Obstetrics And Gynecology For SLE Trivia Questions
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Female patient with DM well controlled and she wants to get pregnant, and she asked you about the risk of congenital abnormality, to avoid this diabetes control should start in:
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Before pregnancy
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1st trimester
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2nd trimester
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3rd trimester
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About This Quiz
With more than 60% percent of the world's population being in the working bracket, there are health and safety measures set to guide different occupations. The quiz below tests how much you know on occupational health and safety.
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- 2.
Pregnant lady, she wants to do a screening tests, she insist that she doesn't want any invasive procedure,what you well do?
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U/S
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Amniocenteses
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Complete blood test
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MRI
Correct Answer
A. U/SExplanation
The correct answer is U/S. Ultrasound (U/S) is a non-invasive screening test commonly used during pregnancy to assess the health and development of the fetus. It uses sound waves to create images of the baby and the mother's reproductive organs. Since the pregnant lady insists on avoiding any invasive procedures, U/S would be the most appropriate choice as it does not involve any needles or surgical interventions. Amniocentesis and complete blood tests are invasive procedures that involve taking samples from the amniotic fluid or blood respectively. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is not typically used as a routine screening test during pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the risk of GDM on her life later:
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DM type 2
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DM type 1
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Mpaired fasting glucose
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HTN
Correct Answer
A. DM type 2Explanation
The risk of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) on her life later is the development of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (DM type 2). GDM is a temporary condition that occurs during pregnancy and increases the risk of developing Type 2 Diabetes later in life. This is because GDM indicates an impaired ability to regulate blood sugar levels, which can lead to the development of Type 2 Diabetes in the future. Therefore, women who have had GDM should be monitored closely and take preventive measures to reduce the risk of developing DM type 2.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Pregnant lady with cardiac disease presented in labor, you’ll do all except:
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C/S
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Epidural anesthesia
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Diuretic
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Digitalis
Correct Answer
A. C/SExplanation
In this scenario, a pregnant lady with cardiac disease is presenting in labor. The correct answer is C/S, which stands for Cesarean section. This means that performing a C/S is not recommended or necessary in this situation. C/S is a surgical procedure used to deliver a baby through an incision in the mother's abdomen and uterus. However, in this case, it is not the appropriate course of action, as the question states "you'll do all except." This suggests that the other options, such as epidural anesthesia, diuretic, and digitalis, may be appropriate interventions for managing the labor and cardiac disease in this patient.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Asymptomatic woman with trichomoniasis:
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Treat her anyway
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No treatment
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Treat if she is pregnant
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Referral to Ob/gyn
Correct Answer
A. Treat her anywayExplanation
The correct answer is to treat her anyway. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. Even though the woman is asymptomatic, it is important to treat her to prevent the transmission of the infection to sexual partners and to prevent any potential complications that may arise in the future. Treatment typically involves the use of antibiotics such as metronidazole or tinidazole.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A pregnant woman, multigravida, 38 weeks gestational presented with glycosuria. Gestational diabetes was confirmed by glucose tolerance test. What is the next step?
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Diet adjustment
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Repeat Glucose tolerance test
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Cesarean section
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Start sliding scale insulin
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Start oral hypoglycemic medication
Correct Answer
A. Diet adjustmentExplanation
The next step after confirming gestational diabetes is to adjust the woman's diet. This is because diet adjustment is the first-line treatment for gestational diabetes. By making changes to her diet, such as reducing the intake of carbohydrates and increasing the intake of fiber, the woman can better manage her blood sugar levels. This step is usually taken before considering other treatment options such as medication or insulin.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Pregnant lady in her 30 weeks gestation diagnosed as having swine flu. She has high grade fever and cough for 4 days and her RR= 25/min. What will you do for her?
