SLE Assessment Exam 3

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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 5,974

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 395 | Updated: Mar 22, 2023

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The SLE assessment exam below is a set of questions mainly on gestation and diseases related to the process. How conversant are you with the topic. Take the bold step and attempt the quiz to see how much you know.

Questions and Answers

1.

Female patient, uses douches excessively in the past 6 weeks, she developed a malodor vaginal discharge, no itches, no urinary symptoms, on examination revealed pooling of vaginal wall, milky discharge with intact vulva. PH is 6. KOH revealed clue cells, no yeast, no hypha. Which of the following is NOT accepted to give this patient :
- A.
  
  Miconazole cream
- B.
  
  Metronidazole 500 mg BID for 5 days
- C.
  
  Clindamycin
- D.
  
  Metronidazole once
- E.
  
  Metronidazole gel
Correct Answer
A. Miconazole cream

Explanation
The patient's symptoms, such as malodor vaginal discharge and pooling of vaginal wall, along with the presence of clue cells on KOH testing, suggest a diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis (BV). BV is typically treated with antibiotics such as metronidazole or clindamycin. Miconazole cream is used to treat fungal infections such as yeast infections, which is not the likely cause of the patient's symptoms. Therefore, miconazole cream would not be accepted as the appropriate treatment for this patient.

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2.

Breech presentation + dilated cervix + wide pelvis + late deceleration the management is
- A.
  
  Spontaneous delivery
- B.
  
  C/S
- C.
  
  Vacume
- D.
  
  Forceps delivery
Correct Answer
A. Spontaneous delivery

Explanation
The combination of breech presentation, dilated cervix, wide pelvis, and late deceleration suggests that the baby is in a favorable position for a spontaneous vaginal delivery. Breech presentation means that the baby is positioned buttocks or feet first, which can sometimes complicate delivery. However, if the cervix is dilated and the pelvis is wide enough to accommodate the baby's position, a spontaneous delivery can be attempted. Late deceleration refers to a decrease in the baby's heart rate during contractions, which can be a sign of fetal distress. However, if the other factors are favorable, it is still possible to proceed with a spontaneous delivery under close monitoring.

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3.

42 year old pregnant in the 2nd trimester,concerning about having a baby with Down syndrome, best appropriate method of diagnosis:
- A.
  
  Triple test
- B.
  
  Amniocentesis
- C.
  
  Cord blood sample.
- D.
  
  Chorionic villous biopsy
Correct Answer
A. Triple test

Explanation
The triple test is the best appropriate method of diagnosis for a 42-year-old pregnant woman in the 2nd trimester who is concerned about having a baby with Down syndrome. This test measures the levels of three substances in the mother's blood (AFP, hCG, and estriol) to assess the risk of Down syndrome. It is a non-invasive screening test that can help identify whether further diagnostic tests, such as amniocentesis or chorionic villous biopsy, are necessary. Amniocentesis involves collecting a sample of amniotic fluid, while chorionic villous biopsy involves taking a sample of cells from the placenta. Cord blood sample is not typically used for diagnosing Down syndrome.

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4.

A 54 YO female with chronic pelvic pain is found to have a right sided ovarian mass. After the initial evaluation, surgery is planned to remove the mass. To avoid excessive bleeding during the surgery , the surgeon should ligate which of the following structures?
- A.
  
  Suspensory ligament
- B.
  
  Round ligament
- C.
  
  Ovarian ligament
- D.
  
  Transverse Cervical ligament
- E.
  
  Mesosalpinx
Correct Answer
A. Suspensory ligament

Explanation
To avoid excessive bleeding during surgery to remove a right-sided ovarian mass in a 54-year-old female with chronic pelvic pain, the surgeon should ligate the suspensory ligament. The suspensory ligament contains the ovarian artery, which supplies blood to the ovary. By ligating this structure, the surgeon can prevent excessive bleeding during the procedure. The other ligaments listed do not contain major blood vessels and are not directly related to the blood supply of the ovary.

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5.

What is special about placenta abruption:
- A.
  
  Fetal distress
- B.
  
  Vaginal bleed
- C.
  
  Uterus pain and back pain
- D.
  
  Abnormal uterine contraction
Correct Answer
A. Fetal distress

Explanation
Placenta abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery. This can lead to a decrease in blood flow to the fetus, causing fetal distress. Fetal distress refers to signs that the baby is not getting enough oxygen or nutrients, which can be detected through changes in the baby's heart rate or movement. Therefore, fetal distress is a significant concern in cases of placenta abruption and requires immediate medical attention.

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6.

43years old female with irregular menses 3m back & 1-2d spotting what is next to do:
- A.
  
  FSH
- B.
  
  LH
- C.
  
  Human chorionic gonadotropin
- D.
  
  US
Correct Answer
A. FSH

Explanation
FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is the correct answer because in a female with irregular menses and spotting, measuring FSH levels can help determine if there is an issue with ovarian function. FSH levels are typically elevated in women with ovarian dysfunction or menopause, indicating a decrease in fertility. Therefore, measuring FSH can provide valuable information about the woman's reproductive health and guide further diagnostic and treatment options.

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7.

43 year old lady complaint about non itchy; white non smelling vaginal discharge after intercourse, she isn’t using any contraceptive or vaginal douche. What is diagnosis?
- A.
  
