SLE Free Trial Exam

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1.  In developing countries to prevent dental carries, it add to water 

Explanation

Fluoride is added to water in developing countries to prevent dental caries. Fluoride is known to have a protective effect on teeth by strengthening tooth enamel and making it more resistant to decay. It helps to remineralize the teeth and prevent the formation of cavities. This is especially important in areas where access to dental care and oral hygiene practices may be limited. Adding fluoride to water is a cost-effective and efficient way to improve oral health and reduce the prevalence of dental caries in the population.

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About This Quiz
Respiratory System Quizzes & Trivia

The SLE Free Trial Exam assesses knowledge on the treatment and management of various pulmonary disorders. It covers critical conditions and their initial treatments, focusing on scenarios such... see moreas emphysema, cystic fibrosis, asthma, and complications related to COPD. see less

2. Best way to prevent infection in nursery 

Explanation

Hand washing before and after examining the infants is the best way to prevent infection in a nursery. This is because hand washing helps to remove and kill any harmful bacteria or viruses that may be present on the hands. Infants have weaker immune systems and are more susceptible to infections, so it is important to maintain proper hand hygiene to prevent the spread of germs. Gowns, antiseptic technique, and antibiotics may also be helpful in preventing infection, but hand washing is the most effective and basic preventive measure.

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3. Epidemic disease in poor sanitation areas affecting children and young adults: 

Explanation

Hepatitis A is the correct answer because it is a viral infection that spreads through contaminated food and water, especially in areas with poor sanitation. It primarily affects children and young adults who may not have developed immunity to the virus. Hepatitis A can cause symptoms such as jaundice, fatigue, and abdominal pain. It can be prevented through proper sanitation practices and vaccination.

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4. In patients with hypertension and diabetes, which antihypertensive agent you want to add first?

Explanation

In patients with hypertension and diabetes, adding an ACE inhibitor as the first antihypertensive agent is preferred. ACE inhibitors are known to effectively lower blood pressure and also have additional benefits for patients with diabetes. They can help protect the kidneys and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in diabetic patients. Additionally, ACE inhibitors have been shown to have a positive impact on insulin sensitivity, making them a suitable choice for managing hypertension in patients with diabetes.

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5. Bacterial vaginosis ?

Explanation

Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection that is characterized by a fishy discharge. This fishy odor is caused by the production of amines by the bacteria that overgrow in the vaginal flora. It is not a rare infection and can be treated with clotrimazole or other antibiotics. Bacterial vaginosis does not always cause symptoms, but when it does, the most common symptom is the fishy discharge.

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6. The best initial treatment  for depression is: 

Explanation

SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors) are considered the best initial treatment for depression due to their effectiveness and relatively low side effects compared to other options. They work by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which helps regulate mood and emotions. Tricyclic antidepressants and MAO inhibitors are older classes of antidepressants that may be effective but often have more side effects and require closer monitoring. Beta blockers, on the other hand, are primarily used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure and heart problems, and are not typically prescribed as a first-line treatment for depression.

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7. Side effect of Retin-A Gel in treatment of Acne? 

Explanation

Retin-A Gel is a commonly used treatment for acne. One of the side effects of this medication is increased sensitivity to sunlight. This means that individuals using Retin-A Gel may experience a heightened reaction to the sun, such as sunburn or increased risk of sun damage. It is important for patients to take precautions such as wearing sunscreen and protective clothing while using this medication to minimize the risk of sun-related side effects.

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8. Flu like symptoms since two days and now has red eye, what is the diagnosis: 

Explanation

Based on the symptoms described, which include flu-like symptoms and red eye, the most likely diagnosis is viral conjunctivitis. Viral conjunctivitis is a common viral infection that causes inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin clear tissue that covers the white part of the eye. It typically presents with redness, watery discharge, and discomfort in the affected eye. Flu-like symptoms can also be present in viral conjunctivitis, such as fever, sore throat, and body aches. Glaucoma and uveitis are less likely as they do not typically present with flu-like symptoms, and bacterial conjunctivitis may cause similar symptoms but is less common than viral conjunctivitis.

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9. Best food in travelling is: 

Explanation

Boiling water is considered the best food in traveling because it is safe to consume and does not require any preparation or cooking. It helps to keep the body hydrated and can be used for making instant noodles, soups, or hot beverages. Boiling water also helps in killing any harmful bacteria or parasites that may be present, making it a reliable and convenient option for travelers.

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10.  Old male come with CHF & pulmonary edema, what is the best initial therapy

Explanation

Furosemide is the best initial therapy for an old male with congestive heart failure (CHF) and pulmonary edema. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body by increasing urine production. This can help reduce the fluid overload in the lungs and improve symptoms of pulmonary edema. Digoxin is not the best initial therapy for this condition as it is primarily used to improve heart function in patients with heart failure. Debutamine is a misspelled term and does not exist as a medication. Aspirin is not the best initial therapy for CHF and pulmonary edema as it is primarily used for its antiplatelet effects and is not effective in reducing fluid overload.

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11.  a patient with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia should be ?

Explanation

A patient with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia should be screened for HIV because Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is a common opportunistic infection seen in individuals with a weakened immune system, particularly those with HIV/AIDS. Therefore, it is important to screen for HIV in order to identify the underlying cause of the pneumonia and provide appropriate treatment and care for the patient.

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12. The effectiveness of ventilation during CPR measured by

Explanation

The effectiveness of ventilation during CPR can be measured by observing the chest rise. When performing CPR, the rescuer's breaths should cause the chest to rise, indicating that air is being successfully delivered to the lungs. This is an important indicator of proper ventilation and ensures that oxygen is being supplied to the patient's body. Monitoring the chest rise helps to assess the effectiveness of the rescue breaths and allows for adjustments to be made if necessary to optimize ventilation during CPR.

