CDC B3m071 Services Craftsman - Volume 2. Readiness, Mortuary, And Protocol

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  • 1/67 Questions

    Which wartime priority supports the strategic offense and defensive missions?

    • 1.
    • 2.
    • 3.
    • 4.
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in operational readiness, mortuary affairs, and protocol, focusing on military support operations, resource identification, and emergency management roles. It is designed for individuals preparing for the CDC B3M071 Services Craftsman certification.

CDC B3m071 Services Craftsman - Volume 2. Readiness, Mortuary, And Protocol - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which part of the base support plan, expeditionary site plans (ESP) identifies resources?

    • Part 1.

    • Part 2.

    • Service annex.

    • Joint support plan.

    Correct Answer
    A. Part 1.
    Explanation
    Part 1 of the base support plan, expeditionary site plans (ESP), identifies resources. This means that Part 1 of the plan specifically outlines and lists the necessary resources that will be required for the expeditionary site. It provides details on the equipment, materials, and supplies that will be needed to support the mission at the site. The other options (Part 2, Service annex, and Joint support plan) are not specifically focused on identifying resources, making Part 1 the correct answer.

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  • 3. 

    Within the emergency management process who provide oversight for the installation commander during emergencies?

    • Emergency operations center director.

    • Emergency support function staff.

    • Incident commander.

    • Unit control center officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Emergency operations center director.
    Explanation
    The emergency operations center director provides oversight for the installation commander during emergencies. They are responsible for coordinating and managing the overall emergency response efforts, ensuring that the commander is informed and making informed decisions. The emergency operations center director acts as a central point of contact, gathering and disseminating information, coordinating resources, and ensuring effective communication between various emergency support functions and incident commanders. They play a crucial role in overseeing the emergency management process and ensuring a coordinated and effective response to emergencies.

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  • 4. 

    Which time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is associated with a written operational plan (OPLAN)?

    • Requirements driven.

    • Balance and certified.

    • Capabilities driven.

    • Ratified.

    Correct Answer
    A. Requirements driven.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Requirements driven." In an operational plan (OPLAN), the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is usually driven by the specific requirements outlined in the plan. These requirements determine the necessary forces, equipment, and resources needed for the mission. By being requirements driven, the TPFDD aligns with the specific needs and objectives of the operational plan, ensuring that the deployment of forces is tailored to meet those requirements effectively.

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  • 5. 

    Which numerical figure is not one of the population bases that Services unit type code (UTC) are built on?

    • 275.

    • 550.

    • 1100.

    • 2200.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2200.
    Explanation
    The question asks for the numerical figure that is not one of the population bases that Services unit type code (UTC) are built on. The given options are 275, 550, 1100, and 2200. The correct answer is 2200 because it is the only option that is not a population base for UTC.

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  • 6. 

    The wartime flight feeding planning factor is based on?

    • 70 percent of patients in medical facility.

    • 80 percent of convalescent.

    • 90 percent of base population.

    • 100 percent of base population.

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 percent of base population.
    Explanation
    The wartime flight feeding planning factor is based on 100 percent of the base population. This means that the planning factor takes into account the entire population of the base during wartime, without excluding any individuals. This ensures that there is enough food and resources allocated for everyone in the base during times of conflict.

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  • 7. 

    Within the force support squadron (FSS), who ensures qualified individuals fill each deployable unit type code (UTC) positioned assigned to the unit?

    • Flight chief.

    • Activity manager.

    • Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • Resource manager (RM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit deployment manager (UDM).
    Explanation
    The Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) is responsible for ensuring that qualified individuals are assigned to each deployable unit type code (UTC) within the force support squadron (FSS). They are in charge of coordinating and managing the deployment process, including personnel assignments and ensuring that all necessary qualifications and training are met. The UDM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the FSS is properly staffed and prepared for deployment operations.

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  • 8. 

    What is the fundamental premise of Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?

    • Integrity.

    • Accuracy.

    • Timeliness.

    • Statistical data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrity.
    Explanation
    The fundamental premise of Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting is integrity. This means that the reporting system is based on honesty, transparency, and adherence to ethical principles. It emphasizes the importance of providing accurate and reliable information without any manipulation or bias. Integrity ensures that the data reported is trustworthy and can be used for decision-making and resource allocation purposes.

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  • 9. 

    Which mortuary program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?

    • Current death.

    • Concurrent return.

    • Temporary interment.

