3M071 Bset Readiness, Mortuary, Protocol
3M071 BSET READINESS, MORTUARY, PROTOCOL
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following is not provided by the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) to support operations?
- A.
Current policies.
- B.
Planning factors.
- C.
Global Force Management (GFM) forces.
- D.
Concept of operations.
Correct Answer
D. Concept of operations.Explanation
The War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides current policies, planning factors, and Global Force Management (GFM) forces to support operations. However, it does not provide the concept of operations. The concept of operations refers to the overall strategy and approach used to achieve military objectives. While the WMP may outline specific policies, factors, and forces, it does not provide the overarching concept of operations.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Operational commanders will accept a reduced level of service for how many days?
- A.
5.
- B.
15.
- C.
20.
- D.
30.
Correct Answer
D. 30.Explanation
Operational commanders are willing to accept a reduced level of service for a period of 30 days. This means that they are willing to compromise on the quality or quantity of service provided for a month in order to achieve other objectives or goals. This decision may be based on factors such as resource constraints, strategic priorities, or the need to allocate resources to other areas.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following will integrate all base-level actions to support operational plans?
- A.
In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP)..
- B.
War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
- C.
Joint support plan (JSP). (WMP).
- D.
3M Annex
Correct Answer
A. In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP)..Explanation
The correct answer is the In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP). This plan is designed to integrate all base-level actions to support operational plans. It focuses on providing support and resources to military personnel stationed at a garrison or base, both in peacetime and during deployments. The IGESP ensures that all necessary actions and resources are coordinated and available to effectively support operational plans and missions.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which part of the in-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP) identifies resources?
- A.
Part 1.
- B.
Part 2.
- C.
Services annex.
- D.
Joint support plan.
Correct Answer
A. Part 1.Explanation
Part 1 of the in-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP) identifies resources. This part of the plan likely includes a detailed inventory or list of the resources available for the expeditionary support, such as equipment, supplies, personnel, and facilities. It helps in ensuring that the necessary resources are identified and allocated appropriately to support the mission.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which section of the in-garrison expeditionary support Plan (IGESP) allocated resources?
- A.
Part 1.
- B.
Part 2.
- C.
Services annex.
- D.
Joint support plan.
Correct Answer
B. Part 2.Explanation
The correct answer is Part 2. The Services annex of the in-garrison expeditionary support Plan (IGESP) is the section that allocates resources. This section outlines the specific services and resources that will be provided during the expeditionary support operation. It includes details on personnel, equipment, materials, and other resources that will be allocated to support the mission.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What agency supervises food sources for deployed units?
- A.
Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA).
- B.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- C.
United States Army Veterinary Command (USVETCOM)
- D.
Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).
Correct Answer
C. United States Army Veterinary Command (USVETCOM)Explanation
The United States Army Veterinary Command (USVETCOM) is the correct answer because it is responsible for supervising food sources for deployed units. As a command within the U.S. Army, USVETCOM ensures the safety and quality of food provided to soldiers in the field. This includes inspecting and monitoring food sources, implementing food safety protocols, and conducting veterinary services to protect the health of military personnel. The other options, such as AFSVA, MAJCOM, and HQ USAF, are not specifically focused on food supervision for deployed units.Rate this question:
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- 7.
When deployed which ration type does not require cooks?
- A.
Meal ready to eat (MRE).
- B.
Unitized group ration (UGE).
- C.
A-Ration.
- D.
B-Rations.
Correct Answer
A. Meal ready to eat (MRE).Explanation
The correct answer is Meal ready to eat (MRE). MREs are pre-packaged meals that are ready to eat without any additional cooking or preparation. They are designed to be easily consumed by soldiers in the field without the need for a dedicated cook or kitchen facilities. MREs typically include a main course, side dishes, snacks, and desserts, all of which are fully cooked and can be eaten cold or heated using a flameless ration heater. This makes MREs a convenient and efficient option for military personnel in situations where cooking facilities are not available.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is considered a data element that controls and identifies each entry in Joint Operational Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?
- A.
Force requirement number (FRN).
- B.
Unitized group ration (UGR)
- C.
Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).
- D.