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Give her Tamiflu 75 mg BID for 5 days
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Refer her to ER for admission
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Give her antibiotics
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Refer her to OBGY doctor
Correct Answer
A. Give her Tamiflu 75 mg BID for 5 daysExplanation
The correct answer is to give her Tamiflu 75 mg BID for 5 days. Tamiflu is an antiviral medication that is commonly used to treat influenza, including swine flu. It helps to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms, as well as prevent complications. Given that the pregnant lady is in her 30 weeks gestation and has high grade fever and cough for 4 days, it is important to start antiviral treatment promptly to minimize the risk to both the mother and the baby. Referring her to the ER for admission or giving her antibiotics may not be necessary unless there are other complications or indications. Referring her to an OBGY doctor may also be appropriate for additional management and monitoring.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A 27 year old pregnant lady, 19 weeks gestation, smoker, presented with PV bleeding followed by painless delivery. She was told nothing was wrong with her or her baby. The diagnosis is:
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Cervical incompetence
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Fetal chromosomal anomaly
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Molar pregnancy
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Ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer
A. Cervical incompetenceExplanation
Cervical incompetence is the most likely diagnosis in this case. The patient is a pregnant smoker who presented with painless delivery and PV bleeding, which are common symptoms of cervical incompetence. The fact that she was told nothing was wrong with her or her baby suggests that there were no fetal chromosomal anomalies or molar pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy is also unlikely as the patient had a delivery rather than a miscarriage. Therefore, cervical incompetence is the most plausible explanation for the symptoms described.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The commonest symptom in the presentation of abruptio placenta is:
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Vaginal Bleeding
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Abdominal pain
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Abdominal mass
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Irregular uterine contractions
Correct Answer
A. Vaginal BleedingExplanation
In the presentation of abruptio placenta, vaginal bleeding is the most common symptom. This occurs when the placenta detaches from the uterine wall before delivery, leading to bleeding from the vagina. This can be accompanied by abdominal pain, but vaginal bleeding is the primary and most characteristic symptom of abruptio placenta. Abdominal mass and irregular uterine contractions are not typically associated with this condition.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Pregnant lady, 8 weeks gestation, came with History of bleeding for the last 12 hours with lower abdominal pain & she passed tissue. On examination the internal Os was 1cm dilated. The diagnosis is:
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Incomplete abortion
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Complete abortion
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Missed abortion
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Molar pregnancy
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Threatened abortion
Correct Answer
A. Incomplete abortionExplanation
Based on the given information, the diagnosis is incomplete abortion. Incomplete abortion refers to the termination of pregnancy where some fetal or placental tissue remains in the uterus. The symptoms of bleeding, lower abdominal pain, and passing tissue are indicative of an incomplete abortion. The finding of a dilated internal os further supports this diagnosis, as it suggests that the cervix is opening to allow the passage of tissue.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Young primigravida, 35 weeks gestation, had BP of 140/90, headache, Proteinuria & lower limb edema. What is the best management?
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Admission & observation of feto-maternal condition
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Immediate C-section
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Low sodium diet
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Diuretics
Correct Answer
A. Admission & observation of feto-maternal conditionExplanation
The best management for a young primigravida at 35 weeks gestation with high blood pressure, headache, proteinuria, and lower limb edema is admission and observation of the feto-maternal condition. These symptoms are indicative of preeclampsia, a serious condition that can lead to complications for both the mother and the baby. Admission and observation will allow for close monitoring of the condition and timely intervention if necessary. Immediate C-section may not be necessary unless there are severe complications. Low sodium diet and diuretics may be part of the management plan, but admission and observation are the priority.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A 30 year old lady in the third trimester of her pregnancy developed a sudden massive swelling of the left lower extremity extending from the inguinal ligament to the ankle. The most appropriate sequence of work up & treatment:
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Impedance plethysmography, bed rest, heparin
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Impedance plethysmography, bed rest, vena caval filter
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Impedance plethysmography, bed rest, heparin, warfarin
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Clinical evaluation, bed rest, warfarin
Correct Answer
A. Impedance plethysmography, bed rest, heparinExplanation
