SLE Assessment Exam 2

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Most alarming symptoms in pregnancy is? 

    • Vaginal bleeding
    • Leg cramps
    • Lower limb edema
    • Back pain
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About This Quiz

SLE Assessment Exam 2 tests knowledge on clinical diagnostics, including conditions like Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, fetal congenital heart disease, and management of acute medical cases. It evaluates understanding of diagnostic techniques and treatment options relevant for medical professionals.

SLE Assessment Exam 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Patient came to you asking about why should we take influenza vaccine annually what do you tell him?

    • Changings in virus structure

    • Change in mood of transmission

    • Antibacterial prophylaxis

    Correct Answer
    A. Changings in virus structure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Changings in virus structure". The reason why influenza vaccine should be taken annually is because the virus undergoes frequent changes in its structure. This means that the strains of the virus that circulate each year may be different from the previous year. By getting vaccinated annually, individuals can protect themselves against the specific strains of the virus that are expected to be prevalent in a given flu season.

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  • 3. 

    A child of 7 years came with SOB, cough, he had history of different previous allergies,on examination he had wheezy chest, what is the most appropriate initial management:

    • Nebulized albuterol

    • Inhaled corticosteroid

    • Theophylline

    • Monteleukast

    Correct Answer
    A. Nebulized albuterol
    Explanation
    The most appropriate initial management for a child of 7 years with wheezy chest, SOB, and cough, who has a history of different previous allergies, would be nebulized albuterol. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that helps to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow in the lungs. It is commonly used as a first-line treatment for acute asthma exacerbations. In this case, the child's symptoms suggest bronchospasm, and nebulized albuterol would provide immediate relief by opening up the airways and relieving the wheezing.

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  • 4. 

    Most difficult method to prevented in transmission: 

    • Air flow

    • Vector

    • Droplet

    • Person to person

    Correct Answer
    A. Air flow
    Explanation
    Air flow is the most difficult method to prevent in transmission because it is challenging to control and mitigate the movement of air. Airborne transmission occurs when infectious particles are carried by air currents over long distances, making it difficult to contain and prevent the spread of diseases. Unlike other methods such as vector transmission (through insects or animals), droplet transmission (through respiratory droplets), or person-to-person transmission (direct contact), air flow can be unpredictable and can easily spread infectious particles in indoor or outdoor environments. Effective measures like proper ventilation, air filtration, and wearing masks are essential to minimize the risk of airborne transmission.

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  • 5. 

    For health education programs to be successful all are true except : 

    • Doctors are only the health educators

    • Methods include pictures and videos

    • Involve society members at early stage

    • Human behavior must be well understood

    • Information should be from cultural background

    Correct Answer
    A. Doctors are only the health educators
    Explanation
    The given answer states that "Doctors are only the health educators" is not true. This implies that health education programs should not solely rely on doctors as the only source of information and knowledge. Instead, other individuals or professionals from various fields can also play a role in educating the community about health. This approach allows for a more comprehensive and diverse range of perspectives and expertise to be shared, enhancing the effectiveness of the health education program.

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  • 6. 

    A known case of treated Hodgkin lymphoma with radiotherapy not on regular follow up presented with gradual painless difficulty in swallowing and breathing on examination there is facial swelling and redness,what is the diagnosis?

    • SVC obstruction

    • Abdominal aortic aneurism

    • Thoracic aortic aneurysm

    • IVC obstruction

    Correct Answer
    A. SVC obstruction
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SVC obstruction. SVC obstruction occurs when there is a blockage or compression of the superior vena cava, a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the heart. In this case, the patient's history of treated Hodgkin lymphoma and the symptoms of gradual painless difficulty in swallowing and breathing, along with facial swelling and redness, are indicative of SVC obstruction. This can occur as a late complication of radiotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma, causing compression or narrowing of the SVC.

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  • 7. 

    60 years female, c/o back pain, bone density=2.5, what will you do ?