    • Wartime mortuary affairs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Concurrent return.
    Explanation
    During periods of conflict, the preferred method of handling remains is concurrent return. This means that the deceased are returned to their home country or place of origin as soon as possible. This allows for the proper and respectful handling of the remains, ensuring that they are returned to their loved ones for burial or other funeral arrangements. Concurrent return is a crucial aspect of wartime mortuary affairs, as it prioritizes the timely repatriation of fallen soldiers and civilians.

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  • 10. 

    The Air Force survivor assistance program (AFSAP) must be responsive to the information needs of the?

    • Unit.

    • Media.

    • Public.

    • Family.

    Correct Answer
    A. Family.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Family. The Air Force survivor assistance program (AFSAP) is designed to provide support and assistance to the families of Air Force personnel who have died while serving. The program aims to address the specific information needs of the families during this difficult time, offering them guidance, resources, and support to help them cope with their loss. While the media and public may have an interest in the program, its primary focus is on the needs of the families affected by the loss.

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  • 11. 

    Within how many hours should training be completed once you are identified as a family affairs representative (FAR)?

    • 12.

    • 24.

    • 36.

    • 48.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24.
    Explanation
    Once identified as a family affairs representative (FAR), training should be completed within 24 hours. This timeframe ensures that the representative is equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively handle family affairs and provide support to those in need. Completing the training promptly allows for a timely response and assistance to individuals and families requiring help and guidance.

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  • 12. 

    Which form would you used as a death confirmation letter if the death occurs overseas? 

    • Form 57, Mortuary Guide.

    • AF Form 970, Statement of Disposition of Remains.

    • DD form 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains.

    • DD form 2065, Death Certificate.

    Correct Answer
    A. DD form 2065, Death Certificate.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD form 2065, Death Certificate. This form is used as a death confirmation letter if the death occurs overseas. It is a legal document that certifies the fact, date, and cause of death. It is important for various administrative and legal purposes, including settling the deceased person's estate, insurance claims, and repatriation of remains.

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  • 13. 

    How many copies of a certified state death certificate are given to a person authorized to direct disposition (PADD)?

    • 10.

    • 12.

    • 16.

    • 18.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.
    Explanation
    When a person authorized to direct disposition (PADD) requests a certified state death certificate, they are given a total of 10 copies. These copies are typically needed for various legal and administrative purposes, such as settling the deceased person's estate, claiming life insurance benefits, and notifying financial institutions and government agencies. Having multiple copies ensures that the PADD can easily provide the necessary documentation to the relevant parties involved in the disposition process.

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  • 14. 

    What is the maximum allowable number of internment flags given to a deceased’s family?

    • 4.

    • 3.

    • 2.

    • 1.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.
    Explanation
    The maximum allowable number of internment flags given to a deceased's family is 3. This means that the family can receive up to three flags as a symbol of honor and respect for the deceased individual's service to the country. These flags are typically presented during the funeral or memorial service and hold significant meaning for the family and the military community.

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  • 15. 

    Which transport method is not authorized for movement of a deceased member’s remains?

    • Commercial aircraft.

    • Hearse or service car.

    • Government aircraft.

    • Personal vehicle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal vehicle.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Personal vehicle." This is because using a personal vehicle to transport a deceased member's remains is not authorized. It is typically required to use specific authorized methods such as commercial aircraft, hearse or service car, or government aircraft for the transportation of a deceased person's remains. Using a personal vehicle may not meet the necessary legal and safety requirements for such transportation.

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  • 16. 

    Who is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses?

    • Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate (HQ AFPC/SV).

    • Headquarters Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO).

    • MAJCOM/A1S.

    • Installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM/A1S.
    Explanation
    MAJCOM/A1S is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses. This suggests that the financial planning for mortuary expenses is handled at the major command level, specifically by the MAJCOM/A1S department. The other options, such as the Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate (HQ AFPC/SV) and Headquarters Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO), may have other responsibilities related to mortuary affairs but not specifically for financial planning. The installation commander may have some oversight or decision-making authority, but the actual development of the financial plan falls under the responsibility of MAJCOM/A1S.

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  • 17. 

    The government purchase card (GPC) may be used for which type of expense?

    • Primary.

    • Secondary.

    • Advertisement.

    • Other.

