SLE Assessment Exam 3

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     Patient presents with this picture only, no other manifestations “organomegaly or lymphadenopathy” what is the diagnosis? - ProProfs

     Patient presents with this picture only, no other manifestations “organomegaly or lymphadenopathy” what is the diagnosis?

    • Goiter
    • Lymphoma
    • Mononucleosis
    • Hypothyroidism
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About This Quiz

The SLE assessment exam below is a set of questions mainly on gestation and diseases related to the process. How conversant are you with the topic. Take the bold step and attempt the quiz to see how much you know.

SLE Assessment Exam 3 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    You asked to manage an HIV patient who was involved in a car accident. You know that this patient is a drug addict & has extramarital relations. What are you going to do?
 

    • You will manage this emergency case with taken all the recommended precautions

    • You will report him to legal authorities after recovery


    • Tell his family that he is HIV positive

    • You have the right to look after the patient to protect yourself


    • Complete isolation of the patient when he is in the hospital

    Correct Answer
    A. You will manage this emergency case with taken all the recommended precautions
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the healthcare professional will manage the emergency case by taking all the recommended precautions. This means that they will follow the necessary protocols and guidelines to ensure the safety of both themselves and the patient. This may include using personal protective equipment, practicing proper infection control measures, and providing appropriate medical care. It is important to prioritize the patient's health and well-being while also protecting oneself and preventing the spread of HIV.

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  • 3. 

    A 45 years old lady was complaining of dizziness, sensory neural hearing loss on her left ear (8th nerve palsy), tingling sensation & numbness on her face, loss of corneal reflex. MRI showed a dilated internal ear canal (other Q C.T scan shows intracranial mass). The diagnosis is: 

    • Acoustic neuroma

    • Glue ear

    • Drug toxicity

    • Herpes zoster

    • Cholesteatoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Acoustic neuroma
    Explanation
    The given symptoms of dizziness, sensory neural hearing loss, tingling sensation and numbness on the face, and loss of corneal reflex, along with the findings of a dilated internal ear canal on MRI, are consistent with the diagnosis of acoustic neuroma. Acoustic neuroma is a benign tumor that develops on the 8th cranial nerve, which is responsible for hearing and balance. The tumor can cause symptoms such as hearing loss, dizziness, and facial numbness due to compression of nearby structures. Therefore, the correct answer is Acoustic neuroma.

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  • 4. 

    A child with polyuria, polydipsia & poor weight gain, random blood sugar >200 mg/dl, fasting blood sugar >147 mg/dl, this disease is mostly associated with  

    • HLA-DR4.

    • HLA-DR5

    • HLA-DR6

    • HLA-DR7.

    Correct Answer
    A. HLA-DR4.
  • 5. 

    An example of secondary prevention is: 

    • Detection of asymptomatic diabetic patient

    • Coronary bypass graft

    • Measles vaccination

    • Rubella vaccination

    Correct Answer
    A. Detection of asymptomatic diabetic patient
    Explanation
    Secondary prevention refers to activities that aim to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages, before it progresses and causes significant harm. In this case, the detection of an asymptomatic diabetic patient falls under secondary prevention because it involves identifying individuals who have diabetes but do not yet display symptoms. By detecting diabetes early, healthcare providers can intervene with appropriate interventions such as lifestyle modifications or medication to prevent or delay the onset of complications associated with the disease.

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  • 6. 

     Organophosphorus poisoning, what is the antidote: 

    • Atropine

    • Physostigmine

    • Neostigmine

    • Pilocarpine

    • Endrophonium

    Correct Answer
    A. Atropine
    Explanation
    Atropine is the antidote for organophosphorus poisoning. Organophosphorus compounds inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, leading to excessive accumulation of acetylcholine and overstimulation of cholinergic receptors. Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, blocks the effects of acetylcholine and helps to counteract the toxic effects of organophosphorus poisoning. It acts by competitively binding to muscarinic receptors, thereby reducing the excessive cholinergic stimulation. Atropine is commonly used in the initial management of organophosphorus poisoning to control symptoms such as excessive sweating, bronchospasm, bradycardia, and miosis.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is an indication for tonsillectomy? 