  Do nothing
- B.
  
  Vaginal douche
- C.
  
  Local antifungal
- D.
  
  Local steroids
- E.
  
  Prescribe azithromycin
Correct Answer
A. Do nothing

Explanation
Based on the information provided, the correct answer is "Do nothing." The patient is experiencing non-itchy, white, and non-smelling vaginal discharge after intercourse. Since she is not using any contraceptive or vaginal douche, it is likely that this discharge is normal physiological discharge. Therefore, no intervention or treatment is necessary in this case.

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8.

35 years prime 16 week gestation PMH coming for her 1st cheek up she is excited about her pregnancy no hx of any previous disease. Her B/P after since rest 160/100 after one week her B/P is 154/96, Most likely diagnosis :
- A.
  
  Transit HTN
- B.
  
  Chronic HTN with superimposed pre-eclampsia
- C.
  
  Pre eclempsia
- D.
  
  Chronic HTN
Correct Answer
A. Transit HTN
9.

Gestational diabetes is associated with an increased risk of all of the following EXCECPT:
- A.
  
  Intrauterine growth restriction
- B.
  
  Intrauterine fetal death
- C.
  
  Fetal macrosomia
- D.
  
  Shoulder dystocia
- E.
  
  Cesarean section
Correct Answer
A. Intrauterine growth restriction

Explanation
Gestational diabetes is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood sugar levels. It is typically caused by hormonal changes and increased insulin resistance. Intrauterine growth restriction refers to a condition where the baby does not grow at the expected rate inside the womb. However, gestational diabetes is not associated with an increased risk of intrauterine growth restriction. Therefore, the correct answer is "Intrauterine growth restriction."

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10.

Infants of mothers with gestational diabetes have an increased risk of all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Hyperglycemia
- B.
  
  Hypocalcemia
- C.
  
  Hyperbilirubinemia
- D.
  
  Polycythemia
- E.
  
  Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer
A. Hyperglycemia

Explanation
Infants of mothers with gestational diabetes have an increased risk of various complications due to the high blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Hyperglycemia, which refers to high blood sugar levels, is a characteristic feature of gestational diabetes. Therefore, it is not excluded in this case. The correct answer is Hypocalcemia, as it is not directly associated with gestational diabetes.

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11.

Child came with fever , and heterochromia on examination there is enlarged abdomen , neck swelling , ptosis:
- A.
  
  Hodgkin lymphoma
- B.
  
  Neuroblastoma
- C.
  
  Rabdomyosarcoma
- D.
  
  Wilm's tumor
Correct Answer
A. Hodgkin lymphoma

Explanation
The symptoms described in the question, including fever, heterochromia, enlarged abdomen, neck swelling, and ptosis, are not specific to any one type of cancer. However, Hodgkin lymphoma can present with various symptoms, including fever and enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. While the other options may also cause some of these symptoms, Hodgkin lymphoma is the most likely diagnosis based on the information provided.

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12.

A child with polyuria, polydipsia & poor weight gain, random blood sugar >200 mg/dl, fasting blood sugar >147 mg/dl, this disease is mostly associated with
- A.
  
  HLA-DR4.
- B.
  
  HLA-DR5
- C.
  
  HLA-DR6
- D.
  
  HLA-DR7.
Correct Answer
A. HLA-DR4.
13.

The class of antibody responsible for hemolytic disease of the newborn is:
- A.
  
  IgG
- B.
  
  IgA
- C.
  
  IgM
- D.
  
  IgD
- E.
  
  IgE
Correct Answer
A. IgG

Explanation
IgG is the correct answer because it is the only class of antibody that can cross the placenta from the mother to the fetus. In cases of hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother's IgG antibodies can attack the red blood cells of the fetus, leading to severe anemia and other complications. IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE antibodies do not cross the placenta and therefore do not play a role in this condition.

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14.

5 year old female child with history of pharyngitis for 4 days and persistent odorless vaginal discharge. Likely etiology:
- A.
  
  Streptococcus
- B.
  
  Chlamydia
- C.
  
  Neisseria Gonorrhea
- D.
  
  Foreign body
Correct Answer
A. Streptococcus

Explanation
The likely etiology in this case is Streptococcus. Pharyngitis is commonly caused by Streptococcus bacteria, and the persistent odorless vaginal discharge could be a result of the infection spreading to the genital area. Chlamydia and Neisseria Gonorrhea are sexually transmitted infections and are less likely in a 5-year-old child. Foreign body is also a possibility, but given the history of pharyngitis, a bacterial infection like Streptococcus is more likely.

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15.

Child came with bilateral swellings in front of both ears. What is the common that could possibly happen for one within his age?
- A.
  
  Meningitis
- B.
  
  Orchitis
- C.
  
  Encephalitis
- D.
  
  Epididymitis
Correct Answer
A. Meningitis

Explanation
In children, one common condition that could cause bilateral swellings in front of both ears is meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. It can cause symptoms such as fever, headache, stiff neck, and in some cases, swelling in the area around the ears. Prompt medical attention is necessary for the diagnosis and treatment of meningitis to prevent complications and ensure the child's well-being.

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1
0
16.

Before 14 d the child was bite, now develop lip swelling & erythema, what type of hypersensitivity?
- A.
  
