Integumentary Disorders

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  • 1/90 Questions

    A nurse is changing a dressing and providing wound care. Which activity should she perform first?

    • Assess the drainage in the dressing.
    • Slowly remove the soiled dressing.
    • Wash her hands thoroughly.
    • Put on latex gloves.
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge on Integumentary Disorders, focusing on client care, medication effects, and clinical manifestations post-injury. It is designed for nursing professionals and students to enhance understanding of integumentary system management and patient education.

Integumentary Disorders - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A nurse is caring for a client with a postoperative wound evisceration. Which action should the nurse perform first?

    • Explain to the client what is happening and provide support.

    • Cover the protruding internal organs with sterile gauze moistened with sterile saline solution.

    • Push the protruding organs back into the abdominal cavity.

    • Ask the client to drink as much fluid as possible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cover the protruding internal organs with sterile gauze moistened with sterile saline solution.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Immediately covering the wound with moistened gauze prevents the organs from drying. The gauze and the saline solution must be sterile to reduce the risk of infection. Although providing support to reduce the client's anxiety is important, it isn't the priority nursing action. The organs shouldn't be pushed back into the abdomen; doing so may tear or damage them. Evisceration requires emergency surgery; therefore, the nurse should put the client on nothing-by-mouth status immediately.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 546.

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  • 3. 

    A triage nurse in the emergency department admits a male client with second-degree burns on the anterior and posterior portions of both legs. Based on the Rule of Nines, what percentage of the body is burned? __ %

    Correct Answer
    36
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The anterior and posterior portion of one leg is 18%. If both legs are burned, the total is 36%.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1998.

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  • 4. 

    A client, who is bound to a wheelchair, comes to the clinic for follow-up evaluation of pressure ulcers on his buttocks. The client reports that his family has been changing his hydrocolloid dressings every 3 to 5 days. During the past few weeks, he has been spending less time in his wheelchair, and when he does use the wheelchair he uses a cushion. During his appointment the nurse notes that he isn't using a cushion, and that the wound is covered with a dry sterile dressing. How should the nurse approach the client about his treatment regimen?

    • Do nothing because the client is able to make his own care decisions.

    • Tell the client not to return to the clinic because he isn't following the treatment plan.

    • Explain pressure ulcer development in terms he understands.

    • Provide a brief anatomy and physiology lesson on how pressure ulcers develop.

    Correct Answer
    A. Explain pressure ulcer development in terms he understands.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should provide further teaching to the client in terms that he understands. The client should be using a cushion to sit on to reduce pressure and the wound should be kept moist to promote healing. The client can make his own care decisions; however, the nurse must ensure that he has available knowledge to make an informed decision. Although the client isn't following the treatment plan, the nurse should explore the reason why. She shouldn't recommend that he not return to the clinic. An anatomy and physiology lesson isn't necessary.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 513.

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  • 5. 

    A client in a semiprivate room is diagnosed with pediculosis corpus. A nurse will initiate treatment after moving the client to another room. The client's roommate asks the nurse for information about the client. What should the nurse say?

    • You don't have to worry; you can't catch pediculosis.

    • I'm sorry; I can't share confidential information.

    • I'm moving the client because he has a communicable infection.

    • That's none of your business.

    Correct Answer
    A. I'm sorry; I can't share confidential information.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse must advise the client's roommate that she can't discuss the other client's health care information. Providing specific or even vague information about the client's diagnosis is a breech of confidentiality. Advising the roommate that it's none of his business is rude and isn't therapeutic communication.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 129.

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  • 6. 

    A physician orders an emollient for a client with pruritus of recent onset. The client asks why the emollient should be applied immediately after a bath or shower. How should the nurse respond?

    • To make the skin feel soft.

    • To prevent evaporation of water from the hydrated epidermis.

    • To minimize cracking of the dermis.

    • To prevent skin inflammation.

    Correct Answer
    A. To prevent evaporation of water from the hydrated epidermis.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should tell the client that applying an emollient immediately after taking a bath or shower prevents evaporation of water from the hydrated epidermis, the skin's upper layer. Although emollients make the skin feel soft, this effect occurs whether or not the client has just bathed or showered. An emollient minimizes cracking of the epidermis, not the dermis (the layer beneath the epidermis). An emollient doesn't prevent skin inflammation.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1949.

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  • 7. 

    A client has partial-thickness burns on both lower extremities and portions of the trunk. Which I.V. fluid does the nurse plan to administer first?

