Integumentary Disorders

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Integumentary Disorders - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A nurse is providing education to the family of a client scheduled for discharge. The client, who has severe cognitive impairments, is a recent quadriplegic. The family has questions about the need to perform range-of-motion of exercises with the client. What information should the teaching session include? Select all that apply.

    • A.

      Use sheepskin pads in the bed and wheelchair.

    • B.

      The skin and underlying structures will begin to become anoxic after 2 hours of unrelieved pressure.

    • C.

      Friction and shear increase a paralyzed client's risk of pressure ulcers.

    • D.

      Positioning the client at 90 degrees from the head of the bed is most therapeutic.

    • E.

      You need to perform range-of-motion exercises only when the client asks you to do so.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Use sheepskin pads in the bed and wheelchair.
    C. Friction and shear increase a paralyzed client's risk of pressure ulcers.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The use of sheepskin padding in the bed and wheelchair will reduce friction. A paralyzed client, who may be unable to assist with position changes, has an increased risk of skin loss due to friction and shear. Skin and underlying structures may become anoxic after less than 2 hours of unrelieved pressure. Thirty degrees from the head of the bed is the most therapeutic angle of positioning. The family should perform range-of-motion exercises every time they reposition the client.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2258.

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  • 2. 

    The physician orders "acyclovir (Zovirax), 200 mg P.O., every 4 hours while awake" for a client with herpes zoster. The nurse should inform the client that this drug may cause:

    • A.

      Palpitations.

    • B.

      Dizziness.

    • C.

      Diarrhea.

    • D.

      A metallic taste.

    Correct Answer
    C. Diarrhea.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Oral acyclovir may cause such adverse GI effects as diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. It isn't associated with palpitations, dizziness, or a metallic taste.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Karch, A.M. 2007 Lippincott's Nursing Drug Guide. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 77.

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  • 3. 

    A nurse is preparing a care plan for a client burned over 36% of his body 2 days previously. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the client has progressed into the intermediate phase of burn care?

    • A.

      The client's serum sodium levels are elevated.

    • B.

      The client exhibits metabolic alkalosis.

    • C.

      The client's urinary output has fallen below 30 ml/hour.

    • D.

      The client's complete blood count readings reflect a reduced hematocrit.

    Correct Answer
    D. The client's complete blood count readings reflect a reduced hematocrit.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: During the intermediate phase of burn care, the client's hematocrit should diminish as a result of hemodilution, which occurs as the fluids shift back into the circulating blood volume from the tissues. In the intermediate phase of burn care, the client will experience serum sodium deficits. Urinary output increases during this phase as renal perfusion increases. Loss of serum sodium leads to metabolic acidosis, not metabolic alkalosis.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2015.

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  • 4. 

    A client is diagnosed with herpes simplex. Which statement about herpes simplex infection is true?

    • A.

      During early pregnancy, herpes simplex infection may cause spontaneous abortion or premature birth.

    • B.

      Genital herpes simplex lesions are painless, fluid-filled vesicles that ulcerate and heal in 3 to 7 days.

    • C.

      Herpetic keratoconjunctivitis usually is bilateral and causes systemic symptoms.

    • D.

      A client with genital herpes lesions may have sexual contact but must use a condom.

    Correct Answer
    A. During early pregnancy, herpes simplex infection may cause spontaneous abortion or premature birth.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Herpes simplex may be passed to the fetus transplacentally and, during early pregnancy, may cause spontaneous abortion or premature birth. Genital herpes simplex lesions typically are painful, fluid-filled vesicles that ulcerate and heal within 1 to 2 weeks. Herpetic keratoconjunctivitis usually is unilateral and causes localized symptoms, such as conjunctivitis. A client with genital herpes lesions should avoid all sexual contact to prevent spreading the disease.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1667.

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  • 5. 

    Which term describes a fungal infection of the scalp?

    • A.

      Tinea capitis

    • B.

      Tinea corporis

    • C.

      Tinea cruris

    • D.

      Tinea pedis

    Correct Answer
    A. Tinea capitis
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp. Tinea corporis involves fungal infections of the body. Tinea cruris describes fungal infections of the inner thigh and inguinal creases. Tinea pedis is the term for fungal infections of the foot.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1961.

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  • 6. 

    During the acute phase of a burn, a nurse should assess:

    • A.

      The client's lifestyle.

    • B.

      Alcohol use.

    • C.

      Tobacco use.

    • D.

      Circulatory status.

    Correct Answer
    D. Circulatory status.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: During the acute phase of a burn, the nurse should assess the client's circulatory and respiratory status, vital signs, fluid intake and output, ability to move, bowel sounds, wounds, and mental status. Information about the client's lifestyle and alcohol and tobacco use may be obtained later when the client's condition has stabilized.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2009.

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  • 7. 

    A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client with atopic dermatitis. Which instruction should the nurse include in her teaching plan?

    • A.

      Wear only synthetic fabrics.

    • B.

      Use a topical skin moisturizer daily.

    • C.

      Bathe only three times per week.

    • D.

      Keep the thermostat above 75° F (23.9° C).

