SLE Assessment Exam 2

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1. Most alarming symptoms in pregnancy is? 

Explanation

Vaginal bleeding is considered the most alarming symptom in pregnancy because it can indicate a potential problem such as a miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, or placenta previa. It is important for pregnant women to seek immediate medical attention if they experience any vaginal bleeding to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the baby.

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About This Quiz
SLE Assessment Exam 2 - Quiz

SLE Assessment Exam 2 tests knowledge on clinical diagnostics, including conditions like Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, fetal congenital heart disease, and management of acute medical cases. It evaluates understanding of... see morediagnostic techniques and treatment options relevant for medical professionals. see less

2. A child of 7 years came with SOB, cough, he had history of different previous allergies,
on examination he had wheezy chest, what is the most appropriate initial management:

Explanation

The most appropriate initial management for a child of 7 years with wheezy chest, SOB, and cough, who has a history of different previous allergies, would be nebulized albuterol. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that helps to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow in the lungs. It is commonly used as a first-line treatment for acute asthma exacerbations. In this case, the child's symptoms suggest bronchospasm, and nebulized albuterol would provide immediate relief by opening up the airways and relieving the wheezing.

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3. Patient came to you asking about why should we take influenza vaccine annually what do you tell him?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Changings in virus structure". The reason why influenza vaccine should be taken annually is because the virus undergoes frequent changes in its structure. This means that the strains of the virus that circulate each year may be different from the previous year. By getting vaccinated annually, individuals can protect themselves against the specific strains of the virus that are expected to be prevalent in a given flu season.

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4. Most difficult method to prevented in transmission: 

Explanation

Air flow is the most difficult method to prevent in transmission because it is challenging to control and mitigate the movement of air. Airborne transmission occurs when infectious particles are carried by air currents over long distances, making it difficult to contain and prevent the spread of diseases. Unlike other methods such as vector transmission (through insects or animals), droplet transmission (through respiratory droplets), or person-to-person transmission (direct contact), air flow can be unpredictable and can easily spread infectious particles in indoor or outdoor environments. Effective measures like proper ventilation, air filtration, and wearing masks are essential to minimize the risk of airborne transmission.

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5. For health education programs to be successful all are true except : 

Explanation

The given answer states that "Doctors are only the health educators" is not true. This implies that health education programs should not solely rely on doctors as the only source of information and knowledge. Instead, other individuals or professionals from various fields can also play a role in educating the community about health. This approach allows for a more comprehensive and diverse range of perspectives and expertise to be shared, enhancing the effectiveness of the health education program.

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6. A known case of treated Hodgkin lymphoma with radiotherapy not on regular follow up presented with gradual painless difficulty in swallowing and breathing on examination there is facial swelling and redness,what is the diagnosis?

Explanation

The correct answer is SVC obstruction. SVC obstruction occurs when there is a blockage or compression of the superior vena cava, a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the heart. In this case, the patient's history of treated Hodgkin lymphoma and the symptoms of gradual painless difficulty in swallowing and breathing, along with facial swelling and redness, are indicative of SVC obstruction. This can occur as a late complication of radiotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma, causing compression or narrowing of the SVC.

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7.  Heavy smoker came to you asking about other cancer, not Lung cancer, that smoking increase its risk:  

Explanation

Smoking increases the risk of bladder cancer. Research has shown a clear link between smoking and bladder cancer, with smokers being at a higher risk compared to non-smokers. The chemicals in tobacco smoke are absorbed into the bloodstream and excreted in the urine, which can damage the bladder lining over time and increase the likelihood of developing cancer. Therefore, it is important to inform the heavy smoker that smoking also increases the risk of bladder cancer, in addition to other types of cancer.

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8. 60 years female, c/o back pain, bone density=2.5, what will you do ?

Explanation

The correct answer is calcium+ Vitamin D + phosphorus. This is because the patient is a 60-year-old female complaining of back pain and has a bone density of 2.5. This bone density indicates osteoporosis, a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue. Calcium, Vitamin D, and phosphorus are essential nutrients for maintaining bone health and can help prevent further bone loss and fractures. Exercise advice is also important for strengthening the bones and muscles. NSAIDs may provide temporary relief for the pain, but they do not address the underlying issue of osteoporosis.

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9. Middle aged patient with ataxia, multiple skin pigmentation and decrease hearing, one of the family
members has the same condition?

Explanation

The symptoms described in the question, including ataxia (loss of coordination), multiple skin pigmentation, and decreased hearing, are indicative of neurofibromatosis. Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes tumors to form on nerve tissue, leading to various symptoms including those mentioned. The fact that one family member also has the same condition further supports the diagnosis of neurofibromatosis, as it is an inherited disorder. Hemochromatosis, measles, malignant melanoma, and spider angioma do not typically present with the combination of symptoms described in the question.

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10. Which of the following associated with fetal congenital heart disease

Explanation

Rubella is associated with fetal congenital heart disease. Rubella, also known as German measles, is caused by a viral infection. If a pregnant woman contracts rubella during the first trimester, it can lead to various birth defects, including congenital heart disease in the fetus. This occurs because the rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing heart of the baby. Therefore, rubella is a known risk factor for fetal congenital heart disease.

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11. Patient wake up with inability to speak .He went to a doctor and he still couldnt speak. He can cough whe he is asked to do  then he gave you a picture of his larnyx by laryngoscope . Which grossly looks normal .

Explanation

The patient's inability to speak despite normal appearance of the larynx suggests functional aphonia. Functional aphonia is a psychological disorder where there is a loss of voice without any structural or physical abnormalities. It is often triggered by emotional or psychological factors and can be treated through therapy or counseling.

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12. The commonest symptom in the presentation of abruptio placenta is?

Explanation

The commonest symptom in the presentation of abruptio placenta is vaginal bleeding. This is because abruptio placenta refers to the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, leading to bleeding. Vaginal bleeding is a significant sign of this condition and can range from mild to severe, depending on the extent of placental separation. Other symptoms such as abdominal pain, hypogastric tenderness, irregular uterine contractions, and abdominal mass may also be present but are not as common or specific to abruptio placenta.

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13. Patient presented with constipation , to confirm has hypothyrodism ?

Explanation

TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is the most appropriate test to confirm hypothyroidism in a patient presenting with constipation. TSH is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce T4 (thyroxine). In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive and does not produce enough T4, leading to symptoms such as constipation. Therefore, measuring TSH levels can help determine if the patient has hypothyroidism, as elevated TSH levels indicate an underactive thyroid. T4, free T4, and T3 levels may also be measured to further evaluate thyroid function, but TSH is the primary test for confirming hypothyroidism.

