Section 2: Understanding Products And Their Risks!

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Section 2: Understanding Products And Their Risks! - Quiz

Ready to boost your knowledge on products and their risks? Test yourself with our Section 2: Understanding Products and their Risks Quiz! This quiz dives deep into the world of product risks, covering everything from safety concerns to quality issues. This quiz covers a wide range of topics related to product risks, including safety regulations, manufacturing standards, quality control measures, and potential hazards. By participating in this quiz, you'll gain valuable insights into how products are developed, tested, and evaluated to ensure they meet stringent safety and quality standards.

Moreover, you'll learn about common risks associated with different types Read moreof products, such as chemical exposure, mechanical hazards, electrical faults, and more. Understanding these risks empowers you to make informed decisions when purchasing and using products, ultimately enhancing your safety and well-being. Test your understanding and learn how to identify and mitigate risks associated with various products. Get ready to ace the quiz and become a pro at assessing product risks!


Section 2: Understanding Products and Their Risks! Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    Miguel Reyes purchased $200,000 of ABC Corporation common stock 5 years ago. At one point, the value of his investment doubled. However, as a result of a recent class action law suit, the company has been ordered to pay 50% more than the company's net worth, and ABC filed for bankruptcy. What is the maximum loss that Reyes can lose on his investment?

    • A.

      $100,000, 50% of his original investment.

    • B.

      No more than his original investment of $200 ,000.

    • C.

      ​​​​​​ ​​​​​His original investment plus a 50% assessment for a total of $300,000.

    • D.

      ​​​​​$400,000, the amount his investment was once valued at.

    Correct Answer
    B. No more than his original investment of $200 ,000.
    Explanation
    Since the company has filed for bankruptcy and is ordered to pay 50% more than its net worth, it means that the maximum loss that Reyes can incur is limited to his original investment of $200,000. This is because his investment cannot exceed the net worth of the company, and any additional assessment or valuation of his investment is irrelevant in this scenario. Therefore, the correct answer is "No more than his original investment of $200,000."

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  • 2. 

    Rights of common stockholders include all of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      Voting for the board of directors (BOD).

    • B.

      Transferring ownership of the stock at any time.

    • C.

      Receiving audited semi-annual reports.

    • D.

      ​​​​​​ ​​​​​preemptive rights.

    Correct Answer
    C. Receiving audited semi-annual reports.
    Explanation
    Common stockholders have various rights, including the right to vote for the board of directors, the right to transfer ownership of their stock at any time, and the right to preemptive rights. However, they do not have the right to receive audited semi-annual reports. These reports are typically provided to shareholders, but they are not a specific right of common stockholders.

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  • 3. 

    Zoe Smith wants to invest $100,000 in ABC common stock. Which of the following would be appropriate objectives when placing the order? I. A long-term hedge against inflation II. The limited liability of ABC's common stock Ill. The stock may appreciate in value and pay a consistent cash dividend IV. The need for monthly dividend checks

    • A.

      I and Ill

    • B.

      I and IV

    • C.

      II and Ill

    • D.

      II and IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I and Ill
    Explanation
    The objective of a long-term hedge against inflation aligns with the goal of preserving the value of the investment over time. The objective of the stock appreciating in value and paying a consistent cash dividend aligns with the goal of generating a return on the investment. Therefore, options I and III are appropriate objectives when placing the order. Option II, which refers to the limited liability of ABC's common stock, is not relevant to the objectives of the investment. Option IV, which refers to the need for monthly dividend checks, is not mentioned as an objective for the investment.

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  • 4. 

    Which two of the following preference items define preferred stock?  i.    Preferred dividends must be paid before paying common dividends. ii.    Preferred dividends are guaranteed; common dividends are not. iii.    Preferred stockholders are paid before common stockholders in the event of liquidation. iv.    Preferred stockholders voting rights exceed those of common stockholders.  

    • A.

      I and Ill

    • B.

      I  and IV

    • C.

      II and Ill

    • D.

      II and IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I and Ill
    Explanation
    Preferred stock is a type of stock that has certain preferences or advantages over common stock. The two preference items that define preferred stock are: i. Preferred dividends must be paid before paying common dividends, which means that preferred stockholders have priority in receiving dividends. iii. Preferred stockholders are paid before common stockholders in the event of liquidation, which means that preferred stockholders have priority in receiving assets in case the company is liquidated. Therefore, the correct answer is I and III.

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  • 5. 

    Under Rule 144 , how long must a restricted security be held before it can be sold?

    • A.

      90 days

    • B.

      3 months

    • C.