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary.
    Explanation
    The government purchase card (GPC) is used for primary expenses. This means that it can be used for essential and necessary expenses that directly support the government's operations or mission. Secondary expenses, on the other hand, are typically non-essential or optional expenses. Advertisement expenses may be covered by other means, such as advertising budgets or contracts. The "Other" option is too vague and does not specify the type of expenses it refers to.

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  • 18. 

    Which deceased member relative is not authorized to receive travel and per diem entitlements for funeral travel?

    • Spouse.

    • Children.

    • Parent(s).

    • Grandchildren.

    Correct Answer
    A. Grandchildren.
    Explanation
    Grandchildren are not authorized to receive travel and per diem entitlements for funeral travel. This is because the entitlements are typically limited to immediate family members, such as the spouse, children, and parents of the deceased member. Grandchildren are considered one generation removed from the deceased member and therefore do not qualify for these entitlements.

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  • 19. 

    Which document cites the performance requirements of the contractor?

    • Quality assurance surveillance plan.

    • Memorandum of understanding.

    • Service delivery summary.

    • Quality control program.

    Correct Answer
    A. Service delivery summary.
    Explanation
    The service delivery summary is the document that cites the performance requirements of the contractor. This document outlines the expectations and standards that the contractor must meet in terms of service delivery. It provides a comprehensive overview of the performance requirements, including metrics, targets, and any specific deliverables that need to be achieved. The service delivery summary serves as a reference point for evaluating the contractor's performance and ensuring that they are meeting the agreed-upon requirements. The other options, such as the quality assurance surveillance plan, memorandum of understanding, and quality control program, may be related to monitoring and evaluating performance but do not specifically cite the performance requirements.

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  • 20. 

    Which person provides a complete quality control program to assure contract requirements are met?

    • Quality assurance evaluator (QAE).

    • Mortuary Officer (MO).

    • Commander.

    • Contractor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractor.
    Explanation
    The contractor is responsible for providing a complete quality control program to ensure that contract requirements are met. This means that they are in charge of implementing and managing the necessary processes and procedures to ensure that the final product or service meets the specified quality standards. The quality assurance evaluator (QAE) is responsible for evaluating and verifying the contractor's quality control program, but they do not provide the program themselves. The mortuary officer (MO) is not directly related to quality control programs. The commander may have oversight and authority, but they do not provide the program itself.

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  • 21. 

    What is the most embedded custom in the military culture?

    • Calling a room to attention.

    • Place of honor.

    • Marching.

    • Saluting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Saluting.
    Explanation
    Saluting is considered the most embedded custom in military culture. It is a gesture of respect and recognition between military personnel. Saluting is a long-standing tradition that symbolizes discipline, obedience, and mutual respect within the military hierarchy. It is performed when acknowledging a superior officer or when the national anthem is played. Saluting is deeply ingrained in military culture and is seen as a symbol of honor and professionalism.

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  • 22. 

    Spouses of high ranking officials are typically addressed as?

    • Mr. or Mrs. with their first name.

    • Mr. or Mrs. with their surname.

    • The spouse’s rank with their first name.

    • The spouse’s rank with their name and surname.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mr. or Mrs. with their surname.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Mr. or Mrs. with their surname. When addressing the spouses of high-ranking officials, it is customary to use their surname as a sign of respect and to acknowledge their association with their partner's position. Using their first name may be seen as too informal, while including the spouse's rank or using both their first name and surname is not typically done.

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  • 23. 

    What must be spelled out, in plain English on all military invitations?

    • Host’s unit.

    • Rank of invitee.

    • Military acronyms.

    • Date and time of event.

    Correct Answer
    A. Date and time of event.
    Explanation
    All military invitations must spell out the date and time of the event in plain English to ensure clarity and understanding for all invitees. This is important because military acronyms and terminology may not be universally understood, and providing the information in plain English helps to avoid any confusion or miscommunication. Additionally, including the date and time allows invitees to plan accordingly and ensures that everyone is aware of when and where the event will take place.

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  • 24. 

    What is the spending limit for mementos purchased when using special morale and welfare (SM&W) funds?

    • $50.

    • $30.

    • $40.

    • $20.

    Correct Answer
    A. $20.
    Explanation
    The spending limit for mementos purchased when using special morale and welfare (SM&W) funds is $20.

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  • 25. 

    Who will make sure the unit providing the funding will make the proper facility reservation when planning for military ceremonies?

    • Invoice.

    • Project officer.

    • Club manager.

    • Commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Project officer.
    Explanation
    The project officer is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all aspects of a military ceremony, including making proper facility reservations. They ensure that the unit providing the funding for the event allocates the necessary resources and coordinates with the appropriate personnel to secure the venue for the ceremony. The project officer plays a crucial role in planning and executing military ceremonies, ensuring that all logistical details are taken care of, including facility reservations.

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  • 26. 

    During a ceremony, when are the musical honors "Ruffles and Flourishes" rendered for general officers and above?

    • During the introductions.

    • On cue from the project officer.

    • While official party is in motion.

    • When official party is in position in front of their seats.

    Correct Answer
    A. When official party is in position in front of their seats.
    Explanation
    The musical honors "Ruffles and Flourishes" are rendered when the official party is in position in front of their seats.

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  • 27. 

    Which person is the center figure of a dining-in?

    • President.

    • Vice president.

    • Mess officer.

    • Escort officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. President.
    Explanation
    The center figure of a dining-in is typically the President. The President holds the highest position of authority and is often the guest of honor at such events. They are seated at the head of the table, symbolizing their leadership and importance. The Vice President, Mess Officer, and Escort Officer may also be present at the dining-in, but the President is the central figure.

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  • 28. 

    A method to identify weak points of a distinguished visitor (DV) visit is to perform a?

    • Tour.

    • Office call.

    • Briefing.

    • Dry-run.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dry-run.
    Explanation
    A dry-run is a practice or rehearsal of a particular event or process to identify any potential weaknesses or issues before the actual event takes place. In the context of a distinguished visitor (DV) visit, conducting a dry-run would involve simulating the visit and going through all the planned activities, such as tours, office calls, and briefings, to identify any areas that need improvement or adjustment. This allows the organizers to address any weak points or potential problems in advance and ensure a smooth and successful DV visit.

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  • 29. 

    What is essential for deployed protocol NCOs to understand when in foreign countries?

    • Familiarity of operations.

    • Chain of command.

    • Local customs and courtesies.

    • Manning.

    Correct Answer
    A. Local customs and courtesies.
    Explanation
    When deployed in foreign countries, it is essential for protocol NCOs to understand the local customs and courtesies. This knowledge helps them to navigate cultural differences and show respect to the host nation. Understanding local customs and courtesies can also contribute to building positive relationships and effective communication with local authorities and communities.

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  • 30. 

    Which form are you required to obtain when a physically limiting condition is detected that might limit your capability to perform deployment duties?

    • AF Form 412.

    • AF Form 422.

    • AF Form 512.

    • AF Form 522.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 422.
    Explanation
    AF Form 422 is the correct answer because it is the form that individuals are required to obtain when a physically limiting condition is detected that might limit their capability to perform deployment duties. This form is used to document medical conditions that may affect an individual's ability to deploy and ensures that appropriate accommodations or restrictions are made to ensure the individual's safety and the mission's success.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is not provided by the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) to support operations?

    • Current policies.

    • Planning factors.

    • Concept of operations.

    • Global Force Management (GFM) forces.

    Correct Answer
    A. Concept of operations.
  • 32. 

    Which organization serves as the office of primary responsibilities (OPR) for emergency support functions (ESF) dealing with mass care, housing, and human services?

    • Medical group.

    • Force support.

    • Security forces.

    • Civil engineer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Force support.
    Explanation
    Force support is the correct answer because they are responsible for coordinating and providing support in emergency situations related to mass care, housing, and human services. This includes managing shelters, providing food and supplies, and coordinating with other agencies and organizations to ensure the well-being and safety of affected individuals. Medical group, security forces, and civil engineer are not directly responsible for these functions in emergency situations.

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  • 33. 

    Which organization supervises food sources for deployed units?

    • Major command (MAJCOM).

    • Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

    • United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC).

    • Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate (AFPC/SV).

    Correct Answer
    A. United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC).
    Explanation
    The United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC) is responsible for supervising food sources for deployed units. They ensure that the food provided to deployed units is safe and meets the necessary health standards. This organization plays a crucial role in maintaining the well-being and health of military personnel by ensuring that they have access to safe and nutritious food while on deployment.

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  • 34. 

    When deployed, which ration type does not require cooks?

    • A-Ration.

    • B-Rations

    • Meal ready to eat (MRE).

    • Unitized group ration (UGE).

