SLE Free Trial Exam

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  • 1/100 Questions

     a patient with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia should be ?

    • Screen for HIV
    • Kept in Iosloation
    • Leave as it is
    • Non of above
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SLE Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The SLE Free Trial Exam assesses knowledge on the treatment and management of various pulmonary disorders. It covers critical conditions and their initial treatments, focusing on scenarios such as emphysema, cystic fibrosis, asthma, and complications related to COPD.

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  • 2. 

    Young patient with emphysema:

    • Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency

    • Cystic Fibrosis

    • Pneumonia

    • Chronic Asthma

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency. Emphysema is a condition characterized by damage to the air sacs in the lungs, leading to shortness of breath. Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency is a genetic disorder that causes a deficiency in the protein alpha 1 anti-trypsin, which helps protect the lungs from damage. Without enough of this protein, the lungs are more susceptible to damage, leading to emphysema. This condition typically occurs in younger patients and can be confirmed with genetic testing.

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  • 3. 

    The chromosome of cystic fibrosis:

    • Long arm of chromosome 7

    • Short arm of chromosome 8

    • Long arm of chromosome 8

    • Short arm of chromosome 17

    Correct Answer
    A. Long arm of chromosome 7
    Explanation
    Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, which is located on the long arm of chromosome 7. This gene is responsible for producing a protein that regulates the movement of salt and water in and out of cells. Mutations in the CFTR gene result in the production of a defective protein, leading to the buildup of thick, sticky mucus in the lungs, digestive system, and other organs. Therefore, the correct answer is the long arm of chromosome 7.

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  • 4. 

    Patient with asthma use short acting beta agonist and systemic corticosteroid  

    • Severe

    • Moderate

    • Mild persistent

    • Mild intermittent

    Correct Answer
    A. Severe
    Explanation
    Patients with severe asthma require more aggressive treatment compared to patients with mild or moderate asthma. Short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are bronchodilators that provide immediate relief by relaxing the airway muscles. Systemic corticosteroids, on the other hand, are anti-inflammatory medications that help reduce airway inflammation and prevent asthma attacks. The combination of SABA and systemic corticosteroids is commonly used in the treatment of severe asthma to provide both immediate relief and long-term control of symptoms. Therefore, the use of short-acting beta agonist and systemic corticosteroid is appropriate for a patient with severe asthma.

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  • 5. 

    25 years old man had fixation of fractured right femur. Two days later he became dyspnic, chest pain and hemoptysis. ABG:-pH: 7.5, PO2:65,PCO2: 25, initial treatment is

    • Heparin

    • Furosemide

    • Warfarin

    • Bronchoscopy

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Heparin. The patient's symptoms of dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis suggest a possible pulmonary embolism (PE), which is a common complication following fractures. The arterial blood gas (ABG) findings of a high pH (alkalosis) and low PCO2 (respiratory alkalosis) indicate hyperventilation, which can be a compensatory response to a PE. Heparin is the initial treatment of choice for PE as it prevents further clot formation and helps dissolve existing clots. Furosemide is a diuretic and would not be the appropriate treatment for a PE. Warfarin is used for long-term anticoagulation but has a delayed onset of action and would not be the initial treatment. Bronchoscopy is not indicated in the management of a PE.

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  • 6. 

    60 years admitted to the hospital as end stage COPD, what will you expect in lab.Work ?

    • Erythrocytosis

    • Low ferritin level

    • Hypokalemia

    • Hyponatremia

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythrocytosis
    Explanation
    In end stage COPD, the body compensates for the low oxygen levels by producing more red blood cells, leading to erythrocytosis. This is a common finding in COPD patients as the body tries to improve oxygen-carrying capacity. Low ferritin levels may be seen due to chronic inflammation and poor nutrition. Hypokalemia can occur due to the use of diuretics or corticosteroids. Hyponatremia may be present due to fluid retention and dilutional effect. However, the most expected finding in lab work for a patient with end stage COPD would be erythrocytosis.

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  • 7. 

    Which one of the following regimens is the recommended initial treatment for most adults with active tuberculosis?

    • A four-drug regimen consisting of isoniazid, refimpin, pyarazinamide and ethumbutol

    •  A two-drug regimen consisting of isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin).

    • A three-drug regimen consisting of isoniazid, rifampin, and ethumbutol (Myambutol).