      6 months

    • D.

      1 year

    Correct Answer
    C. 6 months
    Explanation
    Under Rule 144, a restricted security must be held for a period of 6 months before it can be sold. This rule applies to securities that are acquired through private placements or other restricted means and aims to prevent insider trading and maintain market stability. By requiring a holding period, it allows sufficient time for the market to absorb any potential impact that the sale of these restricted securities may have.

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  • 6. 

    An investor is long 1 XYZ May 40 call and XYZ stock has a current market value of 44. Which of the following is TRUE?

    • A.

      The May 40 call is at the money.

    • B.

      The May 40 call is in  the money.

    • C.

      The May 40 call is out of the money.

    • D.

      The May 40 call has no intrinsic value.

    Correct Answer
    B. The May 40 call is in  the money.
    Explanation
    The May 40 call is in the money because the current market value of the XYZ stock is higher than the strike price of the call option. This means that the option has intrinsic value and the investor has the potential to make a profit if they exercise the option.

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  • 7. 

    An investor is long 1 August XYZ 30 put and XYZ has a current market value of 25 Which of the following is TRUE?

    • A.

      The August 30 put is in the money by 5 points.

    • B.

      The August 30 put is at the money.

    • C.

      The August 30 put is out of the money by 30 points.

    • D.

      The August 30 put has no intrinsic value.

    Correct Answer
    A. The August 30 put is in the money by 5 points.
    Explanation
    The August 30 put is in the money by 5 points because the current market value of XYZ is 25, which is lower than the strike price of 30. This means that the put option has intrinsic value because it allows the investor to sell XYZ at a higher price than its current market value.

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  • 8. 

    An investor writes (sells) a July 25 ABC call. Which of the following is TRUE?

    • A.

      The investor has the right to purchase ABC stock at 25.

    • B.

      The investor has the right to sell ABC stock at 25.

    • C.

      The investor will be obligated to purchase ABC stock at 25 if the call is exercised by the owner (buyer).

    • D.

      The investor will be obligated to sell the ABC stock at 25 if the call is exercised by the owner (buyer).

    Correct Answer
    D. The investor will be obligated to sell the ABC stock at 25 if the call is exercised by the owner (buyer).
    Explanation
    If the investor writes (sells) a July 25 ABC call, it means they are selling the right to purchase ABC stock at $25 to someone else. If the call is exercised by the owner (buyer), the investor will be obligated to sell the ABC stock at $25, as per the terms of the call option contract.

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  • 9. 

    An investor writes a September 65 ABC put. Which of the following is TRUE?

    • A.

      The investor will be obligated to sell ABC stock at 65 if the put is exercised by the owner (buyer).

    • B.

      The investor will be obligated to purchase ABC stock at 65 if the put is exercised by the owner (buyer).

    • C.

      The investor has the right to sell ABC stock at 65.

    • D.

      The investor has the right to purchase ABC stock at 65.

    Correct Answer
    B. The investor will be obligated to purchase ABC stock at 65 if the put is exercised by the owner (buyer).
    Explanation
    If the investor writes a September 65 ABC put, it means that they are selling the put option to someone else. By doing so, they are giving the buyer the right to sell ABC stock to them at a price of 65. Therefore, if the put is exercised by the owner (buyer), the investor will be obligated to purchase ABC stock at 65.

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  • 10. 

    All of the following are true EXCEPT

    • A.

      Break even (BE) is always the same number for both buyer and seller of an option contract.

    • B.

      The maximum loss for options buyers is the premium paid.

    • C.

      The maximum gain for options buyers is always unlimited.

    • D.

      BE is calculated using the same formula for both buyer and seller.

    Correct Answer
    C. The maximum gain for options buyers is always unlimited.
    Explanation
    The statement "the maximum gain for options buyers is always unlimited" is not true. Options buyers have the potential for unlimited gains, but their maximum gain is limited to the difference between the strike price and the price of the underlying asset, minus the premium paid. Therefore, their maximum gain is not always unlimited.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following accurately describes how listed options transactions settle?

    • A.

      Regular way settlement occurs on the third Friday of the expiration month.

    • B.

      Settlement happens on the next business day after the trade date (T + 1).

    • C.

      Settlement takes place on the third business day after the trade date (T + 3).

    • D.

      Settlement occurs when the option finally expires.

    Correct Answer
    B. Settlement happens on the next business day after the trade date (T + 1).
    Explanation
    Options transactions settle regular way on the next business day after the trade date (T + 1). This means that when an options trade is executed, the settlement process occurs on the following business day. For example, if a trade is made on a Monday, the settlement will take place on Tuesday. This standard settlement timeframe ensures that the necessary paperwork, funds, and securities are properly exchanged between the buyer and seller, facilitating a smooth and efficient transaction process within the financial markets.

