SLE Free Trial Exam

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SLE Free Trial Exam - Quiz
About This Quiz

The SLE Free Trial Exam assesses knowledge on the treatment and management of various pulmonary disorders. It covers critical conditions and their initial treatments, focusing on scenarios such as emphysema, cystic fibrosis, asthma, and complications related to COPD.

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  • 2. 

    Best way to prevent infection in nursery 

    • Hand wash before and after examining the infants

    • Gowns

    • Antiseptic technique

    • Antibiotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Hand wash before and after examining the infants
    Explanation
    Hand washing before and after examining the infants is the best way to prevent infection in a nursery. This is because hand washing helps to remove and kill any harmful bacteria or viruses that may be present on the hands. Infants have weaker immune systems and are more susceptible to infections, so it is important to maintain proper hand hygiene to prevent the spread of germs. Gowns, antiseptic technique, and antibiotics may also be helpful in preventing infection, but hand washing is the most effective and basic preventive measure.

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  • 3. 

    Epidemic disease in poor sanitation areas affecting children and young adults: 

    • Hepatitis A

    • Hepatitis B

    • Hepatitis C

    • Hepatitis D

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis A
    Explanation
    Hepatitis A is the correct answer because it is a viral infection that spreads through contaminated food and water, especially in areas with poor sanitation. It primarily affects children and young adults who may not have developed immunity to the virus. Hepatitis A can cause symptoms such as jaundice, fatigue, and abdominal pain. It can be prevented through proper sanitation practices and vaccination.

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  • 4. 

    In patients with hypertension and diabetes, which antihypertensive agent you want to add first?

    • ACE inhibitor

    • β-blockers

    •  α-blocker

    • Calcium channel blocker

    Correct Answer
    A. ACE inhibitor
    Explanation
    In patients with hypertension and diabetes, adding an ACE inhibitor as the first antihypertensive agent is preferred. ACE inhibitors are known to effectively lower blood pressure and also have additional benefits for patients with diabetes. They can help protect the kidneys and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in diabetic patients. Additionally, ACE inhibitors have been shown to have a positive impact on insulin sensitivity, making them a suitable choice for managing hypertension in patients with diabetes.

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  • 5. 

    Bacterial vaginosis ?

    • Causes fishy discharge which results from bacterial amine production

    • Is a rare vaginal infection

    • Is treated with clotrimazole

    • Is always symptomatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Causes fishy discharge which results from bacterial amine production
    Explanation
    Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection that is characterized by a fishy discharge. This fishy odor is caused by the production of amines by the bacteria that overgrow in the vaginal flora. It is not a rare infection and can be treated with clotrimazole or other antibiotics. Bacterial vaginosis does not always cause symptoms, but when it does, the most common symptom is the fishy discharge.

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  • 6. 

    Side effect of Retin-A Gel in treatment of Acne? 

    • Sensitivity to Sunlight.

    • Bleeding

    • Increase oil in the skin.

    • Increase breast tissues.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitivity to Sunlight.
    Explanation
    Retin-A Gel is a commonly used treatment for acne. One of the side effects of this medication is increased sensitivity to sunlight. This means that individuals using Retin-A Gel may experience a heightened reaction to the sun, such as sunburn or increased risk of sun damage. It is important for patients to take precautions such as wearing sunscreen and protective clothing while using this medication to minimize the risk of sun-related side effects.

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  • 7. 

    Flu like symptoms since two days and now has red eye, what is the diagnosis: 

    • Viral conjunctivitis

    • Glaucoma

    • Uvitis

    • Bacterial conjunctivitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Viral conjunctivitis
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, which include flu-like symptoms and red eye, the most likely diagnosis is viral conjunctivitis. Viral conjunctivitis is a common viral infection that causes inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin clear tissue that covers the white part of the eye. It typically presents with redness, watery discharge, and discomfort in the affected eye. Flu-like symptoms can also be present in viral conjunctivitis, such as fever, sore throat, and body aches. Glaucoma and uveitis are less likely as they do not typically present with flu-like symptoms, and bacterial conjunctivitis may cause similar symptoms but is less common than viral conjunctivitis.

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  • 8. 