    • Albumin

    • Dextrose 5% in water (D5W)

    • Lactated Ringer's solution

    • Normal saline solution with 20 mEq of potassium per 1,000 ml

    Correct Answer
    A. Lactated Ringer's solution
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Lactated Ringer's solution replaces lost sodium and corrects metabolic acidosis, both of which commonly occur following a burn. Albumin is used as adjunct therapy, not as primary fluid replacement. D5W isn't given to burn clients during the first 24 hours because it can cause pseudodiabetes. The client is hyperkalemic as a result of the potassium shift from the intracellular space to the plasma, so giving potassium would be detrimental.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2008.

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  • 8. 

    Which nutritional deficiency may delay wound healing?

    • Lack of vitamin D

    • Lack of vitamin C

    • Lack of vitamin E

    • Lack of calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Lack of vitamin C
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Vitamins A, C, and K; pyridoxine; riboflavin; and thiamin are necessary for wound healing. Adequate protein intake is necessary for improving skin integrity. Vitamin D and calcium are necessary for bone healing. Vitamin E isn't necessary for wound healing.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 208.

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  • 9. 

    When planning care for a client with burns on the upper torso, which nursing diagnosis should take the highest priority?

    • Ineffective airway clearance related to edema of the respiratory passages

    • Impaired physical mobility related to the disease process

    • Disturbed sleep pattern related to facility environment

    • Risk for infection related to breaks in the skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema of the respiratory passages
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: When caring for a client with upper torso burns, the nurse's primary goal is to maintain respiratory integrity. Therefore, Ineffective airway clearance related to edema of the respiratory passages should take the highest priority. Impaired physical mobility related to the disease process isn't appropriate because burns aren't a disease. Disturbed sleep pattern related to facility environment and Risk for infection related to breaks in the skin may be appropriate, but they don't command a higher priority than Ineffective airway clearance because they don't reflect immediately life-threatening problems.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2010.

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  • 10. 

    A client is diagnosed with herpes simplex. Which statement about herpes simplex infection is true?

    • During early pregnancy, herpes simplex infection may cause spontaneous abortion or premature birth.

    • Genital herpes simplex lesions are painless, fluid-filled vesicles that ulcerate and heal in 3 to 7 days.

    • Herpetic keratoconjunctivitis usually is bilateral and causes systemic symptoms.

    • A client with genital herpes lesions may have sexual contact but must use a condom.

    Correct Answer
    A. During early pregnancy, herpes simplex infection may cause spontaneous abortion or premature birth.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Herpes simplex may be passed to the fetus transplacentally and, during early pregnancy, may cause spontaneous abortion or premature birth. Genital herpes simplex lesions typically are painful, fluid-filled vesicles that ulcerate and heal within 1 to 2 weeks. Herpetic keratoconjunctivitis usually is unilateral and causes localized symptoms, such as conjunctivitis. A client with genital herpes lesions should avoid all sexual contact to prevent spreading the disease.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1667.

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  • 11. 

    During the acute phase of a burn, a nurse should assess:

    • The client's lifestyle.

    • Alcohol use.

    • Tobacco use.

    • Circulatory status.

    Correct Answer
    A. Circulatory status.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: During the acute phase of a burn, the nurse should assess the client's circulatory and respiratory status, vital signs, fluid intake and output, ability to move, bowel sounds, wounds, and mental status. Information about the client's lifestyle and alcohol and tobacco use may be obtained later when the client's condition has stabilized.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2009.

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  • 12. 

    A nurse is developing a care plan for a client recovering from a serious thermal burn. After maintaining respirations, the nurse knows that the most important immediate goal of therapy is:

    • Planning for the client's rehabilitation and discharge.

    • Providing emotional support to the client and family.

    • Maintaining the client's fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance.

    • Preserving full range of motion in all affected joints.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintaining the client's fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: After maintaining respirations, the most important immediate goal of therapy for a client with a serious thermal burn is to maintain fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance to avoid potentially life-threatening complications, such as shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation, respiratory failure, cardiac failure, and acute tubular necrosis. Planning for the client's rehabilitation and discharge, providing emotional support, and preserving full range of motion in all affected joints are important aspects of care but don't take precedence over maintaining the client's fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2005.

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  • 13. 

    Which nursing intervention can help a client maintain healthy skin?

