Blood And Component Donation And Screening/Testing/Storage

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Blood Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The Blood Banking Department has the same standards and regulations of practice as the other laboratory disciplines

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Blood Banking has MORE standards and regulations than any of the other laboratory disciplines

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  • 2. 

    Blood collection facilities and transfusion services are monitored by such agencies as the _________

    • A.

      American Association of Blood Banks (AABB)

    • B.

      Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

    • C.

      College of American Pathology (CAP)

    • D.

      Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO)

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    Blood collection facilities and transfusion services are monitored by multiple agencies, including the American Association of Blood Banks (AABB), the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), the College of American Pathology (CAP), and the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO). These agencies ensure that the facilities adhere to strict guidelines and regulations to maintain the safety and quality of blood products and transfusion services.

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  • 3. 

    _______________ are primarily involved in the donor screening regulations and all the agencies conduct inspection of hospital blood banks regarding the practice of following and reviewing policies and procedures

    • A.

      American Association of Blood Banks (AABB)

    • B.

      Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

    • C.

      College of American Pathology (CAP)

    • D.

      Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO)

    • E.

      Both A & B

    • F.

      Both C & D

    Correct Answer
    E. Both A & B
    Explanation
    Both the American Association of Blood Banks (AABB) and the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) are primarily involved in donor screening regulations and conduct inspections of hospital blood banks. The AABB sets standards for blood banking and transfusion practices, while the FDA regulates and enforces these standards to ensure the safety and quality of the blood supply. Therefore, the correct answer is "Both A & B".

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  • 4. 

    FDA licensure is required if a blood center ships blood or components across state lines

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    FDA licensure is required if a blood center ships blood or components across state lines because the FDA has jurisdiction over the regulation of blood and blood products in the United States. Shipping blood or components across state lines involves interstate commerce, which falls under the purview of the FDA. Licensure ensures that the blood center meets the necessary standards and regulations to ensure the safety and quality of the blood and components being shipped. Therefore, it is true that FDA licensure is required in such cases.

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  • 5. 

    Under the umbrella of the FDA, is __________________ who is responsible for regulating collection for transfusion and reporting errors, accidents, and adverse effects.

    • A.

      College of American Pathology (CAP)

    • B.

      Centers for Biological Evaluation and Research (CBER)

    • C.

      Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Centers for Biological Evaluation and Research (CBER)
    Explanation
    The Centers for Biological Evaluation and Research (CBER) is responsible for regulating collection for transfusion and reporting errors, accidents, and adverse effects. This agency falls under the umbrella of the FDA and focuses specifically on the evaluation and research of biological products, including blood and blood products. They ensure that these products are safe, effective, and properly regulated to protect public health.

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  • 6. 

    Most all hospital blood banks are under the regulations of _________, state agency if applicable and ___________ at their discretion.

    • A.

      CBER, JCAHO

    • B.

      CAP, AABB

    • C.

      AABB, FDA

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. CAP, AABB
    Explanation
    CAP (College of American Pathologists) and AABB (formerly known as American Association of Blood Banks) are both regulatory bodies that oversee the operations and quality standards of hospital blood banks. They ensure that blood banks follow proper procedures for collecting, testing, and storing blood products. The FDA (Food and Drug Administration) also has regulatory authority over blood banks, but it is not mentioned in the question. Therefore, the correct answer is CAP, AABB.

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  • 7. 

    Just like other departments, blood bank has policies and procedures in place (maybe more strict) that have been mandated by the agencies above, these are generally called ____________

    • A.

      Donor process

    • B.

      Physical exam process

    • C.

      Standard operating procedures

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Standard operating procedures
    Explanation
    Standard operating procedures are a set of guidelines and instructions that are established by organizations to ensure consistency and efficiency in their operations. In the context of a blood bank, these procedures would outline the steps and protocols for various processes such as donor screening, blood collection, testing, storage, and distribution. These procedures are typically developed in accordance with regulations and standards set by governing agencies to ensure the safety and quality of blood products. Therefore, standard operating procedures are the most appropriate term to describe the policies and procedures in place in a blood bank.

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  • 8. 

    The entire donor screening process includes: (MARK ALL THAT APPLY)

    • A.

      Medical history obtained in pre-donation

    • B.

      CuSO4 test record

    • C.

      Physical examination

    • D.

      CPDA-1 blood work

    • E.

      Serological testing on donor blood

    • F.