The sudden massive swelling in the left lower extremity in a pregnant woman suggests the possibility of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Impedance plethysmography is a non-invasive test used to diagnose DVT. Bed rest is recommended to reduce the risk of further clot formation and prevent complications. Heparin, an anticoagulant, is the initial treatment of choice for DVT in pregnancy. Warfarin, another anticoagulant, is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. Therefore, the most appropriate sequence of work up and treatment in this case would be impedance plethysmography to diagnose DVT, followed by bed rest and heparin administration.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A young female patient who is an office worker presented with itching in the vagina associated with the greenish-yellowish vaginal discharge. Examination revealed red spots on the cervix. The diagnosis is:
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Trichomoniasis
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Candidiasis
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Gonorrhea
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Gardnerella vaginalis
Correct Answer
A. TrichomoniasisExplanation
The patient's symptoms of itching in the vagina, greenish-yellowish vaginal discharge, and red spots on the cervix are indicative of Trichomoniasis. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. It commonly presents with vaginal itching, frothy or foamy discharge, and inflammation of the cervix. The greenish-yellowish discharge is a characteristic feature of Trichomoniasis. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and examination findings, Trichomoniasis is the most likely diagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A female patient presented with oligomenorrhea, she had 3 periods in the last year. She also had acne & hirsutism. Her body weight was 60 kg. PV examination was normal. The diagnosis is:
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Polycystic ovary disease
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Hyperprolactinemia
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Adrenal tumor
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Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer
A. Polycystic ovary diseaseExplanation
The patient's presentation of oligomenorrhea (infrequent periods), acne, hirsutism (excessive hair growth), and normal pelvic examination suggests a diagnosis of polycystic ovary disease (PCOS). PCOS is a hormonal disorder characterized by an imbalance of reproductive hormones, leading to irregular periods, acne, and excessive hair growth. The patient's body weight is not relevant to the diagnosis of PCOS, but it is a common associated feature. Hyperprolactinemia, adrenal tumor, and hypothyroidism may also cause menstrual irregularities, but the presence of acne and hirsutism points towards PCOS as the most likely diagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Uterovaginal prolapse:
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Increase heaviness in erect position
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More in blacks
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A common cause of infertility
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More in thin women
Correct Answer
A. Increase heaviness in erect positionExplanation
Uterovaginal prolapse refers to the descent or displacement of the uterus and vaginal walls from their normal position. The given answer, "Increase heaviness in erect position," explains that this condition leads to an increase in the sensation of heaviness or pressure in the pelvic area when a person is in an upright position. This is because the prolapsed uterus and vaginal walls put additional weight on the pelvic floor muscles, causing discomfort. This explanation aligns with the symptoms commonly experienced by individuals with uterovaginal prolapse.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A couple is trying to have baby for the last 6 month of unprotected intercourse. They wanted to know the possible cause of their infertility. What will you do?
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Wait & see
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Send to fertility clinic
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Semen analysis
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Pelvic exam
Correct Answer
A. Wait & seeExplanation
In this scenario, the couple has been trying to conceive for 6 months without success. It is important to note that it is normal for it to take up to a year for a healthy couple to conceive. Therefore, the best course of action at this point would be to wait and see if conception occurs naturally. If after a year they are still unable to conceive, then it would be appropriate to seek further medical assistance and consider options such as visiting a fertility clinic, conducting semen analysis, or undergoing a pelvic exam to identify any potential causes of infertility.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A 34 years old lady presented with pelvic pain and menorrhagia. There is history of infertility, on examinations the uterus was of normal size &retroverted; she had multiple small tender nodules palpable in the uterosacral ligament. The most likely diagnosis is:
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Endometriosis
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Fibroid
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Adenomyosis
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PID
Correct Answer
A. EndometriosisExplanation
The most likely diagnosis in this case is endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition where the tissue that normally lines the uterus grows outside of the uterus, causing pelvic pain and other symptoms. The patient's history of infertility, pelvic pain, and menorrhagia, along with the presence of multiple small tender nodules in the uterosacral ligament, are consistent with endometriosis. Fibroids are benign growths in the uterus, but they would not explain the presence of nodules in the uterosacral ligament. Adenomyosis is a condition where the lining of the uterus grows into the muscular wall, but it would not cause nodules in the uterosacral ligament. PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) is an infection of the reproductive organs and would not explain the presence of nodules.Rate this question:
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- 18.
