Hidden EP Quiz No.11

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Hidden EP Quiz No.11 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Under RA 7160 Sec. 107, who should prepare the multi-sectoral development plan at the village level? 

    • A.

      Sangguniang Barangay

    • B.

      Lupong Tagapamayapa ng Pook

    • C.

      Federation of Village Neighborhood and Homeowners Associations

    • D.

      Barangay Development Council

    Correct Answer
    D. Barangay Development Council
    Explanation
    Reference: RA 7160 Sec. 107b
    Barangay Development Council is composed of members of Sangguniang Barangay, Representative of Congressman, Representative or NGOs operating in the Barangay not less than 1/4 of the members of the Council.

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  • 2. 

    This principle encourages shared responsibility between government and the private sector in infrastructure development and management through joint venture schemes such as BOT, BTO, BLT, BOO, and the like. 

    • A.

      GO-NGO Cooptation

    • B.

      Rapprochement

    • C.

      Detente

    • D.

      Public-Private Partnership

    • E.

      State & Non-State Collaboration

    Correct Answer
    D. Public-Private Partnership
    Explanation
    This principle refers to the collaboration between the government and the private sector in infrastructure development and management. It involves joint venture schemes such as BOT (Build-Operate-Transfer), BTO (Build-Transfer-Operate), BLT (Build-Lease-Transfer), BOO (Build-Own-Operate), and similar models. This approach promotes shared responsibility and resources between the public and private sectors, allowing for efficient and effective infrastructure projects that benefit both parties and the general public.

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  • 3. 

    A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent undertakes the financing of construction of a given infrastructure or development facility and after its completion turns it over to the government agency or local government unit concerned, which shall pay the proponent on an agreed schedule its total investments expended on the project, plus a reasonable rate of return thereon. 

    • A.

      Build and transfer

    • B.

      Build, own and operate

    • C.

      Build, transfer and operate

    • D.

      Develop, operate and transfer

    Correct Answer
    A. Build and transfer
    Explanation
    Reference: RA7188 (BOT Law) Sec.2c

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  • 4. 

    A part of BOT, it is a contractual arrangement whereby the supplier of equipment and machinery for a given infrastructure facility, if the interest of the Government so requires, operates the facility providing in the process technology transfer and training to Filipino nationals .

    • A.

      Purchase and activate

    • B.

      Supply and operate

    • C.

      Canvass, Procure and Install

    • D.

      PBAC - prequalify, bid-out and award

    Correct Answer
    B. Supply and operate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Supply and operate." This is because the explanation provided in the passage states that in a BOT (Build-Operate-Transfer) arrangement, the supplier of equipment and machinery operates the facility. Therefore, the supplier both supplies the necessary equipment and machinery and operates the facility.

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  • 5. 

    As per RA 7718 BOT Law, a Build-Operate-Transfer undertaking at the local level with value between PhP 200M- 300M has to be approved by what government body? 

    • A.

      Local Development Council

    • B.

      Regional Development Council

    • C.

      Cabinet Committee or Cabinet Cluster

    • D.

      Investment Coordination Committee

    Correct Answer
    D. Investment Coordination Committee
    Explanation
    According to RA 7718 BOT Law, a Build-Operate-Transfer undertaking at the local level with a value between PhP 200M- 300M has to be approved by the Investment Coordination Committee.

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  • 6. 

    As in the case of the ZTE-National Broadband Network deal, when a joint venture or negotiated contract at the national level exceeds the value of PhP 300M, the approving government body is 

    • A.

      Cabinet of the President

    • B.

      Council of State

    • C.

      Investment Coordination Committee

    • D.

      NEDA Board

    Correct Answer
    D. NEDA Board
    Explanation
    When a joint venture or negotiated contract at the national level exceeds the value of PhP 300M, the approving government body is the NEDA Board. The NEDA Board, or the National Economic and Development Authority Board, is responsible for approving major projects and programs in the Philippines. It is chaired by the President and composed of various government officials. Therefore, in the case of the ZTE-National Broadband Network deal, the NEDA Board would be the correct approving government body.

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  • 7. 

    It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project or undertaking and then designing appropriate preventive, protective, mitigating, and enhancement measures. 

    • A.

      Environmental Risk Assessment

    • B.

      Environmental Impact Assessment

    • C.

      Environmental Accounting and Audit

    • D.

      Strategic Environmental Assessment

    Correct Answer
    B. Environmental Impact Assessment
    Explanation
    Environmental Impact Assessment is the correct answer because it involves predicting the potential environmental consequences of a project or undertaking and then designing measures to prevent, protect, mitigate, and enhance the environment. This process helps to identify and evaluate the potential impacts on the environment and provides recommendations for minimizing or avoiding any negative effects.

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  • 8. 

    Which environment assessment methodology addresses long-term frameworks, policies, and regulatory regimes more substantively than project impacts and activity outcomes? 

    • A.

      Environmental Risk Assessment

    • B.

      Environmental Impact Assessment

    • C.