    •  No treatment for most patients until infection is confirmed by culture

    • A five-drug regimen consisting of Ionized, Rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethumbutol and ciprofloxacin

    Correct Answer
    A. A four-drug regimen consisting of isoniazid, refimpin, pyarazinamide and ethumbutol
    Explanation
    The recommended initial treatment for most adults with active tuberculosis is a four-drug regimen consisting of isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. This combination of drugs helps to effectively kill the tuberculosis bacteria and prevent the development of drug resistance. Isoniazid and rifampin are considered the backbone of tuberculosis treatment, while pyrazinamide and ethambutol are added to increase the effectiveness of the treatment and reduce the risk of drug resistance. This regimen has been proven to be highly effective in treating tuberculosis and is the standard of care for most patients.

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  • 8. 

    History of recurrent pneumonia, foul smelling sputum with blood and clubbing, what is the diagnosis?

    • Bronchiectasis

    • Pneumonia

    • Lung Abscess

    • COPD

    Correct Answer
    A. Bronchiectasis
    Explanation
    The symptoms described, such as a history of recurrent pneumonia, foul smelling sputum with blood, and clubbing, are indicative of bronchiectasis. Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the permanent dilation of the bronchi, leading to the accumulation of mucus and recurrent infections. The foul smelling sputum with blood suggests the presence of infection and damage to the bronchial walls. Clubbing, a condition where the fingertips and nails become enlarged and rounded, is often associated with chronic respiratory conditions like bronchiectasis. Therefore, based on the symptoms provided, bronchiectasis is the most likely diagnosis.

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  • 9. 

    Patient came with chest pain radiate to jaw increase with exercise, decrease with rest, what is the diagnosis? 

    •  Stable angina

    • Unstable angina

    • Pulmonary embolism

    • Prenzmetal angina

    Correct Answer
    A.  Stable angina
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of chest pain that radiates to the jaw and worsens with exercise but improves with rest are characteristic of stable angina. Stable angina is caused by a temporary reduction in blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. This reduction in blood flow leads to chest pain or discomfort, which can radiate to the jaw. The pain typically occurs during physical exertion or emotional stress and is relieved by rest or medication.

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  • 10. 

    Drug used in treatment of CHF which decrease the mortality

    • B blocker

    • Verapamil

    • Nitrates

    • Digoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. B blocker
    Explanation
    B blockers, also known as beta blockers, are drugs used in the treatment of congestive heart failure (CHF) that have been shown to decrease mortality. These medications work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, reducing the heart rate and blood pressure. This helps to relieve the workload on the heart and improve its function. B blockers are commonly prescribed for CHF patients as they have been proven to improve symptoms, reduce hospitalizations, and increase survival rates. Therefore, B blockers are an effective treatment option for CHF patients to decrease mortality.

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  • 11. 

     Regarding murmur of mitral stenosis

    • Mid-diastolic rumbling murmur

    • Holosystolic

    • Innocent murmur

    • Mid systolic

    Correct Answer
    A. Mid-diastolic rumbling murmur
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mid-diastolic rumbling murmur. This type of murmur is commonly associated with mitral stenosis, a condition where the mitral valve becomes narrowed and restricts blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. The murmur is heard during mid-diastole, when the ventricles are filling with blood. It is described as a rumbling sound and is typically low-pitched. This murmur is caused by turbulent blood flow across the narrowed mitral valve.

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  • 12. 

    Patient with hypercholesterolemia, he should avoid:

    • Organ meat

    • Avocado

    • Chicken

    •  white egg

    Correct Answer
    A. Organ meat
    Explanation
    Patients with hypercholesterolemia should avoid organ meat because it is high in cholesterol. Organ meats such as liver, kidney, and brain are rich in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can further increase blood cholesterol levels. Avocado, chicken, and white eggs, on the other hand, are generally considered to be healthier options for individuals with high cholesterol as they are lower in cholesterol and saturated fats.

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  • 13. 

    Hyperkalemia is characterized by all of the following except:

    • Positive Chvostek sign.

    •  Nausea and vomiting.

    •  Peaked T-waves.

    • Widened QRS complex.

    • Cardiac arrest in diastole.

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive Chvostek sign.
    Explanation
    Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. It can lead to various symptoms and ECG changes. Nausea and vomiting, peaked T-waves, widened QRS complex, and cardiac arrest in diastole are all associated with hyperkalemia. However, a positive Chvostek sign is not a characteristic finding of hyperkalemia. The Chvostek sign is a clinical sign used to assess for hypocalcemia, not hyperkalemia.

