Cnim Board Prep

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  • 1/618 Questions

    The homunculus is a

    • Representation of the motor and sensory cortex of the brain
    • Gyrus found in the temporal lobe
    • Lateral loss of vision in one eye
    • Type of tumor
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About This Quiz

Every CNIM board prep question I could find from practice tests, prep classes, books, etc.

Cnim Board Prep - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What nerve controls motor function for plantar flexion of the toes and sensory distribution for the plantar aspect of the foot?

    • Median

    • Ulnar

    • Posterior tibial

    • CN VIII

    Correct Answer
    A. Posterior tibial
    Explanation
    The posterior tibial nerve controls motor function for plantar flexion of the toes and sensory distribution for the plantar aspect of the foot.

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  • 3. 

    Near Field 

    • Corrected visual acuity

    • Stimulus field close to the eyes

    • Area within three feet of eyes

    • Generators close to the recording electrodes

    Correct Answer
    A. Generators close to the recording electrodes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Generators close to the recording electrodes". This suggests that the generators, which are likely electrical devices or sources of signals, are located in close proximity to the recording electrodes. This proximity is important for accurate recording of the signals generated by these devices.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is an effect of temperature on somatosensory evoked potentials?

    • Cooler temperatures tend to accelerate central conduction time

    • Warmer temperatures tend to polarize the stimulus current

    • Cooler temperatures tend to slow peripheral conduction time

    • Warmer temperatures desensitize nerve endings

    Correct Answer
    A. Cooler temperatures tend to slow peripheral conduction time
    Explanation
    Cooler temperatures tend to slow peripheral conduction time because cold temperatures can decrease nerve conduction velocity. This is due to the fact that cold temperatures can cause vasoconstriction, which reduces blood flow to the nerves and slows down the conduction of electrical signals along the nerves. As a result, the somatosensory evoked potentials, which are electrical signals generated by sensory nerves in response to stimulation, will take longer to travel from the peripheral nerves to the central nervous system.

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  • 5. 

    What spinal tract is being stimulated when running transcranial motor evoked potentials? 

    • Rubrospinal

    • Tectospinal

    • Dorsal columns

    • Corticospinal

    Correct Answer
    A. Corticospinal
    Explanation
    When running transcranial motor evoked potentials, the spinal tract being stimulated is the corticospinal tract. This tract is responsible for transmitting motor signals from the brain to the spinal cord and ultimately to the muscles. Stimulation of the corticospinal tract can help assess the integrity and function of the motor pathway. The other options, such as the rubrospinal, tectospinal, and dorsal columns, are not directly involved in transmitting motor signals from the brain to the spinal cord.

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  • 6. 

    If there is a 60Hz interference in all channels when recording median nerve somatosensory evoked potentials, which of the following electrodes should be adjusted first? 

    • Cpi

    • Epc

    • Ground electrode

    • Stimulating electrode

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground electrode
    Explanation
    The ground electrode should be adjusted first because it is responsible for providing a reference point for the recording of electrical signals. If there is a 60Hz interference in all channels, it suggests that the ground electrode may not be properly placed or connected, leading to the interference. By adjusting the ground electrode, the electrical reference point can be improved, potentially reducing or eliminating the interference in the recorded signals.

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  • 7. 

    The patient presenting prior to surgery for removal of an acoustic neuroma would likely have symptoms including

    • Muscle weakness and gait disturbance

    • Slurred speech, aphasia, and focal weakness

    • Nystagmus and decreased visual acuity

    • Hearing loss, headaches, and unsteady gait

    Correct Answer
    A. Hearing loss, headaches, and unsteady gait
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Hearing loss, headaches, and unsteady gait." Acoustic neuroma is a tumor that develops on the nerve responsible for hearing and balance. As the tumor grows, it can cause hearing loss and tinnitus. Headaches may occur due to increased pressure in the skull. The tumor can also affect the balance, leading to an unsteady gait. Therefore, these symptoms are likely to be present in a patient with an acoustic neuroma prior to surgery.

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  • 8. 

