Vascular Final Study Guide Part 4
71-100
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Normal flow in the renal arteries and arteries of the kidney is
- A.
Low resistance
- B.
High resistance
- C.
May show evidence of both high and low resistance
- D.
Monophasic
Correct Answer
A. Low resistanceExplanation
The normal flow in the renal arteries and arteries of the kidney is characterized by low resistance. This means that there is minimal impedance to the blood flow, allowing it to flow easily through the arteries. This is important for the kidneys as they require a steady and efficient blood supply to perform their filtration and waste removal functions effectively. Low resistance in these arteries ensures that an adequate amount of blood reaches the kidneys, maintaining their proper function.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Significant stenosis in relation in the renal arteries is considered to be
- A.
40% or greater
- B.
50% or greater
- C.
60% or greater
- D.
80% or greater
Correct Answer
B. 50% or greaterExplanation
A significant stenosis in relation to the renal arteries is considered to be 50% or greater. This means that if there is a blockage or narrowing in the renal arteries that reduces the blood flow by 50% or more, it is considered to be significant. This level of stenosis can lead to decreased kidney function and potentially result in conditions such as renal artery stenosis or hypertension.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In venous duplex Doppler scanning, Acute DVT may exhibit all of the followng characteristics, EXCEPT
- A.
Spongy texture
- B.
Poor attachment to wall
- C.
Highly echogenic
- D.
Dilated vessel
Correct Answer
C. Highly echogenicExplanation
Acute DVT may exhibit spongy texture, poor attachment to the wall, and dilated vessel characteristics. However, it is not expected to be highly echogenic. The term "echogenic" refers to the ability of a structure to produce echoes in an ultrasound scan. In the context of venous duplex Doppler scanning, highly echogenic would mean that the DVT appears bright and reflective on the ultrasound image, which is not typical for an acute DVT.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In TRV, the popliteal vein does not fill with color at all. One must consider all of the following possibilities EXCEPT
- A.
DVT
- B.
Poor angle of insonation
- C.
The filter is set too high
- D.
Arterial shadowing
Correct Answer
D. Arterial shadowingExplanation
The given answer, arterial shadowing, is the exception among the listed possibilities. Arterial shadowing refers to the presence of a shadow caused by the arterial flow, which can obstruct the visualization of the popliteal vein. However, the statement mentions that the popliteal vein does not fill with color at all, indicating a lack of venous flow rather than arterial shadowing. Therefore, arterial shadowing is not a possible explanation for the absence of color filling in the popliteal vein.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Surgical intervention is indicated in the instance of abdominal aortic aneurysm when the measurement reaches _____ or greater.
- A.
3 cm
- B.
5 cm
- C.
10 cm
- D.
1.5 cm
Correct Answer
B. 5 cmExplanation
Surgical intervention is indicated in the instance of abdominal aortic aneurysm when the measurement reaches 5 cm or greater. This is because an aneurysm is a bulge or enlargement in the wall of the aorta, the main blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. When the aneurysm reaches 5 cm or greater, there is an increased risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, surgical intervention is necessary to repair or remove the aneurysm and prevent potential complications.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Of the following symptoms, which is related to subclavian steal syndrome?
- A.
Cold blue toes
- B.
Redness in the affected extremity
- C.
Brachial blood pressures differing by 15-20 mm/Hg
- D.
Numbness in the affected extremity
Correct Answer
C. Brachial blood pressures differing by 15-20 mm/HgExplanation
Subclavian steal syndrome occurs when there is a blockage or narrowing of the subclavian artery, which leads to decreased blood flow to the arm. This can result in a significant difference in blood pressure between the affected arm and the unaffected arm, with a difference of 15-20 mm/Hg being commonly observed. The other symptoms mentioned, such as cold blue toes, redness, and numbness, are not specifically associated with subclavian steal syndrome.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A patient presents for ultrasound complaining of a dull aching and cramping pain that occurs about 15-20 minutes after eating. About what vessel should the sonographer be most concerned?
- A.
The splenic artery
- B.
The superior mesenteric artery
- C.
The renal artery
- D.
The aorta
Correct Answer
B. The superior mesenteric arteryExplanation
The patient's symptoms of dull aching and cramping pain after eating suggest a possible issue with blood supply to the intestines. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, which is involved in the digestion and absorption of food. If there is a problem with this artery, such as a blockage or narrowing, it can lead to reduced blood flow to the intestines and result in the symptoms described by the patient. Therefore, the sonographer should be most concerned about the superior mesenteric artery in this case.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Normal blood flow to the liver via the portal vein is
- A.