  Type 1
- B.
  
  Type 2
- C.
  
  Type 4
- D.
  
  Type 3
Correct Answer
A. Type 1

Explanation
Based on the given information, the child was bitten 14 days ago and is now experiencing lip swelling and erythema. This suggests an immediate hypersensitivity reaction, which is characteristic of Type 1 hypersensitivity. In Type 1 hypersensitivity, the immune system overreacts to an allergen, causing the release of histamine and other chemicals that lead to symptoms like swelling and redness.

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1
0
17.

Child swallowing battery in the esophagus management:
- A.
  
  Remove by endoscope
- B.
  
  Bronchoscope
- C.
  
  Insert Foley catheter
- D.
  
  Observation 12hrs
Correct Answer
A. Remove by endoscope

Explanation
The correct answer is to remove the battery by endoscope. When a child swallows a battery, it can cause serious complications such as tissue damage and perforation. Therefore, prompt removal is necessary to prevent further harm. Endoscopy is a minimally invasive procedure that allows for the safe and effective retrieval of the battery from the esophagus. This method is preferred over bronchoscopy, as the battery is more likely to be lodged in the esophagus rather than the airway. Inserting a Foley catheter or observing the child for 12 hours without intervention would not address the immediate risk and potential complications associated with battery ingestion.

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18.

5 years child diagnosed as UTI, what is the best investigation to exclude UTI complication?
- A.
  
  KidneyUS
- B.
  
  CT
- C.
  
  MCUG
- D.
  
  IVU
Correct Answer
A. KidneyUS

Explanation
The best investigation to exclude UTI complication in a 5-year-old child is a KidneyUS (Kidney Ultrasound). This non-invasive imaging technique uses sound waves to create images of the kidneys and can help identify any abnormalities or complications associated with UTI. It is a safe and effective method to evaluate the kidneys and rule out any potential complications. CT (Computed Tomography), MCUG (Micturating Cystourethrogram), and IVU (Intravenous Urogram) are alternative imaging techniques that may be used in certain cases, but KidneyUS is generally the preferred choice in children.

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19.

13 years old child with typical history of nephritic syndrome (present with an urea, cola color urine, edema, HTN), what is the next step to diagnose?
- A.
  
  Urine sediments microscope
- B.
  
  Renal function test
- C.
  
  US
- D.
  
  Renal biopsy
Correct Answer
A. Urine sediments microscope

Explanation
The next step to diagnose the 13-year-old child with a typical history of nephritic syndrome would be to examine the urine sediments under a microscope. This is because nephritic syndrome is characterized by symptoms such as urea, cola-colored urine, edema, and hypertension, which can be further confirmed by finding abnormal red blood cells, white blood cells, and casts in the urine sediment. This test helps to identify the presence of kidney damage and inflammation, which are typical features of nephritic syndrome. Renal function tests, ultrasound, and renal biopsy may be performed later to further evaluate the condition, but the initial step would be to examine the urine sediments.

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20.

A 6 years old female from Jizan with hematuria, all the following investigations are needed EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Cystoscopy
- B.
  
  HbS
- C.
  
  Hb electrophoresis.
- D.
  
  Urine analysis.
- E.
  
  U/S of the abdomen to see any changes in the glomeruli.
Correct Answer
A. Cystoscopy

Explanation
Cystoscopy is not needed in this case because it is a procedure used to examine the bladder and urethra, which is not relevant to the evaluation of hematuria. The other investigations listed, such as HbS, Hb electrophoresis, urine analysis, and U/S of the abdomen, are all relevant in determining the cause of hematuria in a 6-year-old female from Jizan.

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21.

15 years old boy with dark urine, dark brown stool, positive occult test, what to do?
- A.
  
  Isotope scan
- B.
  
  Abdomen ultrasound
- C.
  
  X-Ray
- D.
  
  Barium
Correct Answer
A. Isotope scan

Explanation
An isotope scan would be the most appropriate next step in this case because the patient is presenting with symptoms of dark urine and dark brown stool, which can be indicative of a liver or biliary system disorder. An isotope scan, also known as a hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) scan, is a nuclear medicine imaging test that can help evaluate the function of the liver, gallbladder, and bile ducts. It can help identify any abnormalities or blockages in the biliary system that could be causing the patient's symptoms. This test would provide more specific information compared to the other options listed.

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22.

2 year old child got fever for 2 days then in the 2nd day he became drowsy with vomiting and diarrhea and appearance of Petechial skin rash which spread rapidly all over the body
- A.
  
  Rocky mountain fever
- B.
  
  Kawasaki
- C.
  
  HSP
- D.
  
  Measles
Correct Answer
A. Rocky mountain fever

Explanation
The given symptoms of fever, drowsiness, vomiting, diarrhea, and the appearance of a Petechial skin rash that spreads rapidly all over the body are consistent with Rocky Mountain Fever. This is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. The symptoms typically appear 2-14 days after the bite and can include fever, headache, muscle aches, and rash. In severe cases, it can lead to organ failure and even death. Prompt treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent complications.

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23.

Which condition least common associated with endocarditis
- A.
  
  ASD
- B.
  
  VSD
- C.
  
  PDA
- D.
  