    Correct Answer
    B. Use a topical skin moisturizer daily.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct the client to use a topical skin moisturizer daily to help keep the skin hydrated. Likewise, the client should be encouraged to bathe daily. To minimize irritation, the client should wear only cotton fabrics. The client should maintain a room temperature between 68° F (20° C) and 72° F (22.2° C).

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1878.

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  • 8. 

    A client comes to the physician's office for treatment of severe sunburn. The nurse takes this opportunity to discuss the importance of protecting the skin from the sun's damaging rays. Which instruction best prevents skin damage?

    • A.

      Minimize sun exposure from 1 to 4 p.m., when the sun is strongest.

    • B.

      Use a sunscreen with a sun protection factor of 6 or higher.

    • C.

      Apply sunscreen even on overcast days.

    • D.

      When at the beach, sit in the shade to prevent sunburn.

    Correct Answer
    C. Apply sunscreen even on overcast days.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Sunscreen should be applied even on overcast days, because the sun's rays are as damaging then as on sunny days. The sun is strongest from 10 a.m. to 3 p.m. (11 a.m. to 4 p.m. daylight saving time) — not from 1 to 4 p.m. Sun exposure should be minimized during these hours. The nurse should recommend sunscreen with a sun protection factor of at least 15. Sitting in the shade when at the beach doesn't guarantee protection against sunburn because sand, concrete, and water can reflect more than half the sun's rays onto the skin.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1980.

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  • 9. 

    After sustaining a stroke, a client is transferred to the rehabilitation unit. The medical-surgical nurse reviews the client's residual neurological deficits with the rehabilitation nurse. Which neurological deficit places the client at risk for skin breakdown?

    • A.

      Right-sided visual deficit and dysarthria

    • B.

      Incontinence and right-sided hemiparesis

    • C.

      Dysarthria and left-sided visual deficit

    • D.

      Constipation and lower extremity weakness

    Correct Answer
    B. Incontinence and right-sided hemiparesis
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Incontinence and right-sided hemiparesis place the client at risk for skin breakdown. Visual deficits, dysarthria, constipation, and lower extremity weakness don't place the client at risk for skin breakdown.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 208.

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  • 10. 

    A nurse is changing a dressing and providing wound care. Which activity should she perform first?

    • A.

      Assess the drainage in the dressing.

    • B.

      Slowly remove the soiled dressing.

    • C.

      Wash her hands thoroughly.

    • D.

      Put on latex gloves.

    Correct Answer
    C. Wash her hands thoroughly.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: When caring for a client, the nurse must first wash her hands. Putting on gloves, removing the dressing, and observing the drainage are all parts of performing a dressing change after hand washing is completed.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1230.

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  • 11. 

    A client with atopic dermatitis is ordered a potent topical corticosteroid to be covered with an occlusive dressing. To address a potential client problem associated with this treatment, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement, the nurse should add which "related-to" phrase?

    • A.

      Related to potential interactions between the topical corticosteroid and other ordered drugs

    • B.

      Related to vasodilatory effects of the topical corticosteroid

    • C.

      Related to percutaneous absorption of the topical corticosteroid

    • D.

      Related to topical corticosteroid application to the face, neck, and intertriginous sites

    Correct Answer
    C. Related to percutaneous absorption of the topical corticosteroid
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: A potent topical corticosteroid may increase the client's risk for injury because it may be absorbed percutaneously, causing the same adverse effects as systemic corticosteroids. Topical corticosteroids aren't involved in significant drug interactions. These preparations cause vasoconstriction, not vasodilation. A potent topical corticosteroid is rarely ordered for use on the face, neck, or intertriginous sites because application on these areas may lead to increased adverse effects.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1950.

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  • 12. 

    A nurse is performing a baseline assessment of a client's skin integrity. What is the priority assessment parameter?

    • A.

      Family history of pressure ulcers

    • B.

      Presence of pressure ulcers on the client

    • C.

      Potential areas of pressure ulcer development

    • D.

      Overall risk of developing pressure ulcers

    Correct Answer
    D. Overall risk of developing pressure ulcers
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: When assessing skin integrity, the overall risk potential of developing pressure ulcers takes priority. Overall risk encompasses existing pressure ulcers as well as potential areas for development of pressure ulcers. Family history isn't important when assessing skin integrity.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 208.

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  • 13. 

    A client returns from the operating room with a partial-thickness skin graft on his left arm. The donor tissue was taken from his left hip. In planning his immediate postoperative care, which interventions should the nurse include? Select all that apply.Change the dressing on the graft site every 8 hours.

    • A.

      Change the dressing on the graft site every 8 hours.

    • B.

      Elevate the left arm and provide complete rest of the grafted area.

    • C.

      Administer pain medication every 4 hours as ordered for pain in the donor site.

    • D.

      Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to the left arm every 4 hours.

    • E.

      Monitor the pulse in the left arm every 4 hours.

    • F.

      Encourage the client to ambulate as desired on the first postoperative day.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Elevate the left arm and provide complete rest of the grafted area.
    C. Administer pain medication every 4 hours as ordered for pain in the donor site.
    E. Monitor the pulse in the left arm every 4 hours.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The left arm should be elevated to reduce edema. Complete rest of the arm is needed to allow the graft to adhere. The donor site is usually more painful than the graft site and the client will require pain medication to obtain relief. Because adequate circulation is needed for graft healing, it's important to monitor for pulse presence. Changing the dressing every 8 hours, performing ROM exercises, and ambulating are inappropriate because postoperative graft sites require immobilization for 3 to 5 days.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1986.