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13. The most important factor for smoker to quit is: 

Explanation

The most important factor for a smoker to quit is their own desire to quit. Without the motivation and determination to quit, no external factors such as lifestyle changes, programmed plans, or nicotine pills will be effective. It is crucial for the individual to have a strong personal desire to quit smoking in order to successfully overcome the addiction.

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14. Warfarin is given to all the following except:

Explanation

Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that is commonly prescribed to prevent blood clots. It works by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood. In the given options, all the individuals mentioned have conditions that put them at an increased risk of developing blood clots. Atrial fibrillation (AF), prosthetic heart valves, cardiomyopathy, and mitral stenosis are all associated with an increased risk of clot formation. However, an elderly male with a normal heart does not have any specific condition that would warrant the use of warfarin. Therefore, warfarin would not be given to an elderly male with a normal heart.

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15. Athletes who died while playing football, which of the following is the cause of death?

Explanation

HOCM stands for hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is a condition characterized by an abnormal thickening of the heart muscle. This can lead to obstruction of blood flow out of the heart and cause sudden cardiac arrest during physical exertion, such as playing football. Therefore, HOCM can be a cause of death in athletes while playing football.

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16. All of the following are risk factors for heart disease except?

Explanation

High HDL is not a risk factor for heart disease because HDL, also known as "good" cholesterol, helps remove excess cholesterol from the arteries and reduces the risk of heart disease. In fact, having high levels of HDL is considered beneficial for heart health. On the other hand, being male, obesity, and smoking are all known risk factors for heart disease.

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17. Pregnant, with history of DVT 4 years back, what will you give her?

Explanation

Given the patient's history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pregnancy, LMW heparin is the most appropriate choice. LMW heparin is commonly used in pregnant women with a history of DVT because it is safe for both the mother and the baby. It helps to prevent blood clots by inhibiting the formation of fibrin, a protein involved in blood clotting. Aspirin, warfarin, and clopidogrel are not recommended during pregnancy due to their potential risks to the developing fetus.

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18. Middle aged male s involved in RTA, his RR is 30/min, heart sounds is muffled& the JVP is elevated, BP: 80/40 & a bruise over the sternum, what is the diagnosis?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis is pericardial tamponade. The elevated JVP (jugular venous pressure) and muffled heart sounds suggest fluid accumulation in the pericardium, which can lead to compression of the heart. This can cause a decrease in blood pressure (80/40) and an increased respiratory rate (RR 30/min) due to decreased cardiac output. The presence of a bruise over the sternum also suggests trauma, which can cause pericardial tamponade. Pneumothorax, pulmonary contusion, and hemothorax may cause similar symptoms, but they do not explain the specific findings of an elevated JVP and muffled heart sounds.

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19. Best treatment for female with migraine and HTN

Explanation

Propranolol is the best treatment option for a female with migraine and hypertension. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps to reduce blood pressure and prevent migraines by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels. It is commonly used in the treatment of hypertension and has been found to be effective in preventing migraines as well. Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of angina, not migraines or hypertension. Thiazide is a diuretic that is primarily used for hypertension, but it is not specifically indicated for migraines. Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic that is not typically used for the treatment of migraines or hypertension.

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20. Child presented with jaundice,vomiting,hepatomegaly..etc.What hepatitis virus is morel likely to be the cause: 

Explanation

Based on the symptoms described (jaundice, vomiting, hepatomegaly), the most likely cause of the condition is hepatitis A virus. Hepatitis A is known to cause jaundice, liver enlargement (hepatomegaly), and can also lead to vomiting. It is transmitted through contaminated food or water, and is more common in areas with poor sanitation. Therefore, hepatitis A is the most probable virus causing the symptoms presented by the child.

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21. Normal child, he want to walking, he have brother dead after walking, what of the following must be excluded before walking? 

Explanation

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy should be excluded before walking because it is a condition characterized by the thickening of the heart muscle, which can lead to various complications including arrhythmias and sudden cardiac arrest. Since the child's brother died after walking, it is important to rule out any underlying heart conditions that could pose a risk during physical activity. The other options (ASD, VSD, PDA) are all types of congenital heart defects that may not necessarily be associated with an increased risk during walking.

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22. Patient with hypercholesterolemia, he should avoid:

Explanation

Patients with hypercholesterolemia should avoid organ meat because it is high in cholesterol. Organ meats such as liver, kidney, and brain are rich in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can further increase blood cholesterol levels. Avocado, chicken, and white eggs, on the other hand, are generally considered to be healthier options for individuals with high cholesterol as they are lower in cholesterol and saturated fats.

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23.  Regarding murmur of mitral stenosis

Explanation

The correct answer is mid-diastolic rumbling murmur. This type of murmur is commonly associated with mitral stenosis, a condition where the mitral valve becomes narrowed and restricts blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. The murmur is heard during mid-diastole, when the ventricles are filling with blood. It is described as a rumbling sound and is typically low-pitched. This murmur is caused by turbulent blood flow across the narrowed mitral valve.

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24. Which one of the following regimens is the recommended initial treatment for most adults with active tuberculosis?

Explanation

The recommended initial treatment for most adults with active tuberculosis is a four-drug regimen consisting of isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. This combination of drugs helps to effectively kill the tuberculosis bacteria and prevent the development of drug resistance. Isoniazid and rifampin are considered the backbone of tuberculosis treatment, while pyrazinamide and ethambutol are added to increase the effectiveness of the treatment and reduce the risk of drug resistance. This regimen has been proven to be highly effective in treating tuberculosis and is the standard of care for most patients.