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14. The first to be managed in multi-injured patient is:

Explanation

The first priority in managing a multi-injured patient is to address respiratory problems. This is because any compromise to the patient's breathing can quickly lead to a life-threatening situation. By ensuring a clear airway, providing oxygen, and addressing any respiratory distress or obstruction, healthcare providers can stabilize the patient and prevent further complications.

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15.  2 years old baby was brought to the clinic because of inability to walk straight. On examination, there was asymmetry of skin creases in the groin. The Trendelenburg's sign was positive on the left side. Your diagnosis : 

Explanation

The correct answer is congenital hip dislocation. This is indicated by the asymmetry of skin creases in the groin and the positive Trendelenburg's sign on the left side. Congenital hip dislocation refers to the abnormal development of the hip joint, leading to the femoral head being partially or completely displaced from the acetabulum. This condition can cause difficulty in walking straight and is commonly seen in infants and young children.

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16. Most common cause of otorrhea: 

Explanation

Acute otitis media is the most common cause of otorrhea. Otorrhea refers to the discharge of fluid or pus from the ear. Acute otitis media is an infection of the middle ear, usually caused by bacteria, that leads to the accumulation of fluid behind the eardrum. This fluid can then leak out of the ear, resulting in otorrhea. Cholesteatoma, which is a growth in the middle ear, can also cause otorrhea, but it is less common than acute otitis media. Leakage of cerumen (earwax) and Eustachian tube dysfunction are not typically associated with otorrhea.

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17. Patient with muscle weakness, decreased reflexes. There is also history of diarrhea. What could be the cause?

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of muscle weakness and decreased reflexes, along with a history of diarrhea, suggest a possible electrolyte imbalance. Hypokalemia, which is a low level of potassium in the blood, can cause muscle weakness and decreased reflexes. Additionally, diarrhea can lead to potassium loss, further supporting the possibility of hypokalemia as the cause of the symptoms.

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18. Primi at 35 weeks of gestation with pre-eclampsia, BP is high with ankle edema, what is the best to be done ?

Explanation

Maternal-fetal monitoring with continuous hospitalization is the best course of action in this scenario. Pre-eclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and can be dangerous for both the mother and the baby. Monitoring the mother and the fetus in a hospital setting allows for close observation of blood pressure, fetal well-being, and any signs of worsening pre-eclampsia. This approach ensures that any necessary interventions can be promptly initiated to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and the baby. Immediate delivery may be considered in severe cases, but in this case, it is not the best option as the question does not mention severe pre-eclampsia. Labetolol, low salt diet, and diuretics may be used as adjunctive measures, but they do not address the need for continuous monitoring and hospitalization.

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19. Regarding Perinatal mortality which of the following is true ?

Explanation

Perinatal mortality refers to the number of stillbirths and neonatal deaths that occur during the first week of life. This includes all stillbirths, which are fetal deaths that occur after the 20th week of pregnancy, as well as neonatal deaths that occur within the first week after birth. It does not include neonatal deaths that occur after the first week of life or stillbirths that occur before the 20th week of pregnancy.

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20. What is the treatment of leprosy according to WHO organization ? 

Explanation

Dapsone is a medication commonly used in the treatment of leprosy according to the World Health Organization (WHO). It is an antibiotic that helps to kill the bacteria that causes leprosy. Dapsone is often used in combination with other drugs to effectively treat and manage leprosy. It is an important component of multi-drug therapy (MDT), which is the recommended treatment regimen for leprosy by the WHO.

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21. Patient diagnosed and treated from H.pylori .The doctor should screen him for what?

Explanation

After a patient has been diagnosed and treated for H. pylori, it is important for the doctor to screen him for gastric cancer. H. pylori infection is a known risk factor for gastric cancer, and although the infection has been treated, there is still a possibility of developing cancer in the future. Therefore, regular screening is necessary to detect any early signs of gastric cancer and initiate appropriate treatment. Gastric bleeding, gastric atrophy, and gastritis may also be potential complications of H. pylori infection, but the most important concern is the possibility of gastric cancer.

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22. 50 y female with brest cancer and CA125 elevated the elevation due to?

Explanation

The elevated CA125 in a 50-year-old female with breast cancer suggests an association with ovarian cancer. CA125 is a tumor marker commonly used to detect ovarian cancer, and its elevation in this patient may indicate the presence of ovarian cancer in addition to breast cancer. It is important to further investigate and consider the possibility of ovarian involvement in this case.

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23. The length of trachea in adult is: 

Explanation

The length of the trachea in an adult is typically around 11-12 cm.

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24. Evidence base medicine: 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Practice according to available scientific evidence." Evidence-based medicine refers to the practice of making medical decisions based on the best available scientific evidence. This means that healthcare professionals should rely on research studies, clinical trials, and other forms of scientific evidence to guide their treatment decisions. By doing so, they can ensure that their practices are based on proven effectiveness and are more likely to yield positive outcomes for patients.

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25. 45 years male alcoholic presents after a large hematemesis. He has some spider naevi on his chest, BP=100/76mmHg, pulse=110 bpm. He has a swollen abdomen with shifting dullness. what is the diagnose ?

Explanation

The patient's presentation of large hematemesis, spider naevi on the chest, low blood pressure, rapid pulse, and a swollen abdomen with shifting dullness is consistent with the diagnosis of esophageal varices. Esophageal varices are dilated veins in the lower part of the esophagus that occur due to liver cirrhosis, which is commonly caused by chronic alcohol abuse. These varices can rupture and cause life-threatening bleeding, resulting in hematemesis. The other options, such as esophagitis, peptic ulceration, Mallory-Weiss tear, gastric cancer, and esophageal cancer, do not fully explain the patient's presentation.

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26. 60 years admitted to the hospital as end stage COPD, what will you expect in lab. Work :

Explanation

In end stage COPD, the body compensates for the low oxygen levels by producing more red blood cells, leading to erythrocytosis. This is because the body tries to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Low ferritin levels may also be expected as a result of chronic inflammation and poor nutrition in COPD patients. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are not typically associated with end stage COPD.

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27. One of the Anti-psychotics causes ECG changes , Leukopenia, drooling : 

Explanation

Clozapine is the correct answer because it is known to cause ECG changes, leukopenia, and drooling. ECG changes refer to alterations in the electrical activity of the heart, which can be detected through an electrocardiogram. Leukopenia is a decrease in the number of white blood cells, which can lead to a weakened immune system. Drooling is excessive saliva production, which can be a side effect of clozapine. Therefore, Clozapine is the most likely anti-psychotic to cause these specific symptoms.