  TOF
Correct Answer
A. ASD

Explanation
Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart, usually caused by bacteria. It commonly occurs in individuals with certain heart conditions, such as congenital heart defects. Among the options given, ASD (Atrial Septal Defect) is the least common condition associated with endocarditis. ASD is a congenital heart defect where there is an abnormal opening between the two upper chambers of the heart. While endocarditis can occur in individuals with ASD, it is less commonly associated with this condition compared to VSD (Ventricular Septal Defect), PDA (Patent Ductus Arteriosus), and TOF (Tetralogy of Fallot).

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24.

A boy who was bitten by his brother and received tetanus shot 6 month ago and his laceration was 1 cm and you cleaned his wound next you will:
- A.
  
  Give Augmentin
- B.
  
  Suture the wound.
- C.
  
  Give tetanus shot
- D.
  
  Send home with close observation and return in 48 hours.
Correct Answer
A. Give Augmentin

Explanation
Given the information provided, the boy was already given a tetanus shot 6 months ago. Therefore, there is no need to give another tetanus shot. However, since the wound was caused by a bite, there is a risk of infection. Augmentin is an antibiotic that is commonly used to prevent or treat infections caused by bites. Therefore, giving Augmentin would be the appropriate next step in order to prevent any potential infection.

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25.

First sign in increase intracranial pressure:
- A.
  
  Vomiting
- B.
  
  Nausea
- C.
  
  Ipsilateral pupil constrict
- D.
  
  Contralateral pupil constrict
Correct Answer
A. Vomiting

Explanation
Vomiting is the first sign to increase intracranial pressure. When there is increased pressure inside the skull, it can affect the normal functioning of the brain. This can lead to stimulation of the vomiting center in the brain, causing the individual to experience vomiting as a symptom. Vomiting is a protective mechanism of the body to try and relieve the pressure inside the skull. Therefore, it is considered as the initial sign of increased intracranial pressure.

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26.

Which of the following is an indication for tonsillectomy?
- A.
  
  Sleep apnea
- B.
  
  Asymptomatic large tonsils
- C.
  
  Peripharygeal abscess
- D.
  
  Retropharyngeal abscess
Correct Answer
A. Sleep apnea

Explanation
Sleep apnea is a condition characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, may be indicated in cases of sleep apnea when it is caused by enlarged tonsils obstructing the airway. By removing the tonsils, the obstruction can be alleviated, allowing for improved airflow during sleep and reducing the symptoms of sleep apnea. Therefore, sleep apnea is a valid indication for tonsillectomy.

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27.

A 45 years old lady was complaining of dizziness, sensory neural hearing loss on her left ear (8th nerve palsy), tingling sensation & numbness on her face, loss of corneal reflex. MRI showed a dilated internal ear canal (other Q C.T scan shows intracranial mass). The diagnosis is:
- A.
  
  Acoustic neuroma
- B.
  
  Glue ear
- C.
  
  Drug toxicity
- D.
  
  Herpes zoster
- E.
  
  Cholesteatoma
Correct Answer
A. Acoustic neuroma

Explanation
The given symptoms of dizziness, sensory neural hearing loss, tingling sensation and numbness on the face, and loss of corneal reflex, along with the findings of a dilated internal ear canal on MRI, are consistent with the diagnosis of acoustic neuroma. Acoustic neuroma is a benign tumor that develops on the 8th cranial nerve, which is responsible for hearing and balance. The tumor can cause symptoms such as hearing loss, dizziness, and facial numbness due to compression of nearby structures. Therefore, the correct answer is Acoustic neuroma.

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28.

A child presented with earache. On examination there was a piece of glass deep in the ear canal. The mother gave a history of a broken glass in the kitchen but she thought she cleaned that completely. The best management is:
- A.
  
  Remove by forceps
- B.
  
  Refer to ENT
- C.
  
  Remove by irrigation of a steam of solution into the ear
- D.
  
  Remove by suction catheter
- E.
  
  Instill acetone into the external auditory canal
Correct Answer
A. Remove by forceps

Explanation
The best management for a child with a piece of glass deep in the ear canal would be to remove it by forceps. This is the most direct and effective method of removing the foreign object from the ear. Referring to an ENT specialist may not be necessary in this case, as the glass can be safely removed by forceps. Irrigation with a solution may not be effective in removing a deep foreign object like glass. Using a suction catheter may also not be appropriate for removing glass. Instilling acetone into the external auditory canal is not recommended as it may cause irritation and damage to the ear.

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29.

35 years old female patient complaining of acute inflammation and pain in her Left eye since 2 days, she gave history of visual blurring and use of contact lens as well, On examination: fluorescence stain shows dendritic ulcer at the center of the cornea, what is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.
  
  Herpetic central ulcer
- B.
  
  Central lens stress ulcer
- C.
  
  Acute Episcleritis
- D.
  
  Acute angle closure glaucoma
- E.
  
  Corneal abrasion
Correct Answer
A. Herpetic central ulcer

Explanation
The most likely diagnosis for a 35-year-old female patient with acute inflammation and pain in her left eye, along with a history of visual blurring and use of contact lenses, is a herpetic central ulcer. The presence of a dendritic ulcer at the center of the cornea, as seen on fluorescence stain, is characteristic of a herpetic infection. This type of ulcer is commonly caused by the herpes simplex virus and can result in significant discomfort and visual disturbances. Other options such as central lens stress ulcer, acute episcleritis, acute angle closure glaucoma, and corneal abrasion are less likely based on the given information.