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25. Most difficult method to prevented in transmission 

Explanation

Airflow is the most difficult method to prevent in transmission because it is challenging to control and contain. Airflow can carry infectious particles over long distances, making it difficult to implement effective preventive measures. While measures like wearing masks and maintaining physical distance can help reduce the spread of droplets and person-to-person transmission, controlling airflow requires advanced ventilation systems and proper air circulation techniques, which may not be easily achievable in all settings. Therefore, preventing transmission through airflow poses significant challenges and requires specialized interventions.

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26. Young patient with emphysema:

Explanation

The correct answer is Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency. Emphysema is a condition characterized by damage to the air sacs in the lungs, leading to shortness of breath. Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency is a genetic disorder that causes a deficiency in the protein alpha 1 anti-trypsin, which helps protect the lungs from damage. Without enough of this protein, the lungs are more susceptible to damage, leading to emphysema. This condition typically occurs in younger patients and can be confirmed with genetic testing.

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27. 2 month old treated with topical erythromycin after conjunctivitis for 7 days ,now complaining of creamy whitish plaque in the tongue, what is the treatment? 

Explanation

The patient is presenting with a creamy whitish plaque on the tongue, which is indicative of oral thrush, a common fungal infection caused by Candida. Oral nystatin is the treatment of choice for oral thrush, as it is an antifungal medication that effectively targets and eliminates the Candida fungus. Topical acyclovir is used to treat viral infections, topical steroid would not be appropriate for a fungal infection, and oral antibiotics would not be effective against Candida. Therefore, oral nystatin is the most appropriate treatment option in this case.

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28. Patient came with chest pain radiate to jaw increase with exercise, decrease with rest, what is the diagnosis?  

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of chest pain that radiates to the jaw and worsens with exercise but improves with rest are characteristic of stable angina. Stable angina is caused by a temporary reduction in blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. This reduction in blood flow leads to chest pain or discomfort, which can radiate to the jaw. The pain typically occurs during physical exertion or emotional stress and is relieved by rest or medication.

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29. Malaria in Children ?

Explanation

The most common cause of malaria in children is falciparum.

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30. Which of the following is the recommended diet to prevent IHD?

Explanation

Increasing the intake of fruits and vegetables is recommended to prevent IHD (Ischemic Heart Disease). Fruits and vegetables are rich in vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants that help in reducing inflammation and improving heart health. They are also low in saturated fats and cholesterol, which are risk factors for IHD. By increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetables, individuals can maintain a healthy weight, lower blood pressure, and reduce the risk of developing heart disease.

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31. One of the following is component of TOF? 

Explanation

VSD stands for Ventricular Septal Defect, which is a congenital heart defect where there is an abnormal opening in the septum (wall) between the ventricles of the heart. This opening allows blood to flow from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, causing oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood to mix. Therefore, VSD is a component of Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), which is a complex congenital heart defect that includes four specific abnormalities, one of which is a VSD.

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32. 25 years old man had fixation of fractured right femur. Two days later he became dyspnic, chest pain and hemoptysis. ABG:-pH: 7.5, PO2:65,PCO2: 25, initial treatment is

Explanation

The correct answer is Heparin. The patient's symptoms of dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis suggest a possible pulmonary embolism (PE), which is a common complication following fractures. The arterial blood gas (ABG) findings of a high pH (alkalosis) and low PCO2 (respiratory alkalosis) indicate hyperventilation, which can be a compensatory response to a PE. Heparin is the initial treatment of choice for PE as it prevents further clot formation and helps dissolve existing clots. Furosemide is a diuretic and would not be the appropriate treatment for a PE. Warfarin is used for long-term anticoagulation but has a delayed onset of action and would not be the initial treatment. Bronchoscopy is not indicated in the management of a PE.

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33. what is the Most common cause of secondary hypertension in female adolescent ?

Explanation

The most common cause of secondary hypertension in female adolescents is renal disease. Renal disease refers to any condition that affects the kidneys, such as kidney infections, kidney stones, or kidney damage. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, it can lead to high blood pressure. This is because the kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by controlling the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body. Therefore, any dysfunction in the kidneys can result in hypertension.

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34. Which of the following drugs does not cross the placenta 

Explanation

Heparin is the correct answer because it is a large molecule that does not easily cross the placenta. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and the fetus, and it selectively allows certain substances to pass through while blocking others. Heparin is one of the substances that is unable to cross this barrier, making it safe to use during pregnancy as it does not affect the fetus.

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35. You are supposed to keep a child NPO he's 25 kgs, how much you will give: 

Explanation

The correct answer is 1600. This amount is being given to the child NPO because the question states that the child weighs 25 kgs. The amount given is likely referring to the number of calories or nutrients needed to support the child's growth and development. As the child's weight is not provided, it is assumed that the given amount is appropriate for a child of average weight.

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36. 20 years old lady thinks that she's fat although her height and weight are normal: 

Explanation

The correct answer is Anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, despite being underweight. People with anorexia nervosa have a distorted body image and often restrict their food intake to an extreme level. This can lead to severe health consequences and even death if not treated. In this case, the 20-year-old lady's belief that she is fat despite having normal height and weight suggests body dissatisfaction and a possible symptom of anorexia nervosa.

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37. 50 years old patient, diagnosed with hypertension, he is used to drink one glass of wine every day, he is also used to get high Na and high K intake, his BMI is 30kg/m, what is the strongest risk factor for having hypertension in this patient?

Explanation

The strongest risk factor for hypertension in this patient is a BMI of 30. A BMI of 30 indicates that the patient is obese, which is known to be a significant risk factor for developing hypertension. Obesity puts additional strain on the cardiovascular system, leading to increased blood pressure. While alcohol consumption, high sodium intake, and high potassium intake can also contribute to hypertension, the patient's obesity is the most significant risk factor in this case.

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38. Which of the following medications is considered as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor?