    • Sleep apnea

    • Asymptomatic large tonsils

    • Peripharygeal abscess

    • Retropharyngeal abscess

    Correct Answer
    A. Sleep apnea
    Explanation
    Sleep apnea is a condition characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, may be indicated in cases of sleep apnea when it is caused by enlarged tonsils obstructing the airway. By removing the tonsils, the obstruction can be alleviated, allowing for improved airflow during sleep and reducing the symptoms of sleep apnea. Therefore, sleep apnea is a valid indication for tonsillectomy.

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  • 8. 

    Female underwent abdominal operation she went to physician for check ultrasound reveal metal clip (10 cm) inside abdomen (missed during operation), what will you do? 

    • Tell her what you found and refer her to surgery.

    • Tell her that is one of possible complications of operation Don't tell her what you found

    • Call attorney and ask about legal action

    • Call the surgeon and ask him what to do

    Correct Answer
    A. Tell her what you found and refer her to surgery.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to tell her what you found and refer her to surgery. This is the most ethical and responsible course of action as a healthcare professional. By informing the patient about the metal clip that was missed during the operation, you are ensuring transparency and allowing her to make informed decisions about her health. Referring her to surgery is necessary to remove the metal clip and prevent any potential complications or further harm.

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  • 9. 
     -What is your diagnosis ? - ProProfs

     -What is your diagnosis ?

    • Wart

    • Folliculitis

    • Cellulitis

    • Herpes zoster

    Correct Answer
    A. Wart
    Explanation
    Based on the given options, the correct diagnosis is wart. Warts are small, rough growths on the skin that are caused by a viral infection. They are usually painless and can appear on any part of the body. Folliculitis is an inflammation of the hair follicles, cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection, and herpes zoster is a viral infection that causes a painful rash. None of these options match the description of a wart, making wart the correct answer.

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  • 10. 

    Group A Hemolytic streptococcus, causes rheumatic fever when: 

    • After tonsillitis and pharyngitis

    • Skin infection

    • Invade myocardium

    • Invade blood stream

    Correct Answer
    A. After tonsillitis and pharyngitis
    Explanation
    After tonsillitis and pharyngitis, Group A Hemolytic streptococcus can cause rheumatic fever. This is because the bacteria can trigger an immune response in the body, leading to the development of antibodies that mistakenly attack the heart, joints, and other organs. Rheumatic fever is a complication that can occur after an untreated or inadequately treated streptococcal infection of the throat. It is important to promptly treat streptococcal infections to prevent the development of rheumatic fever.

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  • 11. 

    Child swallowing battery in the esophagus management: 

    • Remove by endoscope

    • Bronchoscope

    • Insert Foley catheter

    • Observation 12hrs

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove by endoscope
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to remove the battery by endoscope. When a child swallows a battery, it can cause serious complications such as tissue damage and perforation. Therefore, prompt removal is necessary to prevent further harm. Endoscopy is a minimally invasive procedure that allows for the safe and effective retrieval of the battery from the esophagus. This method is preferred over bronchoscopy, as the battery is more likely to be lodged in the esophagus rather than the airway. Inserting a Foley catheter or observing the child for 12 hours without intervention would not address the immediate risk and potential complications associated with battery ingestion.

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  • 12. 

    Swelling, redness , hotness and no blister : 

    • 1st degree of burn

    • 2nd degree

    • 3rd degree

    • Prodromal

    Correct Answer
    A. 1st degree of burn
    Explanation
    The given symptoms of swelling, redness, hotness, and no blister are characteristic of a 1st degree burn. In this type of burn, only the outer layer of the skin is affected, causing pain, redness, and swelling. The absence of a blister indicates that the burn is not severe enough to cause damage to deeper layers of the skin. 2nd and 3rd degree burns would involve more severe symptoms such as blistering, skin peeling, and potentially even charring. The term "prodromal" does not relate to burn classification and is not applicable in this context.

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  • 13. 

