Crcs-I And Crcs-p Practice Exam

65 Questions | Total Attempts: 6950

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Crcs Quizzes & Trivia

Federal Regulations and Governing Bodies


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is not a goal of The Patient Bill of Rights?
    • A. 

      To stress the importance of the relationship between patients and providers

    • B. 

      To ensure patients do not experience discrimination in billing and collections

    • C. 

      To help patients feel more confident in the U.S. healthcare system

    • D. 

      To stress the role that patients have to take to get and stay healthy

  • 2. 
    The statute commonly called "Obamacare" is formally known as which of the following?
    • A. 

      The Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act

    • B. 

      The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

    • C. 

      The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

    • D. 

      The Hill-Burton Act

  • 3. 
    PPACA is aimed primarily at decreasing the number of uninsured Americans and reducing the overall costs of healthcare.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is not an area where tax-exempt hospitals are affected by the PPACA?
    • A. 

      Financial assistance

    • B. 

      Filing deadlines

    • C. 

      Charging limitations

    • D. 

      Collections actions

  • 5. 
    What is the title for individuals who help consumers fill out applications for health coverage in a state-based Marketplace or state partnership Marketplace?
    • A. 

      Agents or brokers

    • B. 

      Certified application counselors

    • C. 

      Navigators

    • D. 

      Non-Navigators

  • 6. 
    The organization that ensures the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of healthcare provided to Medicare beneficiaries and reviews all written quality-of-service complaints submitted by Medicare beneficiaries is:
    • A. 

      CLIA

    • B. 

      ACL

    • C. 

      QIO

    • D. 

      TJC

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is not true of the Hill-Burton Act?
    • A. 

      It is a U.S. federal law passed in 1946.

    • B. 

      It offered loans for hospital construction in exchange for future charity care.

    • C. 

      The Act stopped providing funds in 1997, so hospitals are no longer obligated to offer charity care because of participation in the program.

    • D. 

      It is also known as Title I.

  • 8. 
    The primary purpose of the Criminal Health Care Fraud Statute is to prohibit sharing of confidential patient information for monetary gain.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 9. 
    The two types of OIG exclusions for healthcare providers and suppliers who have been convicted of crimes are:
    • A. 

      Mandatory and retroactive

    • B. 

      Restrictive and permissive

    • C. 

      Mandatory and permissive

    • D. 

      Restrictive and retroactive

  • 10. 
    HEAT stands for:
    • A. 

      Health Care Extension Action Team

    • B. 

      Health Care Executive Assistance Team

    • C. 

      Health Care Fraud Elimination Team

    • D. 

      Health Care Fraud Prevention and Enforcement Action Team

  • 11. 
    When someone applies for credit, creditors may not ask about the person's race, sex, or national origin.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is not true of TJC?
    • A. 

      Accreditation by TJC is a requirement of participation in the Medicare program.

    • B. 

      TJC will conduct an audit of the hospital every five years.

    • C. 

      TJC can audit without advance notice.

    • D. 

      TJC requires hospitals to have facility-wide disaster plans.

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is not a typical goal for reengineering Patient Access?
    • A. 

      Place the focus on customer service so that the initial impression is a positive one.

    • B. 

      Identify mechanisms to decrease wait times.

    • C. 

      Free up staff time for training on new technology and regulations.

    • D. 

      Make the process a positive and painless experience for the patient, guarantor, and/or family.

  • 14. 
    What is the recommendation for the percentage of scheduled admissions to be pre-registered within 24 hours of the service date?
    • A. 

      40% - 50%

    • B. 

      50% - 70%

    • C. 

      60% - 80%

    • D. 

      70% - 90%

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is not gathered during pre-registration or pre-admission?
    • A. 

      History of chief complaint

    • B. 

      Patient demographics

    • C. 

      Financial information

    • D. 

      Socioeconomic information

  • 16. 
    What is the term for patient screening before surgical or invasive procedures to determine hospitalization and/or surgical suitability?
    • A. 

      Therapeutic medical screening

    • B. 

      Pre-admission testing (PAT)

    • C. 

      Pre-admission screening (PAS)

    • D. 

      Diagnostic medical screening (DMS)

  • 17. 
    Which of the following is not an example of affiliated health services?
    • A. 

      Marketing for staff physicians

    • B. 

      Telephone triage available to the community

    • C. 

      Referral for physicians and/or services

    • D. 

      Registration for in-house or hospital-sponsored medical education programs

  • 18. 
    When is insurance verification typically done?
    • A. 

      During pre-certification only

    • B. 

      During admitting/registration only

    • C. 

      During pre-certification and/or admitting/registration

    • D. 

      After admitting/registration

  • 19. 
    If a physician classifies an admission as an emergency, the hospital can still refuse the admission.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    To qualify for SNF coverage, Medicare requires a person to have been a hospital inpatient for at least three consecutive days (not including the day of discharge).
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    CMS has indicated that instances would be rare that a patient would remain in observation for more than 24 hours.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    A single general consent document is signed to cover all procedures and services being performed in any 24-hour period.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    In the ER, failure of a patient, who is aware of what is happening, to object to treatment is implied consent--by law.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 24. 
    An emancipated minor is able to give his or her own consent to receive treatment.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
    Should a correction be required to a medical record, an authorized person should draw a single line through to error, initial it, and continue the note.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

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