50 years old woman (post-menopausal woman) who is taking estrogen OCP every month & stops at the 21st day of the cycle. She presented with vaginal bleeding in the form of spotting 2-3 days after stopping the estrogen OCP (a case of postmenopausal bleeding). The best management is:
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Endometrial sampling (biopsy)
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Pap smear
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Stop estrogen
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Continue estrogen
Correct Answer
A. Endometrial sampling (biopsy)Explanation
In postmenopausal women, any form of vaginal bleeding should be evaluated to rule out endometrial cancer, as it is the most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding. In this case, the woman is taking estrogen oral contraceptive pills (OCP) and experiencing vaginal bleeding after stopping the pills. This bleeding is considered postmenopausal bleeding and warrants further investigation. The best management in this situation is to perform an endometrial sampling (biopsy) to assess the endometrial tissue for any abnormalities, including cancer.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is right about OCP ?
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Changes the cervical mucus
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Increase premenstrual tension
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Have a failure rate of 3 %
Correct Answer
A. Changes the cervical mucusExplanation
OCP (Oral Contraceptive Pills) are known to change the cervical mucus. This is one of the mechanisms by which OCPs prevent pregnancy. By altering the consistency of the cervical mucus, OCPs make it difficult for sperm to reach and fertilize an egg. This is considered one of the effective methods of contraception. The other options mentioned in the question, such as increasing premenstrual tension and having a failure rate of 3%, are not accurate statements about OCPs.Rate this question:
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- 20.
He best indicator of labour progression is:
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Dilatation and decent
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Fetal heart rate
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Degree of pain
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Dilatation
Correct Answer
A. Dilatation and decentExplanation
Dilatation and descent are the best indicators of labor progression. Dilatation refers to the opening of the cervix, which is a crucial step in the labor process. As the cervix dilates, it allows the baby to descend further into the birth canal, indicating progress. Monitoring the fetal heart rate is important for assessing the baby's well-being during labor, but it is not a direct indicator of labor progression. The degree of pain experienced by the mother can vary and is subjective, making it a less reliable indicator. Therefore, the combination of dilatation and descent provides the most accurate measure of labor progression.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Regarding OCP ?
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Decrease the risk of ovarian cancer
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Increase the risk of breast cancer
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Decrease endometrial cancer
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Increase risk of ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer
A. Decrease the risk of ovarian cancerExplanation
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are known to decrease the risk of ovarian cancer. This is because OCPs contain hormones that prevent ovulation, reducing the exposure of the ovaries to potential carcinogens. Additionally, OCPs also help in reducing the risk of endometrial cancer by thinning the lining of the uterus. However, it is important to note that while OCPs decrease the risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer, they may slightly increase the risk of breast cancer. The increased risk, however, is minimal and the overall benefits of OCPs in terms of reducing the risk of ovarian cancer outweigh the potential risks.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Average length of the menstrual cycle:
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28 days
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35 days
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22 days
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25 days
Correct Answer
A. 28 daysExplanation
The average length of the menstrual cycle is 28 days. This is the most common length for a menstrual cycle, although it can vary from person to person. The menstrual cycle is the monthly hormonal cycle that prepares the uterus for pregnancy. It starts on the first day of menstruation and ends on the day before the next period begins. A 28-day cycle is considered regular and is often used as a reference point for tracking fertility and ovulation.Rate this question:
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- 23.
About Antepartum haemorrhage:
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Maternal mortality more than fetal mortality
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Rarely due to hypofibrinogenemia
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PV exam is always indicated
Correct Answer
A. Maternal mortality more than fetal mortalityExplanation
Antepartum hemorrhage refers to bleeding from the birth canal during pregnancy. The given answer states that maternal mortality is more common than fetal mortality in cases of antepartum hemorrhage. This means that the mother is at a higher risk of death compared to the fetus. This is an important consideration in managing and treating antepartum hemorrhage as the focus should be on ensuring the safety and well-being of the mother. The answer also mentions that antepartum hemorrhage is rarely due to hypofibrinogenemia, a condition characterized by low levels of fibrinogen (a protein involved in blood clotting). Lastly, the answer states that a pelvic examination is always indicated in cases of antepartum hemorrhage, suggesting that this examination is necessary to assess the severity and cause of the bleeding.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Old patient known case of hypothyroidism on thyroxin, presented with many symptoms, labs all normal (TSH, T3, T4) except low calcium, high phosphate, what is the diagnosis?