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  • 14. 

    A client sees a dermatologist for a skin problem. Later, the nurse reviews the client's chart and notes that the chief complaint was intertrigo. This term refers to which condition?

    • A.

      Spontaneously occurring wheals

    • B.

      A fungus that enters the skin's surface, causing infection

    • C.

      Inflammation of a hair follicle

    • D.

      Irritation of opposing skin surfaces caused by friction

    Correct Answer
    D. Irritation of opposing skin surfaces caused by friction
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Intertrigo refers to irritation of opposing skin surfaces caused by friction. Spontaneously occurring wheals occur in hives. A fungus that enters the skin surface and causes infection is a dermatophyte. Inflammation of a hair follicle is called folliculitis.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1936.

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  • 15. 

    During the late stages of healing, which intervention helps a burn wound to heal with minimal scarring?

    • A.

      Removing eschar from the skin

    • B.

      Applying continuous-compression wraps

    • C.

      Wearing clothing to protect the burn from the sun

    • D.

      Maintaining wound care irrigation

    Correct Answer
    B. Applying continuous-compression wraps
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Applying continuous-compression wraps helps skin healing and prevents hypertrophied tissue from forming. Removing eschar from the skin, wearing clothing to protect the burn from the sun, and maintaining wound care irrigation are appropriate for the client with a burn wound, but these interventions don't necessarily help minimize scarring.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2032.

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  • 16. 

    A client arrives at the emergency department with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 15% of his body. At admission, his vital signs are: blood pressure 100/50 mm Hg, heart rate 130 beats/minute, and respiratory rate 26 breaths/minute. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.

    • A.

      Cleaning the burns with hydrogen peroxide

    • B.

      Covering the burns with saline-soaked towels

    • C.

      Starting an I.V. infusion of lactated Ringer's solution

    • D.

      Placing ice directly on the burn areas

    • E.

      Administering 6 mg of morphine I.V.

    • F.

      Administering tetanus prophylaxis as ordered

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Starting an I.V. infusion of lactated Ringer's solution
    E. Administering 6 mg of morphine I.V.
    F. Administering tetanus prophylaxis as ordered
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The goal of immediate interventions for this client should be to stop the burning and relieve the pain. To prevent hypovolemic shock and maintain cardiac output, the nurse should begin I.V. therapy with a crystalloid such as lactated Ringer's solution. To treat pain, she should administer 2 to 25 mg of morphine or 5 to 15 mg of meperidine (Demerol) I.V. in small increments. The nurse should also administer tetanus prophylaxis as ordered. Hydrogen peroxide and povidone-iodine solution could cause further damage to tissue, and saline-soaked towels could lead to hypothermia. Placing ice directly on burn wounds could cause further thermal damage.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2004.

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  • 17. 

    A nurse is planning the care for a client with a pressure ulcer. Which statements should the nurse include in the client's nursing care plan? Select all that apply.

    • A.

      Use pressure-reduction devices.

    • B.

      Increase carbohydrates in the diet.

    • C.

      Reposition every 1 to 2 hours.

    • D.

      Teach the family how to care for the wound.

    • E.

      Clean the area around the ulcer with mild soap.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Use pressure-reduction devices.
    C. Reposition every 1 to 2 hours.
    D. Teach the family how to care for the wound.
    E. Clean the area around the ulcer with mild soap.
    Explanation
    Avoid the uRATIONALE: Using a pressure-reduction device, repositioning every 2 hours, and cleaning the area around the wound with a mild soap will aid in healing or will prevent further skin breakdown. Teaching the family how to care for the wound will assist with discharge planning. Protein, not carbohydrate, intake should be increased to promote wound healing. Support-surface therapy is a major therapeutic method for managing pressure, friction, and shear on tissues.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 210.se of support-surface therapy.

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  • 18. 

    A registered nurse (RN) is working with the licensed practical nurse (LPN) to care for a group of clients in a nursing home. How should the RN expect the LPN to communicate changes in the clients' wound status?

    • A.

      The LPN speaks directly to the physician.

    • B.

      The LPN informs the RN when a wound heals.

    • C.

      The LPN informs the RN only if a wound worsens.

    • D.

      The RN communicates daily with the LPN about the condition of each resident.

    Correct Answer
    D. The RN communicates daily with the LPN about the condition of each resident.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: It's within the scope of LPN practice to communicate with the physician; however, the RN should communicate daily with the LPN about the condition of each nursing home resident. The RN should be kept abreast of all changes in clients' conditions as they occur.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 323.

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  • 19. 

    A nurse is teaching a client with a leg ulcer about tissue repair and wound healing. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching?

    • A.

      I'll limit my intake of protein.

    • B.

      I'll make sure that the bandage is wrapped tightly.

    • C.

      My foot should feel cold.

    • D.

      I'll eat plenty of fruits and vegetables.