    When stimulating cranial nerve 7, a bipolar stimulator may have an advantage over a monopolar stimulator by:

    • Presenting less risk

    • Requiring less current

    • Having greater specificity

    • Being less expensive

    Correct Answer
    A. Having greater specificity
    Explanation
    A bipolar stimulator may have an advantage over a monopolar stimulator when stimulating cranial nerve 7 because it offers greater specificity. This means that the bipolar stimulator can target and stimulate the specific area of the cranial nerve more accurately, resulting in more precise and effective stimulation. This specificity can lead to better outcomes and reduced risk of unintended stimulation of surrounding tissues or nerves.

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  • 9. 

    The type of electrode most commonly used in an intensive care unit or operating room setting is ___.

    • Percutaneous electrode

    • Epidural electrode

    • Subdermal electrode

    • Kirsher electrode

    Correct Answer
    A. Subdermal electrode
    Explanation
    The most commonly used type of electrode in an intensive care unit or operating room setting is a subdermal electrode. This type of electrode is placed beneath the skin and is used to monitor electrical activity in the body. It is often used for procedures that require continuous monitoring, such as surgeries or critical care situations. The subdermal electrode is preferred in these settings because it provides accurate and reliable readings, allowing healthcare professionals to closely monitor the patient's condition.

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  • 10. 
    The waveform labeled B is most likely - ProProfs

    The waveform labeled B is most likely

    • N5

    • N9

    • N11

    • N13

    Correct Answer
    A. N9
    Explanation
    Waveform B is probably an Erb’s point potential coming in at N9

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  • 11. 

    It is important to put a note in the patient chart:

    • So that a professional fee can be billed

    • In case the circulator doesn’t remember you

    • To prove that you looked through the patient chart

    • As an attestation that you were present doing the monitoring

    Correct Answer
    A. As an attestation that you were present doing the monitoring
    Explanation
    Putting a note in the patient chart serves as an attestation that the individual was present and actively monitoring the patient. This is important for documentation and accountability purposes, as it provides evidence of the healthcare professional's involvement in the patient's care.

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  • 12. 

    The type of electrode most commonly used in an intensive care unit or operating room setting is ___.

    • Percutaneous electrode

    • Epidural electrode

    • Subdermal electrode

    • Kirsher electrode

    Correct Answer
    A. Subdermal electrode
    Explanation
    The subdermal electrode is the most commonly used type of electrode in an intensive care unit or operating room setting. This electrode is inserted beneath the skin, directly into the muscle or nerve tissue, to measure electrical activity. It provides accurate and reliable readings, making it ideal for critical care environments where precise monitoring is necessary. Percutaneous electrodes are inserted through the skin, but they are not as commonly used in these settings. Epidural electrodes are used for pain management, and Kirsher electrodes are not commonly used in medical settings.

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  • 13. 

    Routine intraoperative electrophysiological monitoring documentation should include 

    • Heart rate

    • Blood pressure

    • Respiratory rate

    • Blood plasma volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood pressure
    Explanation
    Routine intraoperative electrophysiological monitoring is essential to assess the patient's physiological status during surgery. It helps in detecting any changes or abnormalities that may occur during the procedure. Blood pressure is a crucial parameter to monitor as it reflects the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels. Fluctuations in blood pressure can indicate potential complications such as hypotension or hypertension. By including blood pressure in the documentation, healthcare professionals can track the patient's cardiovascular stability and make necessary interventions if required.

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  • 14. 

    Du ring posterior fossa surgery, wave V of the BAEPs may increase in latency due to:

    • Spinal drainage

    • Warming of the nerve

    • Retraction of the cerebellum

    • Use of neuromuscular blocking agent

    Correct Answer
    A. Retraction of the cerebellum
    Explanation
    During posterior fossa surgery, the retraction of the cerebellum can cause an increase in latency of wave V of the BAEPs. This is because the retraction puts pressure on the brainstem, specifically the auditory pathway, which can lead to a delay in the conduction of the auditory signals. This delay is reflected in the increased latency of wave V.

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  • 15. 

    Transcranial motor evoked potentials are best elicited when using 

    • Complete neuromuscular blockade

    • A train of stimuli

    • Halogenated agents

    • Stimulus rates above 20/ sec

    Correct Answer
    A. A train of stimuli
    Explanation
    Transcranial motor evoked potentials are best elicited when using a train of stimuli. This means that multiple electrical stimuli are delivered in rapid succession to the motor cortex, resulting in a stronger and more reliable response. Using a train of stimuli helps to overcome the variability and potential noise in the signal, improving the accuracy and consistency of the motor evoked potentials.