    • Calcium+ Vitamin D + phosphorus

    • Exercise advise

    • Calcium

    • NSAID

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium+ Vitamin D + phosphorus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is calcium+ Vitamin D + phosphorus. This is because the patient is a 60-year-old female complaining of back pain and has a bone density of 2.5. This bone density indicates osteoporosis, a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue. Calcium, Vitamin D, and phosphorus are essential nutrients for maintaining bone health and can help prevent further bone loss and fractures. Exercise advice is also important for strengthening the bones and muscles. NSAIDs may provide temporary relief for the pain, but they do not address the underlying issue of osteoporosis.

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  • 8. 

     Heavy smoker came to you asking about other cancer, not Lung cancer, that smoking increase its risk:  

    • Bladder

    • Colon

    • Liver

    • Stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Bladder
    Explanation
    Smoking increases the risk of bladder cancer. Research has shown a clear link between smoking and bladder cancer, with smokers being at a higher risk compared to non-smokers. The chemicals in tobacco smoke are absorbed into the bloodstream and excreted in the urine, which can damage the bladder lining over time and increase the likelihood of developing cancer. Therefore, it is important to inform the heavy smoker that smoking also increases the risk of bladder cancer, in addition to other types of cancer.

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  • 9. 

    Middle aged patient with ataxia, multiple skin pigmentation and decrease hearing, one of the familymembers has the same condition?

    • Neurofibromatosis

    • Hemochromatosis

    • Measles

    • Malignant melanoma

    • Spider angioma

    Correct Answer
    A. Neurofibromatosis
    Explanation
    The symptoms described in the question, including ataxia (loss of coordination), multiple skin pigmentation, and decreased hearing, are indicative of neurofibromatosis. Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes tumors to form on nerve tissue, leading to various symptoms including those mentioned. The fact that one family member also has the same condition further supports the diagnosis of neurofibromatosis, as it is an inherited disorder. Hemochromatosis, measles, malignant melanoma, and spider angioma do not typically present with the combination of symptoms described in the question.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following associated with fetal congenital heart disease

    • Rubella

    • Toxoplasmosis

    • HIV

    • HSV

    Correct Answer
    A. Rubella
    Explanation
    Rubella is associated with fetal congenital heart disease. Rubella, also known as German measles, is caused by a viral infection. If a pregnant woman contracts rubella during the first trimester, it can lead to various birth defects, including congenital heart disease in the fetus. This occurs because the rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing heart of the baby. Therefore, rubella is a known risk factor for fetal congenital heart disease.

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  • 11. 

    Patient wake up with inability to speak .He went to a doctor and he still couldnt speak. He can cough whe he is asked to do  then he gave you a picture of his larnyx by laryngoscope . Which grossly looks normal .

    • Functional aphonia

    • Paralysis of vocal cords

    • Infection

    • Referral to ENT

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional aphonia
    Explanation
    The patient's inability to speak despite normal appearance of the larynx suggests functional aphonia. Functional aphonia is a psychological disorder where there is a loss of voice without any structural or physical abnormalities. It is often triggered by emotional or psychological factors and can be treated through therapy or counseling.

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  • 12. 

    The commonest symptom in the presentation of abruptio placenta is?

    • Vaginal Bleeding

    • Abdominal pain

    • Hypogastric tenderness

    • Irregular uterine contractions

    • Abdominal mass

    Correct Answer
    A. Vaginal Bleeding
    Explanation
    The commonest symptom in the presentation of abruptio placenta is vaginal bleeding. This is because abruptio placenta refers to the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, leading to bleeding. Vaginal bleeding is a significant sign of this condition and can range from mild to severe, depending on the extent of placental separation. Other symptoms such as abdominal pain, hypogastric tenderness, irregular uterine contractions, and abdominal mass may also be present but are not as common or specific to abruptio placenta.

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  • 13. 

    Patient presented with constipation , to confirm has hypothyrodism ?