    The best initial treatment  for depression is: 

    • SSRIs

    • Tricyclic depressant

    • MAO inhibitors

    • Beta blocker

    Correct Answer
    A. SSRIs
    Explanation
    SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors) are considered the best initial treatment for depression due to their effectiveness and relatively low side effects compared to other options. They work by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which helps regulate mood and emotions. Tricyclic antidepressants and MAO inhibitors are older classes of antidepressants that may be effective but often have more side effects and require closer monitoring. Beta blockers, on the other hand, are primarily used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure and heart problems, and are not typically prescribed as a first-line treatment for depression.

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  • 9. 

     Old male come with CHF & pulmonary edema, what is the best initial therapy

    • Furosemide

    • Digoxin

    • Debutamine

    • Aspirin

    Correct Answer
    A. Furosemide
    Explanation
    Furosemide is the best initial therapy for an old male with congestive heart failure (CHF) and pulmonary edema. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body by increasing urine production. This can help reduce the fluid overload in the lungs and improve symptoms of pulmonary edema. Digoxin is not the best initial therapy for this condition as it is primarily used to improve heart function in patients with heart failure. Debutamine is a misspelled term and does not exist as a medication. Aspirin is not the best initial therapy for CHF and pulmonary edema as it is primarily used for its antiplatelet effects and is not effective in reducing fluid overload.

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  • 10. 

    Best food in travelling is: 

    • Boiling water

    • Ice

    • Partial cooked fish and meat

    • Fast food

    Correct Answer
    A. Boiling water
    Explanation
    Boiling water is considered the best food in traveling because it is safe to consume and does not require any preparation or cooking. It helps to keep the body hydrated and can be used for making instant noodles, soups, or hot beverages. Boiling water also helps in killing any harmful bacteria or parasites that may be present, making it a reliable and convenient option for travelers.

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  • 11. 

     a patient with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia should be ?

    • Screen for HIV

    • Kept in Iosloation

    • Leave as it is

    • Non of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Screen for HIV
    Explanation
    A patient with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia should be screened for HIV because Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is a common opportunistic infection seen in individuals with a weakened immune system, particularly those with HIV/AIDS. Therefore, it is important to screen for HIV in order to identify the underlying cause of the pneumonia and provide appropriate treatment and care for the patient.

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  • 12. 

    The effectiveness of ventilation during CPR measured by

    • Chest rise

    •  Pulse oximetry

    •  Pulse acceleration

    • Blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Chest rise
    Explanation
    The effectiveness of ventilation during CPR can be measured by observing the chest rise. When performing CPR, the rescuer's breaths should cause the chest to rise, indicating that air is being successfully delivered to the lungs. This is an important indicator of proper ventilation and ensures that oxygen is being supplied to the patient's body. Monitoring the chest rise helps to assess the effectiveness of the rescue breaths and allows for adjustments to be made if necessary to optimize ventilation during CPR.

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  • 13. 

    Warfarin is given to all the following except:

    • Elderly male with normal heart

    • Male with AF & prosthetic heart valve

    • Male with AF & cardiomyopathy

    • Young male with Atrial fibrillation & mitral stenosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Elderly male with normal heart
    Explanation
    Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that is commonly prescribed to prevent blood clots. It works by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood. In the given options, all the individuals mentioned have conditions that put them at an increased risk of developing blood clots. Atrial fibrillation (AF), prosthetic heart valves, cardiomyopathy, and mitral stenosis are all associated with an increased risk of clot formation. However, an elderly male with a normal heart does not have any specific condition that would warrant the use of warfarin. Therefore, warfarin would not be given to an elderly male with a normal heart.

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  • 14. 

    The most important factor for smoker to quit is: 

    • Patient desire

    • Change life style

    • Give him programmed plan

    • Give nicotine pills

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient desire
    Explanation
    The most important factor for a smoker to quit is their own desire to quit. Without the motivation and determination to quit, no external factors such as lifestyle changes, programmed plans, or nicotine pills will be effective. It is crucial for the individual to have a strong personal desire to quit smoking in order to successfully overcome the addiction.

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  • 15. 

    Pregnant, with history of DVT 4 years back, what will you give her?