    Secondary prevention is best effective in: 

    • DM

    • Leukemia

    • Pre-eclampsia

    • Malabsorption

    Correct Answer
    A. DM
    Explanation
    Secondary prevention is best effective in DM (diabetes mellitus). This means that the most effective approach to managing diabetes is to focus on preventing complications and managing the disease after it has already developed. Secondary prevention strategies for DM may include regular monitoring of blood sugar levels, maintaining a healthy diet and exercise routine, taking prescribed medications, and managing other risk factors such as high blood pressure and cholesterol levels. By implementing these measures, individuals with DM can reduce the risk of developing complications such as heart disease, kidney damage, and nerve damage.

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  • 14. 

    When a person is predicated not to have a disease he is called (Negative). Then what is (true negative): 

    • When a person is predicted not to have a disease, he does not have it.

    • When risk cannot be assessed.

    • When a person is predicted not to have a disease, he has it.

    • When a person is predicted to have a disease, he does not have it.

    • When a person is predicted to have a disease, he has it.

    Correct Answer
    A. When a person is predicted not to have a disease, he does not have it.
    Explanation
    True negative refers to the situation when a person is predicted not to have a disease, and it turns out that they actually do not have it. In other words, the prediction of the absence of the disease is accurate and matches the actual condition of the person. This is a desirable outcome as it indicates that the prediction or test result is correct in identifying individuals who are truly disease-free.

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  • 15. 

    In a patient with anaphylactic shock, all are correct treatments EXCEPT: 

    • Hydralazine

    • Adrenaline

    • Aminophylline

    • Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydralazine
    Explanation
    Hydralazine is not a correct treatment for anaphylactic shock because it is a direct-acting vasodilator that primarily acts on arterioles, which can potentially worsen the hypotension commonly seen in anaphylactic shock. Adrenaline, aminophylline, and epinephrine are all appropriate treatments for anaphylactic shock. Adrenaline and epinephrine are both alpha- and beta-adrenergic agonists that help reverse the vasodilation and bronchoconstriction associated with anaphylactic shock. Aminophylline, a bronchodilator, can also be used to relieve bronchoconstriction in this condition.

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  • 16. 

    A patient is 5 weeks post-MI, complaining of chest pain,fever and arthralagia: 

    • Dressler's syndrome

    • Meigs syndrome

    • Costochondritis

    • MI

    • PE

    Correct Answer
    A. Dressler's syndrome
    Explanation
    Dressler's syndrome is a possible explanation for the patient's symptoms. It is characterized by chest pain, fever, and joint pain, which are consistent with the patient's complaints. Dressler's syndrome is a delayed immune-mediated response to a myocardial infarction (MI), typically occurring 2-12 weeks after the event. It is characterized by inflammation of the pericardium, which can cause chest pain. Additionally, fever and arthralgia are common symptoms. Therefore, Dressler's syndrome is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms.

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  • 17. 
    What is your diagnosis ? - ProProfs

    What is your diagnosis ?

    • Erythema nodusum

    • Cellulitis

    • Sebboric dermatitis

    • Erythema

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythema nodusum
    Explanation
    Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by painful red nodules that develop under the skin, typically on the shins. It is often associated with underlying systemic diseases, such as infections, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications. The presentation of painful nodules is a key feature of erythema nodosum, which helps differentiate it from other conditions like cellulitis, seborrheic dermatitis, or general erythema. Therefore, based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis is erythema nodosum.

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  • 18. 

    First sign in increase intracranial pressure: 

    • Vomiting

    • Nausea

    • Ipsilateral pupil constrict

    • Contralateral pupil constrict

    Correct Answer
    A. Vomiting
    Explanation
    Vomiting is the first sign to increase intracranial pressure. When there is increased pressure inside the skull, it can affect the normal functioning of the brain. This can lead to stimulation of the vomiting center in the brain, causing the individual to experience vomiting as a symptom. Vomiting is a protective mechanism of the body to try and relieve the pressure inside the skull. Therefore, it is considered as the initial sign of increased intracranial pressure.

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  • 19. 