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  • 16. 

    Clavicular, cervical and scalp sites are commonly used for recording:

    • Posterior tibial potentials

    • Brainstem auditory evoked potentials

    • Median nerve potentials

    • Popliteal fossa potentials

    Correct Answer
    A. Median nerve potentials
    Explanation
    The clavicular, cervical, and scalp sites are commonly used for recording median nerve potentials. The median nerve is a major nerve in the upper limb that innervates the muscles of the forearm and hand. Recording its potentials can provide information about the electrical activity and function of the nerve. The clavicular, cervical, and scalp sites are chosen because they allow for accurate and reliable recording of the median nerve potentials.

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  • 17. 

    The layers of protective tissue surrounding the CNS:

    • The ventricles

    • The meninges

    • The CSF

    • The skull

    Correct Answer
    A. The meninges
    Explanation
    The meninges are the layers of protective tissue surrounding the central nervous system (CNS). They consist of three layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater. The meninges provide cushioning and support to the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury. They also help regulate the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), a clear fluid that surrounds and nourishes the CNS. Additionally, the meninges help maintain the stability and shape of the CNS within the skull and spinal column.

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  • 18. 

    What is the difference between constant voltage and constant current?

    • There is not difference between constant voltage and constant current.

    • There is a difference between constant voltage and constant current but it is not ever an issues in EPs so END Technologists need not concern themselves with understanding it.

    • None of these

    • Constant current varries the voltage to accommodate for fluctuations in impedance/resistance and constant voltage allows the current to vary with fluctuations in the impedance/resistance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Constant current varries the voltage to accommodate for fluctuations in impedance/resistance and constant voltage allows the current to vary with fluctuations in the impedance/resistance.
    Explanation
    Constant voltage and constant current are two different methods of supplying electrical power. In constant voltage, the voltage remains constant while the current can vary based on fluctuations in impedance or resistance. This means that as impedance or resistance changes, the current will increase or decrease accordingly. On the other hand, in constant current, the current remains constant while the voltage can vary to accommodate for fluctuations in impedance or resistance. This means that as impedance or resistance changes, the voltage will increase or decrease to maintain a constant current flow.

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  • 19. 

    An electrode recording from Erb's point is placed

    • On the shoulder

    • 2-3 cm above the clavicle

    • Over the trapezius muscle

    • At the axilla

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-3 cm above the clavicle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2-3 cm above the clavicle. This is the correct placement for an electrode recording from Erb's point. Placing the electrode at this location allows for accurate recording of the nerve conduction from the brachial plexus, which is located in this area. Placing the electrode on the shoulder, over the trapezius muscle, or at the axilla would not provide accurate recordings from Erb's point.

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  • 20. 

    For posterior tibial somatosensory evoked potentials, which of the following would be the best ipsilateral location for the ground electrode?

    • Arm

    • Calf

    • Mastiod

    • Sole of foot

    Correct Answer
    A. Calf
    Explanation
    The calf would be the best ipsilateral location for the ground electrode in posterior tibial somatosensory evoked potentials. This is because the calf is closer to the site of stimulation, which is the sole of the foot. Placing the ground electrode in the calf helps to minimize electrical interference and ensures accurate measurement of the somatosensory evoked potentials.

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  • 21. 

    Clavicular, cervical and scalp sites are commonly used for recording

    • Posterior tibial potentials

    • Brainstem auditory evoked potenetials

    • Median nerve potentials

    • Popliteal fossa potentials

    Correct Answer
    A. Median nerve potentials
    Explanation
    Clavicular, cervical, and scalp sites are commonly used for recording median nerve potentials. These sites are chosen because they provide optimal access to the median nerve and allow for accurate measurement of its electrical activity. By placing electrodes at these sites, healthcare professionals can detect and analyze the electrical signals generated by the median nerve, which can help diagnose and monitor conditions affecting this nerve.

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  • 22. 

    In which of the following is the sampling rate of an averager at least twice the frequency fo the fastest sine wave compoenent in the signal to be resolved?