    • LMW heparin

    • Aspirin

    • Warfarin

    • Clopidogrel

    Correct Answer
    A. LMW heparin
    Explanation
    Given the patient's history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pregnancy, LMW heparin is the most appropriate choice. LMW heparin is commonly used in pregnant women with a history of DVT because it is safe for both the mother and the baby. It helps to prevent blood clots by inhibiting the formation of fibrin, a protein involved in blood clotting. Aspirin, warfarin, and clopidogrel are not recommended during pregnancy due to their potential risks to the developing fetus.

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  • 16. 

    Athletes who died while playing football, which of the following is the cause of death?

    • HOCM

    • ASD

    • VSD

    • Coarctation of Aorta

    Correct Answer
    A. HOCM
    Explanation
    HOCM stands for hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is a condition characterized by an abnormal thickening of the heart muscle. This can lead to obstruction of blood flow out of the heart and cause sudden cardiac arrest during physical exertion, such as playing football. Therefore, HOCM can be a cause of death in athletes while playing football.

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  • 17. 

    All of the following are risk factors for heart disease except?

    • High HDL

    • Male

    • Obesity

    • Smoking

    Correct Answer
    A. High HDL
    Explanation
    High HDL is not a risk factor for heart disease because HDL, also known as "good" cholesterol, helps remove excess cholesterol from the arteries and reduces the risk of heart disease. In fact, having high levels of HDL is considered beneficial for heart health. On the other hand, being male, obesity, and smoking are all known risk factors for heart disease.

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  • 18. 

    Best treatment for female with migraine and HTN

    • Propranolol

    • Nitroglycerine

    • Thiazide

    • Morphine

    Correct Answer
    A. Propranolol
    Explanation
    Propranolol is the best treatment option for a female with migraine and hypertension. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps to reduce blood pressure and prevent migraines by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels. It is commonly used in the treatment of hypertension and has been found to be effective in preventing migraines as well. Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of angina, not migraines or hypertension. Thiazide is a diuretic that is primarily used for hypertension, but it is not specifically indicated for migraines. Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic that is not typically used for the treatment of migraines or hypertension.

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  • 19. 

    Middle aged male s involved in RTA, his RR is 30/min, heart sounds is muffled& the JVP is elevated, BP: 80/40 & a bruise over the sternum, what is the diagnosis?

    • Pericardial tamponade

    • Pneumothorax

    • Pulmonary contusion

    • Hemothorax

    Correct Answer
    A. Pericardial tamponade
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis is pericardial tamponade. The elevated JVP (jugular venous pressure) and muffled heart sounds suggest fluid accumulation in the pericardium, which can lead to compression of the heart. This can cause a decrease in blood pressure (80/40) and an increased respiratory rate (RR 30/min) due to decreased cardiac output. The presence of a bruise over the sternum also suggests trauma, which can cause pericardial tamponade. Pneumothorax, pulmonary contusion, and hemothorax may cause similar symptoms, but they do not explain the specific findings of an elevated JVP and muffled heart sounds.

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  • 20. 

    Patient with hypercholesterolemia, he should avoid:

    • Organ meat

    • Avocado

    • Chicken

    •  white egg

    Correct Answer
    A. Organ meat
    Explanation
    Patients with hypercholesterolemia should avoid organ meat because it is high in cholesterol. Organ meats such as liver, kidney, and brain are rich in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can further increase blood cholesterol levels. Avocado, chicken, and white eggs, on the other hand, are generally considered to be healthier options for individuals with high cholesterol as they are lower in cholesterol and saturated fats.

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  • 21. 

    Child presented with jaundice,vomiting,hepatomegaly..etc.What hepatitis virus is morel likely to be the cause: 

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described (jaundice, vomiting, hepatomegaly), the most likely cause of the condition is hepatitis A virus. Hepatitis A is known to cause jaundice, liver enlargement (hepatomegaly), and can also lead to vomiting. It is transmitted through contaminated food or water, and is more common in areas with poor sanitation. Therefore, hepatitis A is the most probable virus causing the symptoms presented by the child.

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  • 22. 

    Normal child, he want to walking, he have brother dead after walking, what of the following must be excluded before walking? 

    • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

    • ASD

    • VSD

    • PDA

    Correct Answer
    A. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    Explanation
    Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy should be excluded before walking because it is a condition characterized by the thickening of the heart muscle, which can lead to various complications including arrhythmias and sudden cardiac arrest. Since the child's brother died after walking, it is important to rule out any underlying heart conditions that could pose a risk during physical activity. The other options (ASD, VSD, PDA) are all types of congenital heart defects that may not necessarily be associated with an increased risk during walking.