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  • 14. 

     Old male come with CHF & pulmonary edema, what is the best initial therapy

    • Furosemide

    • Digoxin

    • Debutamine

    • Aspirin

    Correct Answer
    A. Furosemide
    Explanation
    Furosemide is the best initial therapy for an old male with congestive heart failure (CHF) and pulmonary edema. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body by increasing urine production. This can help reduce the fluid overload in the lungs and improve symptoms of pulmonary edema. Digoxin is not the best initial therapy for this condition as it is primarily used to improve heart function in patients with heart failure. Debutamine is a misspelled term and does not exist as a medication. Aspirin is not the best initial therapy for CHF and pulmonary edema as it is primarily used for its antiplatelet effects and is not effective in reducing fluid overload.

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  • 15. 

    Best treatment for female with migraine and HTN

    • Propranolol

    • Nitroglycerine

    • Thiazide

    • Morphine

    Correct Answer
    A. Propranolol
    Explanation
    Propranolol is the best treatment option for a female with migraine and hypertension. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps to reduce blood pressure and prevent migraines by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels. It is commonly used in the treatment of hypertension and has been found to be effective in preventing migraines as well. Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of angina, not migraines or hypertension. Thiazide is a diuretic that is primarily used for hypertension, but it is not specifically indicated for migraines. Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic that is not typically used for the treatment of migraines or hypertension.

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  • 16. 

    Pregnant, with history of DVT 4 years back, what will you give her?

    • LMW heparin

    • Aspirin

    • Warfarin

    • Clopidogrel

    Correct Answer
    A. LMW heparin
    Explanation
    Given the patient's history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pregnancy, LMW heparin is the most appropriate choice. LMW heparin is commonly used in pregnant women with a history of DVT because it is safe for both the mother and the baby. It helps to prevent blood clots by inhibiting the formation of fibrin, a protein involved in blood clotting. Aspirin, warfarin, and clopidogrel are not recommended during pregnancy due to their potential risks to the developing fetus.

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  • 17. 

    Warfarin is given to all the following except:

    • Elderly male with normal heart

    • Male with AF & prosthetic heart valve

    • Male with AF & cardiomyopathy

    • Young male with Atrial fibrillation & mitral stenosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Elderly male with normal heart
    Explanation
    Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that is commonly prescribed to prevent blood clots. It works by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood. In the given options, all the individuals mentioned have conditions that put them at an increased risk of developing blood clots. Atrial fibrillation (AF), prosthetic heart valves, cardiomyopathy, and mitral stenosis are all associated with an increased risk of clot formation. However, an elderly male with a normal heart does not have any specific condition that would warrant the use of warfarin. Therefore, warfarin would not be given to an elderly male with a normal heart.

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  • 18. 

    The effectiveness of ventilation during CPR measured by

    • Chest rise

    •  Pulse oximetry

    •  Pulse acceleration

    • Blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Chest rise
    Explanation
    The effectiveness of ventilation during CPR can be measured by observing the chest rise. When performing CPR, the rescuer's breaths should cause the chest to rise, indicating that air is being successfully delivered to the lungs. This is an important indicator of proper ventilation and ensures that oxygen is being supplied to the patient's body. Monitoring the chest rise helps to assess the effectiveness of the rescue breaths and allows for adjustments to be made if necessary to optimize ventilation during CPR.

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  • 19. 

     The following are the causes of secondary hyperlipidemia except?

    • Hypertension

    •  Nephrotic syndrome

    • Hypothyroidism

    • Obesity

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypertension
    Explanation
    Secondary hyperlipidemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of lipids in the blood due to underlying medical conditions or medications. Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is not a known cause of secondary hyperlipidemia. The other options listed, such as nephrotic syndrome, hypothyroidism, and obesity, are all recognized causes of secondary hyperlipidemia. Therefore, hypertension is the exception among the given causes.

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  • 20. 

    50 years old patient, diagnosed with hypertension, he is used to drink one glass of wine every day, he is also used to get high Na and high K intake, his BMI is 30kg/m, what is the strongest risk factor for having hypertension in this patient?