Unit line number (ULN).
Correct Answer
D. Unit line number (ULN).Explanation
The data element that controls and identifies each entry in Joint Operational Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is the Unit line number (ULN). This is the correct answer because the ULN is a unique identifier assigned to each unit in the system, allowing for efficient tracking and management of forces and resources. The other options, such as Force requirement number (FRN), Unitized group ration (UGR), and Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD), are not specifically related to controlling and identifying each entry in JOPES.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is associated with a written operational plan (OPLAN)?
- A.
Requirements driven.
- B.
Capabilities driven.
- C.
Ratified.
- D.
Balance and certified.
Correct Answer
A. Requirements driven.Explanation
The correct answer is "Requirements driven." In an operational plan (OPLAN), the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is typically associated with the requirements of the operation. This means that the TPFDD is based on the specific needs and objectives outlined in the plan. The deployment of forces is driven by these requirements, ensuring that the necessary resources and capabilities are allocated accordingly. This approach helps to ensure that the forces deployed are aligned with the operational objectives and can effectively carry out the planned mission.Rate this question:
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- 10.
How many keys make up the deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)?
- A.
5.
- B.
7.
- C.
9.
- D.
11.
Correct Answer
C. 9.Explanation
The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) is a document that outlines the necessary personnel and their qualifications for a specific deployment. It includes information such as job roles, responsibilities, and required skills. The question asks how many keys make up the DRMD, suggesting that the document is divided into sections or categories. Since the correct answer is 9, it can be inferred that the DRMD is divided into 9 different sections or categories, each representing a key aspect of the deployment requirements.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which is not one of the population bases that unit type code (UTC) are build on?
- A.
275.
- B.
550.
- C.
1100.
- D.
2200.
Correct Answer
D. 2200. -
- 12.
At what deployment period will three unitized group rations (UGR) be served each day?
- A.
D0–4.
- B.
D5–14
- C.
D15–29.
- D.
D30+
Correct Answer
C. D15–29.Explanation
Three unitized group rations (UGR) will be served each day during the deployment period of D15–29. This means that from day 15 to day 29, the UGRs will be provided consistently. This deployment period indicates that the rations will be served for a continuous period of 15 to 29 days.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the wartime flight feeding planning factor?
- A.
70 percent of patients in medical facility.
- B.
80 percent of convalescent.
- C.
90 percent of base population.
- D.
100 percent of base population.
Correct Answer
D. 100 percent of base population.Explanation
The wartime flight feeding planning factor refers to the percentage of the base population that needs to be accounted for when planning for food supplies during wartime. In this case, the correct answer is 100 percent of the base population, which means that all individuals in the base population need to be considered when determining the food requirements for wartime flight feeding.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What percentage of team members must receive home station training (HST) on vehicle operations?
- A.
10.
- B.
20.
- C.
30.
- D.
40.
Correct Answer
C. 30. -
- 15.
Services combat training (SCT) for deployable unit type codes (UTC) should occur
- A.
8 days before departure.
- B.
8 days after arriving at the deployed location.
- C.
90–180 days before departure.
- D.
90–180 days after arriving at the deployed location..
Correct Answer
C. 90–180 days before departure.Explanation
Services combat training (SCT) for deployable unit type codes (UTC) should occur 90-180 days before departure. This timing allows sufficient time for the training to be completed and for any necessary adjustments or additional training to be conducted before the unit deploys. It ensures that the unit is adequately prepared for the challenges they may face in the deployed location and allows for any necessary coordination and logistical preparations to be made in advance. Training occurring after arriving at the deployed location would be too late and may result in unpreparedness and increased risks.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the fundamental premise of Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
- A.
Integrity.
- B.
Accuracy.
- C.
Timliness.
- D.
Statistical data.
Correct Answer
A. Integrity.Explanation
The fundamental premise of Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting is integrity. This means that the reporting system is based on honesty, transparency, and reliability. It ensures that the information provided is accurate, complete, and trustworthy. Integrity is crucial in maintaining the credibility and effectiveness of SORTS reporting, as it allows decision-makers to make informed choices based on reliable data.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Chief of staff, United States Air Force (CSAF) use Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) to assess organizational
- A.