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  • 23. 

     Regarding murmur of mitral stenosis

    • Mid-diastolic rumbling murmur

    • Holosystolic

    • Innocent murmur

    • Mid systolic

    Correct Answer
    A. Mid-diastolic rumbling murmur
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mid-diastolic rumbling murmur. This type of murmur is commonly associated with mitral stenosis, a condition where the mitral valve becomes narrowed and restricts blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. The murmur is heard during mid-diastole, when the ventricles are filling with blood. It is described as a rumbling sound and is typically low-pitched. This murmur is caused by turbulent blood flow across the narrowed mitral valve.

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  • 24. 

    Which one of the following regimens is the recommended initial treatment for most adults with active tuberculosis?

    • A four-drug regimen consisting of isoniazid, refimpin, pyarazinamide and ethumbutol

    •  A two-drug regimen consisting of isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin).

    • A three-drug regimen consisting of isoniazid, rifampin, and ethumbutol (Myambutol).

    •  No treatment for most patients until infection is confirmed by culture

    • A five-drug regimen consisting of Ionized, Rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethumbutol and ciprofloxacin

    Correct Answer
    A. A four-drug regimen consisting of isoniazid, refimpin, pyarazinamide and ethumbutol
    Explanation
    The recommended initial treatment for most adults with active tuberculosis is a four-drug regimen consisting of isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. This combination of drugs helps to effectively kill the tuberculosis bacteria and prevent the development of drug resistance. Isoniazid and rifampin are considered the backbone of tuberculosis treatment, while pyrazinamide and ethambutol are added to increase the effectiveness of the treatment and reduce the risk of drug resistance. This regimen has been proven to be highly effective in treating tuberculosis and is the standard of care for most patients.

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  • 25. 

    Most difficult method to prevented in transmission 

    • Airflow

    • Droplet

    • Vector

    • Person to person

    Correct Answer
    A. Airflow
    Explanation
    Airflow is the most difficult method to prevent in transmission because it is challenging to control and contain. Airflow can carry infectious particles over long distances, making it difficult to implement effective preventive measures. While measures like wearing masks and maintaining physical distance can help reduce the spread of droplets and person-to-person transmission, controlling airflow requires advanced ventilation systems and proper air circulation techniques, which may not be easily achievable in all settings. Therefore, preventing transmission through airflow poses significant challenges and requires specialized interventions.

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  • 26. 

    Young patient with emphysema:

    • Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency

    • Cystic Fibrosis

    • Pneumonia

    • Chronic Asthma

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency. Emphysema is a condition characterized by damage to the air sacs in the lungs, leading to shortness of breath. Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency is a genetic disorder that causes a deficiency in the protein alpha 1 anti-trypsin, which helps protect the lungs from damage. Without enough of this protein, the lungs are more susceptible to damage, leading to emphysema. This condition typically occurs in younger patients and can be confirmed with genetic testing.

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  • 27. 

    Patient came with chest pain radiate to jaw increase with exercise, decrease with rest, what is the diagnosis? 

    •  Stable angina

    • Unstable angina

    • Pulmonary embolism

    • Prenzmetal angina

    Correct Answer
    A.  Stable angina
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of chest pain that radiates to the jaw and worsens with exercise but improves with rest are characteristic of stable angina. Stable angina is caused by a temporary reduction in blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. This reduction in blood flow leads to chest pain or discomfort, which can radiate to the jaw. The pain typically occurs during physical exertion or emotional stress and is relieved by rest or medication.

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  • 28. 

    2 month old treated with topical erythromycin after conjunctivitis for 7 days ,now complaining of creamy whitish plaque in the tongue, what is the treatment? 

    • Oral nystatin

    • Topical Acyclovir

    • Topical Steroid

    • Oral Antibiotics

    Correct Answer
    A. Oral nystatin
    Explanation
    The patient is presenting with a creamy whitish plaque on the tongue, which is indicative of oral thrush, a common fungal infection caused by Candida. Oral nystatin is the treatment of choice for oral thrush, as it is an antifungal medication that effectively targets and eliminates the Candida fungus. Topical acyclovir is used to treat viral infections, topical steroid would not be appropriate for a fungal infection, and oral antibiotics would not be effective against Candida. Therefore, oral nystatin is the most appropriate treatment option in this case.