      Environmental Accounting and Audit

    • D.

      Strategic Environmental Assessment

    Correct Answer
    D. Strategic Environmental Assessment
    Explanation
    Strategic Environmental Assessment (SEA) is the methodology that addresses long-term frameworks, policies, and regulatory regimes more substantively than project impacts and activity outcomes. SEA focuses on assessing the environmental implications of policies, plans, and programs, rather than individual projects. It evaluates the potential environmental effects of proposed policies or plans and provides recommendations for sustainable decision-making. SEA helps to integrate environmental considerations into the decision-making process at a strategic level, ensuring that long-term environmental goals and objectives are taken into account.

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  • 9. 

    The use of a set of scientific methods to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to toxic and hazardous materials, compounds, and substances is called 

    • A.

      Chemical Containment and Control

    • B.

      Toxic Prevention Protocol

    • C.

      Environmental Risk Assessment

    • D.

      Strategic Environmental Assessment

    Correct Answer
    C. Environmental Risk Assessment
    Explanation
    Environmental Risk Assessment is the correct answer because it involves the use of scientific methods to evaluate and quantify the potential adverse effects that can occur due to exposure to toxic and hazardous materials. This assessment helps in identifying and understanding the risks associated with these substances, allowing for the development of appropriate control measures and prevention strategies to minimize or eliminate these risks.

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  • 10. 

    What are the basic elements of an EIA study? 

    • A.

      Market Aspect, Technical Aspect, Social Aspect, Financial Aspect, Economic Aspect, and Institutional Aspect

    • B.

      Problem, Objectives, Review of Lit, Conceptual Framework, Methods, Analysis of Data, Conclusions, Recommendations

    • C.

      Location & Area, Characteristics of Project Undertaking, Magnitude of Impact, Spatial Extant. Duration, and Complexity

    • D.

      Baseline Data, Mid-stream Data, Operational Conditions, Control Interventions, Post Implementation

    Correct Answer
    C. Location & Area, Characteristics of Project Undertaking, Magnitude of Impact, Spatial Extant. Duration, and Complexity
    Explanation
    The basic elements of an EIA study include the location and area of the project, the characteristics of the project undertaking, the magnitude of the impact, the spatial extent, the duration, and the complexity. These elements are essential in assessing the environmental impact of a project and determining the potential consequences it may have on the surrounding environment. By considering these factors, the EIA study can provide valuable information for decision-makers to mitigate any negative impacts and ensure sustainable development.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is most useful in an EIA study? 

    • A.

      Performance standards

    • B.

      'LOS' or 'accommodation' standards

    • C.

      Design standards

    • D.

      Convenience standards

    Correct Answer
    A. Performance standards
    Explanation
    Performance standards are the most useful in an EIA study because they provide measurable criteria against which the environmental impacts of a proposed project can be assessed. These standards help in evaluating the project's performance in terms of environmental sustainability and compliance with regulatory requirements. By setting specific benchmarks, performance standards enable objective evaluation and comparison of different project alternatives, facilitating informed decision-making and ensuring that the project aligns with environmental goals and objectives.

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  • 12. 

    RA 8749 Clean Air Act, Sec. 20, generally bans burning which results in poisonous and and toxic fumes, but with a  few exceptions. What agency oversees cremation and incineration of pathological, biological, contagious wastes?

    • A.

      Bureau of Fire Protection

    • B.

      Department of Interior and Local Government

    • C.

      Philippine Hospitals Association

    • D.

      Department of Health

    Correct Answer
    D. Department of Health
    Explanation
    The Department of Health oversees the cremation and incineration of pathological, biological, and contagious wastes. This responsibility falls under their jurisdiction as they are responsible for ensuring the proper handling and disposal of hazardous medical waste to protect public health and the environment. The Bureau of Fire Protection, Department of Interior and Local Government, and Philippine Hospitals Association do not have the authority to oversee these specific activities.

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  • 13. 

    According to RA 9367 Renewable Energy Act of 2006, what are the 'additives' to gasoline that are harmful to both people and nature? 

    • A.

      Methyl tertiary butyl ether

    • B.

      Isooctane and heptane

    • C.

      Molybdenum oxide

    • D.

      tetraethyl

    Correct Answer
    A. Methyl tertiary butyl ether
    Explanation
    Methyl tertiary butyl ether (MTBE) is considered harmful to both people and nature according to the Renewable Energy Act of 2006 (RA 9367). MTBE is an additive used in gasoline to increase its octane rating and improve combustion efficiency. However, it has been found to contaminate groundwater and surface water sources, posing a risk to human health and the environment. MTBE is known to cause respiratory irritation, liver and kidney damage, and has been classified as a potential carcinogen. Its release into the environment can also lead to the depletion of oxygen in aquatic ecosystems, harming aquatic life.

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  • 14. 

    Which category of industries tend to be generally 'non-pollutive and non-hazardous'?

    • A.

      Transient and fleeting

    • B.

      Light

    • C.