    • Ohm's Law

    • Wiener filtering

    • Nyquist frequency

    • Fourier analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Nyquist frequency
    Explanation
    The Nyquist frequency is the maximum frequency that can be accurately represented in a sampled signal. According to the Nyquist-Shannon sampling theorem, the sampling rate must be at least twice the frequency of the highest frequency component in the signal in order to avoid aliasing and accurately reconstruct the original signal. Therefore, the correct answer is Nyquist frequency.

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  • 23. 

    The recommended criteria for surgeon notification when monitoring BAEPs intraoperatively include an increase in

    • Latency of wave V of less than 1ms

    • Interpeak latency of I-V of

    • Absolute latency of wave I, without change in wave V

    • Latency of wave V of >1ms or the disappearance of wave V

    Correct Answer
    A. Latency of wave V of >1ms or the disappearance of wave V
    Explanation
    The recommended criteria for surgeon notification when monitoring BAEPs intraoperatively include a latency of wave V of >1ms or the disappearance of wave V. This means that if the latency of wave V exceeds 1ms or if wave V completely disappears, the surgeon should be notified. This could indicate a potential issue or complication during the surgery that requires immediate attention.

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  • 24. 

    Muscle relaxants should not be used when recording

    • Facial nerve CMAPs

    • SSEPs

    • EEG

    • BAEPs

    Correct Answer
    A. Facial nerve CMAPs
    Explanation
    Muscle relaxants should not be used when recording Facial nerve CMAPs because muscle activity is necessary to generate the compound muscle action potentials (CMAPs). Muscle relaxants inhibit muscle contractions, which would prevent the accurate measurement of the nerve's response. Therefore, the use of muscle relaxants would interfere with the recording of Facial nerve CMAPs.

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  • 25. 

    What is considered criteria for alarm when monitoring BAERs intraoperatively?

    • Decreased latency of I-V

    • Increased I-V interpeak latency or loss of wave V

    • Decreased interpeak latency of waves I-V

    • Increased amplitude of wave V

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased I-V interpeak latency or loss of wave V
    Explanation
    When monitoring BAERs intraoperatively, the criteria for alarm is an increased I-V interpeak latency or loss of wave V. This means that there is a delay or absence of the wave V response compared to the wave I response, indicating a potential issue with the auditory pathway. This could be caused by damage or dysfunction in the auditory nerve or brainstem. Monitoring these criteria helps identify any abnormalities and allows for prompt intervention if necessary.

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  • 26. 

    Muscle relaxants inhibit the ability to monitor BAERs. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Muscle relaxants do not inhibit the ability to monitor BAERs. BAERs (Brainstem Auditory Evoked Responses) are electrical signals generated by the brain in response to sound stimulation. Muscle relaxants primarily affect skeletal muscles and do not directly interfere with the brain's ability to generate or monitor these signals. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 27. 

    Monitoring modality most likely affected by a large bolus of muscle relaxant is:

    • Subcortical SSEP

    • TcMEP

    • Cortical SSEP

    • EEG

    Correct Answer
    A. TcMEP
    Explanation
    A large bolus of muscle relaxant can affect the monitoring modality of tcMEP (transcranial motor evoked potentials). Muscle relaxants can cause a decrease or loss of muscle activity, which can result in a decrease or loss of motor responses measured by tcMEP. Subcortical SSEP (somatosensory evoked potentials), cortical SSEP, and EEG (electroencephalogram) are not directly affected by muscle relaxants and would not be as likely to be affected by a large bolus of muscle relaxant.

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  • 28. 

    What is true about intramedullary spinal tumor resection?

    • Loss of vascular perfusion can lead to MEP changes during resection

    • Tumor resection can lead to MEP change due to axonal damage

    • Dissection through dorsal columns can lead to decrease in SSEPs

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    During intramedullary spinal tumor resection, there can be a loss of vascular perfusion, which can lead to changes in motor evoked potentials (MEPs). Tumor resection can also cause axonal damage, resulting in MEP changes. Additionally, dissection through the dorsal columns can lead to a decrease in somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs). Therefore, all of the given options are true about intramedullary spinal tumor resection.

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  • 29. 

    In obtaining post-incision preoperative baseline posterior tibial SSEPs, what is the best location for the ground electrode?