      Autologous

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Medical history obtained in pre-donation
    C. Physical examination
    E. Serological testing on donor blood
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes the steps of the donor screening process. Medical history obtained in pre-donation is important to assess the donor's eligibility and identify any potential risk factors. Physical examination helps to evaluate the donor's overall health and detect any signs of illness or infection. Serological testing on donor blood is necessary to screen for infectious diseases and ensure the safety of the donated blood. These steps are crucial in identifying suitable donors and preventing the transmission of diseases through blood transfusions.

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  • 9. 

    The purpose of ____________ screening is to identify health, travel, medication, or infectious disease risks that could expose a recipient to infections.

    • A.

      Antibody

    • B.

      Pre-donation

    • C.

      ABO

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Pre-donation
    Explanation
    Pre-donation screening refers to the process of evaluating potential donors for any health, travel, medication, or infectious disease risks that could potentially expose the recipient to infections. This screening is crucial to prevent the transmission of diseases through blood transfusions or organ donations. By identifying any potential risks beforehand, healthcare professionals can ensure the safety of the recipients and minimize the chances of infections or complications. Therefore, pre-donation screening plays a vital role in maintaining the integrity of the healthcare system and protecting the health of both donors and recipients.

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  • 10. 

    The process of donation consists of:   (MARK ALL THAT APPLY)

    • A.

      Registration

    • B.

      Testing

    • C.

      Medical Questionnaire

    • D.

      Labeling

    • E.

      Physical Examination

    • F.

      Informed Consent

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Registration
    C. Medical Questionnaire
    E. Physical Examination
    F. Informed Consent
    Explanation
    The process of donation involves several steps. First, the donor needs to register their intention to donate. Then, they need to fill out a medical questionnaire to ensure they meet the necessary criteria for donation. After that, a physical examination is conducted to assess the donor's overall health. Finally, the donor must provide informed consent, indicating their understanding and agreement to proceed with the donation. These steps are crucial in ensuring the safety and suitability of the donation process.

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  • 11. 

    The amount of whole blood to be collected is:

    • A.

      650 mL +/- 55 mL

    • B.

      250 mL +/- 25 mL

    • C.

      450 mL +/- 45 mL

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. 450 mL +/- 45 mL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 450 mL +/- 45 mL. This means that the amount of whole blood to be collected can range from 405 mL to 495 mL. The range of +/- 45 mL allows for some variability in the collection process while still ensuring that the minimum requirement of 450 mL is met.

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  • 12. 

    It is not necessary to invert /mix bag while being collected as long as it is done as soon as collection is complete

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    It is VERY IMPORTANT to invert bag several times to mix the anticoagulant with the blood

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  • 13. 

    There are currently 4 different anticoagulants used in donor blood collection

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    There are currently 6

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  • 14. 

    The primary anticoagulant is __________ and from this comes ___________

    • A.

      CPD, CP2D

    • B.

      CP2D, CPD

    • C.

      CPD, CP3D

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. CPD, CP2D
    Explanation
    The primary anticoagulant used is CPD (citrate phosphate dextrose), and from this comes CP2D (citrate phosphate dextrose with adenine). CPD is commonly used to prevent blood clotting during blood transfusions, while CP2D is a modified version of CPD that also includes adenine, which helps to preserve red blood cell viability during storage. Therefore, CPD is the precursor for CP2D.

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  • 15. 

    CPD and CP2D have a unit shelf life of __________ days

    • A.

      11

    • B.

      21

    • C.

      31

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. 21
    Explanation
    CPD and CP2D have a unit shelf life of 21 days.

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  • 16. 

    When adenine is added to the anticoagulant is becomes ________ and has a shelf life of _______ days

    • A.

      CPDA-1, 35

    • B.

      CPDA-2, 45

    • C.

      CPDA-3, 55

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. CPDA-1, 35
    Explanation
    Adenine is added to the anticoagulant CPDA-1, which gives it a shelf life of 35 days.

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  • 17. 

    From CPDA-1 additional additives are added to further extend the shelf life of donor units

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    CPDA-1 (citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine) is an anticoagulant solution used for preserving donated blood. It contains additional additives that help to extend the shelf life of the donor units. These additives prevent the breakdown of red blood cells and maintain their viability for a longer period of time. Therefore, the statement that additional additives are added to further extend the shelf life of donor units from CPDA-1 is true.

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  • 18. 

    Additives such as __________ extend the shelf life to 42 days (MARK ALL THAT APPLY)

    • A.