      Cyber-spatial

    • D.

      Medium

    • E.

      Heavy

    Correct Answer
    B. Light
    Explanation
    Light industries tend to be generally 'non-pollutive and non-hazardous' compared to other categories of industries. This is because light industries typically involve the production of consumer goods, such as textiles, electronics, and food products, which do not require heavy machinery or involve harmful chemicals. These industries have lower energy consumption and produce less waste, resulting in less pollution and fewer hazards to the environment and public health.

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  • 15. 

    The following are generally non-pollutive and non-hazardous except one. 

    • A.

      Manufacture of bread, pastries, cakes, donuts, biscuits, hopia, and noodles

    • B.

      Assembly and repair of personal computers, home electronic devices, appliances, and appurtenances

    • C.

      Manufacture of paints, paint removers, solvents, lacquers, varnishes, shellac, coating materials

    • D.

      Manufacture of small leather goods such as handbags, luggage, wallets, belts, shoes, and sandals

    • E.

      Publishing and printing of school books, pamphlets, flyers, receipts, greeting cards, social communications

    Correct Answer
    C. Manufacture of paints, paint removers, solvents, lacquers, varnishes, shellac, coating materials
    Explanation
    The manufacture of paints, paint removers, solvents, lacquers, varnishes, shellac, and coating materials typically involves the use of chemicals that can be pollutive and hazardous to the environment. The other options listed involve the production of food items, electronic devices, leather goods, and printed materials, which are generally not considered to be pollutive or hazardous.

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  • 16. 

    All of these projects, except one, need not submit Project Description, or Environmental Impact Statement but need only to comply with registration and documentary requirements of city, town or barangay. 

    • A.

      Municipal waterworks system

    • B.

      Sari-sari or neighborhood variety store

    • C.

      Backyard fowl-raising of less than 10 heads

    • D.

      Private-practice office in home garage with 5 employees

    Correct Answer
    A. Municipal waterworks system
    Explanation
    All of the projects mentioned in the question, except for the municipal waterworks system, do not require the submission of a Project Description or Environmental Impact Statement. Instead, they only need to comply with the registration and documentary requirements set by the city, town, or barangay. This implies that the municipal waterworks system has different regulations and requirements compared to the other projects mentioned.

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  • 17. 

    These projects need not submit an Environmental Impact Statement but one has to submit a simple Project Description. 

    • A.

      An urban grocery store of around 2,500 sq.m. total area

    • B.

      Cluster of stalls selling goto, lugaw, arrozcaldo, and pares in historic lntramuros, Manila

    • C.

      Palay marketing warehouse of Samahang Nayon or rural farmers' cooperative

    • D.

      Home-based aquaculture using drums, metal tanks, and concrete ponds

    Correct Answer
    B. Cluster of stalls selling goto, lugaw, arrozcaldo, and pares in historic lntramuros, Manila
    Explanation
    as per PD2146, B. Environmental Critical Areas, No. 2 & 4.
    Keyword = "Historic"

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  • 18. 

    What are the proper sections of a Project Description for projects seeking Certificate of Non-Coverage? 

    • A.

      Proponent, Goals, Key Result Areas, Project Mechanics, Resources Needed, Loans to be contracted, Expected ROI

    • B.

      Rationale, Location & Area, Development Plan & Phases, Alternatives, Manpower Requirements, Cost, Duration & Schedule

    • C.

      Description of Land, Capital, Machines, Materials, Manpower, Management. and Marketing

    • D.

      Objectives, Scope, Methodology, Program of Work, Resource Requirements, Participating Entitites

    Correct Answer
    B. Rationale, Location & Area, Development Plan & Phases, Alternatives, Manpower Requirements, Cost, Duration & Schedule
    Explanation
    The proper sections of a Project Description for projects seeking Certificate of Non-Coverage include the rationale for the project, the location and area where the project will take place, the development plan and phases of the project, alternatives that were considered, the manpower requirements for the project, the cost of the project, and the duration and schedule for completing the project. These sections provide a comprehensive overview of the project and its key details, allowing stakeholders to assess its feasibility and potential impact.

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  • 19. 

    Except one, the following are considered environmentally-critical areas where all major projects are subject to IEE 

    • A.

      Tubattaha Reef

    • B.

      Chocolate Hills

    • C.

      Mount Banahaw

    • D.

      Tawi-tawi Seaweed Farms

    Correct Answer
    D. Tawi-tawi Seaweed Farms
    Explanation
    The Tawi-tawi Seaweed Farms is the exception among the given areas as it is not considered an environmentally-critical area where all major projects are subject to an Initial Environmental Examination (IEE). This implies that major projects in Tawi-tawi Seaweed Farms may not require an IEE and may have different environmental regulations or considerations compared to the other areas listed.

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  • 20. 

    Which of these projects should be subjected to Initial Environmental Examination (IEE) by DEN R's regional field units? 

    • A.

      30 sq.m. DOST field instruments station on the slopes of Mount Apo national park

    • B.