    • BMI=30

    • Wine

    • High Na intake

    • High K intake

    Correct Answer
    A. BMI=30
    Explanation
    The strongest risk factor for hypertension in this patient is a BMI of 30. A BMI of 30 indicates that the patient is obese, which is known to be a significant risk factor for developing hypertension. Obesity puts additional strain on the cardiovascular system, leading to increased blood pressure. While alcohol consumption, high sodium intake, and high potassium intake can also contribute to hypertension, the patient's obesity is the most significant risk factor in this case.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following medications is considered as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor?

    • Simvastatin

    • Fibrate

    • Propranolol

    • Propylthiouracil

    Correct Answer
    A. Simvastatin
    Explanation
    Simvastatin is considered as an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. HMG-CoA reductase is an enzyme involved in the production of cholesterol in the liver. By inhibiting this enzyme, simvastatin helps to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. Fibrate is a medication used to lower triglyceride levels, while propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication. Therefore, Simvastatin is the correct answer as it specifically targets the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme.

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  • 22. 

    Middle aged male s involved in RTA, his RR is 30/min, heart sounds is muffled& the JVP is elevated, BP: 80/40 & a bruise over the sternum, what is the diagnosis?

    • Pericardial tamponade

    • Pneumothorax

    • Pulmonary contusion

    • Hemothorax

    Correct Answer
    A. Pericardial tamponade
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis is pericardial tamponade. The elevated JVP (jugular venous pressure) and muffled heart sounds suggest fluid accumulation in the pericardium, which can lead to compression of the heart. This can cause a decrease in blood pressure (80/40) and an increased respiratory rate (RR 30/min) due to decreased cardiac output. The presence of a bruise over the sternum also suggests trauma, which can cause pericardial tamponade. Pneumothorax, pulmonary contusion, and hemothorax may cause similar symptoms, but they do not explain the specific findings of an elevated JVP and muffled heart sounds.

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  • 23. 

    what is the Most common cause of secondary hypertension in female adolescent ?

    • Renal disease

    • Essential HTN

    • Hyperthyroidism

    • Cushing syndrome

    • Polycystic ovary disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal disease
    Explanation
    The most common cause of secondary hypertension in female adolescents is renal disease. Renal disease refers to any condition that affects the kidneys, such as kidney infections, kidney stones, or kidney damage. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, it can lead to high blood pressure. This is because the kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by controlling the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body. Therefore, any dysfunction in the kidneys can result in hypertension.

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  • 24. 

    Athletes who died while playing football, which of the following is the cause of death?

    • HOCM

    • ASD

    • VSD

    • Coarctation of Aorta

    Correct Answer
    A. HOCM
    Explanation
    HOCM stands for hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is a condition characterized by an abnormal thickening of the heart muscle. This can lead to obstruction of blood flow out of the heart and cause sudden cardiac arrest during physical exertion, such as playing football. Therefore, HOCM can be a cause of death in athletes while playing football.

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  • 25. 

    what is the most common cause of death in patients withLudwig's angina?

    • Sudden asphyxiation

    • Pneumonia

    • Rupture of the wall

    • MI

    Correct Answer
    A. Sudden asphyxiation
    Explanation
    In patients with Ludwig's angina, the most common cause of death is sudden asphyxiation. Ludwig's angina is a serious infection that affects the floor of the mouth and can rapidly progress, leading to swelling and obstruction of the airway. This obstruction can result in the inability to breathe, causing sudden asphyxiation and ultimately leading to death if not promptly treated.

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  • 26. 

    All of the following are risk factors for heart disease except?

    • High HDL

    • Male

    • Obesity

    • Smoking

    Correct Answer
    A. High HDL
    Explanation
    High HDL is not a risk factor for heart disease because HDL, also known as "good" cholesterol, helps remove excess cholesterol from the arteries and reduces the risk of heart disease. In fact, having high levels of HDL is considered beneficial for heart health. On the other hand, being male, obesity, and smoking are all known risk factors for heart disease.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is the recommended diet to prevent IHD?

    • Increase the intake of fruit and vegetables

    • Decrease the meat and bread

    • Decrease the intake of meat and dairy

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase the intake of fruit and vegetables
    Explanation
    Increasing the intake of fruits and vegetables is recommended to prevent IHD (Ischemic Heart Disease). Fruits and vegetables are rich in vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants that help in reducing inflammation and improving heart health. They are also low in saturated fats and cholesterol, which are risk factors for IHD. By increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetables, individuals can maintain a healthy weight, lower blood pressure, and reduce the risk of developing heart disease.