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Nutritional advice
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Insulin
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OHA
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Repeat GGT
Correct Answer
A. Nutritional adviceExplanation
The patient's symptoms and lab results indicate a possible diagnosis of nutritional deficiency, specifically a deficiency in calcium and an excess of phosphate. This suggests that the patient may not be getting enough calcium in their diet, leading to imbalances in their body. Therefore, providing nutritional advice would be the appropriate course of action to address this issue.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Pregnant lady with negative antibodies for rubella and measles, what you will give her?
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Do nothing
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MMR
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Terminate pregnancy
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Antibodies
Correct Answer
A. Do nothingExplanation
In this scenario, the pregnant lady has negative antibodies for rubella and measles. This means that she is not immune to these diseases. However, giving her the MMR vaccine, which protects against rubella and measles, is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. Terminating the pregnancy is also not necessary in this case. Therefore, the best course of action would be to do nothing and monitor the lady closely for any signs or symptoms of these diseases.Rate this question:
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- 26.
20 years old lady, pregnant, exposed to rubella virus since 3 days, never was vaccinated against rubella mumps or measles, what's the best thing to do?
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Do nothing
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Terminate the pregnancy
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Vaccine
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Give IG
Correct Answer
A. Do nothingExplanation
Given that the lady is already pregnant and has been exposed to the rubella virus, the best course of action would be to do nothing. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to serious complications for the fetus, such as congenital rubella syndrome. However, since the exposure has already occurred and the lady is already pregnant, administering a vaccine or giving immunoglobulin (IG) would not be effective in preventing the infection or its potential complications. Therefore, the best option would be to monitor the pregnancy closely and provide appropriate care as needed.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is:
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Uterine atony
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Coagulation
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Retained placenta
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DIC
Correct Answer
A. Uterine atonyExplanation
Postpartum hemorrhage refers to excessive bleeding after childbirth. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It occurs when the uterus fails to contract properly after delivery, leading to the inability to control bleeding effectively. This can be due to various factors such as a prolonged labor, multiple pregnancies, or the use of certain medications. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the well-being of the mother. Coagulation disorders, retained placenta, and DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation) are also potential causes of postpartum hemorrhage, but they are less common compared to uterine atony.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Regarding GDM:
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Screening for GDM at 24 to 28 weeks
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Diet control is always successful treatment
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Screening at 8 weeks
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Do nothing
Correct Answer
A. Screening for GDM at 24 to 28 weeksExplanation
The correct answer is screening for GDM at 24 to 28 weeks. This is because GDM (Gestational Diabetes Mellitus) typically develops during the second trimester of pregnancy, around 24 to 28 weeks. Screening at this time allows for early detection and intervention, which is important for managing the condition and reducing potential risks for both the mother and the baby. Diet control is indeed an important aspect of treatment for GDM, but it is not the only treatment option. Therefore, the answer focuses on the timing of screening rather than the treatment approach.Rate this question:
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- 29.
48 years old with irregular menses presented with fatigue and no menstruation for 3 months with increased pigmentation around the vaginal area without other symptoms. your next step would be
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Do a pregnancy test
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Do ultrasound
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Reassure the patient
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Send her to Ob/Gyn
Correct Answer
A. Do a pregnancy testExplanation
Given the patient's age, irregular menses, fatigue, and absence of menstruation for 3 months, a pregnancy test is the appropriate next step. These symptoms could potentially indicate pregnancy, especially if the patient is sexually active and not using contraception. It is important to rule out pregnancy as a possible cause before considering other options.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Total vaginal hysterectomy with anterior & posterior repair the patient complains that urine is come out through vagina, what is the diagnosis?