Integrity.
- B.
Accuracy..
- C.
Timliness.
- D.
Effectiveness
Correct Answer
D. EffectivenessExplanation
The Chief of Staff, United States Air Force (CSAF) uses the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) to assess the effectiveness of the organization. SORTS provides a comprehensive overview of the resources and training available within the Air Force, allowing the CSAF to evaluate how well the organization is performing and meeting its objectives. By analyzing the effectiveness of the Air Force through SORTS, the CSAF can identify areas that may need improvement and make informed decisions to enhance the overall effectiveness of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What unit type code (UTC) supports initial deployment to a bare base (BB)?
- A.
RFSR1.
- B.
RFSR7.
- C.
RFSRJ.
- D.
RFSRF.
Correct Answer
A. RFSR1.Explanation
The unit type code (UTC) RFSR1 supports initial deployment to a bare base (BB).Rate this question:
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- 19.
What unit type code (UTC) supports port mortuary operations?
- A.
RFSR1.
- B.
RFSR7.
- C.
RFSRJ.
- D.
RFSRF
Correct Answer
C. RFSRJ.Explanation
The unit type code (UTC) RFSRJ supports port mortuary operations.Rate this question:
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- 20.
After the start of the open-the-air base, at what day will the generate the mission force module (FM) be in place?
- A.
0.
- B.
2.
- C.
4.
- D.
10.
Correct Answer
C. 4.Explanation
The mission force module (FM) will be in place on the 4th day after the start of the open-the-air base.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What day after an operational location is established will the robust-the-base force module (FM) be in place?
- A.
14.
- B.
20.
- C.
25.
- D.
30.
Correct Answer
D. 30.Explanation
After an operational location is established, it takes 30 days for the robust-the-base force module (FM) to be in place.Rate this question:
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- 22.
How often will the war fighting requirements review (WFRR) working group meet?
- A.
Quarterly.
- B.
Semiannually.
- C.
Annually.
- D.
When needed..
Correct Answer
B. Semiannually.Explanation
The war fighting requirements review (WFRR) working group will meet semiannually, meaning twice a year. This suggests that the group will convene every six months to review and discuss war fighting requirements. This frequency allows for regular updates and assessments of the requirements, ensuring that they are up to date and aligned with current needs and priorities.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How often will the readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM) meet?
- A.
Quarterly.
- B.
Semiannually.
- C.
Annually.
- D.
When needed..
Correct Answer
B. Semiannually.Explanation
The readiness, training, education, and manpower team (RTEAM) will meet semiannually. This means that the team will convene twice a year. It suggests that the team recognizes the importance of regular meetings to ensure readiness, training, education, and manpower strategies are effectively implemented and updated. By meeting semiannually, the team can stay informed, address any issues or concerns, and make necessary adjustments to optimize their performance and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which is not a benefit allotted by mortuary expenses?
- A.
Casket.
- B.
Register book.
- C.
Advertisement.
- D.
Hardwood flag case.
Correct Answer
D. Hardwood flag case.Explanation
Mortuary expenses typically cover costs associated with funeral arrangements and burial or cremation services. The benefits provided by mortuary expenses usually include items such as a casket, register book, and advertisement. However, a hardwood flag case is not typically included as a benefit in mortuary expenses. A hardwood flag case is specifically designed to hold and display a folded American flag, which is typically given to the family of a deceased military veteran as a symbol of honor and appreciation for their service.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which mortuary program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?
- A.
Current death
- B.
Concurrent return.
- C.
Temporary interment
- D.
Wartime mortuary affairs
Correct Answer
B. Concurrent return.Explanation
During periods of conflict, the preferred method of handling remains is concurrent return. This means that the deceased individuals are transported back to their home country as soon as possible for burial or other funeral arrangements. This allows the families to have closure and perform their cultural and religious rituals in a timely manner. Temporary interment may be used in certain situations where immediate return is not possible, but concurrent return is generally preferred. Wartime mortuary affairs refer to the overall management and organization of handling remains during times of conflict, but it is not the specific preferred method.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Who administers the Air Force survivor assistance program (AFSAP)?