      5,000 sq.m. viewdeck for tourists and watchers of migratory birds in Candaba swamps, Pampanga

    • C.

      Six-classroom extension of an existing public elementary school

    • D.

      Beach house measuring 400 sq.m near world-famous Pagudpud, Ilocos Norte

    Correct Answer
    B. 5,000 sq.m. viewdeck for tourists and watchers of migratory birds in Candaba swamps, Pampanga
    Explanation
    The 5,000 sq.m. viewdeck for tourists and watchers of migratory birds in Candaba swamps, Pampanga should be subjected to Initial Environmental Examination (IEE) by DENR's regional field units. This is because the construction of a viewdeck in an ecologically sensitive area like the Candaba swamps may have potential environmental impacts. The IEE is a process that assesses the potential environmental impacts of a project and identifies measures to mitigate these impacts. Therefore, conducting an IEE for the viewdeck project would ensure that any potential negative effects on the environment are properly identified and addressed.

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  • 21. 

    The following are all examples of environmentally-critical projects (ECPs) except one: 

    • A.

      Laiban Dam, Kaliwa River, Tanay, Rizal

    • B.

      Ring Dike - Circumferential around Laguna de Bay

    • C.

      Petrol Refineries & Oil Depots in Batangas City

    • D.

      Perimeter work on centuries-old Plazu Miranda

    Correct Answer
    D. Perimeter work on centuries-old Plazu Miranda
  • 22. 

    Which of these projects should submit a full-blown Environmental Impact Statement? 

    • A.

      Tree planting on urban parks by 6,000 students

    • B.

      High-end residential subdivision of more than 10 hectares with additional area for golf course

    • C.

      Rain-fed farming of around 50 hectares

    • D.

      Hydroponic and aeroponic farming inside greenhouse tents and cages

    Correct Answer
    B. High-end residential subdivision of more than 10 hectares with additional area for golf course
    Explanation
    The high-end residential subdivision of more than 10 hectares with an additional area for a golf course should submit a full-blown Environmental Impact Statement because it involves significant land development and construction activities. This project has the potential to have a significant impact on the environment, including the destruction of natural habitats, alteration of waterways, and potential pollution from the construction and operation of the golf course. An Environmental Impact Statement would assess these potential impacts and propose mitigation measures to minimize any negative effects on the environment.

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  • 23. 

    Which project in a declared tribal land does not require a full-blown Environmental Impact Assessment?

    • A.

      Mining

    • B.

      Dam for reservoir & hydroelectric power

    • C.

      Sericulture & vermi-composting

    • D.

      National highway

    Correct Answer
    C. Sericulture & vermi-composting
    Explanation
    Sericulture and vermi-composting projects do not require a full-blown Environmental Impact Assessment in a declared tribal land. This is because sericulture involves the cultivation of silk-producing insects and vermi-composting involves using worms to decompose organic waste, both of which are considered environmentally friendly practices with minimal impact on the ecosystem. On the other hand, mining, dam construction for reservoir and hydroelectric power, and the construction of national highways can have significant environmental impacts, hence requiring a thorough assessment of their potential effects.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following conditions requires the most serious consideration in the EIA of a major Sanitary Landfill for any city or urban LGU? 

    • A.

      Around 20 kilometers from the city

    • B.

      Has an in-take capacity of 6 years only

    • C.

      About 100 meters from a river used for water supply

    • D.

      About 1000 meters from an active geologic fault line

    Correct Answer
    C. About 100 meters from a river used for water supply
    Explanation
    The condition that requires the most serious consideration in the EIA of a major Sanitary Landfill for any city or urban LGU is being about 100 meters from a river used for water supply. This is because the proximity to the water supply poses a significant risk of contamination. If any leakage or seepage occurs from the landfill, pollutants can easily enter the river and contaminate the water source, which can have severe consequences for public health and the environment. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully assess and mitigate this risk in the environmental impact assessment process.

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  • 25. 

    Which would not be a priority for EIA investigation of a proposed limestone quarrying-cement production complex? 

    • A.

      Environmental Justice, impacts on sensitive communities, critical habitats, heritage sites, and endangered species

    • B.

      Management of water quality, air quality, noise, traffic, common industrial wastes, and toxic/hazardous wastes

    • C.

      Consumption of electricity, water, and other utilities

    • D.

      Company policies on 'hiring and firing' and management training

    Correct Answer
    D. Company policies on 'hiring and firing' and management training
    Explanation
    The priority for an EIA investigation of a proposed limestone quarrying-cement production complex would be to assess the potential environmental impacts and risks associated with the project. This includes evaluating the impacts on sensitive communities, critical habitats, heritage sites, and endangered species. Additionally, the investigation would focus on the management of water quality, air quality, noise, traffic, common industrial wastes, and toxic/hazardous wastes. The consumption of electricity, water, and other utilities is also an important consideration. However, company policies on 'hiring and firing' and management training are not directly related to the environmental impacts of the project and would not be a priority for the EIA investigation.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is the best example of 'environmental remediation'? 