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  • 28. 

    In patients with hypertension and diabetes, which antihypertensive agent you want to add first?

    • ACE inhibitor

    • β-blockers

    •  α-blocker

    • Calcium channel blocker

    Correct Answer
    A. ACE inhibitor
    Explanation
    In patients with hypertension and diabetes, adding an ACE inhibitor as the first antihypertensive agent is preferred. ACE inhibitors are known to effectively lower blood pressure and also have additional benefits for patients with diabetes. They can help protect the kidneys and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in diabetic patients. Additionally, ACE inhibitors have been shown to have a positive impact on insulin sensitivity, making them a suitable choice for managing hypertension in patients with diabetes.

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  • 29. 

    The most important factor for smoker to quit is: 

    • Patient desire

    • Change life style

    • Give him programmed plan

    • Give nicotine pills

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient desire
    Explanation
    The most important factor for a smoker to quit is their own desire to quit. Without the motivation and determination to quit, no external factors such as lifestyle changes, programmed plans, or nicotine pills will be effective. It is crucial for the individual to have a strong personal desire to quit smoking in order to successfully overcome the addiction.

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  • 30. 

    Likelihood ratio of a disease incidence is 0.3 mean: 

    • Small decrease

    • Large increase

    • Small increase

    • No change

    Correct Answer
    A. Small decrease
    Explanation
    The likelihood ratio of a disease incidence being 0.3 suggests that there is a small decrease in the likelihood of the disease occurring. A likelihood ratio less than 1 indicates a decrease in the probability of the event happening, while a ratio greater than 1 suggests an increase. In this case, the ratio being 0.3 indicates a small decrease in the likelihood of the disease incidence.

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  • 31. 

    In pHC, from 50 children 10 got the disease on the 1st week, another 30 on the subsequent 2 weeks, what is the incidence of the disease in that pHC? 

    • 80%

    • 60%

    • 20%

    • 40%

    Correct Answer
    A. 80%
    Explanation
    The incidence of the disease in the PHC can be calculated by dividing the number of new cases (40) by the total number of children (50) and multiplying by 100. In this case, 40 divided by 50 equals 0.8, and when multiplied by 100, it equals 80%. Therefore, the incidence of the disease in the PHC is 80%.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following drugs does not cross the placenta 

    • Chloramphenicol

    • Heparin

    • Tetracycline

    • Diazepam

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin
    Explanation
    Heparin is the correct answer because it is a large molecule that does not easily cross the placenta. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and the fetus, and it selectively allows certain substances to pass through while blocking others. Heparin is one of the substances that is unable to cross this barrier, making it safe to use during pregnancy as it does not affect the fetus.

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  • 33. 

     Smoking withdrawal symptoms peak at: 

    • 1-2 days

    • 2-4 days

    • 5-7 days

    • 10-14 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-2 days
    Explanation
    Smoking withdrawal symptoms peak at 1-2 days after quitting smoking. This is because nicotine, the addictive substance in cigarettes, leaves the body within a few hours of the last cigarette. As a result, the body starts to experience withdrawal symptoms, such as cravings, irritability, anxiety, and difficulty concentrating. These symptoms are most intense during the first 1-2 days and gradually subside over time. It is important to note that everyone's experience with withdrawal symptoms may vary.

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  • 34. 

    Best food in travelling is: 

    • Boiling water

    • Ice

    • Partial cooked fish and meat

    • Fast food

    Correct Answer
    A. Boiling water
    Explanation
    Boiling water is considered the best food in traveling because it is safe to consume and does not require any preparation or cooking. It helps to keep the body hydrated and can be used for making instant noodles, soups, or hot beverages. Boiling water also helps in killing any harmful bacteria or parasites that may be present, making it a reliable and convenient option for travelers.

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  • 35. 

     In developing countries to prevent dental carries, it add to water 

    • Fluoride

    • Zinc

    • Copper

    • Iodide

    Correct Answer
    A. Fluoride
    Explanation
    Fluoride is added to water in developing countries to prevent dental caries. Fluoride is known to have a protective effect on teeth by strengthening tooth enamel and making it more resistant to decay. It helps to remineralize the teeth and prevent the formation of cavities. This is especially important in areas where access to dental care and oral hygiene practices may be limited. Adding fluoride to water is a cost-effective and efficient way to improve oral health and reduce the prevalence of dental caries in the population.