    • Keeping the client well hydrated

    • Avoiding bathing the client with mild soap

    • Removing adhesive tape quickly from the skin

    • Recommending wearing tight-fitting clothes in hot weather

    Correct Answer
    A. Keeping the client well hydrated
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Keeping the client well hydrated helps prevent skin cracking and infection because intact healthy skin is the body's first line of defense. To help a client maintain healthy skin, the nurse should avoid strong or harsh detergents and should use mild soap. The nurse shouldn't remove adhesive tape quickly because this action can strip or scrape the skin. The nurse should recommend wearing loose-fitting — not tight-fitting — clothes in hot weather to promote heat loss by evaporation.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 208.

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  • 14. 

    A client with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns on the arms receives autografts. Two days later, the nurse finds the client doing arm exercises. The nurse provides additional client teaching because these exercises may:

    • Dislodge the autografts.

    • Increase edema in the arms.

    • Increase the amount of scarring.

    • Decrease circulation to the fingers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dislodge the autografts.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Because exercising the autograft sites may dislodge the grafted tissue, the nurse should advise the client to keep the grafted extremity in a neutral position. Exercise doesn't cause increased edema, increased scarring, or decreased circulation.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2023.

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  • 15. 

    A client visits the physician's office for treatment of a skin disorder. As a primary treatment, the nurse expects the physician to order:

    • An I.V. corticosteroid.

    • An I.V. antibiotic.

    • An oral antibiotic.

    • A topical agent.

    Correct Answer
    A. A topical agent.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Although many drugs are used to treat skin disorders, topical agents — not I.V. or oral agents — are the mainstay of treatment.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1948.

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  • 16. 

    While in a skilled nursing facility, a client contracts scabies, which is diagnosed the day after discharge. The client is living at her daughter's home with six other people. During her visit to the clinic, the client asks a staff nurse, "What should my family do?" The most accurate response from the nurse is:

    • All family members need to be treated.

    • If someone develops symptoms, tell him to see a physician right away.

    • Just be careful not to share linens and towels with family members.

    • After you're treated, family members won't be at risk for contracting scabies.

    Correct Answer
    A. All family members need to be treated.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: When someone sharing a home with others contracts scabies, all individuals in the home need prompt treatment whether or not they're symptomatic. Towels and linens should be washed in hot water. Scabies can be transmitted from one person to another before symptoms develop.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1963.

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  • 17. 

    A client with a sacral pressure ulcer is limited to 2 hours of chair sitting two times per day. She is scheduled for physical therapy three times per day and dressing changes two times per day. How can the nurse best coordinate this client's care?

    • Ask the physician if physical therapy can be changed to twice per day so the client needs to get out of bed only twice.

    • Coordinate physical therapy with getting the client out of bed for breakfast and dinner, then request bedside physical therapy for the third session.

    • Request bedside physical therapy for all three sessions so the client can get out of bed when she wants.

    • Ask the physician to discontinue physical therapy until the client has no activity limitations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coordinate physical therapy with getting the client out of bed for breakfast and dinner, then request bedside physical therapy for the third session.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should attempt to coordinate physical therapy with getting the client out of bed for breakfast and dinner. She should then request bedside physical therapy for the third session until the client has no activity limitations. Coordinating the client's activities optimizes the client's ability to participate in physical therapy because she can go to the physical therapy department for therapy. Discontinuing therapy sessions places the client at risk for complications associated with immobility.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 313.

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  • 18. 

    A female client is diagnosed with primary herpes genitalis. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

    • Apply one applicator of terconazole intravaginally at bedtime for 7 days.

    • Apply one applicator of tioconazole intravaginally at bedtime for 7 days.

    • Apply acyclovir ointment to the lesions every 3 hours, six times per day for 7 days.

    • Apply sulconazole nitrate twice daily by massaging it gently into the lesions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply acyclovir ointment to the lesions every 3 hours, six times per day for 7 days.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: A client with primary herpes genitalis should apply topical acyclovir ointment in sufficient quantities to cover the lesions every 3 hours, six times per day for 7 days. Terconazole and tioconazole treat vulvovaginal candidiasis. Sulconazole nitrate treats tinea versicolor.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Karch, A.M. 2007 Lippincott's Nursing Drug Guide. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 76.

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  • 19. 

    A nurse visits the employee health department because of mild itching and a rash on both hands. During the assessment interview, the employee health nurse should focus on:

    • Medication allergies.