    • A.

      A species of trout becomes extinct in a eutrophic lake.

    • B.

      The annual volume of sewage flowing into a stream is decreased by one half.

    • C.

      The height of a factory smokestack is increased.

    • D.

      PCB-consuming bacteria are sprayed on an area that has soil contaminated with PCBs.

    • E.

      A parcel of forest land is declared a state park.

    Correct Answer
    D. PCB-consuming bacteria are sprayed on an area that has soil contaminated with PCBs.
    Explanation
    Environmental remediation refers to the process of removing or reducing pollution or contaminants from the environment. In this case, spraying PCB-consuming bacteria on an area with soil contaminated with PCBs is the best example of environmental remediation because it involves actively addressing and reducing the pollution by using bacteria that can consume the PCBs and break them down, thus helping to clean up the contaminated soil. The other options do not involve actively addressing pollution or contaminants in the same way.

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  • 27. 

    According .to RA 9003, which three 'environmentally sensitive resources' should a Sanitary Landfill be most concerned about? 

    • A.

      Bionetwork, germplasm, and wildlife habitats

    • B.

      Aquifer, groundwater reservoir, watershed area

    • C.

      Flora, fauna, and biota

    • D.

      Landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes

    Correct Answer
    B. Aquifer, groundwater reservoir, watershed area
    Explanation
    According to RA 9003, a Sanitary Landfill should be most concerned about the aquifer, groundwater reservoir, and watershed area. These three environmentally sensitive resources are crucial for maintaining the quality and availability of water resources. The aquifer is an underground layer of water-bearing rock, while the groundwater reservoir refers to the natural storage of water beneath the Earth's surface. The watershed area is the land area that drains into a particular water body. Protecting these resources is essential to prevent contamination and ensure the sustainability of water sources.

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  • 28. 

    A reduction in overall water quality due to an increase in the concentration of chemical nutrients in a waterbody would be an example of 

    • A.

      Osmosis

    • B.

      Hypoalimentation

    • C.

      Eutrophication

    • D.

      Fertilization

    • E.

      Denitrofication

    Correct Answer
    C. Eutrophication
    Explanation
    Eutrophication refers to the process where there is an excessive growth of algae and other aquatic plants due to an increase in chemical nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus, in a waterbody. This excessive growth leads to a reduction in overall water quality as it depletes oxygen levels, causing harm to fish and other aquatic organisms. Therefore, a reduction in water quality due to an increase in nutrient concentration is an example of eutrophication.

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  • 29. 

    If excessive amounts of hot water are discharged into a lake in a case of 'thermal pollution', the immediate result will most likely be 

    • A.

      An increase in the sewage content of the lake

    • B.

      A decrease in amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake

    • C.

      An increase in the amount of PCB pollution in the lake

    • D.

      A decrease in the amount of phospates in the lake

    Correct Answer
    B. A decrease in amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake
    Explanation
    When excessive amounts of hot water are discharged into a lake, it causes thermal pollution. This leads to an increase in the temperature of the lake water. As a result, the solubility of oxygen decreases, leading to a decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake. This can have detrimental effects on the aquatic ecosystem as many organisms rely on dissolved oxygen for survival.

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  • 30. 

    According to RA 9003, segregation of 'solid wastes' into bio-degradable and non-biodegradable should be done 

    • A.

      At the factory level

    • B.

      At source

    • C.

      At the end of production/consumption

    • D.

      At the option of family concerned

    Correct Answer
    B. At source
    Explanation
    According to RA 9003, the correct answer is "at source". This means that the segregation of solid wastes into bio-degradable and non-biodegradable should be done at the point where the waste is generated, such as households or businesses. This ensures that the waste is properly sorted right from the beginning, making it easier to manage and recycle. Segregating waste at source also promotes a more sustainable waste management system by reducing the amount of waste that ends up in landfills and promoting recycling and composting.

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  • 31. 

    This is a garbage recycling center in a village, or for a cluster of villages, which also serves as drop-off center for sorted wastes, composting center, and processing center to consolidate segregated recyclables for remanufacturing. 

    • A.

      Barangay Waste Recycling Center

    • B.

      Community Junk Shop

    • C.

      Waste Exchange Facility

    • D.

      Materials Recovery Facility

    Correct Answer
    D. Materials Recovery Facility
    Explanation
    This facility is referred to as a Materials Recovery Facility because it serves multiple purposes related to waste management. It not only recycles garbage but also acts as a drop-off center for sorted wastes, composting center, and processing center for recyclables. The term "Materials Recovery Facility" accurately describes the function of this facility as it focuses on recovering materials from waste for recycling and remanufacturing purposes.

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  • 32. 

    According to the 1997 Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners in the Philippines, Sec.11, the "primary obligation of the Environmental Planner is to" 

    • A.

      Contribute to the incessant development of the profession by sharing and improving knowledge.

    • B.

      Strive for high standards of professional integrity, proficiency, and knowledge

    • C.