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28. A drug abuser is at risk of which of the following ?

Explanation

Drug abusers are at risk of contracting Hepatitis C. Hepatitis C is a viral infection that affects the liver and is commonly transmitted through the sharing of needles or other drug paraphernalia. This puts drug abusers at a higher risk of exposure to the virus. Hepatitis C can cause chronic liver disease, liver cirrhosis, and even liver cancer if left untreated. It is important for drug abusers to be aware of this risk and take necessary precautions to prevent the transmission of Hepatitis C.

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29. Patient who had history of previous infective endocarditis, and now came with dental caries for dental procedure, what is the appropriate prophylaxis:

Explanation

Patients with a history of previous infective endocarditis are at an increased risk of developing further infections, including from dental procedures. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended to prevent bacterial endocarditis in these patients. The appropriate prophylaxis in this case is amoxycillin 2gm one hour before the dental procedure. This higher dose of amoxycillin is recommended for patients with a higher risk of developing infective endocarditis, such as those with a history of the condition.

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30. Prospective study of 10,000. From the start of the study 2000 were already diabetic, additional 1000 thousand had diabetes by the end of the study. What is the incidence of diabetes?

Explanation

The incidence of diabetes can be calculated by dividing the number of new cases (1000) by the total number of people in the study (10,000) and multiplying by 100. Therefore, the incidence of diabetes is 10,000/1000 * 100 = 10%.

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31. An 18 years old male who was involved in an RTA had fracture of the base of the skull. O/E he had loss of
sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue & deviation of the angle of the mouth. Which of the following
nerves is affected?

Explanation

The facial nerve (VII) is responsible for innervating the muscles of facial expression, including those involved in tongue movement and controlling the angle of the mouth. In this case, the patient's loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and deviation of the angle of the mouth indicate damage to the facial nerve. The other nerves listed do not control these specific functions and are therefore not likely to be affected in this scenario.

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32. Patient came with symptoms of anxiety including palpitation, agitation, and worry. The first best line for treatment is: 

Explanation

SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor) is the first best line for treatment in patients presenting with symptoms of anxiety, including palpitation, agitation, and worry. SSRI medications work by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which helps to regulate mood and reduce anxiety symptoms. They are considered safe and effective for treating anxiety disorders and are often the first choice due to their favorable side effect profile. TCA (Tricyclic Antidepressant), B-blocker (Beta-blocker), and MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor) are not typically the first-line treatment options for anxiety.

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33. Best sentence to describe specificity of screening test ,is the population of people who : 

Explanation

The best sentence to describe the specificity of a screening test is when the population of people who are negative for the disease and the test results are also negative. This means that the test accurately identifies individuals who do not have the disease and correctly gives negative results for them.

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34. What is the initial management for a middle age patient newly diagnosed knee osteoarthritis.

Explanation

The initial management for a middle-aged patient newly diagnosed with knee osteoarthritis is to reduce weight. This is because excess weight puts additional stress on the knee joints, leading to increased pain and further deterioration of the joint. By reducing weight, the load on the knee joints is decreased, which can help alleviate symptoms and slow down the progression of the disease. Additionally, weight loss can also improve overall joint function and mobility.

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35. Cause of Polyhydramnios?

Explanation

Duodenal atresia is a congenital condition where there is a blockage or narrowing of the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine. This blockage can lead to an accumulation of amniotic fluid in the womb, causing polyhydramnios. Polyhydramnios is a condition characterized by an excessive amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. Therefore, duodenal atresia can be a cause of polyhydramnios.

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36. Patient K/C of DM and obesity and he planed to reduce his weight what the best method?

Explanation

One of the best methods for a patient with diabetes and obesity to reduce weight is by decreasing their calorie intake by 500 kcal per kilogram of body weight per week. This approach allows for a gradual and sustainable weight loss, which is important for individuals with these health conditions. It is crucial to create a calorie deficit while ensuring a balanced diet that includes all necessary nutrients. This method promotes healthy weight loss and can have a positive impact on the patient's overall health.

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37.  All of the fallowing are criteria of subarachnoid hemorrhage EXCEPT:

Explanation

Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a condition characterized by bleeding in the space between the brain and the thin tissues that cover it. Symptoms of subarachnoid hemorrhage include confusion, nuchal rigidity (stiff neck), acute severe headache, and it is commonly caused by the rupture of a berry aneurysm. Paraplegia, which refers to the paralysis of the lower half of the body, is not typically associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage. Therefore, the correct answer is paraplegia.

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38.  An easy way to demonstrate rib fracture is by:

Explanation

An oblique chest x-ray is an easy way to demonstrate rib fractures because it allows for a better visualization of the ribs compared to other imaging techniques. The oblique view provides a different perspective of the ribs, making it easier to identify any fractures or abnormalities. This view can help pinpoint the exact location and extent of the rib fracture, aiding in accurate diagnosis and treatment planning.

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39. Which of the following antidepressant is not given in erectile dysfunction? 

Explanation

Sertraline is not given in erectile dysfunction because it is an SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) antidepressant, commonly used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. While it may have some impact on sexual function, it is not specifically indicated for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. Other medications like sildenafil (Viagra) or tadalafil (Cialis) are commonly prescribed for erectile dysfunction.

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40. Which of the following antipsychotic associated with weight gain: 

Explanation

Olanzapine is the correct answer because it is known to be associated with weight gain. This antipsychotic medication can cause an increase in appetite and a decrease in metabolism, leading to weight gain in patients who take it. It is important to monitor weight and manage any potential weight gain when prescribing olanzapine to minimize the risk of associated health complications.

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41. Which subtype of bipolar disorder type 2 best responsive to lithium

Explanation

Classic mania is the subtype of bipolar disorder type 2 that is best responsive to lithium. Lithium is a mood stabilizer commonly used to treat bipolar disorder, and it has been found to be particularly effective in managing classic mania symptoms. Classic mania is characterized by elevated mood, increased energy, and impulsivity. Lithium helps to stabilize mood and reduce the intensity of manic episodes, making it an appropriate treatment option for individuals with this subtype of bipolar disorder type 2.

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42. 3 days old baby his mother is HBV positive what is your action?

Explanation

Given that the mother is HBV positive, there is a risk that the baby may have been exposed to the virus during childbirth. To prevent transmission of the virus to the baby, the recommended action is to administer immunoglobulin and three doses of HBV vaccine. This combination helps to provide immediate protection against the virus and also boosts the baby's immune response to prevent future infections.

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43. Old man with a non tender cervical mass, what is the best diagnostic procedure?