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30.

Patient with recent history of URTI ,develop sever conjuctivitis Injection with redness, tearing ,photophobia ,So, what is treatment?
- A.
  
  Topical steroid
- B.
  
  Oral acyclovir
- C.
  
  Topical acyclovir
- D.
  
  Topical antibiotic
Correct Answer
A. Topical steroid

Explanation
The correct treatment for a patient with severe conjunctivitis following a recent upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) would be a topical steroid. This is because conjunctivitis is often caused by inflammation, and steroids are effective in reducing inflammation. The symptoms of redness, tearing, and photophobia further indicate an inflammatory response, which can be alleviated by the use of topical steroids. Oral acyclovir is used to treat viral infections, but since the cause of the conjunctivitis is not specified, it may not be the most appropriate treatment. Topical acyclovir is specifically used for viral conjunctivitis, so it may not be the best choice either. Topical antibiotics are used for bacterial conjunctivitis, but again, the cause is not specified in the question.

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31.

Patient presented with constricted pupil, ciliary flushing and cloudy antierior Chamber .there is no abnormality In eye lid, vision and lacrimal duct:
- A.
  
  Uveitis
- B.
  
  Central vein thrombosis
- C.
  
  Central artery embolism
- D.
  
  Acute angle closure glaucoma
Correct Answer
A. Uveitis

Explanation
The symptoms described in the question, including a constricted pupil, ciliary flushing, and cloudy anterior chamber, are indicative of uveitis. Uveitis refers to inflammation of the uvea, which is the middle layer of the eye. It can cause various symptoms, including eye pain, redness, and blurred vision. In this case, the absence of abnormalities in the eyelid, vision, and lacrimal duct suggests that the issue is not related to those structures, further supporting the diagnosis of uveitis.

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32.

Which of the following is true regarding perths disease :
- A.
  
  May present by painless limp
- B.
  
  Commonly seen between 11-16 years of age
- C.
  
  More in female
- D.
  
  Characteristically affect the external rotation of hip
- E.
  
  Always unilateral.
Correct Answer
A. May present by painless limp

Explanation
Perthes disease is a condition that affects the hip joint in children. It is characterized by the temporary loss of blood supply to the femoral head, which can lead to bone death and deformity. One of the possible presentations of Perthes disease is a painless limp, which means that the child may have difficulty walking without experiencing pain. This is a common symptom that can be observed in children with Perthes disease.

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33.

In lumbar disc prolapse at L4-L5 the patient will have:
- A.
  
  Weakness of dorsiflextion of foot
- B.
  
  Absent ankle reflex
- C.
  
  Fasciculation at calf muscle
- D.
  
  Hypoesthesia around the knee
- E.
  
  Pain at groin & front of thigh 
Correct Answer
A. Weakness of dorsiflextion of foot

Explanation
In lumbar disc prolapse at L4-L5, the patient may experience weakness of dorsiflexion of the foot. This is because the L4-L5 disc prolapse can compress the L5 nerve root, which innervates the muscles responsible for dorsiflexion. This compression can lead to a decrease in the strength of the muscles involved in dorsiflexion, resulting in weakness.

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34.

Congenital dislocation of hip; all are true EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  More in girls
- B.
  
  Best examined after 12-36 hours from birth
- C.
  
  There will be limitation in abduction of thigh
- D.
  
  Barlow test will give click indicating CDH
- E.
  
  Can be treated by splint 
Correct Answer
A. More in girls

Explanation
Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH) is a condition where the hip joint is not properly formed or positioned at birth. It is more common in girls than in boys. The best time to examine for CDH is between 12-36 hours after birth. One of the signs of CDH is limitation in the abduction of the thigh. The Barlow test is used to detect CDH and it involves applying gentle pressure to the hip joint to check for instability or a "click" sound. CDH can be treated with a splint.

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35.

Osterporosis excersie intervention to increase muscle and bone dinsity :
- A.
  
  Low resistance and conditioning
- B.
  
  Low weight high repetition
- C.
  
  High wieght and low repetition
- D.
  
  No idea
Correct Answer
A. Low resistance and conditioning

Explanation
The correct answer is low resistance and conditioning because low resistance exercises, such as resistance bands or light weights, help to increase muscle strength and improve bone density without putting excessive stress on the joints. Conditioning exercises, such as walking or swimming, also help to improve overall muscle and bone health. This combination of low resistance and conditioning exercises is a safe and effective intervention for individuals with osteoporosis to increase muscle and bone density.

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36.

Male patient complain of excruciating headache, awaken him from sleep every night with burning sensation behind left eye, lacrimation and nasal congestion. What is effective in treating him:
- A.
  
  O2
- B.
  
  Ergotamine
- C.
  
  NSAID
- D.
  
  Methylprednisolone
- E.
  
  Sumatriptan SC
Correct Answer
A. O2

Explanation
Oxygen (O2) is effective in treating the male patient's excruciating headache because it can provide relief from cluster headaches. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe pain on one side of the head, often behind the eye, and are accompanied by symptoms such as lacrimation (tearing) and nasal congestion. Oxygen therapy has been found to be an effective treatment for cluster headaches, helping to alleviate the pain and other associated symptoms.