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  • 36. 

    One of the following decrease the chances of colon cancer: 

    • Folic acid

    • Vit E

    • Vit C

    • Zinc

    Correct Answer
    A. Folic acid
    Explanation
    Folic acid is known to decrease the chances of colon cancer. It is a B vitamin that helps in the production and maintenance of new cells in the body. Folic acid plays a crucial role in DNA synthesis and repair, which helps to prevent the formation of cancer cells. Adequate intake of folic acid through diet or supplements has been associated with a lower risk of colon cancer.

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  • 37. 

    Best sentence to describe specificity of a screening test, is the group of people who: 

    • Are negative of disease, and test is negative

    • Are positive of disease, and test is negative

    • Are positive compared to total other people

    • Negative disease, positive test

    • Positive disease,negative test

    Correct Answer
    A. Are negative of disease, and test is negative
    Explanation
    The best sentence to describe the specificity of a screening test is when the group of people who are negative for the disease and receive a negative test result. This indicates that the test correctly identifies those who do not have the disease, and there are no false negatives.

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  • 38. 

    Patient is taking bupropion to quit smoking what is SE 

    • Headache

    • Xerostomia

    • Seizure

    • Arrythmia

    Correct Answer
    A. Headache
    Explanation
    Bupropion is an antidepressant medication that is also used to help people quit smoking. Headache is a common side effect of bupropion, which means that it can cause headaches in patients who are taking it. This side effect is typically mild and temporary, but it is important for patients to be aware of it and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

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  • 39. 

    Best way to prevent infection in nursery 

    • Hand wash before and after examining the infants

    • Gowns

    • Antiseptic technique

    • Antibiotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Hand wash before and after examining the infants
    Explanation
    Hand washing before and after examining the infants is the best way to prevent infection in a nursery. This is because hand washing helps to remove and kill any harmful bacteria or viruses that may be present on the hands. Infants have weaker immune systems and are more susceptible to infections, so it is important to maintain proper hand hygiene to prevent the spread of germs. Gowns, antiseptic technique, and antibiotics may also be helpful in preventing infection, but hand washing is the most effective and basic preventive measure.

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  • 40. 

    While you are in the clinic you find that many patients presents with red follicular conjunctivitis (Chlamydia) your management is: 

    • Improve water supply and sanitation

    • Improve sanitation and destroying of the vector

    • Eradication of the reservoir and destroying the vector

    • Destroy the vector and improve the sanitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Improve water supply and sanitation
    Explanation
    Improving water supply and sanitation can help prevent the transmission of Chlamydia, which causes red follicular conjunctivitis. This is because Chlamydia can be spread through contaminated water and poor sanitation practices. By ensuring clean water supply and proper sanitation measures, the risk of infection can be reduced. This approach focuses on addressing the root causes of the problem and preventing further transmission, rather than targeting specific vectors or reservoirs.

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  • 41. 

    Most difficult method to prevented in transmission 

    • Airflow

    • Droplet

    • Vector

    • Person to person

    Correct Answer
    A. Airflow
    Explanation
    Airflow is the most difficult method to prevent in transmission because it is challenging to control and contain. Airflow can carry infectious particles over long distances, making it difficult to implement effective preventive measures. While measures like wearing masks and maintaining physical distance can help reduce the spread of droplets and person-to-person transmission, controlling airflow requires advanced ventilation systems and proper air circulation techniques, which may not be easily achievable in all settings. Therefore, preventing transmission through airflow poses significant challenges and requires specialized interventions.

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  • 42. 

    An 18 years old male who was involved in an RTA had fracture of the base of the skull. O/E he had loss of sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue & deviation of the angle of the mouth. Which of the following nerves is affected? 

    • VII (Facial)

    • IV (Abducens)

    • V (Trigeminal)

    • III (Occulomotor)

    • I (Olfactory)

    Correct Answer
    A. VII (Facial)
    Explanation
    The fracture of the base of the skull is likely to have affected the facial nerve (VII). Loss of sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and deviation of the angle of the mouth are both signs of facial nerve damage. The other nerves listed (IV, V, III, I) do not innervate the tongue or control the muscles of facial expression, making them less likely to be affected in this case.

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  • 43. 