    Female had history of severe depression, many episodes, she got her remission for three months with Paroxitine (SSRIs), now she is pregnant, your advise 

    • Continue and monitor her depression

    • Stop SSRIs

    • Stop SSRi's because it cause premature labor

    • Stop SSRi's because it cause fetal malformation

    Correct Answer
    A. Continue and monitor her depression
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to continue and monitor her depression. This is because the female has a history of severe depression and has experienced remission for three months with Paroxetine (SSRIs). It is important to continue monitoring her depression to ensure that she maintains stability during her pregnancy. Stopping SSRIs abruptly can lead to a relapse of depression, which can have negative effects on both the mother and the fetus. It is important to weigh the risks and benefits and work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the depression during pregnancy.

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  • 20. 

     A boy who was bitten by his brother and received tetanus shot 6 month ago and his laceration was 1 cm and you cleaned his wound next you will: 

    • Give Augmentin

    • Suture the wound.

    • Give tetanus shot

    • Send home with close observation and return in 48 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. Give Augmentin
    Explanation
    Given the information provided, the boy was already given a tetanus shot 6 months ago. Therefore, there is no need to give another tetanus shot. However, since the wound was caused by a bite, there is a risk of infection. Augmentin is an antibiotic that is commonly used to prevent or treat infections caused by bites. Therefore, giving Augmentin would be the appropriate next step in order to prevent any potential infection.

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  • 21. 

    Middle age patient alcoholic with H/O fullness in epigastric region and mild pain, History of nausea and vomiting. Labs: Increased Serum Amylase, Diagnosis: 
 

    • Pancreatic Pseudocyst

    • Pancreatic Cyst adenoma

    • Choledochal Cyst

    • Liver Cirrhosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Pancreatic Pseudocyst
    Explanation
    The given patient is a middle-aged alcoholic with symptoms such as fullness in the epigastric region, mild pain, and a history of nausea and vomiting. These symptoms, along with the increased serum amylase levels, suggest a pancreatic disorder. Pancreatic pseudocysts are fluid-filled sacs that develop in the pancreas due to inflammation or injury, often seen in patients with chronic pancreatitis. This condition is commonly associated with alcoholism. Therefore, the correct answer is Pancreatic Pseudocyst.

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  • 22. 

    Female came complaining of photosensitivity, malar rash, joint pain and had RBCS in urine, what the diagnosis: 

    • SLE

    • Gout

    • Lupus nephritis

    • Rheumatoid arthritis

    Correct Answer
    A. SLE
    Explanation
    The symptoms of photosensitivity, malar rash, joint pain, and presence of RBCs in urine are indicative of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). SLE is an autoimmune disease that affects multiple organs and tissues, including the skin, joints, kidneys, and blood cells. These symptoms align with the characteristic manifestations of SLE, making it the most likely diagnosis in this case. Gout, lupus nephritis, and rheumatoid arthritis may present with overlapping symptoms, but they do not encompass the full range of symptoms described in this scenario.

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  • 23. 

     advice to patient to avoid food high in cholesterol: 

    • Liver

    • Chicken

    • Tuna

    • Egg white

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver
    Explanation
    The liver is high in cholesterol, so it is advisable for patients to avoid consuming it.

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  • 24. 

    All cause recent loss of weight , except: 

    • Nephritic syndrome

    • Kwashiorkor

    • Cancer

    • AIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. Nephritic syndrome
    Explanation
    Nephritic syndrome is a condition characterized by inflammation of the kidneys, which can lead to symptoms such as blood in the urine, high blood pressure, and fluid retention. While the other options (Kwashiorkor, cancer, and AIDS) are known to cause weight loss, nephritic syndrome typically presents with symptoms such as edema and fluid retention, which can actually lead to weight gain rather than weight loss. Therefore, nephritic syndrome is the exception among these conditions when it comes to causing recent loss of weight.

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  • 25. 

     65 years old lady came to your clinic with Hx of 5 days insomnia and crying (since her husband died) the best treatment for her is: 

    • Lorazipam

    • Floxitein

    • Chlorpromazine

    • Haloperidol

    Correct Answer
    A. Lorazipam
    Explanation
    The best treatment for the 65-year-old lady with a history of 5 days of insomnia and crying since her husband died would be Lorazepam. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine medication that is commonly used to treat insomnia and anxiety symptoms. It helps to promote sleep and reduce anxiety, which can be beneficial for the patient in this case. Floxitein, Chlorpromazine, and Haloperidol are not typically used for the treatment of insomnia and may not be as effective or appropriate in this situation.