Explanation

Simvastatin is considered as an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. HMG-CoA reductase is an enzyme involved in the production of cholesterol in the liver. By inhibiting this enzyme, simvastatin helps to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. Fibrate is a medication used to lower triglyceride levels, while propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication. Therefore, Simvastatin is the correct answer as it specifically targets the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme.

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39. In PHC, from 50 children 10 got the disease on the 1st week, another 30 on the subsequent 2 weeks, what is the incidence of the disease in that PHC? 

Explanation

The incidence of the disease in the PHC can be calculated by dividing the number of new cases (40) by the total number of children (50) and multiplying by 100. In this case, 40 divided by 50 equals 0.8, and when multiplied by 100, it equals 80%. Therefore, the incidence of the disease in the PHC is 80%.

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40.  One of the Anti-psychotics causes ECG changes , Leukopenia, drooling : 

Explanation

Clozapine is the correct answer because it is known to cause ECG changes, leukopenia, and drooling as side effects. ECG changes refer to abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart, leukopenia is a decrease in the number of white blood cells, and drooling is excessive saliva production. These side effects are commonly associated with the use of clozapine, which is an atypical antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia. Respiredone and Amisulpride are also antipsychotic medications, but they do not typically cause the same side effects as clozapine.

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41. History of recurrent pneumonia, foul smelling sputum with blood and clubbing, what is the diagnosis?

Explanation

The symptoms described, such as a history of recurrent pneumonia, foul smelling sputum with blood, and clubbing, are indicative of bronchiectasis. Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the permanent dilation of the bronchi, leading to the accumulation of mucus and recurrent infections. The foul smelling sputum with blood suggests the presence of infection and damage to the bronchial walls. Clubbing, a condition where the fingertips and nails become enlarged and rounded, is often associated with chronic respiratory conditions like bronchiectasis. Therefore, based on the symptoms provided, bronchiectasis is the most likely diagnosis.

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42. Possible mechanisms of action of intrauterine contraceptive devices: 

Explanation

The possible mechanisms of action of intrauterine contraceptive devices include suppression of ovulation, alteration of the endometrium, and inhibition of implantation. These devices can prevent pregnancy by preventing the release of eggs from the ovaries, changing the lining of the uterus to make it less receptive to implantation, and creating an environment that is hostile to the fertilized egg, preventing it from attaching to the uterus.

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43. An 18 years old male who was involved in an RTA had fracture of the base of the skull. O/E he had loss of sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue & deviation of the angle of the mouth. Which of the following nerves is affected? 

Explanation

The fracture of the base of the skull is likely to have affected the facial nerve (VII). Loss of sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and deviation of the angle of the mouth are both signs of facial nerve damage. The other nerves listed (IV, V, III, I) do not innervate the tongue or control the muscles of facial expression, making them less likely to be affected in this case.

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44. Hyperkalemia is characterized by all of the following except:

Explanation

Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. It can lead to various symptoms and ECG changes. Nausea and vomiting, peaked T-waves, widened QRS complex, and cardiac arrest in diastole are all associated with hyperkalemia. However, a positive Chvostek sign is not a characteristic finding of hyperkalemia. The Chvostek sign is a clinical sign used to assess for hypocalcemia, not hyperkalemia.

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45. Cow milk differ from mature human milk that cow milk contain more: 

Explanation

Cow milk differs from mature human milk in that it contains more protein. This is because cows require more protein in their diet to support their larger size and higher activity levels compared to humans. Additionally, cow milk is often used as a source of nutrition for calves, who need a higher protein content to support their growth and development. In contrast, human milk is specifically designed to meet the nutritional needs of human infants, which includes a lower protein content compared to cow milk.

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46. Young man came with nasal bleeding from posterior septum not known to have any medical disease or bleeding disorder MANGEMENT is. 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Tampon in posterior septum." This is the appropriate management for a young man presenting with nasal bleeding from the posterior septum. Placing a tampon in the posterior septum can help to stop the bleeding by applying pressure to the area. This is a common method used in the management of posterior epistaxis. The other options, such as screening for blood and coagulation disorders or administering vasoconstrictor injections or sprays, may be considered depending on the individual case, but the immediate management for stopping the bleeding would be to place a tampon in the posterior septum.

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47. Athlete who jogs on daily basis presented with groin rash with erythema, the treatment is ?

Explanation

The athlete presented with a groin rash with erythema, which is likely caused by a fungal infection. Topical anti fungal treatment is the most appropriate choice in this case as it directly targets the fungal infection on the skin surface. Oral anti fungal medications may be considered if the infection is severe or widespread. Topical steroid creams may provide temporary relief of symptoms but do not treat the underlying fungal infection. Systemic steroids are not recommended for treating fungal infections as they can suppress the immune system and worsen the infection.

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48. Which one of the anti TB medications cause tinnitus, imbalance 

Explanation

Streptomycin is known to cause tinnitus and imbalance as a side effect. Tinnitus refers to a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears, while imbalance refers to a lack of stability or coordination. Streptomycin is an antibiotic medication used in the treatment of tuberculosis (TB), but it can have ototoxic effects on the inner ear, leading to these symptoms. INH, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol are other anti-TB medications, but they do not typically cause tinnitus or imbalance.

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49.  Man use sildenafil, to prevent hypotension you should not use : 

Explanation

Sildenafil is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction, and it works by increasing blood flow to the penis. Nitrate medications, on the other hand, are commonly used to treat chest pain and work by dilating blood vessels, which can lower blood pressure. Combining sildenafil with nitrate medications can cause a severe drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Therefore, it is advised not to use nitrate medications while taking sildenafil to prevent this potential side effect. B blockers, ACIE, and CCB are not specifically mentioned in relation to sildenafil and hypotension, so they do not have the same contraindication.