    • Life stressors the nurse may be experiencing.

    • Chemical and latex glove use.

    • Laundry detergent or bath soap changes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chemical and latex glove use.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Because the itching and rash are localized, the employee health nurse should suspect an environmental cause in the workplace. With the advent of standard precautions, many nurses have experienced allergies to latex gloves. Allergies to medications, laundry detergents, or bath soaps or dermatologic reactions to stress usually elicit a more generalized or widespread rash.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1881.

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  • 20. 

    A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client with atopic dermatitis. Which instruction should the nurse include in her teaching plan?

    • Wear only synthetic fabrics.

    • Use a topical skin moisturizer daily.

    • Bathe only three times per week.

    • Keep the thermostat above 75° F (23.9° C).

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a topical skin moisturizer daily.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct the client to use a topical skin moisturizer daily to help keep the skin hydrated. Likewise, the client should be encouraged to bathe daily. To minimize irritation, the client should wear only cotton fabrics. The client should maintain a room temperature between 68° F (20° C) and 72° F (22.2° C).

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1878.

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  • 21. 

    A registered nurse (RN) is working with the licensed practical nurse (LPN) to care for a group of clients in a nursing home. How should the RN expect the LPN to communicate changes in the clients' wound status?

    • The LPN speaks directly to the physician.

    • The LPN informs the RN when a wound heals.

    • The LPN informs the RN only if a wound worsens.

    • The RN communicates daily with the LPN about the condition of each resident.

    Correct Answer
    A. The RN communicates daily with the LPN about the condition of each resident.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: It's within the scope of LPN practice to communicate with the physician; however, the RN should communicate daily with the LPN about the condition of each nursing home resident. The RN should be kept abreast of all changes in clients' conditions as they occur.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 323.

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  • 22. 

    A nurse is teaching a client with a leg ulcer about tissue repair and wound healing. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching?

    • I'll limit my intake of protein.

    • I'll make sure that the bandage is wrapped tightly.

    • My foot should feel cold.

    • I'll eat plenty of fruits and vegetables.

    Correct Answer
    A. I'll eat plenty of fruits and vegetables.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: For effective tissue healing, adequate intake of protein, and vitamins A, B complex, C, D, E, and K are needed. Therefore, the client should eat a high-protein diet with plenty of fruits and vegetables to provide these nutrients. The bandage should be secure but not tight enough to impede circulation to the area (which is needed for tissue repair). If the client's foot feels cold, circulation is impaired, thus inhibiting wound healing.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 212.

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  • 23. 

    In an industrial accident, a client who weighs 155 lb (70 kg) sustained full-thickness burns over 40% of his body. He's in the burn unit receiving fluid resuscitation. Which finding shows that the fluid resuscitation is benefiting the client?

    • A urine output consistently above 40 ml/hour

    • A weight gain of 4 lb (2 kg) in 24 hours

    • Body temperature readings all within normal limits

    • An electrocardiogram (ECG) showing no arrhythmias

    Correct Answer
    A. A urine output consistently above 40 ml/hour
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: In a client with burns, the goal of fluid resuscitation is to maintain a mean arterial blood pressure that provides adequate perfusion of vital structures. If the kidneys are adequately perfused, they will produce an acceptable urine output of at least 0.5 ml/kg/hour. Thus, the expected urine output of a 155-lb client is 35 ml/hour, and a urine output consistently above 40 ml/hour is adequate. Weight gain from fluid resuscitation isn't a goal. In fact, a 4-lb weight gain in 24 hours suggests third spacing. Body temperature readings and ECG interpretations may demonstrate secondary benefits of fluid resuscitation but aren't primary indicators.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2005.

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  • 24. 

    A 10-year-old child is brought to the office with complaints of severe itching in both hands that's especially annoying at night. On inspection, the nurse notes gray-brown burrows with epidermal curved ridges and follicular papules. The physician performs a lesion scraping to assess this condition. Based on the signs and symptoms, what diagnosis should the nurse expect?

    • Impetigo

    • Scabies

    • Contact dermatitis

    • Dermatophytosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Scabies
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Signs and symptoms of scabies include gray-brown burrows, epidermal curved or linear ridges, and follicular papules. Clients complain of severe itching that usually occurs at night. Scabies commonly occurs in school-age children. The most common areas of infestation are the finger webs, flexor surface of the wrists, and antecubital fossae. Impetigo is a contagious, superficial skin infection characterized by a small, red macule that turns into a vesicle, becoming pustular with a honey-colored crust. Contact dermatitis is an inflammation of the skin caused by contact with an irritating chemical or allergen. Dermatophytosis, or ringworm, is a disease that affects the scalp, body, feet, nails, and groin. It's characterized by erythematous patches and scaling.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1963.