- A.
Family liaison officer (FLO).
- B.
Protective service officerO).
- C.
Mortuary officer
- D.
General officerr
Correct Answer
A. Family liaison officer (FLO).Explanation
The correct answer is Family liaison officer (FLO). The Air Force survivor assistance program (AFSAP) is administered by the Family liaison officer (FLO). This officer is responsible for providing support and assistance to the families of deceased Air Force members. They serve as a point of contact for the family, helping them navigate through the various benefits and resources available to them. The FLO plays a crucial role in ensuring that the families receive the support they need during a difficult time.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who will appoint the family liaison officer to assist the deceased member’s family communicate with other support agencies?
- A.
Mortuary officer.
- B.
Family liaison officer.
- C.
MAJCOM commander
- D.
Installation commander.
Correct Answer
D. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander is responsible for appointing the family liaison officer to assist the deceased member's family in communicating with other support agencies. This role is crucial in providing support and guidance to the family during a difficult time and ensuring effective communication between the family and the necessary agencies. The installation commander has the authority to make this appointment and ensure that the family receives the necessary assistance.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which transport method is not authorized for movement of member’s remains?
- A.
Commercial aircraft
- B.
Hearse or service car
- C.
Government aircraft
- D.
Personal vehicle
Correct Answer
D. Personal vehicleExplanation
Personal vehicles are not authorized for the movement of member's remains. This is because personal vehicles may not have the necessary facilities or equipment to handle the transportation of remains in a respectful and appropriate manner. Additionally, personal vehicles may not meet the legal and regulatory requirements for transporting human remains. Therefore, alternative methods such as commercial aircraft, hearse or service car, and government aircraft are authorized for the transportation of member's remains.Rate this question:
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- 29.
How many escorts are authorized for final shipment of deceased member’s remains if the two places are not located in the same locale?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
As many as requested.
- D.
None.
Correct Answer
A. One.Explanation
If the two places are not located in the same locale, only one escort is authorized for the final shipment of the deceased member's remains. This implies that there is a restriction on the number of escorts allowed in such a situation, and it is limited to one.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What form is used as a death confirmation letter if the death occurs overseas?
- A.
Form 57, Mortuary Guide
- B.
AF Form 970, Statement of Disposition of Remains
- C.
DD form 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains
- D.
DD form 2065, Death Certificate.
Correct Answer
D. DD form 2065, Death Certificate.Explanation
The correct answer is DD form 2065, Death Certificate. This form is used as a death confirmation letter if the death occurs overseas. It is a legal document that certifies the fact, cause, and manner of death. It is issued by a medical professional or a coroner and is an important record for legal and administrative purposes. It provides essential information about the deceased, such as their name, date of birth, date of death, and cause of death.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who will close the mortuary case file
- A.
Mortuary officer.
- B.
Family liaison officer (FLO).
- C.
Summary courts officer (SCO).
- D.
EscortJ
Correct Answer
A. Mortuary officer.Explanation
The mortuary officer is responsible for handling and managing the mortuary case file. They are in charge of the deceased person's remains and ensuring proper documentation and procedures are followed. The family liaison officer (FLO) is responsible for communicating with the deceased person's family and providing support, while the summary courts officer (SCO) handles legal matters related to the case. EscortJ does not have any relevance to the mortuary case file.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who will complete the DD From 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains?
- A.
Family liaison officer (FLO).
- B.
Summary courts officer (SCO).
- C.
Quality assurance evaluator (QAE).
- D.
Person authorized direct disposition (PADD).
Correct Answer
C. Quality assurance evaluator (QAE).Explanation
The Quality Assurance Evaluator (QAE) will complete the DD From 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains. This form is used to document the preparation and final disposition of a deceased individual's remains. The QAE is responsible for ensuring that all procedures and protocols related to the handling and disposition of remains are followed correctly. They review and evaluate the entire process to ensure compliance with regulations and standards, and then complete the form to document the details of the preparation and disposition.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Who provides a complete quality control program to assure requirements are met?
- A.
Quality assurance evaluator (QAE).
- B.