Explanation

Fine needle aspiration is the best diagnostic procedure for an old man with a non-tender cervical mass. This procedure involves using a thin needle to extract cells from the mass for examination under a microscope. It is a minimally invasive and relatively safe procedure that can provide valuable information about the nature of the mass, such as whether it is cancerous or benign. CT scan and ultrasound can also provide helpful imaging information, but they may not be as effective in obtaining a definitive diagnosis. TSH level, on the other hand, is a blood test used to assess thyroid function and would not be relevant in this case.

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44. Old female with pubic itching with bloody discharge, then she developed pea shaped swelling in her
labia, most likely:

Explanation

Based on the symptoms described, such as pubic itching with bloody discharge and the development of a pea-shaped swelling in the labia, the most likely diagnosis is Bartholin gland carcinoma. Bartholin gland carcinoma is a rare form of cancer that affects the Bartholin glands, which are located on either side of the vaginal opening. The symptoms mentioned are indicative of a malignant growth in the Bartholin gland. Bartholin cyst and abscess are more common benign conditions that typically present with different symptoms.

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45. Regarding postpartum Psychosis:

Explanation

Recurrences are common in subsequent pregnancies because postpartum psychosis is often triggered by hormonal changes during pregnancy and childbirth. These hormonal fluctuations can disrupt brain chemistry and increase the risk of developing psychosis. Therefore, women who have previously experienced postpartum psychosis are more likely to experience it again in future pregnancies. This recurrence pattern highlights the importance of early detection and intervention to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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46. During the third trimester of pregnancy , all of the following changes occur normally except

 

Explanation

During the third trimester of pregnancy, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body. One of these changes is an increase in the white blood cell count (WBC) as the body prepares to protect both the mother and the developing fetus from infections. Therefore, a decrease in WBC count would not be considered a normal change during this trimester.

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47.  In lumbar disc prolapse at L4-L5 the patient will have: 

Explanation

In lumbar disc prolapse at L4-L5, the patient may experience weakness of dorsiflexion of the foot. This is because the L4-L5 disc prolapse can compress the L5 nerve root, which innervates the muscles responsible for dorsiflexion. This compression can lead to a decrease in the strength of dorsiflexion, making it difficult for the patient to lift the front part of their foot.

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48. You are reading a population study that states that 90% of lung cancer patient are smokers while 30% of lung cancer patient are non-smokers. What is the specificity of using smoking as a predictor of lung cancer? 

Explanation

The specificity of using smoking as a predictor of lung cancer is 70%. This means that 70% of the non-smokers in the population are correctly identified as not having lung cancer.

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49. Athletic female with 3 month history of amenorrhea  O/E otherwise healthy , Workup of FSH , LH , Prolactine , were all normal what is most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis in this case is hypothalamic amenorrhea. This is supported by the fact that the patient is athletic and has a 3-month history of amenorrhea, which suggests a disruption in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. The normal levels of FSH, LH, and prolactin indicate that there is no ovarian or adrenal failure, genetic syndrome, or pituitary adenoma causing the amenorrhea. Hypothalamic amenorrhea is commonly seen in athletes due to the stress and energy imbalance associated with intense physical activity.

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50. Epidemiological study for smoker said there is 10,000 person in the area , at start of the study there is 2000 smoker, at the end of the study there is 1000 smoker, the incidence of this study is : 

Explanation

The incidence of this study is calculated by dividing the number of new cases (in this case, the decrease in the number of smokers) by the total population at risk (in this case, the total number of individuals in the study area). In this study, the number of new cases is 2000 - 1000 = 1000. The total population at risk is 10,000. Therefore, the incidence is (1000/10,000) * 100 = 10%.

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51. Young patient with peptic ulcer , wich one of the following doesnt cause it ?

Explanation

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) do not cause peptic ulcers. Peptic ulcers are commonly caused by factors such as infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria, prolonged use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), excessive alcohol consumption, and smoking. TCAs are a class of medications primarily used to treat depression, anxiety, and other mental health conditions. They do not directly irritate the stomach lining or contribute to the development of peptic ulcers.

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52. Child , 22kg he is dehydrated what is the rate of fluid given to this child per hour?

Explanation

The rate of fluid given to the child per hour is 65ml. This is determined based on the child's weight (22kg) and the fact that he is dehydrated. The appropriate fluid replacement for a dehydrated child is typically calculated as 100ml/kg/day. Therefore, for a 22kg child, the fluid requirement would be 2200ml/day. To find the rate per hour, we divide this by 24, resulting in 91.67ml/hour. However, it is important to start rehydration slowly, so the rate is typically reduced to 65ml/hour initially.

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53. 23 years old female consulted her physician because of breast mass, the mass is mobile, firm and 
approximately 1 cm in diameter. It is located in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. No axillary 
lymph nodes are present. What is the treatment of choice for this condition?

Explanation

Watchful waiting is the appropriate treatment choice in this case because the patient is young, the mass is small and mobile, and there are no axillary lymph nodes present. These characteristics suggest a low likelihood of malignancy. Watchful waiting involves closely monitoring the mass over time to assess for any changes or growth. If there are no significant changes, further intervention may not be necessary. This approach avoids unnecessary invasive procedures and potential complications associated with surgery.

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54. Regarding breast malignancy which of the following is Bilateral ?

Explanation

Lobular carcinoma is a type of breast malignancy that can occur in both breasts simultaneously, making it bilateral. This type of cancer starts in the milk-producing glands of the breast and can spread to other parts of the body. Ductal ectasia, Paget's disease, and infiltrating ductal carcinoma are all types of breast malignancies that typically affect only one breast and are therefore not bilateral.

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55. Old female with recurrent fracture, Vitamin D insufficiency and smoker. Which exogenous factor has the greatest exogenous side effect on osteoporosis? 
 

Explanation

Smoking has the greatest exogenous side effect on osteoporosis because it decreases the production of estrogen, which is important for maintaining bone density. Smoking also increases inflammation and oxidative stress, both of which can contribute to bone loss. Additionally, smoking impairs the absorption of calcium, an essential mineral for bone health. Therefore, smoking can accelerate bone loss and increase the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis.

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56. Female who does a lot of training and had amenorrhea for 5 months, this can increased her risk of:

Explanation

Due to the prolonged absence of menstruation (amenorrhea) in a female who does a lot of training, her risk of infertility is increased. Amenorrhea can be caused by excessive exercise, which can disrupt the hormonal balance necessary for ovulation and fertility. This disruption can make it difficult for the woman to conceive.

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57. what is the best management for a patient chronic pain ?