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  • 25. 

    Which instruction is the most important to give a client who has recently had a skin graft?

    • Continue physical therapy.

    • Protect the graft from direct sunlight.

    • Use cosmetic camouflage techniques.

    • Apply lubricating lotion to the graft site.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect the graft from direct sunlight.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: To prevent burning and sloughing, the nurse must instruct the client to protect the graft from direct sunlight. Continuing physical therapy, using cosmetic camouflage techniques, and applying lotion to the graft site are appropriate instructions, but they aren't the most important concern in the client's recovery.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2035.

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  • 26. 

    To treat a client with acne vulgaris, the physician is most likely to order which topical agent for nightly application?

    • Minoxidil (Rogaine)

    • Tretinoin (retinoic acid [Retin-A])

    • Zinc oxide gelatin

    • Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5-FU [Efudex])

    Correct Answer
    A. Tretinoin (retinoic acid [Retin-A])
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Tretinoin is a topical agent applied nightly to treat acne vulgaris. Minoxidil promotes hair growth. Zinc oxide gelatin treats stasis dermatitis on the lower legs. Fluorouracil is an antineoplastic topical agent that treats superficial basal cell carcinoma.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1955.

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  • 27. 

    In a client who has been burned, which medication should the nurse expect to use to prevent infection?

    • Lindane (Kwell)

    • Diazepam (Valium)

    • Mafenide (Sulfamylon)

    • Meperidine (Demerol)

    Correct Answer
    A. Mafenide (Sulfamylon)
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The topical antibiotic mafenide is ordered to prevent infection in clients with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns. Lindane is a pediculicide used to treat lice infestation. Diazepam is an antianxiety agent that may be administered to clients with burns, but not to prevent infection. The opioid analgesic meperidine is used to help control pain in clients with burns.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2016.

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  • 28. 

    A client presents with blistering wounds caused by an unknown chemical agent. How should the nurse intervene?

    • Do nothing until the chemical agent is identified.

    • Irrigate the wounds with water.

    • Wash the wounds with soap and water and apply a barrier cream.

    • Insert a 20-gauge I.V. catheter and infuse normal saline solution at 150 ml/hour.

    Correct Answer
    A. Irrigate the wounds with water.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should begin treatment by irrigating the wounds with water. Delaying treatment until the agent is identified allows the agent to cause further tissue damage. Washing the wounds with soap and water might cause a chemical reaction that may further damage tissue. The client may require I.V. fluid; however, the wounds should be irrigated first.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2003.

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  • 29. 

    The physician orders "acyclovir (Zovirax), 200 mg P.O., every 4 hours while awake" for a client with herpes zoster. The nurse should inform the client that this drug may cause:

    • Palpitations.

    • Dizziness.

    • Diarrhea.

    • A metallic taste.

    Correct Answer
    A. Diarrhea.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Oral acyclovir may cause such adverse GI effects as diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. It isn't associated with palpitations, dizziness, or a metallic taste.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Karch, A.M. 2007 Lippincott's Nursing Drug Guide. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 77.

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  • 30. 

    Which term describes a fungal infection of the scalp?

    • Tinea capitis

    • Tinea corporis

    • Tinea cruris

    • Tinea pedis

    Correct Answer
    A. Tinea capitis
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp. Tinea corporis involves fungal infections of the body. Tinea cruris describes fungal infections of the inner thigh and inguinal creases. Tinea pedis is the term for fungal infections of the foot.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1961.

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  • 31. 

    After sustaining a stroke, a client is transferred to the rehabilitation unit. The medical-surgical nurse reviews the client's residual neurological deficits with the rehabilitation nurse. Which neurological deficit places the client at risk for skin breakdown?

    • Right-sided visual deficit and dysarthria

    • Incontinence and right-sided hemiparesis

    • Dysarthria and left-sided visual deficit

    • Constipation and lower extremity weakness

    Correct Answer
    A. Incontinence and right-sided hemiparesis
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Incontinence and right-sided hemiparesis place the client at risk for skin breakdown. Visual deficits, dysarthria, constipation, and lower extremity weakness don't place the client at risk for skin breakdown.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 208.