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Ureterovaginal fistula
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Vesico vaginal fistula
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Urethrovaginal fistula
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Cystitis
Correct Answer
A. Ureterovaginal fistulaExplanation
After undergoing a total vaginal hysterectomy with anterior and posterior repair, if the patient complains of urine coming out through the vagina, the most likely diagnosis is a ureterovaginal fistula. A ureterovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the ureter (the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder) and the vagina. This can occur as a complication of surgery, such as a hysterectomy, and can result in urine leaking into the vagina. Vesicovaginal fistula and urethrovaginal fistula are also possibilities, but given the description of urine coming out through the vagina, a ureterovaginal fistula is the most appropriate diagnosis. Cystitis, which is inflammation of the bladder, does not explain the symptom of urine coming out through the vagina.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Normal Puerperium:
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Epidural analgesia cause urinary retention
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It lasts for up to 4 weeks
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The uterus can't be felt after the 1st week
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Lochia stays red for 4 weeks
Correct Answer
A. Epidural analgesia cause urinary retentionExplanation
Epidural analgesia is a common method of pain relief during labor and delivery. However, one of the side effects of epidural analgesia is urinary retention, which means the inability to empty the bladder completely. This occurs because the anesthesia affects the nerves that control bladder function, leading to temporary urinary retention. This condition usually resolves within a few hours or days after the epidural wears off. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to monitor and assist with bladder emptying in women who have received epidural analgesia during the postpartum period.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Lactating lady who didn't take the MMR?
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She can take the vaccine
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Take the vaccine and stop feeding for 72 hour
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It is harmful for the baby
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Send her to Ob/Gyn
Correct Answer
A. She can take the vaccineExplanation
The correct answer is that the lactating lady can take the vaccine. This is because the MMR vaccine is safe for breastfeeding women and does not pose any harm to the baby. It is important for lactating women to protect themselves from diseases and getting vaccinated is a safe and effective way to do so.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Trichomoniasis is classically have:
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Greenish frothy discharge
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Clue cells
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Malodors Discharge
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Cheesy Discharge
Correct Answer
A. Greenish frothy dischargeExplanation
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. One of the characteristic symptoms of trichomoniasis is a greenish frothy discharge from the vagina. This discharge may have a foul odor, which is another symptom of the infection. The presence of clue cells or cheesy discharge is not typically associated with trichomoniasis. Therefore, the correct answer is greenish frothy discharge.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Cause of Polyhydramnios:
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Duodenal atresia
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Mother with diabetes insipidus
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Post mortem pregnancy
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Renal agenesis
Correct Answer
A. Duodenal atresiaExplanation
Duodenal atresia is a known cause of polyhydramnios, which is an excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid during pregnancy. This condition occurs when the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine, is blocked or narrowed. This obstruction prevents the normal flow of amniotic fluid through the digestive system, leading to its accumulation in the amniotic sac. Therefore, duodenal atresia can be a plausible explanation for the occurrence of polyhydramnios.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The most accurate diagnostic investigation For ectopic pregnancy:
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Laparoscopy
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Serial B-HCG
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Endometrial biopsy
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Pelvic U/S
Correct Answer
A. LaparoscopyExplanation
Laparoscopy is the most accurate diagnostic investigation for ectopic pregnancy. This procedure involves inserting a small camera through a small incision in the abdomen to visualize the pelvic organs directly. It allows for the identification of the ectopic pregnancy and its location, providing precise information for further management. Serial B-HCG, endometrial biopsy, and pelvic ultrasound are also used in the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy, but laparoscopy is considered the gold standard due to its high accuracy.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Null gravida at 8 weak gestational age, follow up for genetic screening, she refused the invasive procedure but she agree for once screening , what is the appropriate action now:
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1st screening
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2nd screening
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2nd screening
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Amniocentesis
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U/S
Correct Answer
A. 1st screeningExplanation
In this scenario, the appropriate action would be to proceed with the 1st screening. The patient refused the invasive procedure (amniocentesis), but agreed to undergo a screening. Since she is a null gravida (first pregnancy) at 8 weeks gestational age, it is important to conduct an initial screening to assess any potential genetic abnormalities or risks. This will help in determining if further diagnostic procedures or interventions are necessary.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which type of contraceptive is contraindicative in lactation:
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OCPs
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Mini pills
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IUD
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Condom
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Depo-Provera
Correct Answer
A. OCPsExplanation
OCPs, or oral contraceptive pills, are contraindicated in lactation because they contain hormones that can pass into breast milk and potentially affect the infant. These hormones can interfere with milk production and composition, and may also have other effects on the baby's health. Therefore, it is recommended to use alternative forms of contraception while breastfeeding, such as non-hormonal methods like condoms or mini pills.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Contraceptive pill that contain estrogen increase risk of:
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Breast Cancer
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Ovary Cancer
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Cervical Cancer
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Colon Cancer
Correct Answer
A. Breast CancerExplanation
The contraceptive pill that contains estrogen increases the risk of breast cancer. Estrogen is known to stimulate the growth of breast tissue, and long-term exposure to estrogen through the use of contraceptive pills can increase the likelihood of developing breast cancer. However, it is important to note that the overall risk is still relatively low, and the benefits of using contraceptive pills, such as preventing unwanted pregnancies and reducing the risk of ovarian and endometrial cancers, often outweigh the potential risks. Regular screenings and discussions with healthcare providers can help monitor and manage any potential risks.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Full term wide pelvis lady, on delivery station +2, vertex, CTG showed late deceleration, what is the most appropriate management?