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50. Null hypothesis : 

Explanation

The correct answer is "There is no significant difference between the tested populations." This is because the null hypothesis states that there is no significant difference between the populations being tested. In other words, any observed differences are due to chance or random variation. This means that any differences observed in the data are not considered statistically significant and are likely to occur by chance alone.

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51. One of the following decrease the chances of colon cancer: 

Explanation

Folic acid is known to decrease the chances of colon cancer. It is a B vitamin that helps in the production and maintenance of new cells in the body. Folic acid plays a crucial role in DNA synthesis and repair, which helps to prevent the formation of cancer cells. Adequate intake of folic acid through diet or supplements has been associated with a lower risk of colon cancer.

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52. The chromosome of cystic fibrosis:

Explanation

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, which is located on the long arm of chromosome 7. This gene is responsible for producing a protein that regulates the movement of salt and water in and out of cells. Mutations in the CFTR gene result in the production of a defective protein, leading to the buildup of thick, sticky mucus in the lungs, digestive system, and other organs. Therefore, the correct answer is the long arm of chromosome 7.

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53. 60 years admitted to the hospital as end stage COPD, what will you expect in lab.Work ?

Explanation

In end stage COPD, the body compensates for the low oxygen levels by producing more red blood cells, leading to erythrocytosis. This is a common finding in COPD patients as the body tries to improve oxygen-carrying capacity. Low ferritin levels may be seen due to chronic inflammation and poor nutrition. Hypokalemia can occur due to the use of diuretics or corticosteroids. Hyponatremia may be present due to fluid retention and dilutional effect. However, the most expected finding in lab work for a patient with end stage COPD would be erythrocytosis.

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54. Shoulder pain most commonly due to 

Explanation

The rotator cuff is the most common cause of shoulder pain. The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and allowing for movement. Injury or inflammation of the rotator cuff can lead to pain, weakness, and limited range of motion in the shoulder. Other options such as acute cholecystitis, referred pain due to cardiac ischemia, and infraspinatus muscle injury may also cause shoulder pain, but the rotator cuff is the most common cause.

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55. Best sentence to describe specificity of a screening test, is the group of people who: 

Explanation

The best sentence to describe the specificity of a screening test is when the group of people who are negative for the disease and receive a negative test result. This indicates that the test correctly identifies those who do not have the disease, and there are no false negatives.

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56. 5 months old baby , in ER with sudden abdominal pain , pain last 2-3 min with intervals of 10-15 mins between each attack What is the diagnosis ?

Explanation

The correct diagnosis for the 5-month-old baby with sudden abdominal pain, lasting 2-3 minutes with intervals of 10-15 minutes between each attack, is intussusception. Intussusception occurs when one part of the intestine slides into another part, causing a blockage. This can lead to severe abdominal pain, often described as colicky, and can be accompanied by vomiting, bloody stools, and a palpable mass in the abdomen. It is a medical emergency and requires immediate attention and treatment, usually through a procedure called an air or barium enema.

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57.  The most common site for Osteomyelitis is: 

Explanation

Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, and the most common site for this infection is the metaphysis. The metaphysis is the region of the bone that is located between the growth plate (epiphysis) and the shaft of the bone (diaphysis). This area has a rich blood supply, which makes it more susceptible to infection. The infection typically starts in the metaphysis and can then spread to other parts of the bone. Therefore, the metaphysis is the most common site for osteomyelitis.

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58. what is the most common cause of death in patients with Ludwig's angina?

Explanation

In patients with Ludwig's angina, the most common cause of death is sudden asphyxiation. Ludwig's angina is a serious infection that affects the floor of the mouth and can rapidly progress, leading to swelling and obstruction of the airway. This obstruction can result in the inability to breathe, causing sudden asphyxiation and ultimately leading to death if not promptly treated.

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59.  Beriberi caused by deficiency of ?

Explanation

Beriberi is a disease caused by a deficiency of vitamin B1, also known as thiamine. Thiamine is an essential nutrient that is involved in energy metabolism and nerve function. A deficiency of thiamine can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, fatigue, nerve damage, and cardiovascular problems. Therefore, the correct answer is B1.

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60.  Physician's carelessness is known as 

Explanation

Malpractice refers to a physician's carelessness or negligence in providing medical treatment or care to a patient. It involves a breach of the standard of care expected from a medical professional, resulting in harm or injury to the patient. This term specifically relates to the actions or lack of action by a healthcare provider that deviates from accepted medical standards, leading to negative consequences for the patient.

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61. Most of the causes of infection 

Explanation

Retained placenta is the most likely cause of infection among the given options. Retained placenta refers to the failure of the placenta to be expelled from the uterus after childbirth. This can lead to an increased risk of infection as the remaining placental tissue can serve as a breeding ground for bacteria. Infections in the uterus can cause symptoms such as fever, pain, and discharge. Therefore, retained placenta is the most plausible cause of infection among the listed options.

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62. Antidepressant action starts within 

Explanation

The correct answer is 3-4 weeks. This is because it takes time for antidepressant medications to build up in the body and start affecting the brain chemistry. It usually takes a few weeks for the medication to reach therapeutic levels and for the individual to start experiencing the full effects of the antidepressant. This delayed onset of action is important to keep in mind when prescribing and taking antidepressant medications.

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63. Drug used in treatment of CHF which decrease the mortality

Explanation

B blockers, also known as beta blockers, are drugs used in the treatment of congestive heart failure (CHF) that have been shown to decrease mortality. These medications work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, reducing the heart rate and blood pressure. This helps to relieve the workload on the heart and improve its function. B blockers are commonly prescribed for CHF patients as they have been proven to improve symptoms, reduce hospitalizations, and increase survival rates. Therefore, B blockers are an effective treatment option for CHF patients to decrease mortality.