    Correct Answer
    D. I'll eat plenty of fruits and vegetables.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: For effective tissue healing, adequate intake of protein, and vitamins A, B complex, C, D, E, and K are needed. Therefore, the client should eat a high-protein diet with plenty of fruits and vegetables to provide these nutrients. The bandage should be secure but not tight enough to impede circulation to the area (which is needed for tissue repair). If the client's foot feels cold, circulation is impaired, thus inhibiting wound healing.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 212.

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  • 20. 

    A nurse is examining a client's scalp for evidence of lice. The nurse should pay particular attention to which part of the scalp?

    • A.

      Temporal area

    • B.

      Top of the head

    • C.

      Behind the ears

    • D.

      Middle area

    Correct Answer
    C. Behind the ears
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Adult lice usually bite the scalp behind the ears and along the back of the neck. Because such lice are tiny (1 to 2 mm) with grayish white bodies, they are hard to see. However, their bites result in visible pustular lesions. Although lice may bite any part of the scalp, bites are less common on the temporal area, top of the head, and middle area.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1962.

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  • 21. 

    A client with psoriasis visits the dermatology clinic. When inspecting the affected areas, the nurse expects to see which type of secondary lesion?

    • A.

      Scale

    • B.

      Crust

    • C.

      Ulcer

    • D.

      Scar

    Correct Answer
    A. Scale
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: A scale is the characteristic secondary lesion occurring in psoriasis. Although crusts, ulcers, and scars also are secondary lesions in skin disorders, they don't occur with psoriasis.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1938.

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  • 22. 

    While repositioning an immobile client, a nurse notes that the client's sacral region is warm and red. Further assessment confirms that the skin is intact. Based on these findings, it's most appropriate for the nurse to:

    • A.

      Do nothing; the client's skin is intact.

    • B.

      Give the client a donut ring to reduce pressure on the affected area.

    • C.

      Contact the client's family.

    • D.

      Document the condition of the client's skin.

    Correct Answer
    D. Document the condition of the client's skin.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The client's warm, red skin is consistent with a stage I pressure ulcer. Documenting the findings will provide a permanent record of the condition. If the nurse fails to take action, the client may experience further skin trauma. Donut rings reduce circulation to the sacral area when the client sits on them; they're contraindicated in this instance. There's no reason for the nurse to contact the client's family at this time; doing so might violate the client's right of privacy.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 210.

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  • 23. 

    A client with a severe staphylococcal infection is receiving the aminoglycoside gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) by the I.V. route. The nurse should assess the client for which adverse reaction?

    • A.

      Aplastic anemia

    • B.

      Ototoxicity

    • C.

      Cardiac arrhythmias

    • D.

      Seizures

    Correct Answer
    B. Ototoxicity
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The most significant adverse reactions to gentamicin and other aminoglycosides are ototoxicity (indicated by vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss) and nephrotoxicity (indicated by urinary cells or casts, oliguria, proteinuria, and reduced creatinine clearance). These adverse reactions are most common in elderly and dehydrated clients, those with renal impairment, and those receiving concomitant therapy with another potentially ototoxic or nephrotoxic drug. Gentamicin isn't associated with aplastic anemia, cardiac arrhythmias, or seizures.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Karch, A.M. 2007 Lippincott's Nursing Drug Guide. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 569.

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  • 24. 

    A client with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns on the arms receives autografts. Two days later, the nurse finds the client doing arm exercises. The nurse provides additional client teaching because these exercises may:

    • A.

      Dislodge the autografts.

    • B.

      Increase edema in the arms.

    • C.

      Increase the amount of scarring.

    • D.

      Decrease circulation to the fingers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dislodge the autografts.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Because exercising the autograft sites may dislodge the grafted tissue, the nurse should advise the client to keep the grafted extremity in a neutral position. Exercise doesn't cause increased edema, increased scarring, or decreased circulation.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2023.

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  • 25. 

    In an industrial accident, a client who weighs 155 lb (70 kg) sustained full-thickness burns over 40% of his body. He's in the burn unit receiving fluid resuscitation. Which finding shows that the fluid resuscitation is benefiting the client?

    • A.

      A urine output consistently above 40 ml/hour

    • B.

      A weight gain of 4 lb (2 kg) in 24 hours

    • C.

      Body temperature readings all within normal limits

    • D.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) showing no arrhythmias

    Correct Answer
    A. A urine output consistently above 40 ml/hour
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: In a client with burns, the goal of fluid resuscitation is to maintain a mean arterial blood pressure that provides adequate perfusion of vital structures. If the kidneys are adequately perfused, they will produce an acceptable urine output of at least 0.5 ml/kg/hour. Thus, the expected urine output of a 155-lb client is 35 ml/hour, and a urine output consistently above 40 ml/hour is adequate. Weight gain from fluid resuscitation isn't a goal. In fact, a 4-lb weight gain in 24 hours suggests third spacing. Body temperature readings and ECG interpretations may demonstrate secondary benefits of fluid resuscitation but aren't primary indicators.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2005.

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  • 26. 

    A nurse is assessing a client admitted with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns on the face, arms, and chest. Which finding indicates a potential problem?

    • A.

      Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) value of 80 mm Hg

    • B.

      Urine output of 20 ml/hour

    • C.

      White pulmonary secretions

    • D.