    • TSH

    • T4

    • Free T4

    • T3

    Correct Answer
    A. TSH
    Explanation
    TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is the most appropriate test to confirm hypothyroidism in a patient presenting with constipation. TSH is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce T4 (thyroxine). In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive and does not produce enough T4, leading to symptoms such as constipation. Therefore, measuring TSH levels can help determine if the patient has hypothyroidism, as elevated TSH levels indicate an underactive thyroid. T4, free T4, and T3 levels may also be measured to further evaluate thyroid function, but TSH is the primary test for confirming hypothyroidism.

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  • 14. 

    The first to be managed in multi-injured patient is:

    • Respiratory problems

    • Shock

    • Intracranial hematoma

    • Open fracture of long bones

    • Crushed contaminated wounds

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory problems
    Explanation
    The first priority in managing a multi-injured patient is to address respiratory problems. This is because any compromise to the patient's breathing can quickly lead to a life-threatening situation. By ensuring a clear airway, providing oxygen, and addressing any respiratory distress or obstruction, healthcare providers can stabilize the patient and prevent further complications.

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  • 15. 

     2 years old baby was brought to the clinic because of inability to walk straight. On examination, there was asymmetry of skin creases in the groin. The Trendelenburg’s sign was positive on the left side. Your diagnosis : 

    • Congenital hip dislocation

    • Fracture femur on the left side

    • Poliomyelitis

    • Rickets

    • Fracture pelvis

    Correct Answer
    A. Congenital hip dislocation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is congenital hip dislocation. This is indicated by the asymmetry of skin creases in the groin and the positive Trendelenburg's sign on the left side. Congenital hip dislocation refers to the abnormal development of the hip joint, leading to the femoral head being partially or completely displaced from the acetabulum. This condition can cause difficulty in walking straight and is commonly seen in infants and young children.

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  • 16. 

    Patient with muscle weakness, decreased reflexes. There is also history of diarrhea. What could be the cause?

    • Hypokalemia

    • Hyponatremia

    • Hyperkalemia

    • Hypercalcemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypokalemia
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of muscle weakness and decreased reflexes, along with a history of diarrhea, suggest a possible electrolyte imbalance. Hypokalemia, which is a low level of potassium in the blood, can cause muscle weakness and decreased reflexes. Additionally, diarrhea can lead to potassium loss, further supporting the possibility of hypokalemia as the cause of the symptoms.

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  • 17. 

    Primi at 35 weeks of gestation with pre-eclampsia, BP is high with ankle edema, what is the best to be done ?

    • Maternal-fetal monitoring with continuous hospitalization.

    • Immediate delivery.

    • Labetolol

    • Low salt diet.

    • Diuretic

    Correct Answer
    A. Maternal-fetal monitoring with continuous hospitalization.
    Explanation
    Maternal-fetal monitoring with continuous hospitalization is the best course of action in this scenario. Pre-eclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and can be dangerous for both the mother and the baby. Monitoring the mother and the fetus in a hospital setting allows for close observation of blood pressure, fetal well-being, and any signs of worsening pre-eclampsia. This approach ensures that any necessary interventions can be promptly initiated to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and the baby. Immediate delivery may be considered in severe cases, but in this case, it is not the best option as the question does not mention severe pre-eclampsia. Labetolol, low salt diet, and diuretics may be used as adjunctive measures, but they do not address the need for continuous monitoring and hospitalization.

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  • 18. 

    Regarding Perinatal mortality which of the following is true ?

    • Include all stillbirth and first wk of neonatal deaths

    • Include all neonatal deaths in the first 8 wk of life

    • Include al stillbirth after the 20th week of pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Include all stillbirth and first wk of neonatal deaths
    Explanation
    Perinatal mortality refers to the number of stillbirths and neonatal deaths that occur during the first week of life. This includes all stillbirths, which are fetal deaths that occur after the 20th week of pregnancy, as well as neonatal deaths that occur within the first week after birth. It does not include neonatal deaths that occur after the first week of life or stillbirths that occur before the 20th week of pregnancy.