Highly resistive
- B.
Collateral
- C.
Hepatofugal
- D.
Changeable after ingestion of a high caloric meal
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "none of the above". This means that normal blood flow to the liver via the portal vein is not highly resistive, collateral, hepatofugal, or changeable after ingestion of a high caloric meal.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which is the best transducer choice for a duplex examination of the abdominal vasculature?
- A.
3.5 MHz
- B.
7.5 MHz
- C.
10.0 MHz
- D.
12.0 MHz
Correct Answer
A. 3.5 MHzExplanation
A 3.5 MHz transducer is the best choice for a duplex examination of the abdominal vasculature because it provides a deeper penetration and better visualization of the larger vessels in the abdomen. The lower frequency allows for better imaging of the deeper structures, while still providing sufficient resolution to assess blood flow and detect any abnormalities. Higher frequency transducers, such as 7.5 MHz, 10.0 MHz, or 12.0 MHz, may provide better resolution but have limited depth penetration, making them less suitable for imaging the abdominal vasculature.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following Renal and Aorta ratios is normal?
- A.
Greater than 1.5
- B.
Less than 1.5
- C.
Greater than 3.5
- D.
Less than 3.5
Correct Answer
D. Less than 3.5Explanation
A normal Renal and Aorta ratio is less than 3.5. This means that the size of the renal artery is less than 3.5 times the size of the aorta. If the ratio is greater than 3.5, it may indicate an abnormality or blockage in the renal artery.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The resistivity index is used in order to determine
- A.
The normal resistance of the vessel
- B.
To ascertain if resistance is increasing
- C.
To ascertain if resistance is decreasing
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. To ascertain if resistance is increasingExplanation
The resistivity index is used to determine if resistance is increasing. This index is a measure of how much the resistance of a material increases with temperature. By calculating the resistivity index, we can determine if the resistance of a vessel is increasing as the temperature rises. This information is important in various applications, such as in electrical systems, where an increase in resistance may indicate a potential problem or malfunction.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The most common location for a dissecting aortic aneurysm is
- A.
Inferior to the SMA and superior to the IMA
- B.
Inferior to the renal arteries
- C.
Inferior to the bifurcation of the aorta
- D.
Superior to the diaphragm in the thoracic aorta
Correct Answer
D. Superior to the diaphragm in the thoracic aortaExplanation
A dissecting aortic aneurysm refers to a condition where the layers of the aorta separate, causing the vessel to bulge and potentially rupture. The most common location for this type of aneurysm is superior to the diaphragm in the thoracic aorta. This means that the aneurysm occurs above the diaphragm, in the portion of the aorta that is located in the chest.Rate this question:
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- 13.
All of the following positions are used in the performance of an abdominal vascular exam EXCEPT
- A.
Supine
- B.
Prone
- C.
RLD
- D.
LLD
Correct Answer
B. ProneExplanation
An abdominal vascular exam is performed to assess blood flow in the abdominal region. The positions used in this exam include supine (lying flat on the back), RLD (right lateral decubitus - lying on the right side), and LLD (left lateral decubitus - lying on the left side). Prone position refers to lying flat on the stomach, which is not typically used in an abdominal vascular exam. Therefore, the correct answer is prone.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A renal artery duplex exam is commonly ordered for patients who are suspected of having
- A.
Mesenteric angina
- B.
Reno-vascular hypertension
- C.
Diabetes
- D.
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Correct Answer
B. Reno-vascular hypertensionExplanation
A renal artery duplex exam is commonly ordered for patients who are suspected of having reno-vascular hypertension. This is because reno-vascular hypertension is a condition characterized by high blood pressure caused by narrowing or blockage of the renal arteries, which supply blood to the kidneys. The duplex exam can help diagnose this condition by assessing the blood flow in the renal arteries and detecting any abnormalities such as stenosis or occlusion.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The most common shape for an abdominal aortic aneurysm is
- A.
Fusiform
- B.
Saccular
- C.
Dissecting
- D.
Reniform
Correct Answer
A. FusiformExplanation
A fusiform abdominal aortic aneurysm is the most common shape for this condition. Fusiform refers to an aneurysm that bulges out on all sides of the blood vessel, creating a symmetrically shaped dilation. This type of aneurysm occurs when the walls of the aorta weaken and expand, potentially leading to a rupture if left untreated. The other options, saccular, dissecting, and reniform, refer to different shapes of aneurysms that are less common than the fusiform shape.Rate this question:
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- 16.
If an abdominal aortic aneurysm is growing at a rate of greater than 1 cm per annum, it is most likely that
- A.
