Components Of Input Current Quiz

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Components Of Input Current Quiz - Quiz

In this quiz you will get to learn about components of input current. Play this quiz and test your knowledge of amplifiers devices.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    One cycle

    • A.

      A) Per second is the same as one kilohertz

    • B.

      B) Is equal to one complete rotation of the armature of an AC generator.

    • C.

      C) Is one-half of a sine wave

    • D.

      D) Is two positive alternations of any AC .waveform

    • E.

      E) Per second is the same as 360 hertz

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Is equal to one complete rotation of the armature of an AC generator.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B) Is equal to one complete rotation of the armature of an AC generator. One cycle refers to one complete rotation of the armature in an AC generator. This means that the armature completes one full revolution, which corresponds to one cycle of the AC waveform.

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  • 2. 

    Which tool do you use to measure the input current on the input wiring?

    • A.

      A) An ohmmeter.

    • B.

      B) A clamp-on ammeter.

    • C.

      C) A digital multimeter (DMM).

    • D.

      D) A true RMS DMM.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) A clamp-on ammeter.
    Explanation
    A clamp-on ammeter is used to measure the input current on the input wiring. It is a convenient tool that can be easily clamped around the wire without the need to disconnect it. The ammeter measures the magnetic field generated by the current flowing through the wire and provides an accurate reading of the current. This tool is commonly used in electrical and electronic troubleshooting and maintenance tasks.

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  • 3. 

    Alternating current is a current

    • A.

      A) That varies in magnitude but never changes direction.

    • B.

      B) That changes direction but never varies in magnitude.

    • C.

      C) That never chages direction or magnitude

    • D.

      D) That changes direction (or alternates) in the conductor each time the potential difference applied to the ends of the conductor changes (or alternates) its polarity.

    • E.

      E) In a circuit with a potential difference that never changes polarity.

    Correct Answer
    D. D) That changes direction (or alternates) in the conductor each time the potential difference applied to the ends of the conductor changes (or alternates) its polarity.
    Explanation
    Alternating current is a type of current that constantly changes direction. This means that the flow of electrons in the conductor reverses its direction periodically. This change in direction occurs each time the potential difference applied to the ends of the conductor changes its polarity. Therefore, the correct answer is D) That changes direction (or alternates) in the conductor each time the potential difference applied to the ends of the conductor changes (or alternates) its polarity.

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  • 4. 

    Three components of the tap housing (and not the tap faceplate) are

    • A.

      A) The threaded mounting tap, seizure screw mechanisms, and right-angled input and output ports.

    • B.

      B) Tap ports, electronic circuit board, and radio frequency interference (RFI) gasket.

    • C.

      C) Output ports, input ports, and tap ports.

    • D.

      D) Strip gauge, cover bolts, and splitter network.

    • E.

      E) Plastic component cover, input port male or female interconnect pins, and low-pass coil.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) The threaded mounting tap, seizure screw mechanisms, and right-angled input and output ports.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A) The threaded mounting tap, seizure screw mechanisms, and right-angled input and output ports. This answer correctly identifies the three components of the tap housing that are being referred to in the question. The threaded mounting tap refers to the part of the housing that allows the tap to be securely mounted. The seizure screw mechanisms are used to secure the tap in place and prevent it from moving or rotating. The right-angled input and output ports are the connections through which the water flows in and out of the tap.

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  • 5. 

    Passive optical network (PON) is another name for which of the following terms?  

    • A.

      A) Fiber-to-the-node (FTTN).

    • B.

      B) Fiber-to-the-home (FTTH).

    • C.

      C) Fiber-to-the-curb (FTTC).

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Fiber-to-the-home (FTTH).
    Explanation
    Passive optical network (PON) refers to a telecommunications network that uses fiber optic cables to provide connections between the central office and multiple end-users. Fiber-to-the-home (FTTH) is a specific type of PON that extends the fiber optic connection all the way to the individual homes. Therefore, FTTH is the correct answer as it is another term for PON.