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  • 19. 

    Most common cause of otorrhea: 

    • Acute otitis media

    • Cholesteatoma

    • Leakage of cerumen

    • Eustachian tube dysfunction

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute otitis media
    Explanation
    Acute otitis media is the most common cause of otorrhea. Otorrhea refers to the discharge of fluid or pus from the ear. Acute otitis media is an infection of the middle ear, usually caused by bacteria, that leads to the accumulation of fluid behind the eardrum. This fluid can then leak out of the ear, resulting in otorrhea. Cholesteatoma, which is a growth in the middle ear, can also cause otorrhea, but it is less common than acute otitis media. Leakage of cerumen (earwax) and Eustachian tube dysfunction are not typically associated with otorrhea.

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  • 20. 

    What is the treatment of leprosy according to WHO organization ? 

    • Dapsone

    • Colchicines

    • Rifampicine

    Correct Answer
    A. Dapsone
    Explanation
    Dapsone is a medication commonly used in the treatment of leprosy according to the World Health Organization (WHO). It is an antibiotic that helps to kill the bacteria that causes leprosy. Dapsone is often used in combination with other drugs to effectively treat and manage leprosy. It is an important component of multi-drug therapy (MDT), which is the recommended treatment regimen for leprosy by the WHO.

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  • 21. 

    Patient diagnosed and treated from H.pylori .The doctor should screen him for what?

    • Gastric cancer

    • Gastric bleeding

    • Gastric atrophy

    • Gastritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastric cancer
    Explanation
    After a patient has been diagnosed and treated for H. pylori, it is important for the doctor to screen him for gastric cancer. H. pylori infection is a known risk factor for gastric cancer, and although the infection has been treated, there is still a possibility of developing cancer in the future. Therefore, regular screening is necessary to detect any early signs of gastric cancer and initiate appropriate treatment. Gastric bleeding, gastric atrophy, and gastritis may also be potential complications of H. pylori infection, but the most important concern is the possibility of gastric cancer.

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  • 22. 

    50 y female with brest cancer and CA125 elevated the elevation due to?

    • Associated with ovarian cancer

    • Breast cancer

    • Due to old age

    • Normal variation

    Correct Answer
    A. Associated with ovarian cancer
    Explanation
    The elevated CA125 in a 50-year-old female with breast cancer suggests an association with ovarian cancer. CA125 is a tumor marker commonly used to detect ovarian cancer, and its elevation in this patient may indicate the presence of ovarian cancer in addition to breast cancer. It is important to further investigate and consider the possibility of ovarian involvement in this case.

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  • 23. 

    The length of trachea in adult is: 

    • 11-12 cm

    • 24 cm

    • 20 cm

    • 4 cm

    Correct Answer
    A. 11-12 cm
    Explanation
    The length of the trachea in an adult is typically around 11-12 cm.

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  • 24. 

    60 years admitted to the hospital as end stage COPD, what will you expect in lab. Work :

    • Erythrocytosis

    • Low ferritin level

    • Hyponatremia

    • Hypokalemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythrocytosis
    Explanation
    In end stage COPD, the body compensates for the low oxygen levels by producing more red blood cells, leading to erythrocytosis. This is because the body tries to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Low ferritin levels may also be expected as a result of chronic inflammation and poor nutrition in COPD patients. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are not typically associated with end stage COPD.

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  • 25. 

    45 years male alcoholic presents after a large hematemesis. He has some spider naevi on his chest, BP=100/76mmHg, pulse=110 bpm. He has a swollen abdomen with shifting dullness. what is the diagnose ?