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Suction
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C/S
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Forceps Delivery
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Spontaneous Delivery
Correct Answer
A. SuctionExplanation
The most appropriate management in this case would be suction. Late decelerations on CTG indicate fetal distress, and suction can help expedite delivery and prevent further complications. Suction is a non-invasive procedure that involves using a vacuum to assist in the delivery of the baby. C/S (cesarean section) and forceps delivery may be considered if the situation worsens or if there are other indications for these interventions. Spontaneous delivery may not be the best option in this scenario due to the presence of fetal distress.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Endometriosis best diagnosed by
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Laparoscopy
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US
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Laparotomy
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CT
Correct Answer
A. LaparoscopyExplanation
Laparoscopy is the best diagnostic method for endometriosis because it allows for direct visualization of the pelvic organs and identification of endometrial implants. It is a minimally invasive procedure that involves inserting a small camera through a small incision in the abdomen, providing a clear view of the pelvic area. This allows the doctor to accurately diagnose endometriosis by identifying the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. Other imaging methods such as ultrasound (US) and CT scans may provide some information, but they are not as effective as laparoscopy in diagnosing endometriosis.Rate this question:
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- 41.
41 weeks pregnant lady last biophysical profile showed oligohydroamnios. She has no complaints except mild HTN. What is the appropriate management?
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Induce labor
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Wait
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Induce labor post 42 weeks
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Do biophysical profile twice weekly
Correct Answer
A. Induce laborExplanation
Based on the information given, the appropriate management for a 41-week pregnant lady with oligohydramnios and mild HTN would be to induce labor. Oligohydramnios refers to a low level of amniotic fluid, which can be a sign of fetal distress. Inducing labor would help ensure the well-being of the baby and prevent any potential complications that may arise from the low amniotic fluid levels. Additionally, the presence of mild HTN may further increase the risk to both the mother and the baby, making it necessary to proceed with labor induction.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Young female with whitish grey vaginal discharge KOH test? Smell fish like, what is the diagnosis?
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Bacterial Vaginosis
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Gonorrhea
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Traichomanous Vaginalis
Correct Answer
A. Bacterial VaginosisExplanation
The given symptoms of whitish grey vaginal discharge with a fish-like smell are indicative of bacterial vaginosis. Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection caused by an imbalance of bacteria in the vagina. It is characterized by an increase in harmful bacteria and a decrease in beneficial bacteria. The discharge is usually thin and watery, with a strong odor. Gonorrhea and Trichomonas vaginalis are sexually transmitted infections that can also cause vaginal discharge, but they usually have different characteristics and symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Female complain of painless odorless and colorless vaginal discharge that appear after intercourse so ttt:
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Douche after intercourse
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Give her antibiotic
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Cervical cancer should be consider
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May be due to chronic salpingitis
Correct Answer
A. Douche after intercourseExplanation
The correct answer is "Douche after intercourse". This is because the symptoms described in the question (painless, odorless, and colorless vaginal discharge after intercourse) suggest that the discharge is likely due to semen. Douching after intercourse can help to remove any residual semen and reduce the chances of developing symptoms. Antibiotics would not be necessary in this case as there is no indication of infection. Cervical cancer and chronic salpingitis are unrelated to the symptoms described.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Obstructed labor, which is true?