    Correct Answer
    A. Meal ready to eat (MRE).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Meal ready to eat (MRE). MREs are pre-packaged meals that are ready to eat without any additional cooking or preparation. They are designed to be easily consumed by soldiers in the field without the need for cooking equipment or trained cooks. MREs typically include a main dish, side dishes, snacks, and desserts, along with a flameless ration heater to warm up the main course if desired. This makes MREs a convenient and efficient option for military personnel in situations where traditional cooking facilities are not available.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is considered a data element that controls and identifies each entry in Joint Operational Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?

    • Unit line number (ULN).

    • Unitized group ration (UGR).

    • Force requirement number (FRN).

    • Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit line number (ULN).
    Explanation
    The Unit line number (ULN) is considered a data element that controls and identifies each entry in Joint Operational Planning and Execution System (JOPES). The ULN is used to uniquely identify a specific unit within the system, allowing for efficient tracking and management of units during planning and execution of joint operations. It helps in organizing and coordinating various units involved in the operation, ensuring effective communication and synchronization of efforts. The other options, such as Unitized group ration (UGR), Force requirement number (FRN), and Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD), are not specifically designed for controlling and identifying each entry in JOPES.

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  • 36. 

    Mortuary case files are kept for the current year plus how many additional years?

    • 7.

    • 5.

    • 3.

    • 1.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    Mortuary case files are kept for the current year plus one additional year. This means that after the current year, the case files are kept for one more year before they are no longer needed.

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  • 37. 

    Which office develops operational guidance to implement protocol policy and support protocol needs in the field?

    • Air Force Services (AF/A1S).

    • Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).

    • Major command (MAJCOM).

    • Air Force Personnel Center/ Services Directorate (AFPC/SV).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Personnel Center/ Services Directorate (AFPC/SV).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate (AFPC/SV) develops operational guidance to implement protocol policy and support protocol needs in the field. This office is responsible for ensuring that protocol procedures are followed and providing support to personnel in various protocol-related matters. They play a crucial role in maintaining the protocol standards and ensuring smooth operations within the Air Force.

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  • 38. 

    When carried in a marching procession with another flag(s), the location of the US Flag is?

    • To the flag’s right.

    • To the marcher’s left.

    • In line higher than all other flags.

    • Two steps ahead of all others.

    Correct Answer
    A. To the flag’s right.
    Explanation
    When carried in a marching procession with another flag(s), the US Flag is positioned to the flag's right. This is in accordance with the flag etiquette, which states that the US Flag should always be placed to the right of other flags. This position shows respect to the US Flag and signifies its importance. Placing the US Flag to the right also ensures that it is the first flag encountered by observers, highlighting its significance and representing the country it represents.

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  • 39. 

    What does our military tradition expect the display of during all military ceremonies?

    • Flags.

    • Formations.

    • Esprit de corps.

    • Military bearing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flags.
    Explanation
    During all military ceremonies, the display of flags is expected according to our military tradition. Flags hold great significance in representing a nation, unit, or cause, and they serve as symbols of honor, pride, and unity. Displaying flags during military ceremonies pays tribute to the sacrifices and achievements of the military and instills a sense of patriotism and respect. It also serves as a reminder of the values and principles that the military upholds.

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  • 40. 

    Burial clothing is classified as which type of mortuary expense?

    • Other.

    • Additional.

    • Secondary.

    • Primary.

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary.
    Explanation
    Burial clothing is classified as a primary mortuary expense because it is an essential item required for the burial process. It is considered a necessary cost that is directly associated with the burial itself. Other, additional, and secondary expenses may refer to optional or supplementary costs that are not directly related to the burial clothing.

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  • 41. 

    Who may waive funeral honors performed by the honor guard?

    • Mortuary Officer (MO).

    • Major command.

    • Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

    • Secretary of Defense (SECDEF).

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF).
    Explanation
    The Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) may waive funeral honors performed by the honor guard. This means that the SECDEF has the authority to exempt certain individuals or circumstances from receiving funeral honors, which are typically provided to members of the military. The Mortuary Officer (MO), Major command, and Headquarters Air Force (HAF) do not have the power to waive funeral honors.

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  • 42. 

    Who has overall responsibility for the base honor guard program?

    • Protocol Officer.

    • Mortuary Officer (MO).

    • Group commander.

    • Installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for the overall base honor guard program. As the highest-ranking officer at the installation, they have the authority and responsibility to oversee all aspects of the program, including training, operations, and adherence to protocol. The protocol officer may provide guidance and support, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the installation commander. The mortuary officer is responsible for the proper handling of deceased military personnel, and the group commander oversees a specific group within the installation, but neither have the overall responsibility for the base honor guard program.