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64. While you are in the clinic you find that many patients presents with red follicular conjunctivitis (Chlamydia) your management is: 

Explanation

Improving water supply and sanitation can help prevent the transmission of Chlamydia, which causes red follicular conjunctivitis. This is because Chlamydia can be spread through contaminated water and poor sanitation practices. By ensuring clean water supply and proper sanitation measures, the risk of infection can be reduced. This approach focuses on addressing the root causes of the problem and preventing further transmission, rather than targeting specific vectors or reservoirs.

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65. Patient with asthma use short acting beta agonist and systemic corticosteroid   

Explanation

Patients with severe asthma require more aggressive treatment compared to patients with mild or moderate asthma. Short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are bronchodilators that provide immediate relief by relaxing the airway muscles. Systemic corticosteroids, on the other hand, are anti-inflammatory medications that help reduce airway inflammation and prevent asthma attacks. The combination of SABA and systemic corticosteroids is commonly used in the treatment of severe asthma to provide both immediate relief and long-term control of symptoms. Therefore, the use of short-acting beta agonist and systemic corticosteroid is appropriate for a patient with severe asthma.

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66. Physiological cause of hypoxemia : 

Explanation

Hypoventilation is the correct answer for the physiological cause of hypoxemia. Hypoventilation refers to inadequate ventilation of the lungs, resulting in a decrease in the amount of oxygen entering the alveoli and an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide retained in the body. This can lead to a decrease in the oxygen saturation of the blood and subsequent hypoxemia.

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67. Diabetic patient want your advice to decrease the risk of developing Diabetic retinopathy? 

Explanation

To decrease the risk of developing Diabetic retinopathy, it is important to address two key factors: hypertension (HTN) and obesity. Hypertension can increase the damage to blood vessels in the eyes, which can lead to retinopathy. By managing and reducing high blood pressure, the risk of developing this condition can be lowered. Obesity is also a significant risk factor for diabetic retinopathy, as it contributes to inflammation and insulin resistance. By promoting weight loss and maintaining a healthy weight, the risk of developing retinopathy can be further decreased.

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68. Patient with severe depression and now he shows some improvement with therapy , the risk of suicide now is: 

Explanation

The patient with severe depression showing improvement with therapy may initially experience an increase in suicidal thoughts and behaviors. This is known as the "honeymoon effect" and can occur because the patient now has more energy and motivation to act on their suicidal ideation. It is important for healthcare professionals to closely monitor the patient during this time and provide appropriate support and intervention to ensure their safety.

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69. Deep laceration in the anterior aspect of the wrist, causing injury to the median nerve the result is: 

Explanation

The median nerve is responsible for innervating the muscles that allow opposition of the thumb to the other fingers. A deep laceration in the anterior aspect of the wrist can cause injury to the median nerve, leading to weakness or paralysis of these muscles. This would result in an inability to oppose the thumb to the other fingers.

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70. Risk factors for HSV2 in infants include all the following except: 

Explanation

The given answer is incorrect. Maternal antibodies for HSV 1 do not protect against HSV2. HSV 1 and HSV2 are different strains of the herpes simplex virus, and having antibodies for one strain does not provide immunity or protection against the other strain. Therefore, this statement is not a risk factor for HSV2 in infants.

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71. Old patient with dehydration corrected with 3 liters of D5 , later he became confused with headache. 

Explanation

The patient's confusion and headache after being corrected for dehydration with D5 (a solution containing dextrose and water) suggests hyponatremia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. D5 solution is hypotonic and can dilute the sodium levels in the body, leading to hyponatremia. This condition can cause neurological symptoms such as confusion and headache.

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72.  The following are the causes of secondary hyperlipidemia except?

Explanation

Secondary hyperlipidemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of lipids in the blood due to underlying medical conditions or medications. Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is not a known cause of secondary hyperlipidemia. The other options listed, such as nephrotic syndrome, hypothyroidism, and obesity, are all recognized causes of secondary hyperlipidemia. Therefore, hypertension is the exception among the given causes.

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73. 18 month old boy came with bite by her brother what you 

Explanation

The correct answer is Augmentin. Augmentin is an antibiotic commonly used to treat bacterial infections. In this case, the 18-month-old boy has been bitten by his brother, which can introduce bacteria into the wound. Augmentin would be prescribed to prevent or treat any potential bacterial infection that may arise from the bite.

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74. The class of antibody responsible for hemolytic disease of the newborn is: 

Explanation

IgG is the class of antibody responsible for hemolytic disease of the newborn. This condition occurs when the mother's IgG antibodies, specific to an antigen on the baby's red blood cells, cross the placenta and attack the baby's red blood cells, leading to their destruction. IgG is the only antibody class that can cross the placenta, making it capable of causing this condition. IgA, IgM, and IgE do not cross the placenta and are not involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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75.  The greatest method to prevent the diseases : 

Explanation

Immunization is the most effective method to prevent diseases because it involves the administration of vaccines to stimulate the immune system and create immunity against specific diseases. Vaccines contain weakened or inactivated forms of the disease-causing microorganisms, which help the body recognize and fight off these pathogens in the future. By receiving immunizations, individuals develop immunity and are protected from various infectious diseases, reducing the risk of transmission and outbreaks. Immunization has been proven to be highly successful in eradicating or controlling many dangerous diseases, such as polio, measles, and smallpox.

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76.  Baby with streptococcal pharyngitis:- 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Treatment effective in prevention of GN." This means that treating a baby with streptococcal pharyngitis can help prevent the development of glomerulonephritis (GN). GN is a condition that affects the kidneys and can be a complication of streptococcal infections. By treating the infection, the risk of developing GN is reduced.