It will be closely followed
- B.
It is not of concern if the patient has no symptoms
- C.
Surgery will be performed
- D.
Ultrasound follow up examination will be performed until it is 5 cm
Correct Answer
C. Surgery will be performedExplanation
If an abdominal aortic aneurysm is growing at a rate of greater than 1 cm per annum, it is most likely that surgery will be performed. This is because a rapidly growing aneurysm poses a higher risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. Surgery is typically recommended to repair or remove the aneurysm in order to prevent complications and reduce the risk of rupture.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following descriptions apply to a waveform that is triphasic
- A.
Reverse component
- B.
Pulsatile
- C.
Forward flow in late diastole
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
A waveform that is triphasic refers to a pattern that has three distinct phases or components. The term "reverse component" suggests that there is a reversal of flow direction, meaning the flow goes in the opposite direction compared to the normal flow. The term "pulsatile" indicates that the waveform has a pulsing or rhythmic pattern, which is characteristic of blood flow. Finally, "forward flow in late diastole" means that there is forward movement of blood during the late phase of diastole, which is the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle. Therefore, all of the given descriptions apply to a triphasic waveform.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When peak systolic velocities in the renal arteries exceed 200 cm/sec, this is indicative of
- A.
Normal flow velocity for the renal arteries
- B.
Diameter reduction of the renal artery of 30%
- C.
Diameter reduction of the renal artery of 60% or greater
- D.
A tortuous renal artery
Correct Answer
C. Diameter reduction of the renal artery of 60% or greaterExplanation
When peak systolic velocities in the renal arteries exceed 200 cm/sec, it indicates a diameter reduction of the renal artery of 60% or greater. This is because high velocities are typically seen in cases of significant stenosis or narrowing of the renal artery. A reduction in diameter of 60% or more would cause an increase in blood flow velocity. Therefore, this finding suggests a significant narrowing or blockage in the renal artery.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What happens to the waveform in the Superior Mesenteric Artery after the patient eats?
- A.
Systolic velocities increase
- B.
Diastolic velocities increase
- C.
Systolic velocities decrease
- D.
Diastolic velocities decrease
Correct Answer
B. Diastolic velocities increaseExplanation
After a patient eats, the digestive system requires increased blood flow to aid in the digestion process. This increased blood flow causes the diastolic velocities in the Superior Mesenteric Artery to increase. Diastolic velocities refer to the speed of blood flow during the relaxation phase of the heart cycle, which is when the heart is filling with blood. Therefore, the increased diastolic velocities indicate that more blood is flowing through the artery during this phase, providing the necessary nutrients and oxygen to the digestive system.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the location of the carotid artery siphon
- A.
In the cranium
- B.
At the bifurcation of the ICA and ECA
- C.
At the level of the second ECA branch
- D.
At the point where the vertebral arteries merge and form the basilar artery
Correct Answer
A. In the craniumExplanation
The carotid artery siphon is located in the cranium.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following equations is most closely related to the prediction of the onset of turbulent flow?
- A.
Reynold's Critical Number
- B.
Poiseuille's Equation
- C.
Bernoulli's Law
- D.
Snell's Law
Correct Answer
A. Reynold's Critical NumberExplanation
Reynold's Critical Number is the correct answer because it is directly related to the prediction of the onset of turbulent flow. The Reynold's Critical Number, also known as the Reynold's number, is a dimensionless quantity that determines whether the flow of a fluid will be laminar or turbulent. It is calculated by dividing the product of the fluid velocity, characteristic length, and fluid density by the fluid viscosity. When the Reynold's number exceeds a certain value, typically around 2000, the flow becomes turbulent. Therefore, Reynold's Critical Number is the equation most closely related to the prediction of the onset of turbulent flow.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following is (are) normal venous flow findings?
- A.
Spontaneous
- B.
Phasic
- C.
Non pulsatile
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "all of the above" because spontaneous, phasic, and non-pulsatile are all normal venous flow findings. Spontaneous refers to the flow occurring without external pressure, phasic means the flow varies with respiration or movement, and non-pulsatile means the flow does not have a pulsating pattern like arterial flow. Therefore, all three options are correct and represent normal venous flow findings.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The most important collateral pathway in the cerebral arterial system is
- A.
The peri-orbital anastomosis
- B.
The Circle of Willis
- C.
Reversal of flow in the vertebral arteries
- D.