      Develop and enhance a healthy professional relationship with colleagues and other professionals

    • D.

      Serve the country and in so doing safeguard public interest

    • E.

      Maintain a harmonious working relationship with client or partner in a noble undertaking.

    Correct Answer
    D. Serve the country and in so doing safeguard public interest
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to serve the country and in so doing safeguard public interest. This is stated in Section 11 of the 1997 Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners in the Philippines. It highlights the primary obligation of environmental planners to prioritize the welfare of the country and its citizens by ensuring that their work promotes the public interest and protects the well-being of the community and the environment.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is unethical practice of a registered environmental planner? 

    • A.

      Falsely injures the practice of other environmental planners

    • B.

      Provides unjust compensation to colleagues and subordinates

    • C.

      Affixes signature on plans he did not prepare or supervise

    • D.

      Enters competitions where s/he has direct involvement in program formulation

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". This means that all of the listed actions are considered unethical practices for a registered environmental planner. Falsely injuring the practice of other environmental planners, providing unjust compensation to colleagues and subordinates, affixing a signature on plans they did not prepare or supervise, and entering competitions where they have direct involvement in program formulation are all unethical behaviors that go against the professional standards and code of ethics for a registered environmental planner.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following ethical principles directly pertains to a planner's responsibility to his/her private client? 

    • A.

      Do not plagiarize.

    • B.

      Do not accept work that cannot be performed in a timely fashion

    • C.

      Do not coerce others to reach findings which are not supported by evidence

    • D.

      Do not disclose, without sufficient legal cause, privileged information clearly kept restricted by concerned party

    • E.

      When in authority and facilitating public hearings, do not make secret deals with participants.

    Correct Answer
    D. Do not disclose, without sufficient legal cause, privileged information clearly kept restricted by concerned party
  • 35. 

    Which act of the planner is not enumerated as punishable under PD 1308 of 1978, "Regulating the Practice of Environmental Planning in the Philippines"? 

    • A.

      Having his/her professional seal done by informal businesses along CM Recto Ave., Manila

    • B.

      Engaging in tha practice of environmental planning in the Philippines without having been registered

    • C.

      Assuming, using or advertising any title or description tending to convey the impression that he is an environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of registration

    • D.

      Environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of registration

    Correct Answer
    A. Having his/her professional seal done by informal businesses along CM Recto Ave., Manila
  • 36. 

    Under PD 1308, a consulting firm, partnership, or company of registered environmental planners should have 

    • A.

      At least 75% of entire membership and 75% of capitalization owned by registered environmental planners

    • B.

      At least 50% of entire membership and 50% of capitalization owned by registered environmental planners

    • C.

      The fifty-plus-one rule of membership and capitalization

    • D.

      60%-40% combination of licensed planners and unlicensed planners.

    Correct Answer
    A. At least 75% of entire membership and 75% of capitalization owned by registered environmental planners
    Explanation
    Reference: PD1308 Sec.20a

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  • 37. 

    You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Which of the following does NOT constitute a conflict of interest? 

    • A.

      Accepting a monetary gift from a local building firm

    • B.

      Working for a developer who has an action before the Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustment

    • C.

      Applying for business permit and health clearance to operate a private fruit stand in Farmers' Market

    • D.

      Processing a rezoning application of your own property

    Correct Answer
    C. Applying for business permit and health clearance to operate a private fruit stand in Farmers' Market
    Explanation
    Applying for a business permit and health clearance to operate a private fruit stand in Farmers' Market does not constitute a conflict of interest because it is a personal business venture that does not involve any conflicting interests with the individual's role as the Local Planning and Development Coordinator.

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  • 38. 

    You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Your wedded spouse runs the recreational Country Club and applies for a permit to construct an Olympic size swimming pool that would utilize water from a public spring. What is the most rational action for you to do? 

    • A.

      Hire an independent consultant for an objective analysis of the application

    • B.

      Ask for job transfer or reassignment

    • C.

      Just keep quiet about it.

    • D.

      File for divorce.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hire an independent consultant for an objective analysis of the application
    Explanation
    Hiring an independent consultant for an objective analysis of the application is the most rational action because it ensures transparency and avoids any conflict of interest. As the Local Planning and Development Coordinator, it is important to prioritize the public interest and adhere to ethical standards. By involving an independent consultant, the decision-making process becomes impartial and based on professional expertise, allowing for a fair evaluation of the application. This action demonstrates a commitment to integrity and responsible governance.

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  • 39. 

    In a case of sexual harassment in a planning consulting company, the following ethical principles apply except one. 

    • A.

      A planner should not be penalized for sexual urges that have nothing to do with his/her profession.

    • B.

      A planner must not commit a deliberately wrongful act, which reflects adversely on the planner's professional fitness

    • C.

      A planner must respect the rights of others and must not discriminate.

    • D.

      A planner must have special concern for the long-range consequences of present actions.

