Valvular Heart Disease And Anaesthesia: Quiz

54 Questions | Total Attempts: 199

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Valvular Heart Disease And Anaesthesia: Quiz

Valvular heart disease and anaesthesia: quiz. Vascular heart disease is basically the presence of issues with parts of the heart which cause a problem when it comes to blood flow. It is necessary for people undergoing surgery to be sedated during the process. In this quiz, you will get to test out just how much you know about the characteristics one will exhibit and knowing which ones are expected and how to take care of the patient.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    During Carotid vascular surgery, BP should be maintained…
    • A. 

      Slightly above pre-op levels

    • B. 

      Slightly below pre-op levels

    • C. 

      Equal to pre-op levels

    • D. 

      Ummm, there is no BP on bypass.

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is not necessary for an ASA 3 pt undergoing an Aorta-life bypass?
    • A. 

      Serial H&H and ABG’s

    • B. 

      Bair Hugger for lower extremities

    • C. 

      A-Line

    • D. 

      Fluid Warmer

  • 3. 
    90-95% of AAA’s involve which part of the abdominal aorta?
    • A. 

      Suprarenal

    • B. 

      Juxtarenal

    • C. 

      Infrarenal

    • D. 

      Pararenal

  • 4. 
    Which of the following disease is not commonly associated with pts undergoing CEA?
    • A. 

      CAD

    • B. 

      Diabetes

    • C. 

      CVA

    • D. 

      Liver dx

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is not true regarding the management of a pt undergoing AAA repair?
    • A. 

      During cross-clamp, vasoconstrict to keep BP slightly elevated and restrict fluids

    • B. 

      You should have a central line, A-line, and large bore IV’s

    • C. 

      During cross clamp you should turn off heating blankets

    • D. 

      All the above are true

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is not an indication to perform endovascular grafting procedure?
    • A. 

      Active Infection

    • B. 

      AAA rupture

    • C. 

      Severe COPD

    • D. 

      Severe cardiac Disease

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is not a necessity to monitor a pt undergoing a right CEA?
    • A. 

      Left A-line

    • B. 

      Femoral Central catheter

    • C. 

      Large bore IV’s

    • D. 

      Serial ABG’s

  • 8. 
    What changes would you expect to see in your pt following the release of the aortic cross-clamp?
    • A. 

      Alkalotic ABG

    • B. 

      Sudden increase in SVR

    • C. 

      A sudden increase in ETCO2

    • D. 

      Need for NTG drip

  • 9. 
    Prior to aortic cross-clamp, you administered 7,500 units of heparin to your pt. It has now been one hour and the surgeon is asking you to give protamine. How much should you give?
    • A. 

      26 mg

    • B. 

      75 mg

    • C. 

      90 mg

    • D. 

      38 mg

  • 10. 
    What is the most common side effect associated with the administration of protamine?
    • A. 

      Hypotension

    • B. 

      Bradycardia

    • C. 

      Hemorrhage

    • D. 

      Allergic reaction

  • 11. 
    At what level should you seek to maintain your ETCO2 waveform on the anesthesia monitor during a CEA?
    • A. 

      ETCO2 27

    • B. 

      ETCO2 36

    • C. 

      ETCO2 48

    • D. 

      Wherever the pt tolerates best

  • 12. 
    What is the most common hemodynamic response following CEA?
    • A. 

      Hypotension

    • B. 

      Myocardial Ischemia

    • C. 

      Hypertension

    • D. 

      Pulmonary HTN

  • 13. 
    Which of the following does not typify the response expected when managing a pt with HTN?
    • A. 

      Exaggerated hypotensive response to induction

    • B. 

      Hypertension upon intubation of pt

    • C. 

      Chronic volume depletion requiring fluid boluses during surgery

    • D. 

      Resistance to vasoactive medications, requiring higher doses

  • 14. 
    During anesthetic management of a pt with HTN, you should seek to keep the intra-op BP within _____ of your baseline BP.
    • A. 

      You should seek to reduce BP to normal range.

    • B. 

      10%

    • C. 

      5%

    • D. 

      20%

  • 15. 
    At what stage of hypertension would a patient begin to experience renal dysfunction?
    • A. 

      Stage 4

    • B. 

      Stage 3

    • C. 

      Stage 2

    • D. 

      Stage 1

  • 16. 
    Which of the following two-valve disorder are classified as Pressure Overload disorders?
    • A. 

      Aortic Stenosis

    • B. 

      Aortic Regurge

    • C. 

      Mitral Stenosis

    • D. 

      Mitral Regurge

  • 17. 
    Which of the following two-valve disorder are classified as Volume Overload disorders?
    • A. 

      Aortic Stenosis

    • B. 

      Aortic Regurge

    • C. 

      Mitral Stenosis

    • D. 

      Mitral Regurge

  • 18. 
    A pt with Aortic stenosis is most likely to experience which of the following?
    • A. 

      Concentric Hypertrophy

    • B. 

      Ischemic Cardiomyopathy

    • C. 

      Eccentric Hypertrophy

    • D. 

      Tamponade

  • 19. 
    What is the most common cause of Mitral Stenosis?
    • A. 

      Hypertension

    • B. 

      Aortic Regurge

    • C. 

      Left Ventricular Hypertrophy

    • D. 

      Rheumatic Fever

  • 20. 
    Where should you keep the HR on a pt with Mitral stenosis?
    • A. 

      Equal to or slightly below baseline

    • B. 

      Keep HR elevated above baseline

    • C. 

      Aim for a HR >80 bpm

    • D. 

      Aim for HR

  • 21. 
    Which of the following is not true regarding pts with Mitral Stenosis?
    • A. 

      These patients are more prone to a-fib

    • B. 

      Pavulon is a good choice for facilitating intubation

    • C. 

      Sedative drugs should be given at a reduced dose, due to increased risk for ventilator depression

    • D. 

      Use caution with fluid therapy as these pts are more prone to fluid overload

  • 22. 
    Which of the following is true regarding anesthetic management of a pt with Mitral Stenosis?
    • A. 

      Ketamine is drug of choice for induction of pts with severe MS

    • B. 

      Narcotics and propofol infusions should be avoided due to myocardial suppression

    • C. 

      Rocuronium or Sux would be drugs of choice for intubation of MS pts

    • D. 

      Aggressive fluid therapy is necessary due to chronic fluid depleted state and risk for hypotension

  • 23. 
    How will Mitral stenosis affect the Wedge waveform on your Swan line?
    • A. 

      Prominent V wave

    • B. 

      Absent A wave

    • C. 

      Will show decrease wedge pressure

    • D. 

      Large A wave

  • 24. 
    Acute mitral regurge is most commonly due to…
    • A. 

      Myocardial Infarction

    • B. 

      Rheumatic fever

    • C. 

      Mitral Stenosis

    • D. 

      Severe hypertensive episodes

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is not true regarding patients with Mitral Regurgitation?
    • A. 

      Ketamine may be used for induction of MR patients

    • B. 

      Decreases in SVR should be avoided

    • C. 

      Decreases in HR should be avoided

    • D. 

      Reversal of NMB may be done as usual