Explanation

Acetaminophen is often considered the best management for a patient with chronic pain. It is a commonly used over-the-counter pain reliever that can effectively reduce pain and fever. It is generally safe and well-tolerated when used as directed, making it a suitable option for long-term pain management. Acetaminophen is particularly recommended for individuals who cannot take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen or opioids like morphine due to contraindications or side effects. Naloxone, on the other hand, is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose, and morphine is a potent opioid analgesic typically reserved for severe pain. Therefore, acetaminophen is the best choice among the given options for managing chronic pain.

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58. Patient develop neurological deficit  O/E congested neck veins and tachycardia , he
used to take a polish white rice as a meal what is the diagnosis ?

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of neurological deficit, congested neck veins, and tachycardia suggest a diagnosis of wet beriberi. Wet beriberi is a condition caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, which can occur due to a diet lacking in essential nutrients like polish white rice. Thiamine is important for the proper functioning of the nervous system and cardiovascular system. Symptoms of wet beriberi include cardiovascular abnormalities such as high heart rate and congested neck veins, as well as neurological symptoms like muscle weakness and sensory disturbances.

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59. Patient developed chest pain and sweating for 4 hours and was pulseless, there was an ECG attached, what is the diagnosis:

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of chest pain, sweating, and being pulseless for 4 hours, along with the presence of an ECG, suggest a severe cardiac emergency. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, uncoordinated contractions of the ventricles. It can result in cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation to restore a normal heart rhythm. Atrial fibrillation, WPW (Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome), and Torsade de pointas are not typically associated with the same level of severity and immediate danger as ventricular fibrillation.

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60. 15 years old boy with dark urine, dark brown stool, positive occult test, what to do

Explanation

An isotope scan is the most appropriate next step in this case. The symptoms of dark urine and dark brown stool, along with a positive occult test, suggest the presence of blood in the gastrointestinal tract. An isotope scan, also known as a nuclear medicine scan, can help identify the source of bleeding by tracing the movement of a radioactive substance through the body. This test can provide valuable information about the location and severity of the bleeding, helping to guide further diagnostic and treatment decisions. X-ray, barium study, and abdominal ultrasound may not provide the same level of detail and specificity in this scenario.

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61. A man feels some aliens come around the building always what does this patient have ?

Explanation

The patient is experiencing a false perception of aliens being present around the building, which is not based on reality. This is a classic symptom of hallucination, where a person sees, hears, or feels things that are not actually there. Delusion refers to a fixed false belief, compulsion is an irresistible urge to perform certain actions, and obsession is an intrusive and persistent thought or idea. However, none of these options accurately describe the patient's experience of perceiving aliens.

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62. A 54 YO female with chronic pelvic pain is found to have a right sided ovarian mass. After the initial evaluation, surgery is planned to remove the mass. To avoid excessive bleeding during the surgery , the surgeon should ligate which of the following structures? 

Explanation

To avoid excessive bleeding during surgery to remove a right-sided ovarian mass in a 54-year-old female with chronic pelvic pain, the surgeon should ligate the suspensory ligament. The suspensory ligament, also known as the infundibulopelvic ligament, contains the ovarian vessels which supply blood to the ovary. By ligating this ligament, the surgeon can prevent excessive bleeding during the procedure. The other structures listed, such as the mesosalpinx, round ligament, and transverse cervical ligament, are not directly involved in supplying blood to the ovary and therefore would not be the appropriate choice to ligate in this situation.

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63. Infant born with hemangioma on the right eyelid what is appropriate time to operate to prevent amylopia: 

Explanation

Operating on an infant born with a hemangioma on the right eyelid within the first week is the appropriate time to prevent amblyopia. Amblyopia, also known as lazy eye, occurs when the brain favors one eye over the other, leading to reduced vision in the weaker eye. Hemangiomas are abnormal growths of blood vessels, and if left untreated near the eye, they can cause visual obstruction and lead to amblyopia. By operating within the first week, the hemangioma can be removed or reduced in size, allowing for normal visual development and preventing amblyopia.

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64. 19 years sexually active lady came for her annual check-up, she is otherwise healthy using no contraceptive, her pap smear and all investigations are normal. What will you suggest regarding her next check-up? 

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the 19-year-old sexually active lady is otherwise healthy and has normal pap smear and investigations. Therefore, it is reasonable to suggest that her next check-up can be scheduled after 3 years. This is because annual check-ups may not be necessary for individuals with no significant health issues and normal test results. However, it is important to note that this recommendation may vary based on individual factors and medical guidelines.

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65. What is the Drug that is contraindication In hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?

Explanation

Digoxin is contraindicated in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. This is because digoxin increases the force of contraction of the heart muscle, which can worsen the obstruction of blood flow in the heart. Therefore, it is not recommended to use digoxin in patients with this condition as it can potentially worsen their symptoms and lead to complications.

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66. 10 years child with eczema on 1% hydrocortisone what other medication u can add 

Explanation

Tacrolimus is a suitable medication to add for a 10-year-old child with eczema who is already using 1% hydrocortisone. Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant that helps to reduce inflammation and itching associated with eczema. It is often used as a second-line treatment when topical corticosteroids like hydrocortisone are not effective or cannot be used. Tacrolimus is applied topically and is generally well-tolerated, making it a good option for children. Cyclosporine and dexamethasone are not commonly used for eczema treatment in children.

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67. Best drug for moderate to sever anxiety

Explanation

Alprazolam is the best drug for moderate to severe anxiety because it is a benzodiazepine that works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA in the brain, which helps to reduce anxiety and promote relaxation. It has a rapid onset of action and is effective in managing symptoms of anxiety disorders. Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant, Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, and Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, none of which are specifically indicated or considered first-line treatments for anxiety disorders.

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68. 12 year old female , non pruritic annular eruption in the right foot for 8 months , looks pale and not scaling , no response to 6 weeks of miconazole 

Explanation

Granuloma annulare is a chronic skin condition characterized by the formation of small, raised bumps in a ring-like or annular pattern. It is more common in children and young adults. The eruption is usually non-pruritic, meaning it does not cause itching. In this case, the 12-year-old female has a non-pruritic annular eruption on her right foot for 8 months, which is consistent with granuloma annulare. The lack of response to miconazole, an antifungal medication, suggests that the condition is not caused by a fungal infection such as tinea corporis.

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69. 40 years Woman with cyclic bilateral modularity in her breast since 6 month,on examination there is3 cm tender mobile mass in her breast : what you will do next 

Explanation

FNA with cytology is the appropriate next step in this case because the patient has a tender mobile mass in her breast, which raises concern for a possible breast tumor. FNA (fine needle aspiration) with cytology involves using a thin needle to extract cells from the mass and examining them under a microscope. This procedure can help determine if the mass is benign or malignant, providing valuable information for further management. Mammogram and biopsy may be considered later depending on the FNA results. Follow-up for the next cycle is not appropriate as further evaluation is needed.