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Can not be expected before labor
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Common in primi
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Excessive caput & molding are common signs
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most common occipto-anterior
Correct Answer
A. Can not be expected before laborExplanation
Obstructed labor refers to a situation where the baby cannot pass through the birth canal due to physical obstacles. It is not something that can be predicted or expected before labor begins. The occurrence of obstructed labor is not related to whether the woman is a primi (first-time mother) or not. Excessive caput (swelling of the baby's scalp) and molding (reshaping of the baby's head to fit through the birth canal) are common signs of obstructed labor. The most common position of the baby during labor is occipito-anterior, which means that the baby's head is facing downwards towards the mother's back.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Primary dysmenorrhea :
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Treat with NSAID
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Pain start a few days before flow
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Periods Painful since birth
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Paracetamol
Correct Answer
A. Treat with NSAIDExplanation
Primary dysmenorrhea refers to menstrual pain that occurs without any underlying medical condition. It is a common condition in women and is typically treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen or naproxen. These medications help to relieve pain and reduce inflammation. The fact that the pain starts a few days before the flow and has been present since birth suggests that it is likely primary dysmenorrhea. Paracetamol, also known as acetaminophen, is another pain reliever that can be used for menstrual pain, but NSAIDs are generally more effective for this condition.Rate this question:
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- 46.
After delivery start breast feeding :
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As soon as possible
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8 hours
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24 hour
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48 hour
Correct Answer
A. As soon as possibleExplanation
The correct answer is "As soon as possible" because initiating breastfeeding immediately after delivery is beneficial for both the mother and the baby. Breast milk provides essential nutrients and antibodies that help protect the baby from infections and diseases. It also helps the mother's uterus contract, reducing the risk of postpartum bleeding. Early breastfeeding also promotes bonding between the mother and the baby and helps establish a good milk supply. Therefore, it is recommended to start breastfeeding as soon as possible after delivery.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Pregnant women has fibroid with of the following is True:
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Likely to regress after delivery .
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Surgery immediately .
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Presented with antepartum hemorrhage .
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Presented with severe anemia .
Correct Answer
A. Likely to regress after delivery .Explanation
Fibroids are noncancerous growths that can occur in the uterus during pregnancy. It is true that fibroids are likely to regress or shrink after delivery. This is because the hormonal changes that occur during pregnancy, particularly the decrease in estrogen levels after delivery, can cause fibroids to decrease in size. Therefore, surgical intervention is not immediately necessary unless the fibroid is causing severe symptoms or complications such as antepartum hemorrhage or severe anemia.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A 28 year lady with 7 week history of amenorrhea has lower abdominal pain , home pregnancy test was +ve , comes with light bleeding, next step:
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HCG
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Check progesterone
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Placenta lactogen
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Estrogen
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Prolactin
Correct Answer
A. HCGExplanation
In this scenario, the most appropriate next step would be to check the HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) levels. HCG is a hormone that is produced during pregnancy and can be detected in the blood or urine. Since the patient has a positive home pregnancy test and is experiencing light bleeding, checking the HCG levels can help confirm the pregnancy and assess its viability. This information will be crucial in determining the appropriate management for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Treatment of patient with yellowish vaginal discharge and itchy by swab and culture it is Trichomonas vaginalis. which of the following is correct :
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Start treatment with metronidazole
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Start treatment with clindamycin
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No need to treat husband
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Vaginal swab culture after 2 weeks
Correct Answer
A. Start treatment with metronidazoleExplanation
The correct answer is to start treatment with metronidazole. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection that commonly presents with symptoms such as yellowish vaginal discharge and itching. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating trichomoniasis and has been shown to effectively eliminate the infection. Therefore, initiating treatment with metronidazole is the appropriate course of action in this case.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 04, 2016Quiz Created by
AbdullahAlshamra
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