Alternative flow through the ECA with ICA occlusion
Correct Answer
B. The Circle of WillisExplanation
The Circle of Willis is the most important collateral pathway in the cerebral arterial system. It is a circular network of arteries located at the base of the brain that connects the major arteries supplying blood to the brain. It provides alternative routes for blood flow in case of occlusion or blockage in any of the main arteries. This collateral circulation helps ensure a continuous supply of oxygen and nutrients to the brain, reducing the risk of ischemic damage in case of arterial occlusion.Rate this question:
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- 24.
All of the following are deep veins of the upper extremity with the EXCEPTION of
- A.
The basilic vein
- B.
The radial vein
- C.
The ulnar vein
- D.
The cephalic vein
Correct Answer
D. The cephalic veinExplanation
The question asks for the deep veins of the upper extremity with the exception of one. The basilic vein, radial vein, and ulnar vein are all deep veins of the upper extremity. However, the cephalic vein is not a deep vein, but rather a superficial vein of the upper extremity.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The greatest amount of energy found in flowing blood is in the form of
- A.
Kinetic energy
- B.
Pressure energy
- C.
Hydrostatic energy
- D.
Resistance energy
Correct Answer
B. Pressure energyExplanation
The greatest amount of energy found in flowing blood is in the form of pressure energy. This is because blood flows through the circulatory system under pressure, exerting force on the walls of blood vessels. This pressure energy is essential for maintaining blood flow and ensuring that oxygen and nutrients are delivered to tissues and organs throughout the body.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Bernoulli's Law states that
- A.
Pressure and velocity are inversely related
- B.
Inertia and resistance are directly related
- C.
When pressure changes, resistance increases
- D.
Greater energy losses occur with multiple stenosis
Correct Answer
A. Pressure and velocity are inversely relatedExplanation
According to Bernoulli's Law, pressure and velocity are inversely related. This means that as the velocity of a fluid increases, the pressure decreases, and vice versa. This principle is based on the conservation of energy in fluid flow, where an increase in fluid velocity results in a decrease in pressure due to the conversion of some of the fluid's potential energy into kinetic energy. Conversely, a decrease in velocity leads to an increase in pressure.Rate this question:
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- 27.
In order to open a vessel up that is closed on both ends of the ultrasound monitor, what movement should the sonographer make?
- A.
Sliding
- B.
Rocking
- C.
Rotating
- D.
Angling
Correct Answer
C. RotatingExplanation
To open a vessel that is closed on both ends on the ultrasound monitor, the sonographer should make a rotating movement. This means that the sonographer should rotate the ultrasound probe in order to visualize the vessel from different angles and open it up on the monitor. By rotating the probe, the sonographer can obtain a comprehensive view of the vessel and gather more information about its structure and any potential abnormalities.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Incompetent venous valves can be demonstrated using ultrasound by which of the following testing methods?
- A.
Use of color doppler
- B.
Use of the valsalva maneuver
- C.
Proximal augmentation
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the testing methods mentioned (use of color doppler, use of the valsalva maneuver, and proximal augmentation) can be used to demonstrate incompetent venous valves using ultrasound. Color doppler can show the direction and speed of blood flow, which can help identify valve dysfunction. The valsalva maneuver, where the patient bears down forcefully, can increase venous pressure and reveal valve incompetence. Proximal augmentation involves applying pressure to the vein to assess the competence of the valves. Therefore, all of these methods can be used to demonstrate incompetent venous valves.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following are the terminal branches of the basilar artery?
- A.
Posterior cerebral arteries
- B.
Anterior cerebral arteries
- C.
Middle cerebral arteries
- D.
Vertebral arteries
Correct Answer
A. Posterior cerebral arteriesExplanation
The terminal branches of the basilar artery are the posterior cerebral arteries. The basilar artery is formed by the fusion of the two vertebral arteries, and it supplies blood to the posterior part of the brain. The posterior cerebral arteries further divide into smaller branches and supply blood to the occipital lobe and parts of the temporal and parietal lobes. The anterior cerebral arteries and middle cerebral arteries are not terminal branches of the basilar artery, but rather branches of the internal carotid arteries.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following transducer frequencies is used in the performance of a transcranial Doppler ultrasound examination?
- A.
7.5 MHz
- B.
5.0 MHz
- C.
3.5 MHz
- D.
2.0 MHz
Correct Answer
D. 2.0 MHzExplanation
A transcranial Doppler ultrasound examination is used to evaluate blood flow in the brain. Lower frequencies are typically used in transcranial Doppler ultrasound because they can penetrate deeper into the tissues. The 2.0 MHz frequency is the lowest among the given options, making it the most suitable for this type of examination.Rate this question:
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