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  • 12. 

    Regarding assignment of exercises notices, which of the following are TRUE? I.    The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) assigns short BDs randomly. II.    The OCC assigns short BDs using the first-in, first-out (FIFO) accounting method. Ill. Short BDs can assign their short customers randomly only. IV. Short BDs can assign their short customers randomly, using the FIFO accounting method or by any other fair method.

    • A.

      I and Ill

    • B.

      I and IV

    • C.

      II and 111

    • D.

      II and IV

    Correct Answer
    B. I and IV
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "I and IV". This means that statements I and IV are both true. Statement I states that the Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) assigns short BDs randomly, which means that there is no specific order or pattern in which they assign these notices. Statement IV states that short BDs can assign their short customers randomly, using the FIFO accounting method, or by any other fair method. This means that short BDs have the flexibility to assign their customers in a random manner, using the FIFO method, or any other method that is considered fair.

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  • 13. 

    A customer of a BD is opening a new options account. The customer must return the options agreement ___________________.

    • A.

      Signed before the account can be approved

    • B.

      Before the first transaction can occur

    • C.

      Signed and not later than 15 days after the account approval

    • D.

      Before he will be allowed to view the options disclosure document

    Correct Answer
    C. Signed and not later than 15 days after the account approval
    Explanation
    The customer of a BD (broker-dealer) must sign the options agreement before the account can be approved. Furthermore, the agreement must be signed within 15 days after the account approval. This suggests that the customer has a limited timeframe to sign the agreement and must do so promptly after the account is approved.

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  • 14. 

    An investor purchases 100 shares of XYZ stock at 67 and writes 1 covered call for a premium of $2.25 each. What is the investor's break even point?

    • A.

      $2.25

    • B.

      $64.75

    • C.

      $67.00

    • D.

       $69 .25

    Correct Answer
    B. $64.75
    Explanation
    The investor's break even point is the price at which they will neither make a profit nor incur a loss. In this case, the investor purchased 100 shares of XYZ stock at $67 each and wrote 1 covered call for a premium of $2.25 each. To calculate the break even point, we subtract the premium received from the purchase price of the shares: $67 - $2.25 = $64.75. Therefore, the investor's break even point is $64.75.

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  • 15. 

    All of the following could be found in the money market EXCEPT ______________.

    • A.

      T-bonds maturing in 12 months

    • B.

      T-bills

    • C.

      Commercial paper

    • D.

      Equities such as common and preferred shares

    Correct Answer
    D. Equities such as common and preferred shares
    Explanation
    The money market is a sector where short-term debt securities are traded. T-bonds maturing in 12 months, T-bills, and commercial paper are all examples of such debt securities that are commonly found in the money market. However, equities such as common and preferred shares are not considered short-term debt securities and are typically traded in the stock market, not the money market. Therefore, equities are not found in the money market.

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  • 16. 

    The most common type of direct participation program (DPP) in the securities industry is _______________.

    • A.

      A limited partnership (LP)

    • B.

      A real estate investment trust (REIT)

    • C.

      A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO)

    • D.

      An investment company

    Correct Answer
    A. A limited partnership (LP)
    Explanation
    A limited partnership (LP) is the most common type of direct participation program (DPP) in the securities industry. In an LP, there are two types of partners: general partners and limited partners. General partners have unlimited liability and manage the business, while limited partners have limited liability and provide capital but do not participate in the management. LPs are often used in real estate investments and provide investors with the opportunity to invest in a partnership structure while limiting their liability. Therefore, LP is the correct answer for the most common type of DPP in the securities industry.

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  • 17. 

    All of the following are benefits for the limited partners in a direct participation program (DPP) EXCEPT _______________.

    • A.

      Passive losses

    • B.

      Flow-through of income

    • C.

      Unlimited liability

    • D.

      An investment managed by the general partner (GP)

    Correct Answer
    C. Unlimited liability
    Explanation
    Limited partners in a direct participation program (DPP) enjoy several benefits, including passive losses and flow-through of income. These benefits allow them to offset their taxable income and receive a share of the program's profits. However, the one benefit that limited partners do not have is unlimited liability. Unlike the general partner (GP), limited partners are not personally liable for the debts and obligations of the DPP. This means that their liability is limited to the amount of their investment, providing them with protection against excessive financial risk.

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  • 18. 