    Correct Answer
    A. A planner should not be penalized for sexual urges that have nothing to do with his/her profession.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A planner should not be penalized for sexual urges that have nothing to do with his/her profession." This statement contradicts the ethical principle of respecting the rights of others and not discriminating. Sexual harassment is a form of discrimination and violates the rights of the victim. Therefore, a planner should be held accountable for their actions, regardless of whether their sexual urges are related to their profession or not.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is an actual conflict of interest? 

    • A.

      Voting in a public election on an environmental issue that directly affects your consulting services

    • B.

      Making official government recommendations on a site plan that you developed when previously employed in the private sector

    • C.

      Accepting souvenir gifts from a housing developer at the vendors' and sponsors' area of a planners' convention

    • D.

      Reporting to PRC an act of dishonesty by a planner about his supposed work experience in a job originally occupied by you.

    Correct Answer
    B. Making official government recommendations on a site plan that you developed when previously employed in the private sector
    Explanation
    Making official government recommendations on a site plan that you developed when previously employed in the private sector is an actual conflict of interest. This is because the individual may have a bias towards the site plan they developed, which could compromise their ability to make unbiased and objective recommendations in their government role. This conflict of interest could undermine the integrity and fairness of the decision-making process.

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  • 41. 

    A housing developer contacts you with an opportunity to use your expertise as a paid consultant in a matter not pertaining to your employer's jurisdiction. You would work only on your off-days and holidays. You should 

    • A.

      Report the housing developer for unethical behavior

    • B.

      Make courtesy notification to your immediate supervisor

    • C.

      Decline the offer

    • D.

      Keep quiet about it

    Correct Answer
    B. Make courtesy notification to your immediate supervisor
    Explanation
    In this scenario, it is important to make a courtesy notification to your immediate supervisor. Even though the opportunity is not related to your employer's jurisdiction and you plan to work on your off-days and holidays, it is still necessary to inform your supervisor out of professional courtesy and transparency. By doing so, you maintain open communication within your workplace and ensure that there are no conflicts of interest or misunderstandings regarding your involvement with the housing developer.

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  • 42. 

    Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, what is the most preferred manner of government procurement of goods and services? 

    • A.

      Selective bidding or limited source bidding

    • B.

      Negotiated procurement

    • C.

      Single source procurement or direct contracting

    • D.

      Competitive bidding

    Correct Answer
    D. Competitive bidding
    Explanation
    Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, competitive bidding is the most preferred manner of government procurement of goods and services. This method ensures transparency, fairness, and efficiency in the procurement process. It allows multiple suppliers or contractors to participate and submit their bids, promoting healthy competition and providing the government with the opportunity to select the most advantageous offer. This helps in achieving value for money and preventing corruption or favoritism in the procurement process.

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  • 43. 

    In cases where open public biddings have failed on two (2) consecutive occasions and no suppliers have qualified to participate or win in the bidding, LGUs, through the local chief e􀂭xecutive with the approval of the Sanggunian may undertake procurement of supplies and services without public bidding through: 

    • A.

      Selective bidding or limited source bidding

    • B.

      Negotiated procurement

    • C.

      Single source procurement or direct contracting

    • D.

      Competitive bidding

    Correct Answer
    B. Negotiated procurement
    Explanation
    In cases where open public biddings have failed on two consecutive occasions and no suppliers have qualified to participate or win in the bidding, LGUs, through the local chief executive with the approval of the Sanggunian may undertake procurement of supplies and services without public bidding through negotiated procurement. This means that the LGUs can directly negotiate and enter into contracts with suppliers without the need for a public bidding process. This allows for more flexibility in the procurement process when the open public biddings have been unsuccessful.

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  • 44. 

    In emergency cases such as typhoon or earthquake damage where the need for supplies and services is exceptionally urgent or absolutely indispensable and inorder to prevent imminent danger to, or loss of, life or property, LGUs may make emergency purchases or place repair orders, without open public bidding, provided 

    • A.

      Public safety and vital public services, infrastructure and utilities, would be endangered if contracts are rescinded, abandoned, terminated, or not taken over,

    • B.

      It is the best offer and most advantageous price among quotations submitted by at least three pre-selected suppliers kept in the database of the government agency as having reliable, positive track record

    • C.

      Amount is within the range of 50,000-250,000 or even higher according to ceilings previously approved by the Government Procurement Policy Board

    • D.

      Goods and commodities of any amount are procured from another government agency under LOI 755 and E0359

    • E.

      All of the choices

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the choices
    Explanation
    In emergency cases such as typhoon or earthquake damage, LGUs may make emergency purchases or place repair orders without open public bidding. This is allowed if it is necessary to prevent imminent danger to life or property and if rescinding, abandoning, terminating, or not taking over contracts would endanger public safety and vital public services, infrastructure, and utilities. The purchases or repair orders must be the best offer and most advantageous price among quotations submitted by at least three pre-selected suppliers with a reliable track record. The amount should be within the approved range set by the Government Procurement Policy Board, and goods and commodities can also be procured from another government agency under specific conditions. Therefore, all of the choices mentioned in the question are correct.