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  • 29. 

    Malaria in Children ?

    • The most common cause is falciparum

    • 72h treatment of malaria is suffeceint

    • The immediate treatment primquine for 3 days

    • Crescent shape gametocyte of vivex is diagnostic in the stool

    Correct Answer
    A. The most common cause is falciparum
    Explanation
    The most common cause of malaria in children is falciparum.

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  • 30. 

    25 years old man had fixation of fractured right femur. Two days later he became dyspnic, chest pain and hemoptysis. ABG:-pH: 7.5, PO2:65,PCO2: 25, initial treatment is

    • Heparin

    • Furosemide

    • Warfarin

    • Bronchoscopy

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Heparin. The patient's symptoms of dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis suggest a possible pulmonary embolism (PE), which is a common complication following fractures. The arterial blood gas (ABG) findings of a high pH (alkalosis) and low PCO2 (respiratory alkalosis) indicate hyperventilation, which can be a compensatory response to a PE. Heparin is the initial treatment of choice for PE as it prevents further clot formation and helps dissolve existing clots. Furosemide is a diuretic and would not be the appropriate treatment for a PE. Warfarin is used for long-term anticoagulation but has a delayed onset of action and would not be the initial treatment. Bronchoscopy is not indicated in the management of a PE.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is the recommended diet to prevent IHD?

    • Increase the intake of fruit and vegetables

    • Decrease the meat and bread

    • Decrease the intake of meat and dairy

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase the intake of fruit and vegetables
    Explanation
    Increasing the intake of fruits and vegetables is recommended to prevent IHD (Ischemic Heart Disease). Fruits and vegetables are rich in vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants that help in reducing inflammation and improving heart health. They are also low in saturated fats and cholesterol, which are risk factors for IHD. By increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetables, individuals can maintain a healthy weight, lower blood pressure, and reduce the risk of developing heart disease.

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  • 32. 

    One of the following is component of TOF? 

    • VSD

    • ASD

    • PDA

    • Left ventricular enlargement

    Correct Answer
    A. VSD
    Explanation
    VSD stands for Ventricular Septal Defect, which is a congenital heart defect where there is an abnormal opening in the septum (wall) between the ventricles of the heart. This opening allows blood to flow from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, causing oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood to mix. Therefore, VSD is a component of Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), which is a complex congenital heart defect that includes four specific abnormalities, one of which is a VSD.

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  • 33. 

    what is the Most common cause of secondary hypertension in female adolescent ?

    • Renal disease

    • Essential HTN

    • Hyperthyroidism

    • Cushing syndrome

    • Polycystic ovary disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal disease
    Explanation
    The most common cause of secondary hypertension in female adolescents is renal disease. Renal disease refers to any condition that affects the kidneys, such as kidney infections, kidney stones, or kidney damage. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, it can lead to high blood pressure. This is because the kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by controlling the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body. Therefore, any dysfunction in the kidneys can result in hypertension.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following drugs does not cross the placenta 

    • Chloramphenicol

    • Heparin

    • Tetracycline

    • Diazepam

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin
    Explanation
    Heparin is the correct answer because it is a large molecule that does not easily cross the placenta. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and the fetus, and it selectively allows certain substances to pass through while blocking others. Heparin is one of the substances that is unable to cross this barrier, making it safe to use during pregnancy as it does not affect the fetus.

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  • 35. 

    20 years old lady thinks that she’s fat although her height and weight are normal: 

    • Aneroxia nervosa

    • Bulimia

    • Depression

    • Mania

    Correct Answer
    A. Aneroxia nervosa
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, despite being underweight. People with anorexia nervosa have a distorted body image and often restrict their food intake to an extreme level. This can lead to severe health consequences and even death if not treated. In this case, the 20-year-old lady's belief that she is fat despite having normal height and weight suggests body dissatisfaction and a possible symptom of anorexia nervosa.

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  • 36. 

    You are supposed to keep a child NPO he's 25 kgs, how much you will give: 

    • 1600

    • 1400

    • 1500

    • 1300

    Correct Answer
    A. 1600
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1600. This amount is being given to the child NPO because the question states that the child weighs 25 kgs. The amount given is likely referring to the number of calories or nutrients needed to support the child's growth and development. As the child's weight is not provided, it is assumed that the given amount is appropriate for a child of average weight.