      Nadsol

    • B.

      Adsol

    • C.

      Soptisol

    • D.

      Optisol

    • E.

      Cutricel

    • F.

      Nutricel

    • G.

      Naptisol

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Adsol
    D. Optisol
    F. Nutricel
    Explanation
    Additives such as adsol, optisol, and nutricel can extend the shelf life to 42 days.

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  • 19. 

    When collection is complete the collector must make _____________ from the collection bag tubing.

    Correct Answer(s)
    segments
    Segments
    segment
    Segment
    Explanation
    When the collection is complete, the collector must make divisions or separate the collection bag tubing into smaller parts. These smaller parts are referred to as segments or segments. The use of the plural form "segments" suggests that there may be multiple divisions or parts that need to be made. The capitalization of "Segments" and "Segment" indicates that these options are also correct, as they are alternative ways of referring to the same concept.

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  • 20. 

    The segments must remain attached to the unit at all times in order to be used for a transfusion

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In order for the segments to be used for a transfusion, they must remain attached to the unit at all times. This is because the segments contain the necessary components for a transfusion, such as blood cells and plasma. If the segments were detached from the unit, they would not be able to be used for a transfusion as they would not have the necessary components. Therefore, it is true that the segments must remain attached to the unit at all times for a transfusion.

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  • 21. 

    Below are 6 of the 11 Serological donor test.  Which of the 6 are preformed with NAT?

    • A.

      WNV RNA

    • B.

      Antibody Screen

    • C.

      HbsAg

    • D.

      Anti-HCV

    • E.

      HIV RNA

    • F.

      HCV RNA

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. WNV RNA
    E. HIV RNA
    F. HCV RNA
    Explanation
    The serological donor tests that are performed with NAT (Nucleic Acid Testing) are WNV RNA, HIV RNA, and HCV RNA. NAT is a molecular technique used to detect the presence of viral genetic material (RNA or DNA) in a blood sample. It is highly sensitive and can detect viral infections even before antibodies are produced. Therefore, these tests are used to screen for the presence of West Nile Virus (WNV), Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), and Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) in blood donors. The other tests listed (Antibody Screen, HbsAg, and Anti-HCV) are serological tests that detect the presence of antibodies against specific viruses, rather than the viral genetic material itself.

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  • 22. 

    The following screening test have the Western Blot as its Confirmatory Test:  Anti-HIV 1/2 EIA, Anti-HIV 2EIA, and Anti-HTLV I/II

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Western Blot is a confirmatory test used to detect antibodies against specific viruses, such as HIV and HTLV. In this case, the screening tests mentioned (Anti-HIV 1/2 EIA, Anti-HIV 2EIA, and Anti-HTLV I/II) are used to initially screen for the presence of antibodies against HIV and HTLV. If any of these screening tests are positive, the Western Blot is performed to confirm the results. Therefore, the statement that these screening tests have the Western Blot as their confirmatory test is true.

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  • 23. 

    A test for _____________ to detect the virus can save premature infants from a possible life-threatening infection.

    • A.

      CMV

    • B.

      ISBT

    • C.

      ABO/Rh

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. CMV
    Explanation
    CMV stands for Cytomegalovirus, which is a common virus that can cause severe complications in premature infants. A test for CMV can help detect the virus early on and prevent the infants from developing a life-threatening infection. The other options (ISBT and ABO/Rh) are not relevant to detecting the virus in premature infants.

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  • 24. 

    ______________ is a type of donation that is when the intended recipient makes for himself.

    Correct Answer
    Autologous
    autologous
    Explanation
    Autologous refers to a type of donation where the intended recipient makes a donation for themselves. This means that the individual donates their own body tissues, blood, or organs for their own use in medical procedures or treatments. Autologous donations are commonly used in situations where a person requires a transplant or a transfusion, and their own tissues or blood are used to minimize the risk of rejection or complications.

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  • 25. 

    The autologous donations are labeled with a colored tag.  Which color is it?

    • A.

      Yellow

    • B.

      Green

    • C.

      Red

    • D.

      Blue

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Green
    Explanation
    The autologous donations are labeled with a green tag.

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  • 26. 

    The minimum testing required in order for a patient to get their own blood back is a(n) ____________ and requires NO ____________

    • A.

      Antibody screen, crossmatch

    • B.

      ABO/Rh, crossmatch

    • C.

