be just fine.

    • C.

      This is a good facility.

    • D.

      Why are you crying?

    Correct Answer
    D. Why are you crying?
    Explanation
    Asking "Why are you crying?" promotes communication because it shows empathy and a willingness to understand the other person's feelings. This question opens a dialogue and creates an opportunity to listen and offer support. It encourages the individual to express their emotions, which is important for effective communication. In contrast, the other responses ("Don't worry," "Everything will be just fine," "This is a good facility") may dismiss the person's feelings or fail to engage them in meaningful conversation. Listening is a key component of promoting communication.

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  • 43. 

    Which is not a barrier to communication? 

    • A.

      Interrupting

    • B.

      Repeating what the person says

    • C.

      Answering for the person

    • D.

      Giving advise

    Correct Answer
    B. Repeating what the person says
    Explanation
    Repeating what the person says is not a barrier to communication because it shows active listening and understanding. When someone repeats what the person says, it indicates that they are paying attention and trying to comprehend the message. This can enhance communication by confirming that the message was understood correctly and allowing for clarification if needed. Unlike interrupting, answering for the person, or giving advice, repeating what the person says promotes effective communication and encourages open dialogue.

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  • 44. 

    People with receptive aphasia have problems with?

    • A.

      Speaking and writing

    • B.

      Understanding language

    • C.

      Moving the mouth, tongue and lips

    • D.

      Speaking and understanding language

    Correct Answer
    B. Understanding language
    Explanation
    People with receptive aphasia have difficulty understanding spoken or written language. This condition affects their ability to comprehend what is being said or written to them, even though they can speak fluently and produce grammatically correct sentences. The problem lies in processing the meaning of the words. While receptive aphasia affects comprehension, it does not typically impair the ability to speak or write, although speech may be nonsensical or have improper word choices.

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  • 45. 

    What causes apraxia of speech?

    • A.

      Brain injury

    • B.

      Weakness in the muscles used to speak

    • C.

      Paralysis in the muscles used to speak

    • D.

      Lack of coordination in the muscles used to speak

    Correct Answer
    A. Brain injury
    Explanation
    Apraxia of speech is a motor speech disorder that is caused by a brain injury. This injury affects the brain's ability to plan and coordinate the movements necessary for speech production. As a result, individuals with apraxia of speech have difficulty coordinating the muscles used for speaking, leading to inconsistent and inaccurate speech production. Weakness or paralysis in the muscles used to speak may be present in some cases, but the underlying cause is the brain injury itself.

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  • 46. 

    What is the primary role of a Personal Support Worker (PSW) in managing a client's medication under the guidelines of NAAC?

    • A.

      PSWs are responsible for prescribing medication for clients.

    • B.

      PSWs should administer medication as directed by a healthcare professional and document the administration.

    • C.

      PSWs are responsible for adjusting medication dosages based on client feedback. 

    • D.

      PSWs should advise clients on alternative medications if the current ones are ineffective.

    Correct Answer
    B. PSWs should administer medication as directed by a healthcare professional and document the administration.
    Explanation
    Personal Support Workers (PSWs) play a crucial role in assisting clients with their daily activities, including medication management. According to the guidelines, PSWs are not licensed to prescribe or adjust medications; those tasks are reserved for licensed healthcare professionals such as doctors and nurses. However, PSWs are typically trained to administer medication exactly as prescribed by a healthcare professional and are responsible for accurately documenting each administration to ensure consistency and safety in the care provided. This includes noting the time, dose, and any immediate effects or issues following the administration.

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  • 47. 

    How are people with speech and language disorders often affected emotionally?

    • A.

      Have the same emotional reactions as those without

    • B.

      Are not affected emotionally

    • C.

      Often have problems relating to family and friends

    • D.

      Cannot improve their communication

    Correct Answer
    C. Often have problems relating to family and friends
    Explanation
    People with speech and language disorders often face emotional challenges, particularly in social interactions. Difficulty communicating can lead to misunderstandings, frustration, and isolation, making it harder to connect with family and friends. Over time, these challenges can impact relationships and self-esteem, highlighting the importance of communication support and therapy.

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  • 48. 

    Mr. Poulin has Meniere's disease. Which of the following is likely true?

    • A.

      He has a middle ear infection.

    • B.

      Vertigo is a major symptom.

    • C.

      Hearing aids will correct the problem.

    • D.

      He has vision problems because of it.

    Correct Answer
    B. Vertigo is a major symptom.
    Explanation
    Meniere's disease is a disorder of the inner ear that can cause vertigo, which is a sensation of spinning or dizziness. It is characterized by episodes of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ears), and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the affected ear. Therefore, it is likely true that vertigo is a major symptom of Mr. Poulin's Meniere's disease.

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  • 49. 

    Which effect of hearing problems is often not obvious to others?

    • A.

      Loneliness and social isolation

    • B.

      Talking to loudly

    • C.

      Asking to repeat things

    • D.

      Answering questions inappropriately

    Correct Answer
    A. Loneliness and social isolation
    Explanation
    Hearing problems often lead to loneliness and social isolation because individuals with hearing difficulties may struggle to engage in conversations, leading to withdrawal from social situations. While symptoms like talking too loudly, asking to repeat things, or answering questions inappropriately are observable, the emotional and social effects of hearing loss are more subtle. These effects can result in feelings of isolation, but they are often less visible to others compared to the physical signs of hearing impairment.

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  • 50. 

    If Mr. Poulin's hearing aid is not working, what is the first thing you should check?

    • A.

      See if its turned on

    • B.

      Wash the hearing aid with soap and water

    • C.

      Have it repaired

    • D.

      Change the batteries

    Correct Answer
    A. See if its turned on
    Explanation
    When a hearing aid is not working, the first step should be to check if it is turned on. Often, the issue could simply be that the device was accidentally turned off or the battery was not properly connected. If the device is on and still not working, then you can move on to troubleshooting steps like changing the battery, cleaning it, or seeking professional repair.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 17, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 20, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Guelphstylists
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