    • The arm

    • The calf

    • The mastoid

    • sole of the foot

    Correct Answer
    A. The calf
    Explanation
    Should be between the site of stim and the first recording electrode. This is assuming that the first recording is from the pop fossa.

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  • 30. 

    In spinal surgery the primary purpose of  the popliteal fossa recording electrode is to

    • Verify adequacy of stimulus

    • Limit current spread

    • Confirm amplifier integrity

    • Provide evidence of a muscle twitch

    Correct Answer
    A. Verify adequacy of stimulus
    Explanation
    The popliteal fossa recording electrode is used in spinal surgery to verify the adequacy of stimulus. This means that it is used to ensure that the stimulus being delivered to the patient's nerves or muscles is sufficient and effective. By monitoring the response or twitch of the muscles through the recording electrode, surgeons can determine if the stimulus is producing the desired effect and adjust accordingly. This helps in ensuring the success and safety of the surgery.

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  • 31. 

    When monitoring facial nerve EMG, which of the following is an indicator of potential nerve damage?

    • Occasional burst of fibrillation potentials

    • Continuous train of neurotonic discharges

    • CMAP to direct stimulation

    • Occasional muscle fasciculations

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuous train of neurotonic discharges
    Explanation
    Continuous train of neurotonic discharges is an indicator of potential nerve damage when monitoring facial nerve EMG. Neurotonic discharges refer to abnormal, continuous, and sustained muscle contractions caused by nerve hyperexcitability. This can be a sign of nerve dysfunction or injury, as the nerve is continuously firing signals to the muscle. Occasional bursts of fibrillation potentials, occasional muscle fasciculations, and CMAP to direct stimulation may also indicate nerve damage, but the continuous train of neurotonic discharges is the most specific indicator in this context.

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  • 32. 

    Name the opening between the brain and the spinal cord?

    • Thalamus

    • Foramen magnum

    • Foramen minimum

    • Afferent tract

    Correct Answer
    A. Foramen magnum
    Explanation
    The foramen magnum is the correct answer to the question. It is the opening located at the base of the skull that allows the spinal cord to connect with the brain. This opening is essential for the passage of nerves and blood vessels between the brain and the spinal cord. The thalamus is a different structure in the brain that is responsible for relaying sensory information. The options "foramen minimum" and "afferent tract" are not accurate terms related to the opening between the brain and the spinal cord.

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  • 33. 

    Standard infection precautions are used:

    • When patient is known to have infectious disease

    • When blood or bodily fluids are present

    • On all patients

    • Only when blood is present

    Correct Answer
    A. On all patients
    Explanation
    Standard infection precautions are used on all patients as a preventive measure to reduce the risk of spreading infectious diseases. These precautions include practices such as hand hygiene, wearing personal protective equipment, proper disposal of waste, and cleaning and disinfecting surfaces. By implementing these precautions universally, healthcare providers can minimize the transmission of infections, even in patients who may not show any symptoms or have a confirmed diagnosis. This approach ensures the safety of both healthcare workers and patients, promoting a healthier healthcare environment overall.

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  • 34. 

    Impedance is expressed in:

    • Ohms

    • Coulombs

    • Microvolts

    • Amps

    Correct Answer
    A. Ohms
    Explanation
    Impedance is a measure of opposition to the flow of electric current in a circuit. It is expressed in ohms, which is the unit of electrical resistance. Ohms represent the amount of resistance that a circuit presents to the flow of current. Therefore, the correct answer is Ohms.

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  • 35. 

    Which procedure may be done to reduce muscle spasticity? 

    • Selective dorsal root rhizotomy

    • Mediolateral cordotomy

    • Dorsal column mapping

    • Spinal fusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Selective dorsal root rhizotomy
    Explanation
    Selective dorsal root rhizotomy is a surgical procedure that may be done to reduce muscle spasticity. It involves cutting the sensory nerve fibers in the spinal cord that are responsible for transmitting abnormal signals to the muscles, thereby reducing the spasticity. This procedure is commonly performed in individuals with conditions such as cerebral palsy, where spasticity is a common symptom. By selectively targeting and cutting the specific nerve fibers causing the spasticity, selective dorsal root rhizotomy can help improve muscle control and reduce spasticity in affected individuals.