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  • 6. 

    A distribution amplifier requires an external AC voltage source. Which is the first component to receive the AC power

    • A.

      A) The seizure screw mechanism.

    • B.

      B) The Fast Transfer Electronic Crowbar (FTEC).

    • C.

      C) The plug-in jumper.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) The seizure screw mechanism.
    Explanation
    The seizure screw mechanism is the first component to receive the AC power in a distribution amplifier. This mechanism is responsible for securely connecting the external AC voltage source to the amplifier, ensuring a reliable power supply. The seizure screw mechanism acts as a connector, allowing the AC power to flow into the amplifier and power the other components.

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  • 7. 

    What is a leakage tagger used for?

    • A.

      A) Identify an individual leak from all other leaks.

    • B.

      B) Assure a leak is coming from the cable system being tested.

    • C.

      C) Prioritize leaks.

    • D.

      D) Tag a leak so it is easier to find the next time.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Assure a leak is coming from the cable system being tested.
    Explanation
    A leakage tagger is used to ensure that a leak is coming from the specific cable system that is being tested. It helps in identifying and confirming the source of the leak, allowing for targeted repairs and maintenance.

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  • 8. 

    The impedance of coaxial cable or a device is made up of the combined effects of which three electrical properties?

    • A.

      A) Capacitance, voltage, and inductance.

    • B.

      B) Resistance, inductance, and capacitance.

    • C.

      C) Inductance, resistance, and voltage.

    • D.

      D) Resistance, current, and capacitance.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Resistance, inductance, and capacitance.
    Explanation
    The impedance of a coaxial cable or a device is determined by its resistance, inductance, and capacitance. Resistance is the opposition to the flow of electric current, inductance is the property that opposes changes in current flow, and capacitance is the ability to store electrical energy. These three properties together determine the overall impedance of the cable or device.

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  • 9. 

    You are doing an aerial installation of fiber-optic cable. When you survey the installation path, you see that the path runs near several short outbuildings and over a series of hedges. Which installation method should you use?  

    • A.

      A) The drive-off method

    • B.

      B) The pull-in method.

    • C.

      C) The figure-eight tension method.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) The drive-off method
    Explanation
    The drive-off method should be used for the aerial installation of fiber-optic cable when the path runs near several short outbuildings and over a series of hedges. This method involves using a vehicle or machine to pull the cable along the installation path, allowing for efficient and effective installation without the need for extensive manual labor or potential damage to the surroundings.

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  • 10. 

    Induction

    • A.

      A) Is the sum of all the random magnetic fields associated with a conductor's free electrons.

    • B.

      B) Occurs in a conductor only when the current of an applied voltage is constant, or zero.

    • C.

      C) Is also known as electromagnetic field (emf).

    • D.

      D) Is the production of an emf in a conductor by changes in the magnetic field around the conductor.

    • E.

      E) In a conductor occurs when there is no magnetic field surrounding it.

    Correct Answer
    D. D) Is the production of an emf in a conductor by changes in the magnetic field around the conductor.
    Explanation
    Induction refers to the production of an electromotive force (emf) in a conductor due to changes in the magnetic field surrounding the conductor. This phenomenon occurs when there is a change in the magnetic field, such as when a magnet is moved near a conductor or when the current in a nearby conductor changes. The changing magnetic field induces an emf in the conductor, which can then cause a current to flow if the circuit is closed. Therefore, option D accurately describes the process of induction.

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  • 11. 

    Modulation error ratio (MER) is an indicator of digital modulation signal quality. For error-free reception and adequate margin, what should be the minimum MER reading for a 256-QAM (quadrature amplitude modulation) signal?.

    • A.

      A) ≥ 32 dB.

    • B.

      B) ≥ 26 dB.C) ≥ 36 dB.

    • C.