Mortuary Officer (MO).
- C.
Contractor.
- D.
Commanderr.
Correct Answer
C. Contractor.Explanation
A contractor is the one who provides a complete quality control program to assure requirements are met. Contractors are responsible for ensuring that the work they perform meets the specified standards and requirements. They are accountable for managing and implementing quality control measures throughout the project to ensure that the final product or service meets the desired level of quality. This includes conducting inspections, tests, and audits to identify any deviations from the requirements and taking corrective actions to address them.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Who is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses?
- A.
Headquarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ/AFSVA)
- B.
MAJCOM/SV.
- C.
Mortuary officer.
- D.
Resource Management Flight Chief (RMFC).
Correct Answer
B. MAJCOM/SV.Explanation
MAJCOM/SV is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The Government Purchase Card (GPC) may be used for what type of expense?
- A.
Primary.
- B.
Secondary
- C.
Advertisement..
- D.
Other.
Correct Answer
A. Primary.Explanation
The correct answer is "Primary." The Government Purchase Card (GPC) can be used for primary expenses. This means that it can be used for purchasing goods and services that are directly related to the mission and operations of the government agency. Secondary expenses, on the other hand, are not directly related to the agency's mission and operations and may not be eligible for purchase using the GPC.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Who may waive funeral honors?
- A.
Mortuary officer.
- B.
Major command.
- C.
Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
- D.
Secretary of Defense (SeCDEF)
Correct Answer
D. Secretary of Defense (SeCDEF)Explanation
The Secretary of Defense (SeCDEF) may waive funeral honors. This means that the Secretary of Defense has the authority to exempt someone from receiving funeral honors, which are typically provided to military service members as a final tribute. The other options listed, such as the Mortuary officer, Major command, and Headquarters Air Force (HAF), do not have the same level of authority to waive funeral honors.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Who has overall responsibility for the honor guard program?
- A.
Mortuary officer.
- B.
Group commander.
- C.
Wing commander..
- D.
Installation commander.
Correct Answer
D. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander has overall responsibility for the honor guard program. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and managing the program, ensuring that it is properly organized and executed. They are responsible for making decisions regarding the honor guard's activities, budget, and personnel. The installation commander holds the highest authority and is accountable for the success and effectiveness of the honor guard program within their installation.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Who makes the final determination as to the positive identification of remains and the cause and manner of death?
- A.
3M personnel.
- B.
Medical personnel.
- C.
Medical examiner.
- D.
Commandersel.
Correct Answer
C. Medical examiner.Explanation
The correct answer is "Medical examiner." In cases involving the identification of remains and determining the cause and manner of death, it is the responsibility of the medical examiner to make the final determination. This is because medical examiners are trained professionals who specialize in conducting autopsies and forensic investigations to determine the cause of death. They have the expertise and authority to make accurate and conclusive determinations in such cases.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What DD form is used to inventory personal belongings?
- A.
2065, Death Certificate
- B.
2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains
- C.
1076, Record of Personal Effects of Deceased Personnel
- D.
898, Record Data (Deceased and Missing Personnel
Correct Answer
C. 1076, Record of Personal Effects of Deceased PersonnelExplanation
The correct answer is 1076, Record of Personal Effects of Deceased Personnel. This form is used to inventory the personal belongings of deceased personnel.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How many members are on the installation search and recovery team
- A.
4.
- B.
7.
- C.
11.
- D.
12.
Correct Answer
C. 11.Explanation
The correct answer is 11. This suggests that there are 11 members on the installation search and recovery team.Rate this question:
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- 41.
How many days after completion of a search and recovery (S&R) operation are allowed for the mortuary officer to turn in the after action report?
- A.
15.
- B.
30.
- C.
45.
- D.
60.
Correct Answer
B. 30.Explanation
After the completion of a search and recovery operation, the mortuary officer is allowed 30 days to turn in the after action report. This report is a comprehensive document that outlines the details of the operation, including the actions taken, resources used, and any lessons learned. It is important for the mortuary officer to submit this report within the specified timeframe to ensure that all relevant information is documented and can be used for future reference and improvement.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who determines the distinguished visitor (DV) distinction?