      Rectal temperature of 100.6° F (38° C)

    Correct Answer
    B. Urine output of 20 ml/hour
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: A urine output of less than 30 ml/hour in a client with burns indicates a deficient fluid volume. This client's PaO2 value falls within the normal range (80 to 100 mm Hg). White pulmonary secretions are normal. The client's rectal temperature isn't significantly elevated, and the slight increase in temperature probably results from the deficient fluid volume.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2005.

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  • 27. 

    A triage nurse in the emergency department admits a male client with second-degree burns on the anterior and posterior portions of both legs. Based on the Rule of Nines, what percentage of the body is burned? __ %

    Correct Answer
    36
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The anterior and posterior portion of one leg is 18%. If both legs are burned, the total is 36%.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1998.

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  • 28. 

    Following a small-bowel resection, a client develops fever and anemia. The surface surrounding the surgical wound is warm to the touch and necrotizing fasciitis is suspected. Another manifestation that suggests necrotizing fasciitis is:

    • A.

      Erythema.

    • B.

      Leukocytosis.

    • C.

      Pressurelike pain.

    • D.

      Swelling.

    Correct Answer
    C. Pressurelike pain.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Severe pressurelike pain out of proportion to visible signs distinguishes necrotizing fasciitis from cellulitis. Erythema, leukocytosis, and swelling are present in both cellulitis and necrotizing fasciitis.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2359.

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  • 29. 

    A day-care worker comes to the clinic for mild itching and rash of both hands. The nurse suspects contact dermatitis. The diagnosis is confirmed if the rash appears:

    • A.

      Erythematous with raised papules.

    • B.

      Dry and scaly with flaking skin.

    • C.

      Inflamed with weeping and crusting lesions.

    • D.

      Excoriated with multiple fissures.

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythematous with raised papules.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Contact dermatitis is caused by exposure to a physical or chemical allergen, such as skin care products, cleaning products, and latex gloves. Initial symptoms of itching, erythema, and raised papules occur at the site of exposure and can begin within 1 hour of exposure. Allergic reactions tend to be red, not scaly or flaky. Weeping, crusting lesions are also uncommon unless the reaction is severe or has been present for a long time. Excoriation is more common in skin disorders associated with a moist environment.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1964.

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  • 30. 

    A client with a sacral pressure ulcer is limited to 2 hours of chair sitting two times per day. She is scheduled for physical therapy three times per day and dressing changes two times per day. How can the nurse best coordinate this client's care?

    • A.

      Ask the physician if physical therapy can be changed to twice per day so the client needs to get out of bed only twice.

    • B.

      Coordinate physical therapy with getting the client out of bed for breakfast and dinner, then request bedside physical therapy for the third session.

    • C.

      Request bedside physical therapy for all three sessions so the client can get out of bed when she wants.

    • D.

      Ask the physician to discontinue physical therapy until the client has no activity limitations.

    Correct Answer
    B. Coordinate physical therapy with getting the client out of bed for breakfast and dinner, then request bedside physical therapy for the third session.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should attempt to coordinate physical therapy with getting the client out of bed for breakfast and dinner. She should then request bedside physical therapy for the third session until the client has no activity limitations. Coordinating the client's activities optimizes the client's ability to participate in physical therapy because she can go to the physical therapy department for therapy. Discontinuing therapy sessions places the client at risk for complications associated with immobility.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 313.

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  • 31. 

    A nurse is caring for a client with skin grafts covering full-thickness burns on the arms and legs. During dressing changes, the nurse should:

    • A.

      Apply maximum bandages to allow for absorption of drainage.

    • B.

      Wrap elastic bandages distally to proximally on dependent areas.

    • C.

      Wrap elastic bandages on the arms and legs, proximally to distally, to promote venous return.

    • D.

      Remove bandages with clean gloves.

    Correct Answer
    B. Wrap elastic bandages distally to proximally on dependent areas.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Wrapping elastic bandages on dependent areas limits edema formation and bleeding and promotes graft acceptance. The nurse should wrap the client's arms and legs from the distal to proximal ends and use strict sterile technique throughout the dressing change. The nurse shouldn't use maximum bandages because bulky dressings limit mobility; instead, the nurse should use enough bandages to absorb wound drainage. Sterile gloves are required throughout all phases of the dressing change to prevent contamination.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2024.

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  • 32. 

    A nurse is caring for a client with a postoperative wound evisceration. Which action should the nurse perform first?

    • A.

      Explain to the client what is happening and provide support.

    • B.

      Cover the protruding internal organs with sterile gauze moistened with sterile saline solution.

    • C.

      Push the protruding organs back into the abdominal cavity.

    • D.

      Ask the client to drink as much fluid as possible.

    Correct Answer
    B. Cover the protruding internal organs with sterile gauze moistened with sterile saline solution.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Immediately covering the wound with moistened gauze prevents the organs from drying. The gauze and the saline solution must be sterile to reduce the risk of infection. Although providing support to reduce the client's anxiety is important, it isn't the priority nursing action. The organs shouldn't be pushed back into the abdomen; doing so may tear or damage them. Evisceration requires emergency surgery; therefore, the nurse should put the client on nothing-by-mouth status immediately.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 546.

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  • 33. 