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  • 32. 

    A nurse is performing a baseline assessment of a client's skin integrity. What is the priority assessment parameter?

    • Family history of pressure ulcers

    • Presence of pressure ulcers on the client

    • Potential areas of pressure ulcer development

    • Overall risk of developing pressure ulcers

    Correct Answer
    A. Overall risk of developing pressure ulcers
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: When assessing skin integrity, the overall risk potential of developing pressure ulcers takes priority. Overall risk encompasses existing pressure ulcers as well as potential areas for development of pressure ulcers. Family history isn't important when assessing skin integrity.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 208.

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  • 33. 

    A client with a severe staphylococcal infection is receiving the aminoglycoside gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) by the I.V. route. The nurse should assess the client for which adverse reaction?

    • Aplastic anemia

    • Ototoxicity

    • Cardiac arrhythmias

    • Seizures

    Correct Answer
    A. Ototoxicity
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The most significant adverse reactions to gentamicin and other aminoglycosides are ototoxicity (indicated by vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss) and nephrotoxicity (indicated by urinary cells or casts, oliguria, proteinuria, and reduced creatinine clearance). These adverse reactions are most common in elderly and dehydrated clients, those with renal impairment, and those receiving concomitant therapy with another potentially ototoxic or nephrotoxic drug. Gentamicin isn't associated with aplastic anemia, cardiac arrhythmias, or seizures.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Karch, A.M. 2007 Lippincott's Nursing Drug Guide. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 569.

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  • 34. 

    A nurse is examining a client's scalp for evidence of lice. The nurse should pay particular attention to which part of the scalp?

    • Temporal area

    • Top of the head

    • Behind the ears

    • Middle area

    Correct Answer
    A. Behind the ears
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Adult lice usually bite the scalp behind the ears and along the back of the neck. Because such lice are tiny (1 to 2 mm) with grayish white bodies, they are hard to see. However, their bites result in visible pustular lesions. Although lice may bite any part of the scalp, bites are less common on the temporal area, top of the head, and middle area.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1962.

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  • 35. 

    At an outpatient clinic, a nursing assistant interviews a client and documents her findings as follows. After reading the chart note, a nurse begins planning based on which nursing diagnosis?

    • Deficient knowledge related to potential diagnosis of basal cell carcinoma

    • Fear related to potential diagnosis of malignant melanoma

    • Risk for impaired skin integrity related to potential squamous cell carcinoma

    • Readiness for enhanced knowledge of skin care precautions related to benign mole

    Correct Answer
    A. Fear related to potential diagnosis of malignant melanoma
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The documentation reveals that the client is anxious about his symptoms. Asymmetry, variable color, and border irregularity most closely resemble malignant melanoma. Therefore, Fear related to potential diagnosis of malignant melanoma is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. The documentation doesn't indicate that the client has deficient knowledge. The characteristics of the lesion aren't consistent with basal or squamous cell carcinoma or a benign nevus (mole), making Risk for impaired skin integrity related to potential squamous cell carcinoma and Readiness for enhanced knowledge of skin care precautions related to benign mole inappropriate nursing diagnoses for this client.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1979.

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  • 36. 

    A client who suffered a stroke is too weak to move on his own. To help the client maintain skin integrity, the nurse should:

    • Turn him frequently.

    • Perform passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.

    • Reduce the client's fluid intake.

    • Encourage the client to use a footboard.

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn him frequently.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The most important intervention for maintaining skin integrity is frequent position changes, which relieve pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. If pressure isn't relieved, capillaries become occluded, reducing circulation and oxygenation of the tissues and resulting in cell death and pressure ulcer formation. During passive ROM exercises, the nurse moves each joint through its range of movement, which improves joint mobility and circulation to the affected area but doesn't prevent pressure ulcers. Adequate hydration is necessary to maintain healthy skin and ensure tissue repair. A footboard prevents plantar flexion and footdrop by maintaining the foot in a dorsiflexed position.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 210.

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  • 37. 

    A nurse discovers scabies when assessing a client who has just been transferred to the medical-surgical unit from the day surgery unit. To prevent scabies infection in other clients, the nurse should:

    • Wash her hands, apply a pediculicide to the client's scalp, and remove any observable mites.

    • Isolate the client's bed linens until the client is no longer infectious.

    • Notify the nurse in the day surgery unit of a potential scabies outbreak.