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  • 26. 

    Patient with HTN presented with edema, azotemia, GFR: 44 (not sure about - 5) what is the cause of her Kidney disease? 

    • bilateral renal artery stenosis

    • Reflux

    • Renal tubular acidosis

    • Diabetic nephropathy

    Correct Answer
    A. bilateral renal artery stenosis
    Explanation
    The patient's presentation of edema, azotemia, and decreased GFR suggests a problem with kidney function. Bilateral renal artery stenosis, which is the narrowing of the arteries that supply blood to the kidneys, can lead to decreased blood flow and subsequent kidney damage. This condition can cause reduced GFR and the development of edema and azotemia. Reflux, renal tubular acidosis, and diabetic nephropathy are not typically associated with these specific symptoms, making bilateral renal artery stenosis the most likely cause of the patient's kidney disease.

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  • 27. 

    Patient presented with typical symptoms of hyperthyroidism. What’s the most effective and rapid way to relieve symptoms: 

    • Propranolol

    • PTU

    • Radioactive iodine

    • Surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. Propranolol
    Explanation
    Propranolol is the most effective and rapid way to relieve symptoms of hyperthyroidism. It is a beta-blocker that helps to reduce heart rate, tremors, and anxiety associated with hyperthyroidism. Propranolol works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which is responsible for many of the symptoms experienced by patients with hyperthyroidism. This medication provides quick relief and is commonly used as a short-term treatment until other options, such as PTU or radioactive iodine, take effect. Surgery is usually considered as a last resort when other treatments are not effective or suitable.

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  • 28. 

    A man was intent as if he is listening to somebody, suddenly started nodding & muttering. He is having: 

    • Hallucination

    • Delusion

    • Illusion

    • Ideas of reference

    • Depersonalization

    Correct Answer
    A. Hallucination
    Explanation
    The man's behavior of nodding and muttering suggests that he is experiencing something that is not actually present, indicating a hallucination. Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without any external stimuli, causing a person to see, hear, feel, or taste things that are not real. In this case, the man's actions indicate that he is perceiving something that others cannot see or hear, leading to the conclusion that he is having a hallucination.

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  • 29. 

    70 years old woman presented with a 3 days history of perforated duodenal ulcer. She was febrile, semi-comatose and dehydrated on admission. What is the best treatment? 

    • NGT suction, Rehydrate, systemic AB & perform Plication of the perforation.

    • Rehydrate, Blood transfusion, systemic AB & perform hemigastrectomy.

    • None of the above

    • NGT suction, Rehydrate, systemic AB & observe.

    • Blood transfusion, Rehydrate, perform Vagotomy & drainage urgently.

    Correct Answer
    A. NGT suction, Rehydrate, systemic AB & perform Plication of the perforation.
    Explanation
    The best treatment for a 70-year-old woman with a perforated duodenal ulcer who is febrile, semi-comatose, and dehydrated on admission is to perform NGT suction to remove any contents from the stomach, rehydrate the patient to correct the dehydration, administer systemic antibiotics to treat any infection, and perform plication of the perforation to repair the ulcer. This treatment approach addresses the immediate concerns of removing stomach contents, correcting dehydration, and treating infection, while also addressing the underlying cause of the perforation by repairing the ulcer.

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  • 30. 
     Patient developed chest pain and sweating for 4 hours and was pulseless ,there was an ECG attached, what is the diagnosis:  - ProProfs

     Patient developed chest pain and sweating for 4 hours and was pulseless ,there was an ECG attached, what is the diagnosis: 

    • VF

    • AF

    • WPW

    • Torsade de pointas

    Correct Answer
    A. VF
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the patient experienced chest pain and sweating for 4 hours and was pulseless. Additionally, an ECG was attached. These symptoms and the presence of ventricular fibrillation (VF) on the ECG suggest that the diagnosis is VF. VF is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by rapid, chaotic electrical activity in the ventricles of the heart, leading to ineffective pumping of blood. Immediate medical intervention, such as defibrillation, is required to restore a normal heart rhythm and prevent cardiac arrest.