    • Esophageal varices

    • Esophagitis

    • Peptic ulceration

    • Mallory-weiss tear

    • Gastric cancer

    • Esophageal cancer

    Correct Answer
    A. Esophageal varices
    Explanation
    The patient's presentation of large hematemesis, spider naevi on the chest, low blood pressure, rapid pulse, and a swollen abdomen with shifting dullness is consistent with the diagnosis of esophageal varices. Esophageal varices are dilated veins in the lower part of the esophagus that occur due to liver cirrhosis, which is commonly caused by chronic alcohol abuse. These varices can rupture and cause life-threatening bleeding, resulting in hematemesis. The other options, such as esophagitis, peptic ulceration, Mallory-Weiss tear, gastric cancer, and esophageal cancer, do not fully explain the patient's presentation.

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  • 26. 

    One of the Anti-psychotics causes ECG changes , Leukopenia, drooling : 

    • Clozapine

    • Respiredone

    • Amisulpride

    Correct Answer
    A. Clozapine
    Explanation
    Clozapine is the correct answer because it is known to cause ECG changes, leukopenia, and drooling. ECG changes refer to alterations in the electrical activity of the heart, which can be detected through an electrocardiogram. Leukopenia is a decrease in the number of white blood cells, which can lead to a weakened immune system. Drooling is excessive saliva production, which can be a side effect of clozapine. Therefore, Clozapine is the most likely anti-psychotic to cause these specific symptoms.

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  • 27. 

    Evidence base medicine: 

    • Practice according to available scientific evidence

    • Practice according to the department policy

    • Practice medicine as in the book

    • Practice according to latest publish data

    • Practice according to facility

    Correct Answer
    A. Practice according to available scientific evidence
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Practice according to available scientific evidence." Evidence-based medicine refers to the practice of making medical decisions based on the best available scientific evidence. This means that healthcare professionals should rely on research studies, clinical trials, and other forms of scientific evidence to guide their treatment decisions. By doing so, they can ensure that their practices are based on proven effectiveness and are more likely to yield positive outcomes for patients.

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  • 28. 

    A drug abuser is at risk of which of the following ?

    • Hepatitis C

    • Hepatitis A

    • Hepatitis B

    • Hepatitis D

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis C
    Explanation
    Drug abusers are at risk of contracting Hepatitis C. Hepatitis C is a viral infection that affects the liver and is commonly transmitted through the sharing of needles or other drug paraphernalia. This puts drug abusers at a higher risk of exposure to the virus. Hepatitis C can cause chronic liver disease, liver cirrhosis, and even liver cancer if left untreated. It is important for drug abusers to be aware of this risk and take necessary precautions to prevent the transmission of Hepatitis C.

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  • 29. 

    Patient who had history of previous infective endocarditis, and now came with dental caries for dental procedure, what is the appropriate prophylaxis:

    • Amoxycillin 2gm one hour before procedure

    • Amoxycillin 1gm one hour before procedure

    • Clindamycin 2gm one hour before procedure

    • Clindamycin 1gm one hour before procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. Amoxycillin 2gm one hour before procedure
    Explanation
    Patients with a history of previous infective endocarditis are at an increased risk of developing further infections, including from dental procedures. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended to prevent bacterial endocarditis in these patients. The appropriate prophylaxis in this case is amoxycillin 2gm one hour before the dental procedure. This higher dose of amoxycillin is recommended for patients with a higher risk of developing infective endocarditis, such as those with a history of the condition.

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  • 30. 

    Prospective study of 10,000. From the start of the study 2000 were already diabetic, additional 1000 thousand had diabetes by the end of the study. What is the incidence of diabetes?

    • 12.5 %

    • 5 %

    • 25 %

    • 50 %

    • 75 %

    Correct Answer
    A. 12.5 %
    Explanation
    The incidence of diabetes can be calculated by dividing the number of new cases (1000) by the total number of people in the study (10,000) and multiplying by 100. Therefore, the incidence of diabetes is 10,000/1000 * 100 = 10%.

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  • 31. 

    An 18 years old male who was involved in an RTA had fracture of the base of the skull. O/E he had loss ofsensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue & deviation of the angle of the mouth. Which of the followingnerves is affected?