      Antibody titer, crossmatch

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. ABO/Rh, crossmatch
    Explanation
    The minimum testing required for a patient to get their own blood back is an ABO/Rh test and a crossmatch. This means that the patient's blood type and Rh factor are determined, and then a crossmatch is performed to ensure compatibility between the patient's blood and the blood that will be transfused back to them. This testing is necessary to prevent any adverse reactions or complications during the transfusion process.

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  • 27. 

    ____________ type of donation is also called designated or defined or patient-specific, and it is collections that are assigned to a specific patient or recipient.

    Correct Answer
    directed
    Directed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "directed" or "Directed". In this context, directed donation refers to a specific type of donation where the collections are assigned or designated for a particular patient or recipient. It is also known as defined or patient-specific donation.

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  • 28. 

    The directed unit does undergo ____________ if the donor is a blood relative family member of the intended recipient - that is mother, father, child, etc... and is labeled with what color tags and labels?

    • A.

      Irradiation, blue

    • B.

      Irradiation, yellow

    • C.

      Radiation, green

    • D.

      Radiation, red

    Correct Answer
    B. Irradiation, yellow
    Explanation
    When a directed unit of blood is donated by a blood relative family member of the intended recipient (e.g., mother, father, child), it undergoes irradiation. This process helps to prevent a condition called graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), where the immune cells in the donated blood attack the recipient's tissues. The irradiated blood unit is labeled with yellow tags and labels to indicate that it has undergone this special treatment.

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  • 29. 

    Irradiated units of blood MUST have a changed expiration date, so it will change from 42 to 28

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When blood units are irradiated, it means they have been exposed to radiation to kill any potential pathogens. This process can affect the shelf life of the blood, as it may cause changes in the blood's properties. Therefore, irradiated units of blood must have a changed expiration date to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the blood product. In this case, the expiration date is changed from 42 days to 28 days, indicating that the statement is true.

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  • 30. 

    If the expiration date is greater than 4 weeks, we shorten it but if it is equal to 4 weeks we keep the date

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that if the expiration date is greater than 4 weeks, it is shortened. This means that the expiration date is adjusted to be less than 4 weeks. However, if the expiration date is exactly 4 weeks, it is not shortened and remains the same. Therefore, the statement "If the expiration date is greater than 4 weeks, we shorten it but if it is equal to 4 weeks we keep the date" is true.

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  • 31. 

    The pH of a unit of blood __________ as hydrogen ions accumulate as the result of conversion of glucose to ______.

    • A.

      Decreases, lactate

    • B.

      Increases, lactate

    • C.

      Is unchanged, lactose

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreases, lactate
    Explanation
    The pH of a unit of blood decreases as hydrogen ions accumulate as the result of conversion of glucose to lactate. This is because the conversion of glucose to lactate produces hydrogen ions, which increases the acidity of the blood. As a result, the pH of the blood decreases.

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  • 32. 

    __________________ also decreases in stored blood and its decrease is associated with the conversion of a normal biconcave___________________ to a _____________ thereby making it more fragile.

    • A.

      ATP, sphere, disc

    • B.

      DTT, circle, square

    • C.

      ATP, disc, sphere

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. ATP, disc, sphere
    Explanation
    ATP is a molecule that provides energy for cellular processes. In stored blood, the decrease in ATP levels is associated with the conversion of a normal biconcave disc-shaped red blood cell to a sphere-shaped red blood cell. This change in shape makes the red blood cell more fragile.

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  • 33. 

    The anticoagulant CPDA-1 provides _______ and ________ which also contributes to the ATP pool and allows ATP synthesis, respectively.

    • A.

      Phosphate, adenine

    • B.

      Sodium, adenine

    • C.

      Potassium, phosphate

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Phosphate, adenine
    Explanation
    CPDA-1 is an anticoagulant that provides phosphate and adenine. Phosphate is a crucial component in the ATP (adenosine triphosphate) molecule, which is the main source of energy in cells. Adenine is one of the nitrogenous bases that make up DNA and RNA, and it plays a role in ATP synthesis. Therefore, the presence of both phosphate and adenine in CPDA-1 contributes to the ATP pool and allows ATP synthesis. The other options, sodium and potassium, are not directly involved in ATP synthesis or contribute to the ATP pool.

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  • 34. 

    _____________ is necessary to enable hemoglobin to have a normal O2 affinity

    • A.

      3,2 DPG

    • B.

      2,3 DPG

    • C.