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  • 43. 

    When determining seating arrangements, who sits to the right of the hostess (or host at an all-male event) to show precedence according to our customs and courtesies?

    • Next junior officer in line Chaplain.

    • The guest of honor.

    • The Chaplain.

    • The spouse.

    Correct Answer
    A. The guest of honor.
    Explanation
    In determining seating arrangements, the guest of honor is seated to the right of the hostess or host at an event to show precedence according to our customs and courtesies. This is because the guest of honor holds a special status or importance in the event, and seating them to the right signifies their elevated position.

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  • 44. 

    According to planning functions for a conference, how many weeks prior should registration information be distributed to an event?

    • 3.

    • 5.

    • 8.

    • 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. 8.
    Explanation
    Registration information should be distributed to an event 8 weeks prior to the conference. This allows attendees enough time to plan and make arrangements for attending the event. It also gives organizers ample time to process registrations, make necessary arrangements, and address any issues or concerns raised by attendees. Distributing the information too early may result in attendees forgetting about the event, while distributing it too late may not give them enough time to prepare. Therefore, 8 weeks prior is an appropriate timeframe for distributing registration information.

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  • 45. 

    Where is the seat of honor for a distinguished visitor (DV) located within a staff car?

    • Rear driver side.

    • Rear passenger side.

    • Passenger middle seat.

    • Front passenger seat.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rear passenger side.
    Explanation
    The seat of honor for a distinguished visitor (DV) is located on the rear passenger side of a staff car. This seat is considered the most prestigious and is reserved for important guests. Placing the DV on the rear passenger side allows them to easily enter and exit the vehicle while also providing them with a clear view of their surroundings.

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  • 46. 

    When greeting distinguished visitors (DV) at the flight line, it is common for the following personnel to wear hats with the exception of the?

    • DV greeters.

    • Honor guard.

    • Greeting party.

    • Maintainers performing work.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintainers performing work.
    Explanation
    Maintainers performing work are the exception and do not wear hats when greeting distinguished visitors at the flight line. This is because maintainers are typically engaged in physical labor and wearing hats may not be practical or necessary for their job duties. On the other hand, DV greeters, Honor guard, and the greeting party are expected to wear hats as a sign of respect and professionalism when welcoming distinguished visitors.

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  • 47. 

    Who should stay behind until the distinguished visitor’s (DV) aircraft "wheels’ are up"?

    • The farewell party.

    • Protocol officer.

    • Transportation.

    • Honor guard.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protocol officer.
    Explanation
    The protocol officer should stay behind until the distinguished visitor's aircraft "wheels" are up. This is because the protocol officer is responsible for ensuring that all protocol and etiquette are followed during official visits. They coordinate and oversee the arrival and departure of dignitaries, including the DV. Staying until the aircraft is safely in the air ensures that all necessary protocols and formalities are properly executed before the DV's departure.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following must not be used for a distinguished visitors (DV) lounge?

    • Secure telephone unit-III.

    • Nonappropriated funds. (NAFs)

    • Office equipment.

    • Refreshments.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonappropriated funds. (NAFs)
    Explanation
    Nonappropriated funds (NAFs) must not be used for a distinguished visitors (DV) lounge because NAFs are funds generated by the military community through sales and services, such as on-base stores and recreational facilities. These funds are intended to support morale, welfare, and recreation activities for the military community and are not meant to be used for VIP lounges or amenities. Therefore, it is not appropriate to use NAFs for a DV lounge.

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  • 49. 

    Which action should be done after the initial notification of a distinguished visitor (DV) visit?

    • Appoint escort officer.

    • Seek input from the host.

    • Work on strawman itinerary.

    • Develop a detailed working plan.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop a detailed working plan.
    Explanation
    After the initial notification of a distinguished visitor (DV) visit, the next action that should be done is to develop a detailed working plan. This involves carefully planning and organizing all the necessary logistics, such as transportation, accommodations, security arrangements, and scheduling of meetings or events. It ensures that all aspects of the DV visit are well-coordinated and executed smoothly. Appointing an escort officer, seeking input from the host, and working on a strawman itinerary are important steps in the planning process, but developing a detailed working plan encompasses all these actions and is crucial for the successful execution of the DV visit.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 22, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 22, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 06, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Rotnribbitt

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