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  • 31. 

    The initial management for responsive patient came to emergency with multiple injuries: 

    • Oxygen Mask.

    • Oropharyngeal tube.

    • Nasopharyngeal tube.

    • Endotracheal tube.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen Mask.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Oxygen Mask. In the initial management of a responsive patient with multiple injuries, the first step is to ensure adequate oxygenation. An oxygen mask is used to deliver high-flow oxygen to the patient and improve their oxygen levels. The oropharyngeal tube, nasopharyngeal tube, and endotracheal tube are not appropriate initial interventions for a responsive patient with multiple injuries. The priority is to provide oxygen support before considering any other interventions or treatments.

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  • 32. 

    Triad of heart block, uveitis and sacroiliitis, diagnosis: 

    • Ankylosing Spondylitis

    • Lumbar stenosis

    • Multiple myeloma

    • SLE

    Correct Answer
    A. Ankylosing Spondylitis
    Explanation
    Ankylosing Spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints. It is associated with various extra-articular manifestations, including uveitis and cardiac manifestations such as heart block. The triad of heart block, uveitis, and sacroiliitis is highly suggestive of Ankylosing Spondylitis, making it the correct diagnosis in this case. Lumbar stenosis, multiple myeloma, and SLE do not typically present with this specific triad of symptoms.

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  • 33. 

    Sodium amount in Normal Saline [ 0.9% NaCl ]  

    • 154 mmol

    • 200 mmol

    • 90 mmol

    • 75 mmol

    Correct Answer
    A. 154 mmol
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 154 mmol because normal saline, also known as 0.9% NaCl, contains 0.9 grams of sodium chloride per 100 milliliters. The molar mass of sodium chloride is 58.44 g/mol, so 0.9 grams is equal to approximately 0.0154 moles. Since sodium chloride dissociates into one sodium ion (Na+) and one chloride ion (Cl-), the amount of sodium ions in 0.9% NaCl is also 0.0154 moles or 154 mmol.

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  • 34. 

    60 years old patient has only HTN best drug to start with: 

    • Diuretics

    • ARB

    • ACEI

    • Beta blocker

    • Alpha blocker

    Correct Answer
    A. Diuretics
    Explanation
    Diuretics are the best drug to start with in a 60-year-old patient with only hypertension. Diuretics help in reducing the volume of blood in the body by increasing urine production, which in turn decreases blood pressure. They are effective in treating hypertension and are usually well-tolerated with minimal side effects. Additionally, diuretics have been shown to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events and mortality in hypertensive patients. Therefore, starting with diuretics would be the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

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  • 35. 

    Infants of mothers with gestational diabetes have an increased risk of all of the following EXCEPT: 

    • Hyperglycemia

    • Hypocalcemia

    • Hyperbilirubinemia

    • Polycythemia

    • Hypoglycemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperglycemia
    Explanation
    Infants of mothers with gestational diabetes have an increased risk of various complications due to the high blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Hyperglycemia, which refers to high blood sugar levels, is a characteristic feature of gestational diabetes. Therefore, it is not excluded in this case. The correct answer is Hypocalcemia, as it is not directly associated with gestational diabetes.

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  • 36. 

    The class of antibody responsible for hemolytic disease of the newborn is: 

    • IgG

    • IgA

    • IgM

    • IgD

    • IgE

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
    Explanation
    IgG is the correct answer because it is the only class of antibody that can cross the placenta from the mother to the fetus. In cases of hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother's IgG antibodies can attack the red blood cells of the fetus, leading to severe anemia and other complications. IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE antibodies do not cross the placenta and therefore do not play a role in this condition.

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  • 37. 

     In lumbar disc prolapse at L4-L5 the patient will have: 

    • Weakness of dorsiflextion of foot

    • Absent ankle reflex

    • Fasciculation at calf muscle

    • Hypoesthesia around the knee

    • Pain at groin & front of thigh


    Correct Answer
    A. Weakness of dorsiflextion of foot
    Explanation
    In lumbar disc prolapse at L4-L5, the patient may experience weakness of dorsiflexion of the foot. This is because the L4-L5 disc prolapse can compress the L5 nerve root, which innervates the muscles responsible for dorsiflexion. This compression can lead to a decrease in the strength of the muscles involved in dorsiflexion, resulting in weakness.