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70. All of the following drugs advised to be given to elderly patient, EXCEPT: 

Explanation

Chlorpropamide is not advised to be given to elderly patients due to its long half-life, which can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Digoxin is a medication used for heart conditions, thyroxin is a hormone replacement therapy for hypothyroidism, and cimetidine is a medication used to reduce stomach acid. These drugs may be prescribed to elderly patients depending on their specific medical conditions.

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71. Young healthy male has abdominal pain after basketball. Examination fine except for Left paraumbilical
tenderness, what to do?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the young healthy male has abdominal pain after playing basketball. The examination is fine except for left paraumbilical tenderness. In this scenario, the best course of action would be to send the patient home and reassess within 48 hours. This approach allows for observation and monitoring of the symptoms to see if they improve or worsen over time. It is a conservative approach that avoids unnecessary tests or interventions unless the symptoms worsen or new symptoms develop.

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72. The best first line drug ttt for osteoarthritis pain is:

Explanation

Paracetamol is considered the best first-line drug treatment for osteoarthritis pain because it is a safe and effective option with minimal side effects. It is a non-opioid analgesic that helps to relieve pain and reduce inflammation. Paracetamol is easily accessible over-the-counter and is generally well-tolerated by most individuals. It is a suitable choice for managing mild to moderate osteoarthritis pain and is often recommended as an initial treatment before considering other options such as NSAIDs or opioids.

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73. 2 workers recently exposed to radiation after a blast in a nuclear power plant,but they looks normal ,no signs of specific findings after examination whats the management ?

Explanation

The correct answer is to discard their clothes. After being exposed to radiation, it is important to remove any contaminated clothing to prevent further exposure and spread of radiation. This is a crucial step in managing the situation and ensuring the safety of the workers and others around them.

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74. 56 years old present with vasomotor rhinitis 

Explanation

Local decongestion is the correct answer because vasomotor rhinitis is a condition characterized by nasal congestion due to the dilation of blood vessels in the nasal passages. Local decongestion helps to reduce this congestion by constricting the blood vessels, thereby relieving the symptoms. Local antihistamine and local steroid may be used in other types of rhinitis, but they may not be as effective in vasomotor rhinitis. Systemic antibiotics are not indicated in vasomotor rhinitis as it is not caused by a bacterial infection.

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75. Pregnant lady presented with bleeding from gums. On exam, spleen in palpable 4 cm below the costal margin her platelets count  50,000 what is the diagnosis ?

Explanation

The correct answer is HELLP. HELLP syndrome is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy. It is characterized by Hemolysis (breakdown of red blood cells), Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. In this case, the pregnant lady presented with bleeding from gums, which could be due to low platelet count. The palpable spleen and platelet count of 50,000 further support the diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.

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76. A 31-year-old female with a history of epilepsy consults you following an uneventful pregnancy. Which one of the following drugs would it be safe to continue during breast feeding?

Explanation

All of the above drugs would be safe to continue during breastfeeding. This is because they have been found to have minimal levels in breast milk and have not been associated with significant adverse effects in breastfed infants. It is important to note that the benefits of breastfeeding should be weighed against the potential risks of medication exposure, and the decision should be made in consultation with the patient's healthcare provider.

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77. The most common site of origin of the tumor associated with the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is:

Explanation

The most common site of origin of the tumor associated with the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is the pancreas. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a rare condition characterized by the presence of gastrin-secreting tumors called gastrinomas. These tumors are most commonly found in the pancreas, although they can also occur in other parts of the digestive system such as the duodenum. The excessive production of gastrin by these tumors leads to increased acid production in the stomach, causing symptoms such as peptic ulcers, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Therefore, the pancreas is the correct answer as it is the primary site of origin for these tumors.

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78.  A patient have tender, redness nodule on lacrimal duct site. Before referred him to ophthalmologist what you will do 

Explanation

In this case, the correct answer is to prescribe oral antibiotics. The patient's symptoms of a tender, red nodule on the lacrimal duct site suggest an infection. Prescribing oral antibiotics would be the appropriate initial step to treat the infection before referring the patient to an ophthalmologist for further evaluation and management. Topical antibiotics may not be sufficient to treat the infection, and topical steroids would not be appropriate as they may worsen the infection. Doing nothing would not address the patient's symptoms and could potentially lead to complications.

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79.  Child with positive skin test of TB and previously it was –ve, what is the treatment of this child? 

Explanation

The correct answer is INH alone. If a child has a positive skin test for tuberculosis (TB) and previously tested negative, it indicates a recent infection. In this case, the recommended treatment is Isoniazid (INH) alone. INH is a first-line medication used to treat TB and is effective in preventing the development of active TB disease in individuals with latent TB infection. The use of other medications such as Rifampicin, Streptomycin, or a full regimen for TB would not be necessary in this scenario.

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80. Old diabetic patient with mild early cataract and retinal pigmentation with Drusen formation, you prescribed anti oxidant, what to do next? 

Explanation

The correct answer is routine ophthalmology referral. In an old diabetic patient with mild early cataract and retinal pigmentation with Drusen formation, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for further evaluation and management. This is because cataracts and retinal pigmentation can affect vision and may require specialized treatment or surgery. A routine referral allows the ophthalmologist to assess the patient's condition and determine the appropriate course of action.

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81. Most common cause of failure to thrive is ?

Explanation

Intolerance to failure to proteins and carbohydrates can be a common cause of failure to thrive. This condition refers to the inability of the body to properly digest and absorb proteins and carbohydrates, leading to inadequate nutrition and poor growth. It can result from various factors such as enzyme deficiencies or gastrointestinal disorders. If a person is unable to break down and utilize these essential nutrients, it can lead to weight loss, developmental delays, and overall failure to thrive.

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82. Acne about 1cm with pus ,what is the stage?

Explanation

The given description of "Acne about 1cm with pus" indicates that there is inflammation present in the acne. Inflammatory acne is characterized by redness, swelling, and the presence of pus. This stage of acne occurs when the hair follicles become clogged with excess oil, dead skin cells, and bacteria, leading to an inflammatory response. Therefore, the correct stage in this case would be "Inflammatory."

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83. Contraindication to use in Migraine :

Explanation

Bupropion is contraindicated for use in migraine because it can lower the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures, which is already elevated in patients with migraine. Migraine is a neurological condition characterized by recurrent headaches, and individuals with this condition are already prone to seizures. Therefore, using bupropion in migraine patients can potentially exacerbate their condition and lead to serious complications. It is important to avoid bupropion in these patients and consider alternative treatment options.