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37.

Treatment of contacts is applied in all of the following except:
- A.
  
  Malaria
- B.
  
  Hook worm
- C.
  
  Filariasis.
- D.
  
  Bilharziasis
Correct Answer
A. Malaria

Explanation
Treatment of contacts refers to treating individuals who have come into contact with an infected person but do not show any symptoms themselves. This is done to prevent the spread of the disease. In the case of malaria, treatment of contacts is not necessary as malaria is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes and not through direct contact with an infected person. Therefore, the correct answer is Malaria.

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38.

Which of the following increases the quality of the randomized controlled study & make it stronger:
- A.
  
  Systemic Assignment predictability by participants
- B.
  
  Open Allocation
- C.
  
  Including only the participants who received the full intervention
- D.
  
  Following at least 50 % of the participants
- E.
  
  Giving similar intervention to similar groups
Correct Answer
A. Systemic Assignment predictability by participants

Explanation
Systemic Assignment predictability by participants increases the quality of the randomized controlled study and makes it stronger because it reduces bias and ensures that participants are evenly distributed across different groups. This helps to minimize confounding variables and increases the validity of the study results. When participants can predict their assignment, they are less likely to drop out or refuse to participate, leading to better compliance and overall study integrity.

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39.

Incidence is calculated by the number of:
- A.
  
  New cases during the study period
- B.
  
  New cases at a point in time
- C.
  
  Old cases at a point in time.
- D.
  
  Existing cases at a study period.
- E.
  
  Old cases during the study period.
Correct Answer
A. New cases during the study period

Explanation
Incidence is calculated by the number of new cases during the study period. This means that it measures the rate at which new cases of a particular condition or disease occur within a specific time frame. It helps in understanding the risk and spread of the condition in a population.

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40.

You have received the CT scan report on a 34 years old mother of three who had a malignant melanoma removed 3 years ago. Originally, it was a Clerk’s level I and the prognosis was excellent. The patient came to your office 1 week ago complaining of chest pain and abdominal pain. A CT scan of the chest and abdomen revealed metastatic lesions throughout the lungs and the abdomen. She is in your office, and you have to deliver the bad news of the significant spread of the cancer. The FIRST step in breaking news is to:
- A.
  
  Find out how much the patient knows.
- B.
  
  Find out how much the patient wants to know it.
- C.
  
  Tell the patient not to worry.
- D.
  
  Fire a “warning shot” that some bad news is coming.
- E.
  
  Deliver the news all in one blow and get it over with as quickly as is humanly possible.
Correct Answer
A. Find out how much the patient knows.

Explanation
The first step in breaking bad news to a patient is to find out how much they already know about their condition. This is important because it allows the healthcare provider to gauge the patient's level of understanding and prepare them for the upcoming news. It also helps to avoid overwhelming the patient with information they may already be aware of, and allows the healthcare provider to tailor their communication to the patient's knowledge and emotional readiness. By finding out how much the patient knows, the healthcare provider can establish a foundation for effective and compassionate communication.

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41.

32 years old lady work in a file clerk developed sudden onset of low back pain when she was bending on files, moderately severe for 3 days duration. There is no evidence of nerve root compression. What is the proper action?
- A.
  
  Bed rest for 7 to 10 days.
- B.
  
  Traction
- C.
  
  Narcotic analgesia
- D.
  
  Early activity with return to work
- E.
  
  CT scan for lumbosacral vertebrae
Correct Answer
A. Bed rest for 7 to 10 days.

Explanation
The proper action for a 32-year-old woman with sudden onset low back pain, without evidence of nerve root compression, is bed rest for 7 to 10 days. This is because bed rest allows the injured area to heal and reduces strain on the back. It is a conservative treatment option that is commonly recommended for acute low back pain. Traction, narcotic analgesia, early activity with return to work, and CT scan for lumbosacral vertebrae are not appropriate actions in this case as there is no indication for them based on the given information.

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42.

You asked to manage an HIV patient who was involved in a car accident. You know that this patient is a drug addict & has extramarital relations. What are you going to do? 
- A.
  
  You will manage this emergency case with taken all the recommended precautions
- B.
  
  You will report him to legal authorities after recovery 
- C.
  
  Tell his family that he is HIV positive
- D.
  
  You have the right to look after the patient to protect yourself 
- E.
  
  Complete isolation of the patient when he is in the hospital
Correct Answer
A. You will manage this emergency case with taken all the recommended precautions

Explanation
The correct answer suggests that the healthcare professional will manage the emergency case by taking all the recommended precautions. This means that they will follow the necessary protocols and guidelines to ensure the safety of both themselves and the patient. This may include using personal protective equipment, practicing proper infection control measures, and providing appropriate medical care. It is important to prioritize the patient's health and well-being while also protecting oneself and preventing the spread of HIV.

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43.

An example of secondary prevention is:
- A.
  
  Detection of asymptomatic diabetic patient
- B.
  
  Coronary bypass graft
- C.
  
  Measles vaccination
- D.
  