    • Place the client on enteric precautions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolate the client's bed linens until the client is no longer infectious.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: To prevent the spread of scabies to other hospitalized clients, the nurse should isolate the client's bed linens until the client is no longer infectious — usually 24 hours after treatment begins. Other required precautions include using good hand-washing technique and wearing gloves when applying the pediculicide and during all contact with the client. Although the nurse should notify the nurse in the day surgery unit of the client's condition, a scabies epidemic is unlikely because scabies is spread through skin or sexual contact. This client doesn't require enteric precautions because the mites aren't found in feces.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1964.

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  • 38. 

    A client comes to the physician's office for treatment of severe sunburn. The nurse takes this opportunity to discuss the importance of protecting the skin from the sun's damaging rays. Which instruction best prevents skin damage?

    • Minimize sun exposure from 1 to 4 p.m., when the sun is strongest.

    • Use a sunscreen with a sun protection factor of 6 or higher.

    • Apply sunscreen even on overcast days.

    • When at the beach, sit in the shade to prevent sunburn.

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply sunscreen even on overcast days.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Sunscreen should be applied even on overcast days, because the sun's rays are as damaging then as on sunny days. The sun is strongest from 10 a.m. to 3 p.m. (11 a.m. to 4 p.m. daylight saving time) — not from 1 to 4 p.m. Sun exposure should be minimized during these hours. The nurse should recommend sunscreen with a sun protection factor of at least 15. Sitting in the shade when at the beach doesn't guarantee protection against sunburn because sand, concrete, and water can reflect more than half the sun's rays onto the skin.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1980.

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  • 39. 

    A nurse is caring for a client with skin grafts covering full-thickness burns on the arms and legs. During dressing changes, the nurse should:

    • Apply maximum bandages to allow for absorption of drainage.

    • Wrap elastic bandages distally to proximally on dependent areas.

    • Wrap elastic bandages on the arms and legs, proximally to distally, to promote venous return.

    • Remove bandages with clean gloves.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wrap elastic bandages distally to proximally on dependent areas.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Wrapping elastic bandages on dependent areas limits edema formation and bleeding and promotes graft acceptance. The nurse should wrap the client's arms and legs from the distal to proximal ends and use strict sterile technique throughout the dressing change. The nurse shouldn't use maximum bandages because bulky dressings limit mobility; instead, the nurse should use enough bandages to absorb wound drainage. Sterile gloves are required throughout all phases of the dressing change to prevent contamination.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2024.

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  • 40. 

    Hyperbaric oxygen therapy increases the blood's capacity to carry and deliver oxygen to compromised tissues. This therapy may be used for a client with:

    • A compromised skin graft.

    • A malignant tumor.

    • Pneumonia.

    • Hyperthermia.

    Correct Answer
    A. A compromised skin graft.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: A client with a compromised skin graft could benefit from hyperbaric oxygen therapy because increasing oxygenation at the wound site promotes wound healing. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy isn't indicated for malignant tumors, pneumonia, or hyperthermia.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 728.

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  • 41. 

    A client with psoriasis visits the dermatology clinic. When inspecting the affected areas, the nurse expects to see which type of secondary lesion?

    • Scale

    • Crust

    • Ulcer

    • Scar

    Correct Answer
    A. Scale
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: A scale is the characteristic secondary lesion occurring in psoriasis. Although crusts, ulcers, and scars also are secondary lesions in skin disorders, they don't occur with psoriasis.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1938.

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  • 42. 

    A nurse is assessing a client admitted with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns on the face, arms, and chest. Which finding indicates a potential problem?

    • Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) value of 80 mm Hg

    • Urine output of 20 ml/hour

    • White pulmonary secretions

    • Rectal temperature of 100.6° F (38° C)

    Correct Answer
    A. Urine output of 20 ml/hour
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: A urine output of less than 30 ml/hour in a client with burns indicates a deficient fluid volume. This client's PaO2 value falls within the normal range (80 to 100 mm Hg). White pulmonary secretions are normal. The client's rectal temperature isn't significantly elevated, and the slight increase in temperature probably results from the deficient fluid volume.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2005.

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  • 43. 

    A client reports to a physician's office for intradermal allergy testing. Before testing, the nurse provides client teaching. Which client statement indicates a need for further education?

    • I may experience itching and irritation at the site of the testing.

    • If I notice tingling in my lips or mouth, gargling may help the symptoms.