    • VII (Facial)

    • IV (Abducens)

    • V (Trigeminal)

    • III (Occulomotor)

    • I (Olfactory)

    Correct Answer
    A. VII (Facial)
    Explanation
    The facial nerve (VII) is responsible for innervating the muscles of facial expression, including those involved in tongue movement and controlling the angle of the mouth. In this case, the patient's loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and deviation of the angle of the mouth indicate damage to the facial nerve. The other nerves listed do not control these specific functions and are therefore not likely to be affected in this scenario.

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  • 32. 

    What is the initial management for a middle age patient newly diagnosed knee osteoarthritis.

    • Reduce weight

    • Strengthening of quadriceps muscle.

    • Intra-articular corticosteroid

    • Exercise

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce weight
    Explanation
    The initial management for a middle-aged patient newly diagnosed with knee osteoarthritis is to reduce weight. This is because excess weight puts additional stress on the knee joints, leading to increased pain and further deterioration of the joint. By reducing weight, the load on the knee joints is decreased, which can help alleviate symptoms and slow down the progression of the disease. Additionally, weight loss can also improve overall joint function and mobility.

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  • 33. 

    Patient came with symptoms of anxiety including palpitation, agitation, and worry. The first best line for treatment is: 

    • SSRI

    • TCA

    • B-blocker

    • MAOI

    Correct Answer
    A. SSRI
    Explanation
    SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor) is the first best line for treatment in patients presenting with symptoms of anxiety, including palpitation, agitation, and worry. SSRI medications work by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which helps to regulate mood and reduce anxiety symptoms. They are considered safe and effective for treating anxiety disorders and are often the first choice due to their favorable side effect profile. TCA (Tricyclic Antidepressant), B-blocker (Beta-blocker), and MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor) are not typically the first-line treatment options for anxiety.

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  • 34. 

    Best sentence to describe specificity of screening test ,is the population of people who : 

    • Are negative of disease, and test is negative

    • Are positive of disease, and test is negative

    • Are positive comparing to total other people

    • Negative disease , positive test

    • Positive disease , negative test

    Correct Answer
    A. Are negative of disease, and test is negative
    Explanation
    The best sentence to describe the specificity of a screening test is when the population of people who are negative for the disease and the test results are also negative. This means that the test accurately identifies individuals who do not have the disease and correctly gives negative results for them.

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  • 35. 

    Patient K/C of DM and obesity and he planed to reduce his weight what the best method?

    • Decrease by 500 kcal/kg per week

    • Decrease calori and increase fat

    • Decrease calori intake in day time

    • Decrease 800 per day

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease by 500 kcal/kg per week
    Explanation
    One of the best methods for a patient with diabetes and obesity to reduce weight is by decreasing their calorie intake by 500 kcal per kilogram of body weight per week. This approach allows for a gradual and sustainable weight loss, which is important for individuals with these health conditions. It is crucial to create a calorie deficit while ensuring a balanced diet that includes all necessary nutrients. This method promotes healthy weight loss and can have a positive impact on the patient's overall health.

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  • 36. 

    Cause of Polyhydramnios?

    • Duodenal atresia

    • Post mortem pregnancy

    • Mother with diabetes insipidus

    • Renal agenesis

    Correct Answer
    A. Duodenal atresia
    Explanation
    Duodenal atresia is a congenital condition where there is a blockage or narrowing of the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine. This blockage can lead to an accumulation of amniotic fluid in the womb, causing polyhydramnios. Polyhydramnios is a condition characterized by an excessive amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. Therefore, duodenal atresia can be a cause of polyhydramnios.

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  • 37. 

     All of the fallowing are criteria of subarachnoid hemorrhage EXCEPT:

    • Paraplegia

    • Confusion

    • Nuchal Rigidity

    • Due to berry aneurysm rupture

    • Acute severe headache

    Correct Answer
    A. Paraplegia
    Explanation
    Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a condition characterized by bleeding in the space between the brain and the thin tissues that cover it. Symptoms of subarachnoid hemorrhage include confusion, nuchal rigidity (stiff neck), acute severe headache, and it is commonly caused by the rupture of a berry aneurysm. Paraplegia, which refers to the paralysis of the lower half of the body, is not typically associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage. Therefore, the correct answer is paraplegia.