      D) ≤ 28 dB.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) ≥ 32 dB.
    Explanation
    The minimum MER reading for a 256-QAM signal should be at least 32 dB. This is because a higher MER indicates better signal quality and a lower likelihood of errors in reception. Therefore, to ensure error-free reception and sufficient margin, a minimum MER of 32 dB is required.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is the distance occupied by one hertz?

    • A.

      A) Frequency.

    • B.

      B) Amplitude.

    • C.

      C) Phase.

    • D.

      D) Wavelength.

    Correct Answer
    D. D) Wavelength.
    Explanation
    The distance occupied by one hertz is referred to as the wavelength. Frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional, meaning that as the frequency increases, the wavelength decreases. Therefore, one hertz corresponds to a specific distance, which is the wavelength. Amplitude refers to the maximum displacement of a wave from its equilibrium position, while phase refers to the position of a point in a wave cycle.

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  • 13. 

    A directional coupler

    • A.

      A) Divides the trunk or feeder cable signal into two equal voltage and power output signals.

    • B.

      B) Should be installed on a trunk or subtrunk cable either immediately at the output of the trunk amplifier, or at least three spans away, to minimize undesired reflections.

    • C.

      C) Passes the desired frequencies, combines the RF signals and AC voltages, and directs RF/AC signals to certain ports with minimum efficiency.

    • D.

      D) Has different housings and radio frequency interference(RFI) and environmental gaskets than a splitter.

    • E.

      E) Can pass AC voltage to the input port only.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Should be installed on a trunk or subtrunk cable either immediately at the output of the trunk amplifier, or at least three spans away, to minimize undesired reflections.
    Explanation
    A directional coupler is a device that allows power to be coupled from one port to another port in a specific direction. In this case, the correct answer states that a directional coupler should be installed on a trunk or subtrunk cable either immediately at the output of the trunk amplifier or at least three spans away. This is to minimize undesired reflections, which can occur when signals are reflected back towards the source and cause interference. By installing the directional coupler in the specified locations, the reflections can be minimized, leading to better signal quality.

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  • 14. 

    A customer is having trouble accessing a particular Web site. What performance utility should the technician run to identify the router-to-router network hops that a data packet travels across, en route from the modem analyzer to the Web site's server?

    • A.

      A) Ipconfig.

    • B.

      B) Trace route.

    • C.

      C) Throughput.

    • D.

      D) Ping.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Trace route.
    Explanation
    To identify the router-to-router network hops that a data packet travels across, en route from the modem analyzer to the Web site's server, the technician should run the Trace route utility. This utility traces the route that the packet takes by sending a series of small data packets with increasing Time-to-Live (TTL) values, and recording the IP addresses of the routers along the way. This helps in identifying any network issues or bottlenecks that may be causing the trouble in accessing the Web site.

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  • 15. 

    When a capacitor is fully charged,

    • A.

      A) The capacitor allows the flow of current in a capacitive DC circuit.

    • B.

      B) The applied voltage is zero and the capacitor voltage is zero, in a capacitive AC circuit

    • C.

      C) The source voltage reaches its minimum value.

    • D.

      D) Both the applied voltage and the charging current stop changing values for an indefinite but significant period of time, in a capacitive AC circuit.

    • E.

      E) The source current then reverses directions and flows back through the source, in a capacitive AC circuit.

    Correct Answer
    E. E) The source current then reverses directions and flows back through the source, in a capacitive AC circuit.
  • 16. 

    What is the value of the current when: (1) the effective voltage is 120 volts; (2) the resistance of the source is 3 ohms; (3) the resistance of the conductors is 2 ohms; and (4) the resistance of the load is 5 ohms?

    • A.

      A) 0.83 amperes.

    • B.

      B) 12.00 amperes

    • C.

      C) 10.00 amperes.

    • D.

      D) 1.20 amperes.

    • E.

      E) 22.00 amperes.