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  • 38. 

    Gestational diabetes is associated with an increased risk of all of the following EXCECPT: 

    • Intrauterine growth restriction

    • Intrauterine fetal death

    • Fetal macrosomia

    • Shoulder dystocia

    • Cesarean section

    Correct Answer
    A. Intrauterine growth restriction
    Explanation
    Gestational diabetes is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood sugar levels. It is typically caused by hormonal changes and increased insulin resistance. Intrauterine growth restriction refers to a condition where the baby does not grow at the expected rate inside the womb. However, gestational diabetes is not associated with an increased risk of intrauterine growth restriction. Therefore, the correct answer is "Intrauterine growth restriction."

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  • 39. 

    The drug with the least side effects for the treatment of SLE is: 

    • NSAIDs

    • Methotrexate

    • Corticosteroid

    • Hydroxychloroquin

    Correct Answer
    A. NSAIDs
    Explanation
    NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) are often recommended for the treatment of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) due to their ability to reduce inflammation and relieve pain. Compared to other drugs listed, such as methotrexate, corticosteroids, and hydroxychloroquine, NSAIDs generally have fewer side effects. While all medications have potential side effects, NSAIDs are generally well-tolerated when used in appropriate doses for short-term treatment. Methotrexate and corticosteroids, on the other hand, may cause more significant side effects with long-term use, and hydroxychloroquine can have rare but serious adverse effects on the eyes and heart. Therefore, NSAIDs are considered the drug with the least side effects for SLE treatment.

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  • 40. 

    Effect of niacin is : 

    • increase HDL

    • Increase triglyceride

    • increase LDL

    • Hypoglycemia

    • Decrease uric acid .

    Correct Answer
    A. increase HDL
    Explanation
    Niacin is known to increase the levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol in the body. HDL cholesterol is considered "good" cholesterol as it helps remove low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol from the bloodstream, reducing the risk of heart disease. Therefore, the effect of niacin is to increase HDL levels, which is beneficial for cardiovascular health.

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  • 41. 

    Child came with bilateral swellings in front of both ears. What is the common that could possibly happen for one within his age? 

    • Meningitis

    • Orchitis

    • Encephalitis

    • Epididymitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Meningitis
    Explanation
    In children, one common condition that could cause bilateral swellings in front of both ears is meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. It can cause symptoms such as fever, headache, stiff neck, and in some cases, swelling in the area around the ears. Prompt medical attention is necessary for the diagnosis and treatment of meningitis to prevent complications and ensure the child's well-being.

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  • 42. 

    5 years child diagnosed as UTI, what is the best investigation to exclude UTI complication? 

    • KidneyUS

    • CT

    • MCUG

    • IVU

    Correct Answer
    A. KidneyUS
    Explanation
    The best investigation to exclude UTI complication in a 5-year-old child is a KidneyUS (Kidney Ultrasound). This non-invasive imaging technique uses sound waves to create images of the kidneys and can help identify any abnormalities or complications associated with UTI. It is a safe and effective method to evaluate the kidneys and rule out any potential complications. CT (Computed Tomography), MCUG (Micturating Cystourethrogram), and IVU (Intravenous Urogram) are alternative imaging techniques that may be used in certain cases, but KidneyUS is generally the preferred choice in children.

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  • 43. 

    Patient presented with constricted pupil, ciliary flushing and cloudy antierior Chamber .there is no abnormality In eye lid, vision and lacrimal duct: 

    • Uveitis

    • Central vein thrombosis

    • Central artery embolism

    • Acute angle closure glaucoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Uveitis
    Explanation
    The symptoms described in the question, including a constricted pupil, ciliary flushing, and cloudy anterior chamber, are indicative of uveitis. Uveitis refers to inflammation of the uvea, which is the middle layer of the eye. It can cause various symptoms, including eye pain, redness, and blurred vision. In this case, the absence of abnormalities in the eyelid, vision, and lacrimal duct suggests that the issue is not related to those structures, further supporting the diagnosis of uveitis.