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  • 36. 

    Which muscle is innervated by the C5 nerve root? 

    • Tricep

    • Pronator teres

    • Deltoid

    • Trapezius

    Correct Answer
    A. Deltoid
    Explanation
    The deltoid muscle is innervated by the C5 nerve root. The C5 nerve root originates from the cervical spine and supplies motor innervation to the deltoid muscle, which is responsible for shoulder abduction and flexion. Damage or compression of the C5 nerve root can result in weakness or paralysis of the deltoid muscle, leading to difficulty in raising the arm or performing overhead activities.

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  • 37. 

    The branches of the facial nerve include all except the: 

    • Zygomatic

    • Buccal

    • Superior thyroid

    • Temporal

    Correct Answer
    A. Superior thyroid
    Explanation
    The superior thyroid branch is not a branch of the facial nerve. The facial nerve branches include the zygomatic, buccal, and temporal branches. The superior thyroid branch is actually a branch of the external carotid artery, not the facial nerve.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is the method for monitoring the facial nerve? 

    • BAEPs

    • Blink reflex

    • Free run EMG

    • Visual observation of facial movement

    Correct Answer
    A. Free run EMG
    Explanation
    Free run EMG is the method for monitoring the facial nerve. EMG stands for electromyography, which is a technique used to measure muscle activity. "Free run" refers to the continuous recording of spontaneous muscle activity without any external stimulus. By placing electrodes on the facial muscles, the electrical signals produced by the facial nerve can be detected and monitored using EMG. This method allows for real-time assessment of facial nerve function and can be used in various clinical settings, such as during facial nerve surgery or in the diagnosis of facial nerve disorders.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is characteristic of alternating click polarity?

    • Produces abnormal I-V latencies

    • Has no effect on wave I amplitude

    • Is recommended for testing premature infants

    • Cancels the stimulus artifact

    Correct Answer
    A. Cancels the stimulus artifact
    Explanation
    Alternating click polarity refers to the technique of reversing the polarity of the click stimulus during auditory brainstem response (ABR) testing. This technique is used to cancel out the stimulus artifact, which is an electrical artifact that occurs in the ABR waveform due to the click stimulus. By canceling the stimulus artifact, the ABR waveform becomes clearer and more accurate, allowing for more precise interpretation of the test results. Therefore, the characteristic of alternating click polarity is that it cancels the stimulus artifact.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following refers to the phenomenon of fast frequency components of an artifact or signal showing up on an evoked potential at slower frequencies?

    • Delay

    • Smoothing

    • Aliasing

    • Anodal Blocking

    Correct Answer
    A. Aliasing
    Explanation
    Aliasing refers to the phenomenon where fast frequency components of an artifact or signal appear as slower frequencies on an evoked potential. This occurs when the sampling rate of the signal is too low to accurately represent the higher frequency components, causing them to be misrepresented as lower frequencies.

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  • 41. 

    Hypothermia

    • Has no effect on evoked potential latencies

    • Decreases evoked potential latencies

    • Increases evoked potential latencies

    • A variable effect on evoked potential latency

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases evoked potential latencies
    Explanation
    Hypothermia refers to a condition where the body's core temperature drops below normal levels. This can have various effects on the body, including a delay in nerve conduction. Evoked potentials are electrical signals generated by the nervous system in response to stimuli, and their latencies refer to the time it takes for these signals to travel along the nerves. Hypothermia can slow down nerve conduction, leading to an increase in evoked potential latencies. Therefore, the correct answer is that hypothermia increases evoked potential latencies.

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  • 42. 

    Examples of surgical manipulation would include

    • Blood pressure and heart rate fluctuations

    • Core temperature changes

    • Oxygenation and ventilation changes

    • Drilling and irrigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Drilling and irrigation
    Explanation
    Surgical manipulation refers to the various techniques and procedures used during surgery to manipulate tissues or organs. In this context, drilling and irrigation are examples of surgical manipulation. Drilling involves using a drill to create holes in bones or other hard tissues, while irrigation involves flushing a surgical site with a sterile solution to clean and remove debris. These techniques are commonly used in orthopedic, dental, and other surgical procedures to prepare the site for further interventions or to facilitate the surgical process.

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  • 43. 