    A pooled investment which is organized as a trust in which investors buy shares or certificates of beneficial interest, either on stock exchanges or in the over-the­ counter market, is _______________.

    • A.

      An investment company

    • B.

      A real estate investment trust (REIT)

    • C.

      A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO)

    • D.

      A direct participation program (DPP)

    Correct Answer
    B. A real estate investment trust (REIT)
    Explanation
    A real estate investment trust (REIT) is a pooled investment organized as a trust where investors can buy shares or certificates of beneficial interest. These shares can be traded on stock exchanges or in the over-the-counter market. REITs specifically focus on investing in real estate properties and generating income from them. They allow individual investors to access real estate investments without directly owning properties. REITs are regulated investment vehicles that distribute a significant portion of their taxable income to shareholders in the form of dividends.

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  • 19. 

    An open-end management company may charge ____________ amount annually and still advertise itself as a no-load fund.

    • A.

      8.5%

    • B.

      2.5%

    • C.

      1.25%

    • D.

      0.25%

    Correct Answer
    D. 0.25%
    Explanation
    An open-end management company can charge an annual fee of 0.25% and still advertise itself as a no-load fund. This means that investors do not have to pay any sales charges or commissions when buying or selling shares in the fund. The low fee of 0.25% allows the company to cover its expenses and management costs while still providing a cost-effective investment option for investors.

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  • 20. 

    All of the following are true for exchange-traded funds (ETFs) EXCEPT

    • A.

      ETFs can be bought or sold throughout the trading day.

    • B.

      ETFs are not marginable securities.

    • C.

      ETF share prices are subject to market forces like supply and demand.

    • D.

      ETF transactions are commissionable trades.

    Correct Answer
    B. ETFs are not marginable securities.
    Explanation
    ETFs are actually marginable securities, meaning investors can borrow money to buy ETF shares on margin. This allows investors to potentially increase their purchasing power and potentially amplify their returns.

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  • 21. 

    An investment established by states to provide other government entities such as cities or counties a place to invest funds short term is _____________.

    • A.

      An FDIC

    • B.

      An ABLE

    • C.

      An LGIP

    • D.

      A REPO

    Correct Answer
    C. An LGIP
    Explanation
    An LGIP, or Local Government Investment Pool, is an investment established by states to provide other government entities such as cities or counties a place to invest funds short term. LGIPs pool together funds from various government entities to achieve economies of scale and diversify risk. These pools are typically managed by the state treasurer's office or a similar agency and offer competitive returns while ensuring the safety and liquidity of the invested funds. LGIPs are a popular choice for government entities looking to invest surplus funds temporarily.

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  • 22. 

    Regarding annuity products offered by insurance companies, which of the follow­ing is TRUE?

    • A.

      Variable annuities are securities; fixed annuities are not.

    • B.

      Fixed annuities are securities; variable annuities are not.

    • C.

      Neither variable nor fixed annuities are securities.

    • D.

      Both variable and fixed annuities are securities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Variable annuities are securities; fixed annuities are not.
    Explanation
    Variable annuities are considered securities because they allow the policyholder to invest their premiums into various investment options, such as stocks and bonds. The value of the annuity is dependent on the performance of these investments. On the other hand, fixed annuities are not considered securities because they offer a guaranteed fixed rate of return, usually provided by the insurance company. The value of the annuity is not tied to any investment performance. Therefore, the statement that variable annuities are securities and fixed annuities are not is true.

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  • 23. 

    A private, unregulated investment company organized in such a way so as to invest and achieve high returns utilizing debt leverage and derivative products such as options and margin is best described as _____________.

    • A.

      A mutual fund

    • B.

      A direct participation  program (DPP)

    • C.

      A real estate investment trust (REIT)

    • D.

      A hedge fund

    Correct Answer
    D. A hedge fund
    Explanation
    A hedge fund is the best description for a private, unregulated investment company that utilizes debt leverage and derivative products to achieve high returns. Hedge funds are known for their aggressive investment strategies and their ability to use various financial instruments to maximize profits. Unlike mutual funds, hedge funds are not subject to the same regulatory requirements and often cater to high-net-worth individuals and institutional investors. Direct participation programs (DPPs) and real estate investment trusts (REITs) are different types of investment vehicles that may not necessarily employ the same strategies as a hedge fund.

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  • 24. 

    An investor has placed money in a debt-like instrument issued by a financial insti­tution and linked to the performance of the S&P 500 Index. From the investment, which has a stated maturity date but makes no interest payments, the investor anticipates receiving a cash payment minus any applicable management  fees when the instrument matures. This describes which of the following investments?