  Rubella vaccination
Correct Answer
A. Detection of asymptomatic diabetic patient

Explanation
Secondary prevention refers to activities that aim to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages, before it progresses and causes significant harm. In this case, the detection of an asymptomatic diabetic patient falls under secondary prevention because it involves identifying individuals who have diabetes but do not yet display symptoms. By detecting diabetes early, healthcare providers can intervene with appropriate interventions such as lifestyle modifications or medication to prevent or delay the onset of complications associated with the disease.

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44.

Secondary prevention is least likely of benefit in :
- A.
  
  Leukemia
- B.
  
  DM
- C.
  
  Toxemia of pregnancy
- D.
  
  Breast cancer
Correct Answer
A. Leukemia

Explanation
Secondary prevention refers to interventions aimed at detecting and treating a disease early in its course to prevent its progression or complications. Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. Unlike the other conditions listed (DM, toxemia of pregnancy, and breast cancer), leukemia is not typically detected through routine screening or preventive measures. Instead, it is usually diagnosed based on symptoms or abnormal blood tests. Therefore, secondary prevention measures, such as screening or early detection, are less likely to be beneficial in leukemia compared to the other conditions listed.

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45.

Secondary prevention is best effective in:
- A.
  
  DM
- B.
  
  Leukemia
- C.
  
  Pre-eclampsia
- D.
  
  Malabsorption
Correct Answer
A. DM

Explanation
Secondary prevention is best effective in DM (diabetes mellitus). This means that the most effective approach to managing diabetes is to focus on preventing complications and managing the disease after it has already developed. Secondary prevention strategies for DM may include regular monitoring of blood sugar levels, maintaining a healthy diet and exercise routine, taking prescribed medications, and managing other risk factors such as high blood pressure and cholesterol levels. By implementing these measures, individuals with DM can reduce the risk of developing complications such as heart disease, kidney damage, and nerve damage.

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46.

Epidemiological study for smoker said there is 10,000 person in the area , at start of the study there is 2000 smoker, at the end of the study there is 1000 smoker, the incidence of this study is :
- A.
  
  30%
- B.
  
  20%
- C.
  
  12.5%
- D.
  
  10%
Correct Answer
A. 30%

Explanation
The incidence of this study is 30% because it is calculated by taking the number of new cases (smokers at the end of the study - smokers at the start of the study) divided by the total population at risk (total number of people in the area). In this case, the number of new cases is 2000 - 1000 = 1000, and the total population at risk is 10,000. Therefore, the incidence is 1000/10,000 = 0.1 or 10%, which is equivalent to 30% when expressed as a percentage.

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0
1
47.

A patient have tender, redness nodule on lacrimal duct site. Before referred him to ophthalmologist what you will do
- A.
  
  Oral antibiotics
- B.
  
  Nothing
- C.
  
  Topical antibiotics
- D.
  
  Topical steroid
Correct Answer
A. Oral antibiotics

Explanation
In this scenario, the correct answer is oral antibiotics. The patient has a tender, red nodule on the lacrimal duct site, which could indicate an infection. Oral antibiotics are typically prescribed to treat bacterial infections, so it would be appropriate to start the patient on this treatment before referring them to an ophthalmologist. This will help to control the infection and reduce any associated inflammation. Topical antibiotics may not be sufficient to treat an infection in this area, and topical steroids should be avoided until a definitive diagnosis is made.

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48.

Regarding standard error of the mean, which is true?
- A.
  
  SEM is calculated as square root of variance
- B.
  
  Standard deviation advantage can be math manipulated
- C.
  
  Is bigger than SD
- D.
  
  ) Standard deviation is measure of reliability of SEM
- E.
  
  SEM is observation around the mean
Correct Answer
A. SEM is calculated as square root of variance

Explanation
The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of how much the sample mean is likely to vary from the true population mean. It is calculated as the square root of the variance. Variance measures the spread of data points around the mean, and taking the square root of variance gives us a measure of the spread of sample means around the true mean. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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49.

When a person is predicated not to have a disease he is called (Negative). Then what is (true negative):
- A.
  
  When a person is predicted not to have a disease, he does not have it.
- B.
  
  When risk cannot be assessed.
- C.
  
  When a person is predicted not to have a disease, he has it.
- D.
  
  When a person is predicted to have a disease, he does not have it.
- E.
  
  When a person is predicted to have a disease, he has it.
Correct Answer
A. When a person is predicted not to have a disease, he does not have it.

Explanation
True negative refers to the situation when a person is predicted not to have a disease, and it turns out that they actually do not have it. In other words, the prediction of the absence of the disease is accurate and matches the actual condition of the person. This is a desirable outcome as it indicates that the prediction or test result is correct in identifying individuals who are truly disease-free.

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50.

Female underwent abdominal operation she went to physician for check ultrasound reveal metal clip (10 cm) inside abdomen (missed during operation), what will you do?
- A.
  
  Tell her what you found and refer her to surgery.
- B.
  
  Tell her that is one of possible complications of operation Don't tell her what you found
- C.
  
  Call attorney and ask about legal action
- D.
  
  Call the surgeon and ask him what to do
Correct Answer
A. Tell her what you found and refer her to surgery.