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84. 2 week baby born with hypotonia, areflexia, fasiculations of the tounge and
respiratory distress, he was born full term , pregnancy with this baby was normal not
eventful , nerve conduction studies were done and were normal, he has Pneumonitis
on x-rays , the diagnosis is :

Explanation

The correct answer is Hypothyroidism. This is because the baby is presenting with hypotonia, areflexia, fasciculations of the tongue, and respiratory distress, which are all characteristic features of hypothyroidism in newborns. The normal nerve conduction studies indicate that there is no nerve damage or dysfunction, ruling out conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome and myasthenia gravis. Cerebral palsy is also unlikely as the baby was born full term with a normal pregnancy. The presence of pneumonitis on x-rays may be a secondary finding in hypothyroidism.

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85. Patient present with gross haematuria what best investigation

Explanation

Cystoscopy is the best investigation for a patient presenting with gross hematuria. This procedure involves inserting a thin tube with a camera into the bladder to examine the urinary tract for any abnormalities or sources of bleeding. It allows direct visualization of the bladder and urethra, making it a valuable diagnostic tool in identifying the cause of hematuria. Renal biopsy is not necessary in this scenario as the focus is on the lower urinary tract. Urine culture may be useful to detect any urinary tract infections, but it does not provide direct visualization. Ultrasound (U/S) can be helpful in assessing the kidneys and urinary system, but cystoscopy provides more accurate information in this case.

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86. The physiologic hypervolemia of pregnancy has clinical significance in the management of severely injured , gravid women by: 

Explanation

During pregnancy, there is a natural increase in blood volume in order to support the growing fetus. This increased blood volume can have clinical significance in the management of severely injured, gravid women. One of the effects of this hypervolemia is that it increases the volume of blood loss required to produce maternal hypotension. This means that a larger amount of blood loss would be needed to cause a drop in blood pressure, which can be important in determining the severity of the injury and the appropriate management.

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87. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Anorexia Nervosa :

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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88. An employer sent his worker to the ED after having hit his head on a machine. O/E: normal.
What is the single most likely investigation you would do?

Explanation

The most likely investigation that the employer would do in this case is a Skull XR (skull x-ray). This is because the worker hit his head on a machine, and a skull x-ray is a commonly used diagnostic test to assess for fractures or other abnormalities in the skull. The fact that the worker's examination (O/E) was normal suggests that there may not be any immediate concerns, but a skull x-ray would still be warranted to rule out any potential injuries.

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89. What is special about placenta abruption ? 

Explanation

Placenta abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery. This can cause fetal distress because the baby may not receive enough oxygen and nutrients from the placenta. Fetal distress refers to any signs or symptoms that indicate the baby is in distress, such as changes in heart rate, decreased movement, or abnormal positioning. Therefore, fetal distress is special or significant in cases of placenta abruption as it indicates potential harm to the baby's well-being.

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90. Patient G3 P3 all her deliveries were normal except after the second one she did D&C , Labs all normal except: high FSH, high LH, low estrogen, what s the diagnosis?

Explanation

The patient's history of normal deliveries and the presence of high FSH, high LH, and low estrogen levels suggest a diagnosis of Asherman syndrome. Asherman syndrome is characterized by the formation of scar tissue in the uterus, usually as a result of previous D&C procedures. This can lead to menstrual abnormalities, infertility, and hormonal imbalances. The high FSH and LH levels indicate ovarian dysfunction, which is commonly associated with Asherman syndrome. Turner syndrome is unlikely as it is a genetic condition that causes various physical and developmental abnormalities. Sheehan syndrome is also unlikely as it is characterized by postpartum pituitary gland necrosis, which would not explain the hormonal imbalances seen in this patient. Ovarian failure could be a possibility, but the specific history of D&C and normal deliveries points more towards Asherman syndrome.

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91. Patient came for eye examination , he didn't complain Of anything and there is no history of medical illness , what is the frequency of eye examination?

Explanation

The frequency of eye examination for a patient who does not complain of anything and has no history of medical illness is typically recommended to be every 1-2 years. Regular eye examinations are important for maintaining good eye health and detecting any potential issues early on.

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92. A 65-year-old man with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents with sudden painless loss of vision in his right eye. On examination of the right eye the optic disc is swollen with multiple flame-shaped and blot haemorrhages. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis in this case is occlusion of the central retinal vein. This is supported by the sudden painless loss of vision, swollen optic disc, and presence of multiple flame-shaped and blot haemorrhages. Occlusion of the central retinal vein can lead to impaired blood flow and subsequent damage to the optic nerve, resulting in vision loss.

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93.  Which of the following found to reduce the risk of postherapeutic neuralgia?

Explanation

Acyclovir is a medication commonly used to treat viral infections, including herpes. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication that can occur after a herpes infection, causing chronic pain in the affected area. Acyclovir has been found to reduce the risk of developing postherpetic neuralgia by effectively treating the underlying viral infection. Corticosteroids, on the other hand, are not specifically targeted towards viral infections and may not have the same effect in preventing postherpetic neuralgia. Therefore, the correct answer is acyclovir only.

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94. Child fall and had spiral type radial fracture, what is the management? 

Explanation

Open reduction with internal fixation is the correct management for a child with a spiral type radial fracture. This involves surgically realigning the fractured bone fragments and using internal fixation devices such as plates, screws, or rods to stabilize the fracture. Splinting alone may not provide sufficient stability for proper healing of the fracture. Referring to pediatric or orthopedic specialists may be necessary for further evaluation and treatment, but the initial management would involve open reduction with internal fixation.

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95. Child with 2 * 2 cm hair loss at the temporal area , normal examination , microscopic examination of hairs around the area show clubbed and attenuated hairs , what is the likely diagnosis? 

Explanation

The likely diagnosis in this case is Telogen Effluvium. Telogen Effluvium is a condition characterized by temporary hair loss due to a disruption in the hair growth cycle. In this case, the presence of clubbed and attenuated hairs suggests that the hair loss is likely due to a disturbance in the normal hair growth process. Additionally, the normal examination of the child and the localized hair loss at the temporal area further support the diagnosis of Telogen Effluvium. Trichotillomania, alopecia areata, and tinea capitus are less likely diagnoses in this case.