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  • 37. 

    History of recurrent pneumonia, foul smelling sputum with blood and clubbing, what is the diagnosis?

    • Bronchiectasis

    • Pneumonia

    • Lung Abscess

    • COPD

    Correct Answer
    A. Bronchiectasis
    Explanation
    The symptoms described, such as a history of recurrent pneumonia, foul smelling sputum with blood, and clubbing, are indicative of bronchiectasis. Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the permanent dilation of the bronchi, leading to the accumulation of mucus and recurrent infections. The foul smelling sputum with blood suggests the presence of infection and damage to the bronchial walls. Clubbing, a condition where the fingertips and nails become enlarged and rounded, is often associated with chronic respiratory conditions like bronchiectasis. Therefore, based on the symptoms provided, bronchiectasis is the most likely diagnosis.

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  • 38. 

    50 years old patient, diagnosed with hypertension, he is used to drink one glass of wine every day, he is also used to get high Na and high K intake, his BMI is 30kg/m, what is the strongest risk factor for having hypertension in this patient?

    • BMI=30

    • Wine

    • High Na intake

    • High K intake

    Correct Answer
    A. BMI=30
    Explanation
    The strongest risk factor for hypertension in this patient is a BMI of 30. A BMI of 30 indicates that the patient is obese, which is known to be a significant risk factor for developing hypertension. Obesity puts additional strain on the cardiovascular system, leading to increased blood pressure. While alcohol consumption, high sodium intake, and high potassium intake can also contribute to hypertension, the patient's obesity is the most significant risk factor in this case.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following medications is considered as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor?

    • Simvastatin

    • Fibrate

    • Propranolol

    • Propylthiouracil

    Correct Answer
    A. Simvastatin
    Explanation
    Simvastatin is considered as an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. HMG-CoA reductase is an enzyme involved in the production of cholesterol in the liver. By inhibiting this enzyme, simvastatin helps to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. Fibrate is a medication used to lower triglyceride levels, while propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication. Therefore, Simvastatin is the correct answer as it specifically targets the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme.

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  • 40. 

    In pHC, from 50 children 10 got the disease on the 1st week, another 30 on the subsequent 2 weeks, what is the incidence of the disease in that pHC? 

    • 80%

    • 60%

    • 20%

    • 40%

    Correct Answer
    A. 80%
    Explanation
    The incidence of the disease in the PHC can be calculated by dividing the number of new cases (40) by the total number of children (50) and multiplying by 100. In this case, 40 divided by 50 equals 0.8, and when multiplied by 100, it equals 80%. Therefore, the incidence of the disease in the PHC is 80%.

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  • 41. 

     One of the Anti-psychotics causes ECG changes , Leukopenia, drooling : 

    • Clozapine

    • Respiredone

    • Amisulpride

    Correct Answer
    A. Clozapine
    Explanation
    Clozapine is the correct answer because it is known to cause ECG changes, leukopenia, and drooling as side effects. ECG changes refer to abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart, leukopenia is a decrease in the number of white blood cells, and drooling is excessive saliva production. These side effects are commonly associated with the use of clozapine, which is an atypical antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia. Respiredone and Amisulpride are also antipsychotic medications, but they do not typically cause the same side effects as clozapine.

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  • 42. 

    Possible mechanisms of action of intrauterine contraceptive devices: 

    • Suppression of ovulation

    • Alteration of endometrium

    • Inhibition of implantation

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The possible mechanisms of action of intrauterine contraceptive devices include suppression of ovulation, alteration of the endometrium, and inhibition of implantation. These devices can prevent pregnancy by preventing the release of eggs from the ovaries, changing the lining of the uterus to make it less receptive to implantation, and creating an environment that is hostile to the fertilized egg, preventing it from attaching to the uterus.

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  • 43. 

    Hyperkalemia is characterized by all of the following except:

    • Positive Chvostek sign.

    •  Nausea and vomiting.

    •  Peaked T-waves.

    • Widened QRS complex.

    • Cardiac arrest in diastole.