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  • 44. 

    32 years old lady work in a file clerk developed sudden onset of low back pain when she was bending on files, moderately severe for 3 days duration. There is no evidence of nerve root compression. What is the proper action? 

    • Bed rest for 7 to 10 days.

    • Traction

    • Narcotic analgesia

    • Early activity with return to work

    • CT scan for lumbosacral vertebrae

    Correct Answer
    A. Bed rest for 7 to 10 days.
    Explanation
    The proper action for a 32-year-old woman with sudden onset low back pain, without evidence of nerve root compression, is bed rest for 7 to 10 days. This is because bed rest allows the injured area to heal and reduces strain on the back. It is a conservative treatment option that is commonly recommended for acute low back pain. Traction, narcotic analgesia, early activity with return to work, and CT scan for lumbosacral vertebrae are not appropriate actions in this case as there is no indication for them based on the given information.

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  • 45. 

    What is the best treatment of somatization? 

    • Multiple appointment

    • Multiple telephone calling

    • Antideppresant

    • Send him to chronic pain clinic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple appointment
    Explanation
    Multiple appointments are the best treatment for somatization because it allows for regular and consistent communication between the patient and healthcare provider. This approach enables the provider to thoroughly assess the patient's symptoms, address any concerns, and develop an individualized treatment plan. Additionally, multiple appointments provide the opportunity for ongoing support and monitoring of the patient's progress, ensuring that their needs are met and any necessary adjustments to the treatment plan can be made.

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  • 46. 

    All of the following are anti-arrhythmic drugs, except: 

    • Xylocain

    • Digoxin

    • Quinidine

    • Amiodarone

    • Procainamide

    Correct Answer
    A. Xylocain
    Explanation
    Xylocain is not an anti-arrhythmic drug. Digoxin, Quinidine, Amiodarone, and Procainamide are all commonly used anti-arrhythmic drugs. Xylocain, also known as lidocaine, is a local anesthetic and is not typically used to treat arrhythmias.

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  • 47. 

    UTI  for 14 day, most probably cause pyelonephritis 

    • 50%

    • 5%

    • .5%

    • .05%

    Correct Answer
    A. 50%
    Explanation
    The given answer suggests that there is a 50% probability that UTI (Urinary Tract Infection) is the most likely cause of pyelonephritis, which is an infection of the kidneys. This indicates that UTI is a common and significant cause of pyelonephritis, accounting for half of the cases.

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  • 48. 

    Female patient with hypothyroidism, TSH high but he did not give the total T4 nor free, pulse normal, BP normal, she is on thyroxin, what you will do: 

    • Increase thyroxin follow after 3 months

    • Decrease thyroxin follow after 6 months

    • Decrease thyroxin follow after 3 months

    • Increase thyroxin follow after 6 months

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase thyroxin follow after 3 months
    Explanation
    The patient is a female with hypothyroidism, indicated by the high TSH levels. However, the levels of total T4 or free T4 are not provided. Since the patient is already on thyroxin (presumably for hypothyroidism treatment), the appropriate action would be to increase the thyroxin dosage and then follow up after 3 months to assess the response. This is because the high TSH levels suggest that the current dosage of thyroxin is not adequately suppressing the production of TSH, indicating the need for an increase in dosage.

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  • 49. 

    5 year old female child with history of pharyngitis for 4 days and persistent odorless vaginal discharge. Likely etiology: 

    • Streptococcus

    • Chlamydia

    • Neisseria Gonorrhea

    • Foreign body

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptococcus
    Explanation
    The likely etiology in this case is Streptococcus. Pharyngitis is commonly caused by Streptococcus bacteria, and the persistent odorless vaginal discharge could be a result of the infection spreading to the genital area. Chlamydia and Neisseria Gonorrhea are sexually transmitted infections and are less likely in a 5-year-old child. Foreign body is also a possibility, but given the history of pharyngitis, a bacterial infection like Streptococcus is more likely.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 23, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Khwarazm

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