      2,3 PEG

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. 2,3 DPG
    Explanation
    2,3 DPG is necessary to enable hemoglobin to have a normal O2 affinity. 2,3 DPG is a small molecule that binds to hemoglobin and helps regulate its oxygen affinity. It is produced in red blood cells during glycolysis and acts as a negative allosteric regulator of hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen. By binding to hemoglobin, 2,3 DPG decreases its affinity for oxygen, allowing for efficient unloading of oxygen to tissues. Without 2,3 DPG, hemoglobin would have a higher affinity for oxygen, making it less likely to release oxygen to tissues.

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  • 35. 

    Another effect storage has on red cell products is the Na-K (sodium-potassium) balance.  _________ moves into red cells and _____________ moves out.

    • A.

      Sodium, Potassium

    • B.

      Potassium, Sodium

    • C.

      Both A & B are possible

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium, Potassium
    Explanation
    Sodium moves into red cells and potassium moves out. This is because red cells have a higher concentration of potassium inside compared to the surrounding plasma, so potassium diffuses out of the cell. At the same time, sodium moves into the cell in order to maintain the Na-K balance. Therefore, the correct answer is Sodium, Potassium.

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  • 36. 

    Blood used for neonatal exchange transfusions should be less than ____ old to minimize K.

    • A.

      4 days

    • B.

      7 days

    • C.

      11 days

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. 7 days
    Explanation
    Blood used for neonatal exchange transfusions should be less than 7 days old to minimize the risk of complications, such as infection or hemolysis. After 7 days, the blood may have degraded and may not provide the necessary oxygen-carrying capacity. Therefore, it is important to use fresh blood for neonatal exchange transfusions to ensure the best possible outcomes for the newborn.

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  • 37. 

    Patients in renal failure (dialysis patients) should receive fresh red cells

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Patients in renal failure (dialysis patients) should receive fresh red cells because they often have anemia as a result of their condition. Fresh red cells have higher levels of oxygen-carrying capacity, which can help improve their oxygenation and overall well-being. Additionally, dialysis patients often undergo frequent blood transfusions, and fresh red cells can help minimize the risk of adverse reactions or complications associated with older blood. Therefore, it is essential to provide them with fresh red cells to optimize their treatment and enhance their quality of life.

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  • 38. 

    Potassium is __________ and Sodium is ____________.

    • A.

      In vivo, in vitro

    • B.

      Extracellular, intracellular

    • C.

      Intracellular, extracellular

    • D.

      In vitro, in vivo

    Correct Answer
    C. Intracellular, extracellular
    Explanation
    Potassium is predominantly found inside cells, making it intracellular. Sodium, on the other hand, is mainly found outside of cells, making it extracellular.

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  • 39. 

    Platelets and plasma componenents are now collected at WTRBC by a method called _____________

    • A.

      Apheresis

    • B.

      Concentration

    • C.

      Spheresis concentration

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Apheresis
    Explanation
    Apheresis is a method used to collect specific blood components, such as platelets and plasma, from a donor. It involves removing blood from the donor, separating the desired components, and returning the remaining blood components back to the donor. This process allows for the collection of a higher concentration of platelets or plasma compared to traditional blood donation methods. Therefore, apheresis is the correct method used for collecting platelets and plasma components at WTRBC.

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  • 40. 

    The shelf life (expiration date) of the frozen products (-18 degrees or colder) is _________ after the date of collection, and the shelf life of platelet products today is _______ with room temperature storage

    • A.

      3 years, 5 days

    • B.

      2 years, 3 days

    • C.

      1 year, 5 days

    • D.

      5 years, 1 day

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 year, 5 days
    Explanation
    Frozen products typically have a longer shelf life compared to platelet products, which need to be stored at room temperature. The given answer of "1 year, 5 days" suggests that frozen products can be stored for up to one year after the date of collection, while platelet products can only be stored for up to five days at room temperature. This shorter shelf life for platelet products is likely due to their higher susceptibility to bacterial contamination and degradation.

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  • 41. 

    All blood products are stored in a constantly monitored and recordable piece of equipment.  Since all labs are not staffed 24/7, and external alarm system must be in place and working.  If no external alarm temps are recorded once every 8 hour shift.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Temps are recorded for every 4 hours a component is in the equipment.

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  • 42. 

    RBC's ideal temp is ___ degrees C, but a range of _______ degrees C is acceptable

    • A.

      5, 2-7

    • B.

      3, 1-5

    • C.