    • I'll go directly to the pharmacy with my EpiPen prescription.

    • The test may be mildly uncomfortable.

    Correct Answer
    A. If I notice tingling in my lips or mouth, gargling may help the symptoms.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The client requires further teaching if he states he will gargle to help alleviate tingling in the lips or mouth. Allergy testing introduces potentially irritating substances to the client. Tingling in the mouth, lips, or throat indicates the onset of a severe reaction and the need for immediate medical intervention. The testing may cause irritation and itching at the test site. The physician may order an epinephrine pen (EpiPen) for the client to self-administer epinephrine if he experiences an allergic reaction away from the office setting.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1864.

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  • 44. 

    A nurse is caring for a client who requires a wheelchair. Which piece of equipment impedes circulation to the area it's meant to protect?

    • Specialty mattress

    • Ring or donut

    • Gel flotation pad

    • Water bed

    Correct Answer
    A. Ring or donut
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse shouldn't use rings or donuts with any client because this equipment restricts circulation. Specialty mattresses evenly distribute pressure. Gel pads redistribute the client's weight, and water beds distribute pressure over the entire surface.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 210.

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  • 45. 

    A nurse is caring for an elderly bedridden adult. To prevent pressure ulcers, which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?

    • Turn and reposition the client at least once every 8 hours.

    • Vigorously massage lotion over bony prominences.

    • Develop a written, individual turning schedule.

    • Slide the client, rather than lifting, when turning.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop a written, individual turning schedule.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: A turning schedule sheet helps ensure that the client gets turned and, thus, helps prevent pressure ulcers. Turning should occur every 1 to 2 hours — not every 8 hours — for clients who are in bed for prolonged periods. The nurse should apply lotion to keep the skin moist but should avoid vigorous massage, which could damage capillaries. When moving the client, the nurse should lift — rather than slide — the client to avoid shearing.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 210.

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  • 46. 

    A client is brought to the emergency department with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns on the left arm, left anterior leg, and anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the total body surface area that has been burned?

    • 18%

    • 27%

    • 30%

    • 36%

    Correct Answer
    A. 36%
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The Rule of Nines divides body surface area into percentages that, when totaled, equal 100%. According to the Rule of Nines, the arms account for 9% each, the anterior legs account for 9% each, and the anterior trunk accounts for 18%. Therefore, this client's burns cover 36% of the body surface area.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1998.

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  • 47. 

    A client who was bitten by a wild animal is admitted to an acute care facility for treatment of rabies. Which type of isolation does this client require?

    • Strict

    • Contact

    • Respiratory

    • Enteric

    Correct Answer
    A. Contact
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: A client with rabies requires contact isolation because the disease is highly transmissible through close or direct contact. Rabies isn't transmitted through the air, eliminating the need for strict isolation, which aims to prevent transmission of highly contagious or virulent infections spread by both air and contact. Respiratory isolation, which prevents transmission only through the air, isn't sufficient for a client with rabies. Enteric isolation is inappropriate because rabies isn't transmitted through direct or indirect contact with feces.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2477.

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  • 48. 

    A client has a foot ulcer that hasn't shown signs of improvement over the past several months. Which medical condition is most likely causing the delay in wound healing?

    • Macular degeneration

    • Asthma

    • Multiple sclerosis

    • Peripheral vascular disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Peripheral vascular disease
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Peripheral vascular disease causes cellular damage that leads to decreased blood supply to the extremities. When blood supply is deficient, wound healing can't take place. Macular degeneration causes vision loss; it isn't a factor in wound healing. Asthma can interfere with the client's ability to oxygenate, but when controlled, it shouldn't impact wound healing. Multiple sclerosis is a neurologic disorder that impairs mobility, not wound healing.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1191.

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  • 49. 

    A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a skin biopsy and has three stitches in place. This wound is healing by:

    • First intention.

    • Second intention.

    • Third intention.

    • Fourth intention.

    Correct Answer
    A. First intention.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Wounds with a small amount of tissue damage that are the result of procedures that use sterile technique and that are properly closed, such as with stitches, heal by first intention. Granulation tissue is generally not visible and scar formation is minimal. Second intention healing occurs in infected wounds or wounds with edges that aren't approximated. These wounds are usually packed with moist dressings. Third intention healing occurs with deep wounds that aren't sutured together, resulting in a deep, wide scar. There is no fourth intention of wound healing.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 538.

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