Explanation
The correct answer is to tell her what you found and refer her to surgery. This is the most ethical and responsible course of action as a healthcare professional. By informing the patient about the metal clip that was missed during the operation, you are ensuring transparency and allowing her to make informed decisions about her health. Referring her to surgery is necessary to remove the metal clip and prevent any potential complications or further harm.

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Sep 23, 2014

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SLE Assessment Exam 3

Breech presentation + dilated cervix + wide pelvis + late deceleration the management is

42 year old pregnant in the 2nd trimester,concerning about having a baby with Down syndrome, best appropriate method of diagnosis:

A 54 YO female with chronic pelvic pain is found to have a right sided ovarian mass. After the initial evaluation, surgery is planned to remove the mass. To avoid excessive bleeding during the surgery , the surgeon should ligate which of the following structures?

What is special about placenta abruption:

43years old female with irregular menses 3m back & 1-2d spotting what is next to do:

43 year old lady complaint about non itchy; white non smelling vaginal discharge after intercourse, she isn’t using any contraceptive or vaginal douche. What is diagnosis?

35 years prime 16 week gestation PMH coming for her 1st cheek up she is excited about her pregnancy no hx of any previous disease. Her B/P after since rest 160/100 after one week her B/P is 154/96, Most likely diagnosis :

Gestational diabetes is associated with an increased risk of all of the following EXCECPT:

Infants of mothers with gestational diabetes have an increased risk of all of the following EXCEPT:

Child came with fever , and heterochromia on examination there is enlarged abdomen , neck swelling , ptosis:

A child with polyuria, polydipsia & poor weight gain, random blood sugar >200 mg/dl, fasting blood sugar >147 mg/dl, this disease is mostly associated with

The class of antibody responsible for hemolytic disease of the newborn is:

5 year old female child with history of pharyngitis for 4 days and persistent odorless vaginal discharge. Likely etiology:

Child came with bilateral swellings in front of both ears. What is the common that could possibly happen for one within his age?

Before 14 d the child was bite, now develop lip swelling & erythema, what type of hypersensitivity?

Child swallowing battery in the esophagus management:

5 years child diagnosed as UTI, what is the best investigation to exclude UTI complication?

13 years old child with typical history of nephritic syndrome (present with an urea, cola color urine, edema, HTN), what is the next step to diagnose?

A 6 years old female from Jizan with hematuria, all the following investigations are needed EXCEPT:

15 years old boy with dark urine, dark brown stool, positive occult test, what to do?

2 year old child got fever for 2 days then in the 2nd day he became drowsy with vomiting and diarrhea and appearance of Petechial skin rash which spread rapidly all over the body

Which condition least common associated with endocarditis

A boy who was bitten by his brother and received tetanus shot 6 month ago and his laceration was 1 cm and you cleaned his wound next you will:

First sign in increase intracranial pressure:

Which of the following is an indication for tonsillectomy?

A 45 years old lady was complaining of dizziness, sensory neural hearing loss on her left ear (8th nerve palsy), tingling sensation & numbness on her face, loss of corneal reflex. MRI showed a dilated internal ear canal (other Q C.T scan shows intracranial mass). The diagnosis is:

A child presented with earache. On examination there was a piece of glass deep in the ear canal. The mother gave a history of a broken glass in the kitchen but she thought she cleaned that completely. The best management is:

35 years old female patient complaining of acute inflammation and pain in her Left eye since 2 days, she gave history of visual blurring and use of contact lens as well, On examination: fluorescence stain shows dendritic ulcer at the center of the cornea, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Patient with recent history of URTI ,develop sever conjuctivitis Injection with redness, tearing ,photophobia ,So, what is treatment?

Patient presented with constricted pupil, ciliary flushing and cloudy antierior Chamber .there is no abnormality In eye lid, vision and lacrimal duct:

Which of the following is true regarding perths disease :

In lumbar disc prolapse at L4-L5 the patient will have:

Congenital dislocation of hip; all are true EXCEPT:

Osterporosis excersie intervention to increase muscle and bone dinsity :

Male patient complain of excruciating headache, awaken him from sleep every night with burning sensation behind left eye, lacrimation and nasal congestion. What is effective in treating him:

Treatment of contacts is applied in all of the following except:

Which of the following increases the quality of the randomized controlled study & make it stronger:

Incidence is calculated by the number of:

32 years old lady work in a file clerk developed sudden onset of low back pain when she was bending on files, moderately severe for 3 days duration. There is no evidence of nerve root compression. What is the proper action?

You asked to manage an HIV patient who was involved in a car accident. You know that this patient is a drug addict & has extramarital relations. What are you going to do?

An example of secondary prevention is:

Secondary prevention is least likely of benefit in :

Secondary prevention is best effective in:

Epidemiological study for smoker said there is 10,000 person in the area , at start of the study there is 2000 smoker, at the end of the study there is 1000 smoker, the incidence of this study is :

A patient have tender, redness nodule on lacrimal duct site. Before referred him to ophthalmologist what you will do

Regarding standard error of the mean, which is true?

When a person is predicated not to have a disease he is called (Negative). Then what is (true negative):

Female underwent abdominal operation she went to physician for check ultrasound reveal metal clip (10 cm) inside abdomen (missed during operation), what will you do?

You asked to manage an HIV patient who was involved in a car accident. You know that this patient is a drug addict & has extramarital relations. What are you going to do? 