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  • 38. 

     An easy way to demonstrate rib fracture is by:

    • Oblique chest x-ray

    • Tomogram of chest

    • AP chest x-ray

    • PA chest x-ray

    Correct Answer
    A. Oblique chest x-ray
    Explanation
    An oblique chest x-ray is an easy way to demonstrate rib fractures because it allows for a better visualization of the ribs compared to other imaging techniques. The oblique view provides a different perspective of the ribs, making it easier to identify any fractures or abnormalities. This view can help pinpoint the exact location and extent of the rib fracture, aiding in accurate diagnosis and treatment planning.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following antidepressant is not given in erectile dysfunction? 

    • Sertraline

    • Amytriptaline

    • Butriptyline

    Correct Answer
    A. Sertraline
    Explanation
    Sertraline is not given in erectile dysfunction because it is an SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) antidepressant, commonly used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. While it may have some impact on sexual function, it is not specifically indicated for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. Other medications like sildenafil (Viagra) or tadalafil (Cialis) are commonly prescribed for erectile dysfunction.

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  • 40. 

    Which subtype of bipolar disorder type 2 best responsive to lithium

    • Classic mania

    • Dysphoric

    • Mixed

    • Rapid cycling

    Correct Answer
    A. Classic mania
    Explanation
    Classic mania is the subtype of bipolar disorder type 2 that is best responsive to lithium. Lithium is a mood stabilizer commonly used to treat bipolar disorder, and it has been found to be particularly effective in managing classic mania symptoms. Classic mania is characterized by elevated mood, increased energy, and impulsivity. Lithium helps to stabilize mood and reduce the intensity of manic episodes, making it an appropriate treatment option for individuals with this subtype of bipolar disorder type 2.

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  • 41. 

    3 days old baby his mother is HBV positive what is your action?

    • Immunoglobulin and three doses of HBV vaccine

    • Immunoglobulin

    • Immunoglobulin and one dose of vaccination

    Correct Answer
    A. Immunoglobulin and three doses of HBV vaccine
    Explanation
    Given that the mother is HBV positive, there is a risk that the baby may have been exposed to the virus during childbirth. To prevent transmission of the virus to the baby, the recommended action is to administer immunoglobulin and three doses of HBV vaccine. This combination helps to provide immediate protection against the virus and also boosts the baby's immune response to prevent future infections.

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  • 42. 

    Old man with a non tender cervical mass, what is the best diagnostic procedure?

    • Fine needle aspiration

    • CT scan

    • Ultrasound

    • TSH level

    Correct Answer
    A. Fine needle aspiration
    Explanation
    Fine needle aspiration is the best diagnostic procedure for an old man with a non-tender cervical mass. This procedure involves using a thin needle to extract cells from the mass for examination under a microscope. It is a minimally invasive and relatively safe procedure that can provide valuable information about the nature of the mass, such as whether it is cancerous or benign. CT scan and ultrasound can also provide helpful imaging information, but they may not be as effective in obtaining a definitive diagnosis. TSH level, on the other hand, is a blood test used to assess thyroid function and would not be relevant in this case.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following antipsychotic associated with weight gain: 

    • Olanzipine

    • Ziprasidone

    • Quitapine

    • Respiridone

    Correct Answer
    A. Olanzipine
    Explanation
    Olanzapine is the correct answer because it is known to be associated with weight gain. This antipsychotic medication can cause an increase in appetite and a decrease in metabolism, leading to weight gain in patients who take it. It is important to monitor weight and manage any potential weight gain when prescribing olanzapine to minimize the risk of associated health complications.

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  • 44. 