    Which intervention has the highest priority when providing skin care to a bedridden client?

    • A.

      Changing the client's position frequently

    • B.

      Keeping the skin clean and dry without using harsh soaps

    • C.

      Gently massaging the skin around the pressure areas

    • D.

      Rubbing moisturizing lotion over the pressure areas

    Correct Answer
    B. Keeping the skin clean and dry without using harsh soaps
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Keeping the skin clean and dry is always the highest priority. Changing the client's position frequently and gently massaging the skin around the pressure areas are also important but only after the skin is cleaned. The nurse should rub lotion around, not directly over, pressure areas to avoid skin breakdown.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Basic care and comfort
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 210.

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  • 34. 

    A client has a foot ulcer that hasn't shown signs of improvement over the past several months. Which medical condition is most likely causing the delay in wound healing?

    • A.

      Macular degeneration

    • B.

      Asthma

    • C.

      Multiple sclerosis

    • D.

      Peripheral vascular disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Peripheral vascular disease
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Peripheral vascular disease causes cellular damage that leads to decreased blood supply to the extremities. When blood supply is deficient, wound healing can't take place. Macular degeneration causes vision loss; it isn't a factor in wound healing. Asthma can interfere with the client's ability to oxygenate, but when controlled, it shouldn't impact wound healing. Multiple sclerosis is a neurologic disorder that impairs mobility, not wound healing.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1191.

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  • 35. 

    A client in a semiprivate room is diagnosed with pediculosis corpus. A nurse will initiate treatment after moving the client to another room. The client's roommate asks the nurse for information about the client. What should the nurse say?

    • A.

      You don't have to worry; you can't catch pediculosis.

    • B.

      I'm sorry; I can't share confidential information.

    • C.

      I'm moving the client because he has a communicable infection.

    • D.

      That's none of your business.

    Correct Answer
    B. I'm sorry; I can't share confidential information.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse must advise the client's roommate that she can't discuss the other client's health care information. Providing specific or even vague information about the client's diagnosis is a breech of confidentiality. Advising the roommate that it's none of his business is rude and isn't therapeutic communication.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 129.

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  • 36. 

    A nursing assistant tells the nurse that a client with paraplegia has an area of skin breakdown on his left calf. When the nurse assesses the client, he is sitting on a cushion in a wheelchair and wearing specialty boots. The nurse notes a circular wound 2 cm × 2 cm × 0.25 cm on the posterior aspect of the calf. What most likely caused the client's skin breakdown?

    • A.

      Leg rest of the wheelchair

    • B.

      Absence of sensation in the lower extremities and immobility

    • C.

      Sitting in the wheelchair for long periods of time

    • D.

      Specialty boots

    Correct Answer
    D. Specialty boots
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The area of skin breakdown was most likely caused by the specialty boot — ordered to reduce pressure in the heels — rubbing against the skin. Although the wheelchair leg rest is located near the wound site, the wound described is likely to be caused by pressure, not a laceration caused by contact with the leg rest. Immobility and decreased sensation places the client at risk for skin breakdown, but these factors aren't the direct cause of this wound. A paraplegic is capable of sitting in a wheelchair for extended periods because he can shift his weight throughout the day.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 208.

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  • 37. 

    A client presents to the physician's office with gray-brown burrows with epidermal curved ridges and follicular papules of the skin. The physician diagnoses scabies. Which teaching points should the nurse review with the client? Select all that apply.

    • A.

      The disease is actively contagious only when the lesions are open.

    • B.

      Scabies is transmitted by close person-to-person contact or contact with infected linens and clothing.

    • C.

      The most commonly infected areas are the hands, feet, and neck.

    • D.

      Severe itching of the affected areas, especially at night, is a common finding.

    • E.

      Only the infected individual needs to use the prescribed medication.

    • F.

      All of the client's linens and clothing should immediately be washed in hot water.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Scabies is transmitted by close person-to-person contact or contact with infected linens and clothing.
    D. Severe itching of the affected areas, especially at night, is a common finding.
    F. All of the client's linens and clothing should immediately be washed in hot water.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should inform the client that scabies is a contagious disorder caused by a tiny mite that burrows under the skin. It's transmitted by close person-to-person contact or contact with infected linens or clothing. It causes severe itching, especially at night, in addition to the familiar papular rash. All of the client's linens and clothing should be washed promptly to reduce the risk of reinfestation. Scabies is transmissible from the time of infection to the time the burrows and papules appear, which may occur several weeks afterward. It remains transmissible until it's eradicated by a prescription cream or an oral medication. Scabies is most commonly seen in the finger webs, flexor surface of the wrists, and the antecubital fossae. If a family member is diagnosed with scabies, all family members must be treated with medication, and their clothing and linens must be washed to prevent transmission and reinfestation.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1963.

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  • 38. 

    A 10-year-old child is brought to the office with complaints of severe itching in both hands that's especially annoying at night. On inspection, the nurse notes gray-brown burrows with epidermal curved ridges and follicular papules. The physician performs a lesion scraping to assess this condition. Based on the signs and symptoms, what diagnosis should the nurse expect?

    • A.

      Impetigo

    • B.

      Scabies

    • C.

      Contact dermatitis

    • D.

      Dermatophytosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Scabies
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Signs and symptoms of scabies include gray-brown burrows, epidermal curved or linear ridges, and follicular papules. Clients complain of severe itching that usually occurs at night. Scabies commonly occurs in school-age children. The most common areas of infestation are the finger webs, flexor surface of the wrists, and antecubital fossae. Impetigo is a contagious, superficial skin infection characterized by a small, red macule that turns into a vesicle, becoming pustular with a honey-colored crust. Contact dermatitis is an inflammation of the skin caused by contact with an irritating chemical or allergen. Dermatophytosis, or ringworm, is a disease that affects the scalp, body, feet, nails, and groin. It's characterized by erythematous patches and scaling.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1963.

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  • 39. 

    A client visits the physician's office for treatment of a skin disorder. As a primary treatment, the nurse expects the physician to order:

    • A.

      An I.V. corticosteroid.

    • B.

      An I.V. antibiotic.

    • C.

      An oral antibiotic.

    • D.

      A topical agent.

    Correct Answer
    D. A topical agent.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Although many drugs are used to treat skin disorders, topical agents — not I.V. or oral agents — are the mainstay of treatment.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1948.

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  • 40. 

    A client has a circular rash on her leg, accompanied by malaise, fever, headache, and joint aches. Laboratory studies and physical examination findings confirm that she has Lyme disease. Her physician orders tetracycline hydrochloride (Sumycin), 500 mg P.O. q.i.d. Which instruction about taking tetracycline should the nurse give the client?

    • A.

      Take the drug on an empty stomach.

    • B.

      Take the drug with food or milk.

    • C.

      Take the drug with an antacid that contains magnesuim to reduce irritability.

    • D.

      Take the drug with an iron supplement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Take the drug on an empty stomach.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct the client to take tetracycline on an empty stomach because certain foods, such as dairy products, can bind with the drug, preventing its absorption. Additionally, the drug shouldn't be taken with calcium, magnesium, aluminum, or iron because these substances also bind with tetracycline, preventing its absorption.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Karch, A.M. 2007 Lippincott's Nursing Drug Guide. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007, p. 1121.

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  • 41. 

    When assessing a client with partial-thickness burns over 60% of the body, which finding should the nurse report immediately?

    • A.

      Complaints of intense thirst

    • B.

      Moderate to severe pain

    • C.

      Urine output of 70 ml the first hour

    • D.

      Hoarseness of the voice

    Correct Answer
    D. Hoarseness of the voice
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Hoarseness is indicative of injury to the respiratory system and could indicate the need for immediate intubation. Thirst following burns is expected because of the massive fluid shifts and resultant loss, leading to dehydration. Pain, either severe or moderate, is expected with a burn injury. The client's urine output is adequate.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2010.

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  • 42. 

    At an outpatient clinic, a nursing assistant interviews a client and documents her findings as follows. After reading the chart note, a nurse begins planning based on which nursing diagnosis?

    • A.

      Deficient knowledge related to potential diagnosis of basal cell carcinoma

    • B.

      Fear related to potential diagnosis of malignant melanoma

    • C.

      Risk for impaired skin integrity related to potential squamous cell carcinoma

    • D.

      Readiness for enhanced knowledge of skin care precautions related to benign mole

    Correct Answer
    B. Fear related to potential diagnosis of malignant melanoma
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The documentation reveals that the client is anxious about his symptoms. Asymmetry, variable color, and border irregularity most closely resemble malignant melanoma. Therefore, Fear related to potential diagnosis of malignant melanoma is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. The documentation doesn't indicate that the client has deficient knowledge. The characteristics of the lesion aren't consistent with basal or squamous cell carcinoma or a benign nevus (mole), making Risk for impaired skin integrity related to potential squamous cell carcinoma and Readiness for enhanced knowledge of skin care precautions related to benign mole inappropriate nursing diagnoses for this client.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1979.

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  • 43. 

    When caring for a client with severe impetigo, the nurse should include which intervention in the care plan?

    • A.

      Placing mitts on the client's hands

    • B.

      Administering systemic antibiotics as ordered

    • C.

      Applying topical antibiotics as ordered

    • D.

      Continuing to administer antibiotics for 21 days as ordered

    Correct Answer
    B. Administering systemic antibiotics as ordered
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Impetigo is a contagious, superficial skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. If the condition is severe, the physician typically orders systemic antibiotics for 7 to 10 days to prevent glomerulonephritis, a dangerous complication. The client's nails should be kept trimmed to avoid scratching; however, mitts aren't necessary. Topical antibiotics are less effective than systemic antibiotics in treating impetigo.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1956.

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  • 44. 

    A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a skin biopsy and has three stitches in place. This wound is healing by:

    • A.

      First intention.

    • B.

      Second intention.

    • C.

      Third intention.

    • D.

      Fourth intention.

    Correct Answer
    A. First intention.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Wounds with a small amount of tissue damage that are the result of procedures that use sterile technique and that are properly closed, such as with stitches, heal by first intention. Granulation tissue is generally not visible and scar formation is minimal. Second intention healing occurs in infected wounds or wounds with edges that aren't approximated. These wounds are usually packed with moist dressings. Third intention healing occurs with deep wounds that aren't sutured together, resulting in a deep, wide scar. There is no fourth intention of wound healing.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Physiological adaptation
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 538.