    Correct Answer
    D. D) 1.20 amperes.
    Explanation
    The current can be calculated using Ohm's Law, which states that current (I) is equal to voltage (V) divided by resistance (R). In this case, the effective voltage is given as 120 volts, and the total resistance is the sum of the resistance of the source (3 ohms), the conductors (2 ohms), and the load (5 ohms), which is equal to 10 ohms. Therefore, the current is 120 volts divided by 10 ohms, which equals 12 amperes. However, the question asks for the value of the current, not the effective value. The effective value is the root mean square (RMS) value, which is equal to the peak value divided by the square root of 2. Therefore, to find the value of the current, we need to divide the RMS value by the square root of 2. 12 amperes divided by the square root of 2 is approximately 1.20 amperes.

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  • 17. 

    A directional tap that feeds signal through to other taps

    • A.

      A) Has a specified tap port insertion loss but the output insertion loss is not specified

    • B.

      B) Has a directional coupler portion that efficiently routes most of the signal to the output port while removing a small amount of the signal and passing it to the splitter network.

    • C.

      C) Has a circuit board with a low-pass coil that blocks the 60 Hz AC voltage directly between the input port and the output port, while passing the higher frequency RF signals.

    • D.

      D) Does not have an output port interconnect pin because it does not pass any signals to the output port.

    • E.

      E) RF signal level at the output port is determined by the tap's isolation.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Has a directional coupler portion that efficiently routes most of the signal to the output port while removing a small amount of the signal and passing it to the splitter network.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B because it explains that a directional tap has a directional coupler portion that routes most of the signal to the output port, while removing a small amount of the signal and passing it to the splitter network. This means that the tap allows signal to flow through to other taps while also providing a signal output.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following statements is true?

    • A.

      B) Minimize the cable length between the power supply and the power inserter to maximize AC voltage loss.

    • B.

      C) Power inserters remove a small portion of the main RF trunk signal and supply it to the subtrunk cable, or from one feeder cable to another cable.

    • C.

      D) A power inserter's internal circuitry passes forward RF signals on one RF/AC port and reverse RF signals on the other port while combining 24 DCV onto one or both of its RF/AC ports.

    • D.

      E) For each power inserter, the system design must ensure that: (1) the current required by any one RF/AC port does not exceed that port's power-passing specification; and (2) the current required by both RF/AC ports does not exceed the AC input port power-passing specification.

    Correct Answer
    D. E) For each power inserter, the system design must ensure that: (1) the current required by any one RF/AC port does not exceed that port's power-passing specification; and (2) the current required by both RF/AC ports does not exceed the AC input port power-passing specification.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is E because it states the necessary conditions that must be met in the system design for a power inserter. It mentions that the current required by any one RF/AC port should not exceed its power-passing specification and the current required by both RF/AC ports should not exceed the AC input port power-passing specification. This ensures that the power inserter functions properly and does not exceed its power limitations.

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  • 19. 

    The unique quality of test points is one of the many factors which distinguish line extenders. If it is important for test signals to be sent in both directions from the test points, which type of test points should the line extender have

    • A.

      A) Resistive type.

    • B.

      B) High-gain type.

    • C.

      C) Directional coupler type.

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Directional coupler type.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C) Directional coupler type. The question states that it is important for test signals to be sent in both directions from the test points. A directional coupler is a device that allows signals to be split and sent in different directions. Therefore, using a directional coupler type of test points would be the most suitable option for achieving this requirement.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following generally has the highest fixed capacitance values?

    • A.

      A) Electrolytic capacitors.

    • B.

      B) Oil-filled capacitors.

    • C.

      C) Trimmer capacitors.

    • D.

      D) Paper capacitors.

    • E.

      E) Padder capacitors.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Electrolytic capacitors.
    Explanation
    Electrolytic capacitors generally have the highest fixed capacitance values compared to other types of capacitors listed. This is because electrolytic capacitors use an electrolyte as one of the electrodes, which allows for a larger capacitance value. Oil-filled capacitors, trimmer capacitors, paper capacitors, and padder capacitors typically have lower capacitance values.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following statements is true about hardline RF splitters?

    • A.

      A) Three-way splitters have one input port and two output ports.