    Masking:

    • Eliminates wave I

    • Eliminates cross over response via bone conduction

    • Enhances wave V

    • Enhances wave III

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminates cross over response via bone conduction
    Explanation
    The process of masking in audiology involves using noise to eliminate or suppress the response from one ear, allowing the response from the other ear to be measured separately. In this case, the answer suggests that masking is used to eliminate the cross over response via bone conduction. This means that the noise is used to prevent the sound from being conducted through the bones of the skull and reaching the opposite ear, ensuring that only the response from the intended ear is measured.

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  • 44. 

    Which cranial nerve is most appropriate to monitor during resection of a 4cm vestibular schwannoma?

    • Optic

    • Facial

    • Abducens

    • Oculomotor

    Correct Answer
    A. Facial
    Explanation
    During the resection of a 4cm vestibular schwannoma, monitoring the facial nerve is the most appropriate. The facial nerve is responsible for the movement of the muscles of the face, including the muscles involved in facial expressions. Resection of the schwannoma can potentially damage the facial nerve, leading to facial weakness or paralysis. Therefore, monitoring the facial nerve during the surgery is crucial to ensure its integrity and prevent any postoperative complications.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is a common complication of microvascular decompression of cranial nerve VII?

    • Visual loss

    • Hearing loss

    • Lower extremity weakness

    • Upper extremity weakness

    Correct Answer
    A. Hearing loss
    Explanation
    Microvascular decompression of cranial nerve VII is a surgical procedure used to treat trigeminal neuralgia. During the procedure, the surgeon places a cushion between the nerve and the blood vessel causing compression. While hearing loss is not a common complication of this surgery, it can occur due to injury to the cochlear nerve, which is located near cranial nerve VII. The other options, visual loss, lower extremity weakness, and upper extremity weakness, are not typically associated with this procedure.

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  • 46. 

    How will halogenated gases affect cortical SSEPs?

    • Decrease latency, decrease amplitude

    • Increase latency, decrease amplitude

    • Negligible affects

    • Increase latency, increase amplitude

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase latency, decrease amplitude
    Explanation
    Halogenated gases are known to have an inhibitory effect on the central nervous system. When these gases are administered, they can cause a delay in the transmission of signals from the sensory cortex to the brain, leading to an increase in latency. Additionally, these gases can also reduce the amplitude of the cortical somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs), which are electrical responses generated by the brain in response to sensory stimulation. Therefore, the correct answer is that halogenated gases will increase latency and decrease amplitude of cortical SSEPs.

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  • 47. 
    The waveform labeled A is most likely generated by the - ProProfs

    The waveform labeled A is most likely generated by the

    • Cortex

    • Brainstem

    • Cervical spine

    • Brachial plexus

    Correct Answer
    A. Cortex
    Explanation
    The waveform labeled A is most likely generated by the Cortex because the Cortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as perception, memory, and consciousness. It is the outer layer of the brain and contains billions of neurons that communicate through electrical signals, which can be detected as waveforms. The other options, such as the brainstem, cervical spine, and brachial plexus, are not involved in generating such complex cognitive functions and would not produce the waveform seen in A.

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  • 48. 

    The Popliteal Fossa and Erb’s Point potentials can be used to:

    • Verify adequacy of stimulus

    • Assess the integrity of the dorsal columns

    • Assess the integrity of the DREZ

    • Test the neuromuscular junction

    Correct Answer
    A. Verify adequacy of stimulus
    Explanation
    Pop fossa and erb’s point potentials can be used to verify the stimulus. Think about if you are monitoring a lumbar fusion and you lost your right lower extremity subcortical and cortical SSEP waveforms…. If you have a right pop fossa response, you can at least verify quickly that your stimulus is reaching the body and that the issue is likely in the region of the surgery.

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  • 49. 

    Troubleshooting in the OR is facilitated by:

    • Activating the 60hz filter

    • Viewing raw data input

    • Increasing the high frequency filter

    • Decreasing the high frequency filter

    Correct Answer
    A. Viewing raw data input
    Explanation
    Because you can determine the type of artifact that is interfering by looking at the raw, non-amplified data. Is it EMG artifact? Is it 60 cycle?

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 19, 2025 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 19, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 11, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Tylerleesavage

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