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  • 45. 

    Which instruction is the most important to give a client who has recently had a skin graft?

    • A.

      Continue physical therapy.

    • B.

      Protect the graft from direct sunlight.

    • C.

      Use cosmetic camouflage techniques.

    • D.

      Apply lubricating lotion to the graft site.

    Correct Answer
    B. Protect the graft from direct sunlight.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: To prevent burning and sloughing, the nurse must instruct the client to protect the graft from direct sunlight. Continuing physical therapy, using cosmetic camouflage techniques, and applying lotion to the graft site are appropriate instructions, but they aren't the most important concern in the client's recovery.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Health promotion and maintenance
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: None
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2035.

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  • 46. 

    A client is diagnosed with gonorrhea. When teaching the client about this disease, the nurse should include which instruction?

    • A.

      Avoid sexual intercourse until you've completed treatment, which takes 14 to 21 days.

    • B.

      Wash your hands thoroughly to avoid transferring the infection to your eyes.

    • C.

      If you have intercourse before treatment ends, tell sexual partners of your status and have them wash well after intercourse.

    • D.

      If you don't get treatment, you may develop meningitis and suffer widespread central nervous system (CNS) damage.

    Correct Answer
    B. Wash your hands thoroughly to avoid transferring the infection to your eyes.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Adults and children with gonorrhea may develop gonococcal conjunctivitis by touching the eyes with contaminated hands. The client should avoid sexual intercourse until treatment is completed, and a follow-up culture confirms that the infection has been eradicated (which usually takes 4 to 7 days). A client who doesn't refrain from intercourse before treatment is completed should use a condom in addition to informing sex partners of the client's health status and instructing them to wash well after intercourse. Meningitis and widespread CNS damage are potential complications of untreated syphilis, not gonorrhea.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Safety and infection control
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Comprehension

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 2508.

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  • 47. 

    A client is brought to the emergency department with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns on the left arm, left anterior leg, and anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the total body surface area that has been burned?

    • A.

      18%

    • B.

      27%

    • C.

      30%

    • D.

      36%

    Correct Answer
    D. 36%
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: The Rule of Nines divides body surface area into percentages that, when totaled, equal 100%. According to the Rule of Nines, the arms account for 9% each, the anterior legs account for 9% each, and the anterior trunk accounts for 18%. Therefore, this client's burns cover 36% of the body surface area.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Reduction of risk potential
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Application

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1998.

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  • 48. 

    A nurse plans to apply dexamethasone cream to a client's dermatitis over the anterior chest. How should the nurse apply this topical agent?

    • A.

      With a circular motion, to enhance absorption

    • B.

      With an upward motion, to increase blood supply to the affected area

    • C.

      In long, even, outward, and downward strokes in the direction of hair growth

    • D.

      In long, even, outward, and upward strokes in the direction opposite hair growth

    Correct Answer
    C. In long, even, outward, and downward strokes in the direction of hair growth
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: When applying a topical agent, the nurse should begin at the midline and use long, even, outward, and downward strokes in the direction of hair growth. This application pattern reduces the risk of follicle irritation and skin inflammation.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 802.

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  • 49. 

    A nurse has noticed an increase in the development of pressure ulcers on the nursing unit. Given the seriousness of the matter, what should the nurse do first?

    • A.

      Formally report her concerns to the nurse-manager.

    • B.

      Begin an investigation concerning potential causes of the pressure ulcers.

    • C.

      Review the charts of the clients involved to assess for patterns and trends.

    • D.

      Do nothing; this problem isn't the nurse's responsibility.

    Correct Answer
    A. Formally report her concerns to the nurse-manager.
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: A nurse who identifies issues involving quality of care must follow the chain of command. Although there may be a need for an investigation, the nurse shouldn't initiate one without discussion with the nurse-manager. Charts should be reviewed after a formal investigation is established. The nurse's responsibilities include identifying and reporting issues and concerns involving client care.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Safe, effective care environment
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Management of care
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Analysis

    REFERENCE: Taylor, C., et al. Fundamentals of Nursing: The Art and Science of Nursing Care, 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 341.

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  • 50. 

    To treat a client with acne vulgaris, the physician is most likely to order which topical agent for nightly application?

    • A.

      Minoxidil (Rogaine)

    • B.

      Tretinoin (retinoic acid [Retin-A])

    • C.

      Zinc oxide gelatin

    • D.

      Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5-FU [Efudex])

    Correct Answer
    B. Tretinoin (retinoic acid [Retin-A])
    Explanation
    RATIONALE: Tretinoin is a topical agent applied nightly to treat acne vulgaris. Minoxidil promotes hair growth. Zinc oxide gelatin treats stasis dermatitis on the lower legs. Fluorouracil is an antineoplastic topical agent that treats superficial basal cell carcinoma.

    CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORY: Physiological integrity
    CLIENT NEEDS SUBCATEGORY: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies
    COGNITIVE LEVEL: Knowledge

    REFERENCE: Smeltzer, S.C., et al. Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical Surgical-Nursing, 11th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2008, p. 1955.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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    Suarezenriquec1
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