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  • 45. 

    Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, the Bids and Awards Committee with five to seven members has to be headed by 

    • A.

      Chief of procuring entity

    • B.

      Resident Ombudsman

    • C.

      Resident auditor detailed by COA

    • D.

      At least third ranking permanent official

    Correct Answer
    D. At least third ranking permanent official
    Explanation
    According to RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, the Bids and Awards Committee must be headed by at least the third ranking permanent official. This means that the committee should be led by a high-ranking official within the procuring entity. This ensures that the committee is composed of individuals with sufficient authority and decision-making power to effectively carry out the procurement process. The requirement for a high-ranking official to lead the committee also helps to ensure transparency and accountability in the procurement process.

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  • 46. 

    Under the rule cited in immediately-preceding question, which of the following should not chair the Bids and Awards Committee? 

    • A.

      Chief of Administrative Division

    • B.

      Audio-Visual Technician

    • C.

      Head of Engineering Section

    • D.

      Planning Officer V

    Correct Answer
    B. Audio-Visual Technician
    Explanation
    The Audio-Visual Technician should not chair the Bids and Awards Committee because their role and expertise is focused on audio-visual technology, not on the procurement and evaluation processes involved in bids and awards. It is important for the chairperson of the committee to have knowledge and experience in procurement procedures to ensure fairness and transparency in the bidding process.

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  • 47. 

    The acceptable form of security furnished by a contractor of a public project as a guarantee of good faith on his/her part to execute the contracted work in accordance with the terms of the approved contract. 

    • A.

      Insurance

    • B.

      Collateral

    • C.

      Performance Bond

    • D.

      Retention or Retained Earnings

    • E.

      Surety Bond

    • F.

      Completion Guarrantee

    Correct Answer
    C. Performance Bond
    Explanation
    A performance bond is a form of security provided by a contractor to ensure that they will fulfill their obligations under a contract for a public project. It serves as a guarantee of good faith on the part of the contractor to execute the contracted work according to the terms of the approved contract. In the event that the contractor fails to meet their obligations, the performance bond can be used to compensate the project owner for any losses or damages incurred.

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  • 48. 

    What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from a contract? 

    • A.

      Surety

    • B.

      Assurance

    • C.

      Performance

    • D.

      Warranty

    • E.

      Reparation

    Correct Answer
    A. Surety
    Explanation
    A surety bond is a type of bond that guarantees payment on all obligations arising from a contract. This means that if the party who is obligated to fulfill the terms of the contract fails to do so, the surety bond will ensure that the other party is compensated. It provides financial protection and ensures that all contractual obligations are met.

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  • 49. 

    Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act, Sec 5i, government may hire Consulting Services for the following functions, broadly matching the competencies of Registered EnPs. For which function are Environmental Planners generally least prepared? 

    • A.

      Advisory and review services

    • B.

      Pre-investment or feasibility studies, special studies

    • C.

      Design

    • D.

      Construction supervision

    • E.

      Management-related service􀂜 and technical services

    Correct Answer
    D. Construction supervision
    Explanation
    Environmental Planners are generally least prepared for the function of construction supervision. This is because their expertise lies more in the areas of advisory and review services, pre-investment or feasibility studies, special studies, design, management-related service, and technical services. Construction supervision requires a different set of skills and knowledge, such as overseeing the construction process, ensuring compliance with regulations and standards, and managing construction site activities. While some Environmental Planners may have some understanding of construction processes, they may not have the same level of expertise and experience as professionals specifically trained in construction supervision.

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  • 50. 

    A Highly-Urbanized City (HUG) bids out in transparent manner the revision of its CLUP-ZO for an approved budget of contract (ABC) of 6 million. Four companies participated in open bidding. In the BAC evaluation of technical proposals, Company A got 89 points, Company B earned 64 points, Company C, 78 points, and Company D, 42 points as the last company missed out on the required GIS-RS component. After technical examination, the sealed financial proposals were opened and the bid amounts were revealed as follows: Company A = 6.3 million; Company B = 6.2 million; Company C = 5.9 million; and Company D = 4.5 million. Overall, which company offered the "most responsive bid" or "lowest calculated complying bid" and should receive the Notice of Award of Contract from the head of agency. 

    • A.

      Company A

    • B.

      Company B

    • C.

      Company C

    • D.

      Company D

    Correct Answer
    C. Company C
    Explanation
    RA9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002 Art.10 Sec. 34.
    Interpretation: 6 Million Contract
    Company A =89 pts (Highest Rated Bid=OK)/6.8M (Bid exceed=DQ); Company B= 64 pts/6.2M (Bid exceed=DQ); Company C= 78pts(Rate OK)/5.9M (Bid OK); Company D= 42 pts (requirement not met=DQ)/ 4.2 M (Lowest Calculated Bid=OK)
    Therefore, Project to be awarded to Company C for not having DQs.

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  • Mar 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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    Quiz Created by
    Rdakis
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