    • A.

      Municipal bond

    • B.

      Direct participation program (DPP)

    • C.

      Exchange-traded note (ETN)

    • D.

      Variable annuity

    Correct Answer
    C. Exchange-traded note (ETN)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Exchange-traded note (ETN). An ETN is a debt-like instrument issued by a financial institution that is linked to the performance of a specific index, in this case, the S&P 500 Index. It does not make interest payments but provides a cash payment at maturity, minus any applicable management fees. This aligns with the description provided in the question.

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  • 25. 

    One of the advantages of a security being traded on a listed stock exchange is the ready availability of buyers and sellers. This has the tendency to reduce or even eliminate ____________.

    • A.

      Inflation risk

    • B.

      Liquidity risk

    • C.

      Market risk

    • D.

      Price risk

    Correct Answer
    B. Liquidity risk
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Exchange-traded note (ETN). An ETN is a debt-like instrument issued by a financial institution that is linked to the performance of a specific index, in this case, the S&P 500 Index. It does not make interest payments but provides a cash payment at maturity, minus any applicable management fees. This aligns with the description provided in the question.

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  • 26. 

    Before making an investment, it is wise to evaluate the potential risk involved. It is safe to assume that I.    the greater the risk, the greater the potential reward II.    the greater the risk, the lower the potential reward  Ill. the lower the risk, the greater the potential loss IV. the lower the risk, the lower the potential reward

    • A.

      I and Ill

    • B.

      I and IV

    • C.

      II and Ill

    • D.

      II and IV

    Correct Answer
    B. I and IV
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Exchange-traded note (ETN). An ETN is a debt-like instrument issued by a financial institution that is linked to the performance of a specific index, in this case, the S&P 500 Index. It does not make interest payments but provides a cash payment at maturity, minus any applicable management fees. This aligns with the description provided in the question.

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  • 27. 

    Twenty years ago, an investor purchased an AAA rated corporate bond with a coupon rate of 6% . The bond is about to mature and when searching for a new bond, it seems that the rates being paid on 20-year AAA bonds is about 4%. This would be an example of ______________.

    • A.

      Call risk

    • B.

      Liquidity risk

    • C.

      Market risk

    • D.

      Reinvestment risk

    Correct Answer
    D. Reinvestment risk
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Exchange-traded note (ETN). An ETN is a debt-like instrument issued by a financial institution that is linked to the performance of a specific index, in this case, the S&P 500 Index. It does not make interest payments but provides a cash payment at maturity, minus any applicable management fees. This aligns with the description provided in the question.

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  • 28. 

    When the interest rate paid on a debt security is less than the current inflation rate, the investor suffers from which of the following risks?

    • A.

      Liquidity risk

    • B.

      Call risk

    • C.

      Purchasing power risk

    • D.

      Currency risk

    Correct Answer
    C. Purchasing power risk
    Explanation
    When the interest rate paid on a debt security is less than the current inflation rate, the investor suffers from purchasing power risk. This is because the inflation erodes the value of money over time, reducing the purchasing power of the investor's returns. As a result, the investor may not be able to buy the same amount of goods and services in the future as they can today, leading to a loss in real value.

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  • 29. 

    A company operating in State A has just been notified that the state legislature has passed a new law on permitted emissions, and several of the company's plants in that state do not comply. As a result, operations at those facilities must cease. This is an example of ___________.

    • A.

      Legislative risk

    • B.

      Market risk

    • C.

      Unexpected risk

    • D.

      Reinvestment risk

    Correct Answer
    A. Legislative risk
    Explanation
    When the interest rate paid on a debt security is less than the current inflation rate, the investor suffers from purchasing power risk. This is because the inflation erodes the value of money over time, reducing the purchasing power of the investor's returns. As a result, the investor may not be able to buy the same amount of goods and services in the future as they can today, leading to a loss in real value.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following are risks that are most likely to be faced by investors in domestic debt securities? I.    Liquidity risk II.    Currency risk Ill.   Political risk IV.   Inflation risk

    • A.

      I and II

    • B.

      I and IV

    • C.

      II and III

    • D.

      II  and IV

    Correct Answer
    B. I and IV
    Explanation
    When the interest rate paid on a debt security is less than the current inflation rate, the investor suffers from purchasing power risk. This is because the inflation erodes the value of money over time, reducing the purchasing power of the investor's returns. As a result, the investor may not be able to buy the same amount of goods and services in the future as they can today, leading to a loss in real value.

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  • Mar 17, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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    Quiz Created by
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