      4, 1-6

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. 4, 1-6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4, 1-6. This means that the ideal temperature for RBCs (red blood cells) is 4 degrees Celsius, but a range of 1-6 degrees Celsius is also acceptable. This temperature range is important for maintaining the integrity and function of the RBCs, as extreme temperatures can lead to cell damage or death.

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  • 43. 

    Platelets are stored at ____________ degrees C and requires constant ________

    • A.

      20-24, agitation

    • B.

      27-30, agitation

    • C.

      12-18, stability

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 20-24, agitation
    Explanation
    Platelets are stored at temperatures between 20-24 degrees Celsius because this range provides an optimal environment for their preservation. Additionally, platelets require constant agitation to prevent clumping and ensure an even distribution of nutrients and oxygen. Agitation helps maintain the functionality and viability of platelets during storage. Therefore, the correct answer is 20-24 degrees Celsius with agitation.

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  • 44. 

    FFP and Cryo prefer ________ degrees C.  Once the order is written to transfuse one of these products, they are thawed  at ______ degrees C with constant agitation.

    • A.

      -18, 37

    • B.

      18, 27

    • C.

      -22, 18

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. -18, 37
    Explanation
    FFP and Cryo prefer to be thawed at -18 degrees Celsius with constant agitation.

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  • 45. 

    Frozen products are shipped in a cooler with cold packs, maintaining a _________ degree C environment.  Platelets will go inside a cooler also but NOT COLD.

    • A.

      10-20

    • B.

      1-10

    • C.

      -1-20

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. 1-10
    Explanation
    Frozen products are shipped in a cooler with cold packs to maintain a temperature range of 1-10 degree Celsius. This range ensures that the products remain frozen but not extremely cold. Platelets, on the other hand, need to be stored at a slightly higher temperature than frozen products, so they will also be placed in a cooler but not in a cold environment.

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  • 46. 

    Any changes in the appearance of the unit are considered abnormal, and the unit must be quarantined

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Any changes in the appearance of the unit are considered abnormal, indicating that something is wrong with the unit. Therefore, the unit must be quarantined to prevent any potential issues or malfunctions from affecting other units or systems.

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  • 47. 

    Acceptable blood donor blood pressure (BP) is _______

    • A.

      180/100

    • B.

      150/200

    • C.

      150/95

    • D.

      185/115

    Correct Answer
    A. 180/100
    Explanation
    The acceptable blood donor blood pressure is 180/100. This means that the systolic pressure is 180 mmHg and the diastolic pressure is 100 mmHg. Blood pressure within this range is considered acceptable for blood donation as it falls within the normal range for blood pressure readings.

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  • 48. 

    Acceptable blood donor temp is:

    • A.

      101.2 degrees F or 39.1 degrees C

    • B.

      99.5 degrees F or 37.5 degrees C

    • C.

      84.2 degrees F or 31.1 degrees C

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. 99.5 degrees F or 37.5 degrees C
    Explanation
    The acceptable blood donor temperature is 99.5 degrees F or 37.5 degrees C. This is the correct answer because it falls within the normal range of body temperature for a healthy individual. A temperature of 101.2 degrees F or 39.1 degrees C is considered a fever and would disqualify someone from donating blood. Similarly, a temperature of 84.2 degrees F or 31.1 degrees C is abnormally low and would also disqualify a potential donor. Therefore, the only acceptable temperature for a blood donor is 99.5 degrees F or 37.5 degrees C.

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  • 49. 

    Acceptable blood donor pulse is:

    • A.

      100-150 bpm

    • B.

      75-125 bpm

    • C.

      50-100 bpm

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. 50-100 bpm
    Explanation
    The acceptable blood donor pulse is 50-100 bpm. This range indicates a normal resting heart rate, which is important for ensuring that the donor is in good cardiovascular health. A pulse rate below 50 bpm may indicate bradycardia, a condition where the heart beats too slowly, while a pulse rate above 100 bpm may indicate tachycardia, a condition where the heart beats too fast. Both conditions can be concerning for blood donation as they may indicate underlying health issues or physiological stress on the heart. Therefore, a pulse rate between 50-100 bpm is considered acceptable for blood donation.

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  • 50. 

    Minimum blood donor weight is:

    • A.

      110 lbs.

    • B.

      115 lbs.

    • C.

      105 lbs.

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 110 lbs.
    Explanation
    The minimum blood donor weight is 110 lbs. This means that individuals who weigh less than 110 lbs cannot donate blood.

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