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive Chvostek sign.
    Explanation
    Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. It can lead to various symptoms and ECG changes. Nausea and vomiting, peaked T-waves, widened QRS complex, and cardiac arrest in diastole are all associated with hyperkalemia. However, a positive Chvostek sign is not a characteristic finding of hyperkalemia. The Chvostek sign is a clinical sign used to assess for hypocalcemia, not hyperkalemia.

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  • 44. 

    An 18 years old male who was involved in an RTA had fracture of the base of the skull. O/E he had loss of sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue & deviation of the angle of the mouth. Which of the following nerves is affected? 

    • VII (Facial)

    • IV (Abducens)

    • V (Trigeminal)

    • III (Occulomotor)

    • I (Olfactory)

    Correct Answer
    A. VII (Facial)
    Explanation
    The fracture of the base of the skull is likely to have affected the facial nerve (VII). Loss of sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and deviation of the angle of the mouth are both signs of facial nerve damage. The other nerves listed (IV, V, III, I) do not innervate the tongue or control the muscles of facial expression, making them less likely to be affected in this case.

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  • 45. 

    Cow milk differ from mature human milk that cow milk contain more: 

    • More protein

    • More Iron content

    • More calories

    • More fat

    Correct Answer
    A. More protein
    Explanation
    Cow milk differs from mature human milk in that it contains more protein. This is because cows require more protein in their diet to support their larger size and higher activity levels compared to humans. Additionally, cow milk is often used as a source of nutrition for calves, who need a higher protein content to support their growth and development. In contrast, human milk is specifically designed to meet the nutritional needs of human infants, which includes a lower protein content compared to cow milk.

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  • 46. 

    Young man came with nasal bleeding from posterior septum not known to have any medical disease or bleeding disorder MANGEMENT is. 

    • Tampon in posterior septum

    • Screen for blood and coagulation

    • Inject septum by vasoconstrictor

    • Spray anaesthetic or vasoconstrictor

    Correct Answer
    A. Tampon in posterior septum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Tampon in posterior septum." This is the appropriate management for a young man presenting with nasal bleeding from the posterior septum. Placing a tampon in the posterior septum can help to stop the bleeding by applying pressure to the area. This is a common method used in the management of posterior epistaxis. The other options, such as screening for blood and coagulation disorders or administering vasoconstrictor injections or sprays, may be considered depending on the individual case, but the immediate management for stopping the bleeding would be to place a tampon in the posterior septum.

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  • 47. 

    Athlete who jogs on daily basis presented with groin rash with erythema, the treatment is ?

    • Topical anti fungal

    • Oral anti fungal

    • Topical steroid

    • Systemic steroid

    Correct Answer
    A. Topical anti fungal
    Explanation
    The athlete presented with a groin rash with erythema, which is likely caused by a fungal infection. Topical anti fungal treatment is the most appropriate choice in this case as it directly targets the fungal infection on the skin surface. Oral anti fungal medications may be considered if the infection is severe or widespread. Topical steroid creams may provide temporary relief of symptoms but do not treat the underlying fungal infection. Systemic steroids are not recommended for treating fungal infections as they can suppress the immune system and worsen the infection.

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  • 48. 

    Which one of the anti TB medications cause tinnitus, imbalance 

    • Streptomycin

    • INH

    • Pyrazinamide

    • Ethambutol

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptomycin
    Explanation
    Streptomycin is known to cause tinnitus and imbalance as a side effect. Tinnitus refers to a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears, while imbalance refers to a lack of stability or coordination. Streptomycin is an antibiotic medication used in the treatment of tuberculosis (TB), but it can have ototoxic effects on the inner ear, leading to these symptoms. INH, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol are other anti-TB medications, but they do not typically cause tinnitus or imbalance.

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  • 49. 

     Man use sildenafil, to prevent hypotension you should not use : 

    • Nitrate

    • B blocker

    • ACIE

    • CCB

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitrate
    Explanation
    Sildenafil is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction, and it works by increasing blood flow to the penis. Nitrate medications, on the other hand, are commonly used to treat chest pain and work by dilating blood vessels, which can lower blood pressure. Combining sildenafil with nitrate medications can cause a severe drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Therefore, it is advised not to use nitrate medications while taking sildenafil to prevent this potential side effect. B blockers, ACIE, and CCB are not specifically mentioned in relation to sildenafil and hypotension, so they do not have the same contraindication.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 12, 2014
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