    Old female with pubic itching with bloody discharge, then she developed pea shaped swelling in herlabia, most likely:

    • Bartholin gland carcinoma

    • Bartholin cyst

    • Bartholin abscess

    Correct Answer
    A. Bartholin gland carcinoma
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, such as pubic itching with bloody discharge and the development of a pea-shaped swelling in the labia, the most likely diagnosis is Bartholin gland carcinoma. Bartholin gland carcinoma is a rare form of cancer that affects the Bartholin glands, which are located on either side of the vaginal opening. The symptoms mentioned are indicative of a malignant growth in the Bartholin gland. Bartholin cyst and abscess are more common benign conditions that typically present with different symptoms.

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  • 45. 

    Regarding postpartum Psychosis:

    • Recurrences are common in subsequent pregnancies

    • It often progresses to frank schizophrenia

    • It has good prognosis

    • It has insidious onset

    • It usually develops around the 3rd week postpartum

    Correct Answer
    A. Recurrences are common in subsequent pregnancies
    Explanation
    Recurrences are common in subsequent pregnancies because postpartum psychosis is often triggered by hormonal changes during pregnancy and childbirth. These hormonal fluctuations can disrupt brain chemistry and increase the risk of developing psychosis. Therefore, women who have previously experienced postpartum psychosis are more likely to experience it again in future pregnancies. This recurrence pattern highlights the importance of early detection and intervention to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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  • 46. 

    During the third trimester of pregnancy , all of the following changes occur normally except

 

    • Decrease in WBC

    • Reduced gastric emptying rate

    • Diminished residual lung volume


    • Diminished pelvic ligament tension

    • Decrease paco2


    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease in WBC
    Explanation
    During the third trimester of pregnancy, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body. One of these changes is an increase in the white blood cell count (WBC) as the body prepares to protect both the mother and the developing fetus from infections. Therefore, a decrease in WBC count would not be considered a normal change during this trimester.

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  • 47. 

     In lumbar disc prolapse at L4-L5 the patient will have: 

    • Weakness of dorsiflextion of foot

    • Absent ankle reflex

    • Fasciculation at calf muscle

    • Pain at groin & front of thigh


    • Hypoesthesia around the knee

    Correct Answer
    A. Weakness of dorsiflextion of foot
    Explanation
    In lumbar disc prolapse at L4-L5, the patient may experience weakness of dorsiflexion of the foot. This is because the L4-L5 disc prolapse can compress the L5 nerve root, which innervates the muscles responsible for dorsiflexion. This compression can lead to a decrease in the strength of dorsiflexion, making it difficult for the patient to lift the front part of their foot.

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  • 48. 

    Athletic female with 3 month history of amenorrhea  O/E otherwise healthy , Workup of FSH , LH , Prolactine , were all normal what is most likely diagnosis?

    • Hypothalamic amenorrhea

    • Ovarian or adrenal failure

    • Genetic syndrome

    • Pituitary adenoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypothalamic amenorrhea
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis in this case is hypothalamic amenorrhea. This is supported by the fact that the patient is athletic and has a 3-month history of amenorrhea, which suggests a disruption in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. The normal levels of FSH, LH, and prolactin indicate that there is no ovarian or adrenal failure, genetic syndrome, or pituitary adenoma causing the amenorrhea. Hypothalamic amenorrhea is commonly seen in athletes due to the stress and energy imbalance associated with intense physical activity.

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  • 49. 

    Young patient with peptic ulcer , wich one of the following doesnt cause it ?

    • TCA

    • Sepsis

    • Delayed gastric emptying

    • Pyloric sphincter stricture

    Correct Answer
    A. TCA
    Explanation
    Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) do not cause peptic ulcers. Peptic ulcers are commonly caused by factors such as infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria, prolonged use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), excessive alcohol consumption, and smoking. TCAs are a class of medications primarily used to treat depression, anxiety, and other mental health conditions. They do not directly irritate the stomach lining or contribute to the development of peptic ulcers.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 12, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Khwarazm
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