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77. One of the following drugs is safe in pregnancy: 

Explanation

Erythromycin estolate is considered safe to use during pregnancy in all trimesters. This drug belongs to the macrolide antibiotic class and has been extensively studied in pregnant women without any evidence of harm to the fetus. It is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections during pregnancy, including respiratory tract infections and sexually transmitted infections. Other antibiotics like nitrofurantoin and chloramphenicol have certain limitations in pregnancy, such as being safe only in specific trimesters or having potential risks to the fetus. Metronidazole, on the other hand, is known to be unsafe in the first trimester and should be avoided if possible.

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78. Patient is taking bupropion to quit smoking what is SE 

Explanation

Bupropion is an antidepressant medication that is also used to help people quit smoking. Headache is a common side effect of bupropion, which means that it can cause headaches in patients who are taking it. This side effect is typically mild and temporary, but it is important for patients to be aware of it and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

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79. 3 months Child with low-grade fever, wheezing. CXR shows hyperinflation and some infiltrate what's the diagnosis? 

Explanation

Croup is the correct diagnosis in this case because it is a common viral infection that affects the upper airway, causing inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea. This can lead to symptoms such as a low-grade fever, wheezing, and a characteristic barking cough. The CXR findings of hyperinflation and infiltrate are consistent with the typical presentation of croup. Epiglottitis is unlikely because it usually presents with high fever, drooling, and severe respiratory distress. Bronchial asthma may cause wheezing, but it is less likely in a 3-month-old child. Stridor is a symptom that can be present in croup, but it is not a diagnosis.

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80. Surveillance of patient on hormone replacement therapy includes all of the following except: 

Explanation

The surveillance of a patient on hormone replacement therapy involves monitoring various aspects of their health. Glucose tolerance test is not included in this surveillance because it is primarily used to diagnose diabetes or assess insulin resistance, which are not directly related to hormone replacement therapy. The other options, such as blood pressure, breast examination, endometrial sampling, and pelvic examination, are all important in monitoring the patient's response to hormone replacement therapy and detecting any potential complications.

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81. Treatment of tetralogy of fallout ,all true EXCEPT 

Explanation

The treatment of tetralogy of fallout includes thoracotomy, the surgical procedure to repair the defects in the heart. Systemic antibiotics are used to prevent or treat any infections that may occur. Immunoglobulin may be administered to boost the immune system. However, chest tube insertion is not a part of the treatment for tetralogy of fallout. A chest tube is typically used to drain fluid or air from the chest cavity, but it is not directly involved in treating the specific heart defects associated with tetralogy of fallout.

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82. Normal pregnancy in the 2nd trimester is characterized by all of the following EXCEXPT: 

Explanation

During normal pregnancy in the 2nd trimester, there is an increase in insulin production to meet the increased demand. This leads to decreased fasting plasma glucose levels as insulin helps to regulate blood sugar levels. The other options, such as elevated fasting plasma glucose, elevated postprandial plasma insulin, elevated postprandial plasma glucose, and elevated plasma triglycerides, are not characteristic of a normal pregnancy in the 2nd trimester.

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83. Rheumatoid Arthritis: 

Explanation

HLADR4 is associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis. Rheumatoid Arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the synovial joints. It is more common in women than in men. The disease is characterized by the destruction of the articular cartilage in the joints, leading to pain, inflammation, and joint deformity. HLADR4 is a genetic marker that has been found to be strongly associated with an increased risk of developing Rheumatoid Arthritis.

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84. In battered women which is true: 

Explanation

The given answer states that in cases of battered women, they mostly come to the emergency room (E/R) complaining from other symptoms. This suggests that these women may not directly disclose or seek help for the abuse they are experiencing, but instead present with unrelated symptoms as a way to indirectly address their situation. This could be due to fear, shame, or a lack of awareness about available resources for support and intervention.

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85. Likelihood ratio of a disease incidence is 0.3 mean: 

Explanation

The likelihood ratio of a disease incidence being 0.3 suggests that there is a small decrease in the likelihood of the disease occurring. A likelihood ratio less than 1 indicates a decrease in the probability of the event happening, while a ratio greater than 1 suggests an increase. In this case, the ratio being 0.3 indicates a small decrease in the likelihood of the disease incidence.

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86. Child with aspirin intake overdose,what kind of acid base balance: 

Explanation

When a child has an aspirin overdose, it can lead to respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation caused by the drug. This means that the child is exhaling too much carbon dioxide, resulting in a decrease in carbonic acid and an increase in pH. However, the overdose also causes metabolic acidosis, which is an excess of acid in the body due to the accumulation of acidic substances. This can occur because aspirin is metabolized into salicylic acid, which can build up and cause acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory alkalosis with metabolic acidosis.

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87. 0 years old male with osteoporosis the T score of bone densometry would be : 

Explanation

Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones. The T score in bone densitometry is a measure of how much an individual's bone density deviates from the average bone density of a healthy young adult. A T score of -3.5 indicates a severe decrease in bone density, which is commonly seen in individuals with osteoporosis. Therefore, in a 0-year-old male with osteoporosis, the T score of bone densitometry would be -3.5.

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88. Lichen planus most common site? 

Explanation

Lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that can affect various parts of the body, including the skin, mucous membranes, and nails. While it can occur in different locations, the most common site for lichen planus is the scalp. This is because the scalp has a high concentration of hair follicles, which can be affected by the inflammatory process. Additionally, the scalp may be more prone to trauma or irritation, which can trigger the development of lichen planus lesions.

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89. The prevalence of gestational diabetes in the general population is about: 

Explanation

The correct answer is 4% because gestational diabetes is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and affects approximately 4% of pregnant women. This condition is characterized by high blood sugar levels and usually resolves after childbirth. The prevalence of gestational diabetes can vary depending on various factors such as ethnicity, age, and body weight. However, on average, about 4% of pregnant women are affected by gestational diabetes.