- A.
The commander.
- B.
The protocol officer in charge (OIC).
- C.
The Secretary of Defense.
- D.
The Air Force Senior Leader Management Office.
Correct Answer
A. The commander.Explanation
The commander is responsible for determining the distinguished visitor (DV) distinction. This means that the commander has the authority to decide who qualifies as a distinguished visitor and is granted special recognition and privileges. The commander's role in this process is crucial as they are in a position to assess the importance and significance of individuals and make appropriate decisions regarding their status as distinguished visitors.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What does tradition calls to be displayed at all military ceremonies?
- A.
Flags.
- B.
Formations.
- C.
Esprit de corps.
- D.
Military bearing.
Correct Answer
A. Flags.Explanation
At all military ceremonies, it is tradition to display flags. Flags hold great significance in the military as they represent the nation and its values. They symbolize unity, pride, and honor. Displaying flags at military ceremonies pays tribute to the sacrifices and achievements of the armed forces. It also serves as a reminder of the country's history and the values for which it stands.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When carried in a marching procession with another flag or flags, what is the location of the US Flag?
- A.
To the Flags Right.
- B.
To the marchers left.
- C.
In line higher than all other flags..
- D.
Two steps ahead of all others.
Correct Answer
A. To the Flags Right.Explanation
When carried in a marching procession with another flag or flags, the US Flag is located to the flags right. This means that the US Flag is positioned on the right side when viewed from the perspective of the other flags.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Who determines precedence among foreign representatives?
- A.
There is no official precedence
- B.
The US Department of State.ence
- C.
The White House protocol officer.
- D.
The Director, Administration and Management.
Correct Answer
B. The US Department of State.enceExplanation
The US Department of State determines precedence among foreign representatives.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What is the first factor used when determining precedence among officers on active duty?
- A.
Rank.
- B.
Date of rank.
- C.
Total active federal military service.
- D.
Their position on the permanent promotion list
Correct Answer
A. Rank.Explanation
Rank is the first factor used when determining precedence among officers on active duty. This is because rank represents the official position and level of authority that an officer holds within the military hierarchy. It determines the order in which officers are given command and leadership responsibilities. Rank is typically determined by factors such as experience, skills, and qualifications, and it plays a crucial role in establishing the chain of command and maintaining military discipline and order. Therefore, rank is the primary factor considered when determining precedence among officers.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who sits to the right of the hostess (or host at an all male event)?
- A.
Interpreter.
- B.
Protocol officer.
- C.
The most junior guest.
- D.
The most senior guest.
Correct Answer
D. The most senior guest.Explanation
The most senior guest sits to the right of the hostess or host at an all male event. This is because seating arrangements often follow a protocol based on hierarchy and respect. The most senior guest is given the seat of honor, which is traditionally to the right of the hostess or host.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What are receiving lines frequently used for in the Air Force?
- A.
Meet an inspection team.
- B.
Official weddings and parties.
- C.
Greet a new commander and spouse.
- D.
Congratulating annual award winners.
Correct Answer
C. Greet a new commander and spouse.Explanation
Receiving lines are frequently used in the Air Force to greet a new commander and their spouse. This tradition allows for a formal introduction and welcome to the new leadership team. It provides an opportunity for personnel to show their respect and support for the incoming commander and their spouse.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is used to follow up a telephone invitation to a military event?
- A.
E-mail reminder.
- B.
Proper formal invitation.
- C.
Written confirmation letter.
- D.
Written “to remind” invitation.
Correct Answer
D. Written “to remind” invitation.Explanation
A written "to remind" invitation is used to follow up a telephone invitation to a military event. This type of invitation is sent as a reminder to ensure that the recipient does not forget about the event. It serves as a formal way to reiterate the details of the invitation and prompt the recipient to respond or attend the event.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What is spelled out, in plain English on all invitations?
- A.
Date and time of event.
- B.
Purpose of event.
- C.
Military job titles.
- D.
Guest of honor description.
Correct Answer
A. Date and time of event.Explanation
All invitations typically include the date and time of the event. This information is important for guests to know when and where to attend.Rate this question:
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