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96. Baby in NICU has a heart rate of 300, good blood pressure level. What should u do:

Explanation

Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat certain heart conditions, including abnormal heart rhythms. In this case, the baby in the NICU has a heart rate of 300, which is considered abnormally high. Digoxin helps to slow down the heart rate and can be administered to the baby to bring it back to a normal range. It is a suitable choice in this situation to help regulate the baby's heart rate.

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97. What is the mechanism of action of the drug that is used in treatment of Anxiety ?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Decrease the availability of serotonin." This mechanism of action suggests that the drug used in the treatment of anxiety works by reducing the levels of serotonin, a neurotransmitter in the brain that is associated with mood regulation. By decreasing the availability of serotonin, the drug may help to alleviate symptoms of anxiety and promote a sense of calmness.

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98. Patient with recurrent vomiting for 2 days, Hematocrit 65 the doctor can report this
result caused by:

Explanation

Glucagon is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate blood sugar levels. It stimulates the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. In the given scenario, the patient has recurrent vomiting and a high hematocrit level of 65, which indicates dehydration. Glucagon can cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect, and in this case, it is likely that the elevated glucagon levels are causing the patient's symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is Glucagon.

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99. All are complications of long term use of phenytoin, EXCEPT: 

Explanation

Long-term use of phenytoin can lead to several complications, including osteoporosis, macrocytosis, and ataxia. However, osteomalacia is not a complication of long-term use of phenytoin. Osteomalacia refers to the softening of the bones due to a deficiency in vitamin D or calcium, which can result in weakened bones and increased risk of fractures. While phenytoin can affect bone health, it is more commonly associated with osteoporosis, which is the loss of bone density. Therefore, osteomalacia is the exception among the listed complications.

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100. What is the most powerful epidemiologic study? 

Explanation

Secondary data analysis is considered the most powerful epidemiologic study because it involves using existing data that has already been collected for other purposes. This allows researchers to analyze large datasets and explore associations between variables without the need for expensive and time-consuming data collection. Secondary data analysis can provide valuable insights into population health trends, disease patterns, and risk factors, making it a valuable tool in epidemiological research.

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Which of the following associated with fetal congenital heart disease
Patient wake up with inability to speak .He went to a doctor and he...
The commonest symptom in the presentation of abruptio placenta is?
Patient presented with constipation , to confirm has hypothyrodism ?
The first to be managed in multi-injured patient is:
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Most common cause of otorrhea: 
Patient with muscle weakness, decreased reflexes. There is also...
Primi at 35 weeks of gestation with pre-eclampsia, BP is high with...
Regarding Perinatal mortality which of the following is true...
What is the treatment of leprosy according to...
Patient diagnosed and treated from H.pylori .The doctor should...
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The length of trachea in adult is: 
Evidence base medicine: 
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One of the Anti-psychotics causes ECG changes , Leukopenia, drooling...
A drug abuser is at risk of which of the following ?
Patient who had history of previous infective endocarditis, and now...
Prospective study of 10,000. From the start of the study 2000 were...
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Patient came with symptoms of anxiety including palpitation,...
Best sentence to describe specificity of screening test ,is the...
What is the initial management for a middle age patient newly...
Cause of Polyhydramnios?
Patient K/C of DM and obesity and he planed to reduce his weight what...
 All of the fallowing are criteria of subarachnoid hemorrhage...
 An easy way to demonstrate rib fracture is by:
Which of the following antidepressant is not given in erectile...
Which of the following antipsychotic associated with weight...
Which subtype of bipolar disorder type 2 best responsive to lithium
3 days old baby his mother is HBV positive what is your action?
Old man with a non tender cervical mass, what is the best...
Old female with pubic itching with bloody discharge, then she...
Regarding postpartum Psychosis:
During the third trimester of pregnancy , all of the following changes...
 In lumbar disc prolapse at L4-L5 the patient will have: 
You are reading a population study that states that 90% of lung cancer...
Athletic female with 3 month history of amenorrhea  O/E...
Epidemiological study for smoker said there is 10,000 person in the...
Young patient with peptic ulcer , wich one of the following doesnt...
Child , 22kg he is dehydrated what is the rate of fluid given...
23 years old female consulted her physician because of breast mass,...
Regarding breast malignancy which of the following is...
Old female with recurrent fracture, Vitamin D insufficiency and...
Female who does a lot of training and had amenorrhea for 5 months,...
What is the best management for a patient chronic pain ?
Patient develop neurological deficit  O/E congested neck veins...
Patient developed chest pain and sweating for 4 hours and was...
15 years old boy with dark urine, dark brown stool, positive occult...
A man feels some aliens come around the building always what does this...
A 54 YO female with chronic pelvic pain is found to have a right sided...
Infant born with hemangioma on the right eyelid what is appropriate...
19 years sexually active lady came for her annual check-up, she is...
What is the Drug that is contraindication In hypertrophic obstructive...
10 years child with eczema on 1% hydrocortisone what other medication...
Best drug for moderate to sever anxiety
12 year old female , non pruritic annular eruption in the right foot...
40 years Woman with cyclic bilateral modularity in her...
All of the following drugs advised to be given to elderly patient,...
Young healthy male has abdominal pain after basketball. Examination...
The best first line drug ttt for osteoarthritis pain is:
2 workers recently exposed to radiation after a blast in a nuclear...
56 years old present with vasomotor rhinitis 
Pregnant lady presented with bleeding from gums. On exam, spleen in...
A 31-year-old female with a history of epilepsy consults you following...
The most common site of origin of the tumor associated with the...
 A patient have tender, redness nodule on lacrimal duct site....
 Child with positive skin test of TB and previously it was...
Old diabetic patient with mild early cataract and retinal pigmentation...
Most common cause of failure to thrive is ?
Acne about 1cm with pus ,what is the stage?
Contraindication to use in Migraine :
2 week baby born with hypotonia, areflexia, fasiculations of the...
Patient present with gross haematuria what best investigation
The physiologic hypervolemia of pregnancy has clinical significance in...
Which of the following is TRUE regarding Anorexia Nervosa :
An employer sent his worker to the ED after having hit his head on a...
What is special about placenta abruption ? 
Patient G3 P3 all her deliveries were normal except after the second...
Patient came for eye examination , he didn't complain Of anything...
A 65-year-old man with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma...
 Which of the following found to reduce the risk of...
Child fall and had spiral type radial fracture, what is the...
Child with 2 * 2 cm hair loss at the temporal area , normal...
Baby in NICU has a heart rate of 300, good blood pressure level. What...
What is the mechanism of action of the drug that is used in treatment...
Patient with recurrent vomiting for 2 days, Hematocrit 65 the doctor...
All are complications of long term use of phenytoin, EXCEPT: 
What is the most powerful epidemiologic study? 
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