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90. 56 years old present with vasomotor rhinitis 

Explanation

Vasomotor rhinitis is a condition characterized by nasal congestion and runny nose, which is not caused by allergies or infections. Local decongestion, such as using nasal sprays or drops, can help alleviate the symptoms by reducing nasal congestion and opening up the nasal passages. This can provide relief to the patient without the need for systemic medications or antibiotics, which are not necessary in this case. Therefore, local decongestion is the appropriate treatment option for this patient with vasomotor rhinitis.

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91. What is the effective half life of stertaline : 

Explanation

The effective half-life of stertaline is 2 days. This means that it takes approximately 2 days for the concentration of stertaline in the body to decrease by half. The half-life is an important pharmacokinetic parameter that helps determine the dosing frequency and duration of a medication. In the case of stertaline, knowing its half-life of 2 days can guide healthcare professionals in prescribing the appropriate dosage and frequency for patients.

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92. 6month baby with mild viral diarrhoea, ttt by ORS as: 

Explanation

The correct answer is 50 ml/kg for 4 hours then 100 ml/kg /day after. This is the recommended treatment for mild viral diarrhea in a 6-month-old baby. The initial dose of 50 ml/kg over 4 hours helps to rehydrate the baby and replace the lost fluids. After this initial phase, a maintenance dose of 100 ml/kg per day is given to ensure continued hydration and prevent dehydration.

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93. Relative contraindication of hemabate for the treatment of post-partum hemorrhageis: 

Explanation

Hemabate is a medication used for the treatment of post-partum hemorrhage, which is excessive bleeding after childbirth. However, it is relatively contraindicated in women with maternal asthma. This means that although it may still be used in certain cases, caution should be exercised because it could potentially worsen asthma symptoms or trigger an asthma attack in these individuals. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of using Hemabate in women with asthma and to closely monitor their respiratory status during treatment.

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94. The reason to treat severe chronic hypertension in pregnancy is to decrease the: 

Explanation

Treating severe chronic hypertension in pregnancy is important to decrease the risk of maternal complications such as stroke. Hypertension during pregnancy can lead to increased strain on the blood vessels and organs, putting the mother at a higher risk of developing complications like stroke. By managing and controlling the hypertension, the risk of these complications can be reduced, ensuring the safety and well-being of the mother. The other options, such as incidence of IUGR, preeclampsia, and placental abruption, are not directly related to the question and are not the primary reason for treating severe chronic hypertension in pregnancy.

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95. All of the following are causes of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) except: 

Explanation

Syphilis is not a cause of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). IUGR refers to a condition where a baby does not grow at the expected rate inside the womb. Common causes of IUGR include infections such as toxoplasmosis, CMV, HSV II, and rubella. However, syphilis is not known to directly cause IUGR. It is important to note that untreated syphilis during pregnancy can lead to a range of complications for both the mother and the baby, but IUGR is not one of them.

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96.  Smoking withdrawal symptoms peak at: 

Explanation

Smoking withdrawal symptoms peak at 1-2 days after quitting smoking. This is because nicotine, the addictive substance in cigarettes, leaves the body within a few hours of the last cigarette. As a result, the body starts to experience withdrawal symptoms, such as cravings, irritability, anxiety, and difficulty concentrating. These symptoms are most intense during the first 1-2 days and gradually subside over time. It is important to note that everyone's experience with withdrawal symptoms may vary.

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97. An Rh- ABO incompatible mother delivers an Rh+ infant at term and does not receive Rh immune globulin. The probability of detection of anti-D antibody during her next pregnancy is about. 

Explanation

When an Rh- mother delivers an Rh+ infant without receiving Rh immune globulin, there is a chance that the mother's immune system will be sensitized to the Rh antigen. This sensitization can lead to the production of anti-D antibodies. The probability of detecting these antibodies during the next pregnancy is approximately 16%.

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98. Patient with seasonal watery nasal discharge, sneezing and nasal block. What should you give him as a treatment: 

Explanation

A topical steroid would be an appropriate treatment for a patient with seasonal watery nasal discharge, sneezing, and nasal block. Topical steroids can help reduce inflammation in the nasal passages, which can alleviate symptoms such as nasal congestion and discharge. They are often used to treat allergic rhinitis, which is a common cause of these symptoms. Decongestants may provide temporary relief of nasal congestion, but they do not address the underlying inflammation. Antihistamines can help with allergies, but they may not be as effective for nasal congestion. Systemic steroids, such as oral or injectable steroids, are typically reserved for more severe cases and are not usually the first-line treatment for seasonal allergies.

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99. Newborn has vomiting after every meal intake. The examination was normal and the only abnormality was dehydration. No other clinical signs. No tests ordered yet. What will you do? 

Explanation

Based on the given information, the newborn has vomiting after every meal intake and the examination was normal except for dehydration. Since there are no other clinical signs and no tests have been ordered yet, it is reasonable to reassure the parents. Reassuring the parents can help alleviate their concerns and provide them with the necessary information and guidance on how to manage the newborn's condition, such as ensuring proper hydration and following a suitable feeding schedule. Ordering an abdominal CT or referring to general surgery would be premature without further indications or diagnostic information. Discharging on ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution) could be considered if the dehydration is mild and can be managed at home.

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100.  Newborn with eye infection : 

Explanation

For a newborn with an eye infection, the most appropriate treatment would be an oral antibiotic. Oral antibiotics are effective in treating bacterial infections, which are commonly responsible for eye infections. They work by killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria, helping to clear the infection. Topical antibiotics are typically used for milder cases or as a supplement to oral antibiotics. Oral steroids may be used in certain cases to reduce inflammation, but they are not the first-line treatment for eye infections. Systemic antibiotics refer to the use of antibiotics that are administered through injection or intravenous route, which is not typically necessary for a newborn with an eye infection.

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