    Rheumatoid Arthritis: 

    • HLADR4

    • Any synovial joint

    • M=F

    • Destruction in articular cartilage

    Correct Answer
    A. HLADR4
    Explanation
    HLADR4 is associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis. Rheumatoid Arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the synovial joints. It is more common in women than in men. The disease is characterized by the destruction of the articular cartilage in the joints, leading to pain, inflammation, and joint deformity. HLADR4 is a genetic marker that has been found to be strongly associated with an increased risk of developing Rheumatoid Arthritis.

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  • 44. 

    Old patient with dehydration corrected with 3 liters of D5 , later he became confused with headache. 

    • Hyponatremia

    • Hypernatremia

    • Hypokalemia

    • Hyperkalemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyponatremia
    Explanation
    The patient's confusion and headache after being corrected for dehydration with D5 (a solution containing dextrose and water) suggests hyponatremia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. D5 solution is hypotonic and can dilute the sodium levels in the body, leading to hyponatremia. This condition can cause neurological symptoms such as confusion and headache.

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  • 45. 

    All of the following are causes of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) except: 

    • Syphilis

    • Toxoplasmosis

    • CMV

    • HSV II

    • Rubella

    Correct Answer
    A. Syphilis
    Explanation
    Syphilis is not a cause of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). IUGR refers to a condition where a baby does not grow at the expected rate inside the womb. Common causes of IUGR include infections such as toxoplasmosis, CMV, HSV II, and rubella. However, syphilis is not known to directly cause IUGR. It is important to note that untreated syphilis during pregnancy can lead to a range of complications for both the mother and the baby, but IUGR is not one of them.

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  • 46. 

    Surveillance of patient on hormone replacement therapy includes all of the following except: 

    • Glucose tolerance test.

    • Blood pressure.

    • Breast examination.

    • Endometrial sampling in the presence of abnormal bleeding

    • Pelvic examination.

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucose tolerance test.
    Explanation
    The surveillance of a patient on hormone replacement therapy involves monitoring various aspects of their health. Glucose tolerance test is not included in this surveillance because it is primarily used to diagnose diabetes or assess insulin resistance, which are not directly related to hormone replacement therapy. The other options, such as blood pressure, breast examination, endometrial sampling, and pelvic examination, are all important in monitoring the patient's response to hormone replacement therapy and detecting any potential complications.

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  • 47. 

    Relative contraindication of hemabate for the treatment of post-partum hemorrhageis: 

    • Maternal asthma

    • Maternal diabetes

    • Maternal hypertension

    • Maternal cancer

    Correct Answer
    A. Maternal asthma
    Explanation
    Hemabate is a medication used for the treatment of post-partum hemorrhage, which is excessive bleeding after childbirth. However, it is relatively contraindicated in women with maternal asthma. This means that although it may still be used in certain cases, caution should be exercised because it could potentially worsen asthma symptoms or trigger an asthma attack in these individuals. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of using Hemabate in women with asthma and to closely monitor their respiratory status during treatment.

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  • 48. 

    6month baby with mild viral diarrhoea, ttt by ORS as: 

    • 50 ml/kg for 4 hour then 100 ml/kg /day after

    • 100 ml/kg for 4 hour then 100 ml/kg /day after

    • 50 ml/kg for 4 hour then 50 ml/kg /day after

    • 100ml/kg for 4 hour then 50 ml/kg /day after

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 ml/kg for 4 hour then 100 ml/kg /day after
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50 ml/kg for 4 hours then 100 ml/kg /day after. This is the recommended treatment for mild viral diarrhea in a 6-month-old baby. The initial dose of 50 ml/kg over 4 hours helps to rehydrate the baby and replace the lost fluids. After this initial phase, a maintenance dose of 100 ml/kg per day is given to ensure continued hydration and prevent dehydration.

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  • 49. 

    Cow milk differ from mature human milk that cow milk contain more: 

    • More protein

    • More Iron content

    • More calories

    • More fat

    Correct Answer
    A. More protein
    Explanation
    Cow milk differs from mature human milk in that it contains more protein. This is because cows require more protein in their diet to support their larger size and higher activity levels compared to humans. Additionally, cow milk is often used as a source of nutrition for calves, who need a higher protein content to support their growth and development. In contrast, human milk is specifically designed to meet the nutritional needs of human infants, which includes a lower protein content compared to cow milk.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 12, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Khwarazm

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