    • B.

      B) Two-way splitters can be set up to direct 60/90 VAC to either or both output ports for powering trunk/bridger, minibridger, distribution, system, or line extender amplifiers.

    • C.

      C) All hardline RF splitters have "keyed"faceplates to ensure correct installation.

    • D.

      D) Jumper wires should never be replaced with fuses for distributing AC voltage.

    • E.

      E) Power loss in a three-way balanced splitter is less than a two-way splitter.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Two-way splitters can be set up to direct 60/90 VAC to either or both output ports for powering trunk/bridger, minibridger, distribution, system, or line extender amplifiers.
    Explanation
    Two-way splitters can be set up to direct 60/90 VAC to either or both output ports for powering trunk/bridger, minibridger, distribution, system, or line extender amplifiers. This statement is true because two-way splitters have the capability to direct power to the output ports, allowing them to power various types of amplifiers.

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  • 22. 

    Ground-based cumulative leakage index (CLI) and flyover signal leakage measurements

    • A.

      A) If recorded digitally, must show that the 75th percentile level of points recorded over a cable system do not exceed 20 uV/m root mean square (RMS).

    • B.

      B) Both require the use of a handheld dipole antenna.

    • C.

      C) Utilize different types of receivers and antennas, but both methods test signals operating in the VHF aeronautical band (108-137 MHz).

    • D.

      D) Both require measurements be taken in the 225-400 MHz frequency band.

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Utilize different types of receivers and antennas, but both methods test signals operating in the VHF aeronautical band (108-137 MHz).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C) Utilize different types of receivers and antennas, but both methods test signals operating in the VHF aeronautical band (108-137 MHz). This means that both ground-based cumulative leakage index (CLI) and flyover signal leakage measurements use different equipment, but they both focus on testing signals within the VHF aeronautical band.

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  • 23. 

    After a foam dielectric cable is properly cored and stripped, the cable's center conductor should be

    • A.

      After a foam dielectric cable is properly cored and stripped, the cable's center conductor should be A) Prepared with a rounded tip.

    • B.

      B) Lubricated to prevent it from getting hung up when installing the connector.

    • C.

      C) Coated with an adhesive to hold the connector in place.

    • D.

      D) Filed to remove any sharp edges or burrs.

    • E.

      E) Prepared with a pyramid-shaped cut to the tip.

    Correct Answer
    E. E) Prepared with a pyramid-shaped cut to the tip.
    Explanation
    After a foam dielectric cable is properly cored and stripped, the cable's center conductor should be prepared with a pyramid-shaped cut to the tip. This is because a pyramid-shaped cut helps to ensure a better electrical connection when the connector is installed. It provides a larger surface area for the connector to make contact with, resulting in improved signal transmission and reduced signal loss. Additionally, a pyramid-shaped cut helps to prevent damage to the cable and ensures a secure and stable connection between the cable and the connector.

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  • 24. 

    Many factors influence signal attenuation. What is the effect of temperature on cable signal attenuation?

    • A.

      A) The higher the temperature, the lesser the cable signal attenuation

    • B.

      B) Temperature has no affect on cable signal attenuation.

    • C.

      C) The higher the temperature, the greater the cable signal attenuation.

    Correct Answer
    C. C) The higher the temperature, the greater the cable signal attenuation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C) The higher the temperature, the greater the cable signal attenuation. As temperature increases, the resistance of the cable also increases, leading to higher signal attenuation. This is due to the increased molecular motion in the cable, which results in more collisions between the signal and the cable's atoms or molecules, causing the signal to weaken or attenuate.

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  • 25. 

    When the primary-to-secondary turns ratio in a transformer

    • A.

      A) Is 1:2 or 1/2, the secondary coil voltage is one half the primary coil voltage.

    • B.

      B) Is 2:1 or 2/1, the secondary coil voltage is twice the primary coil current.

    • C.

      C) Is 1:1 or 1/1, the voltage is the same in the primary and secondary coils, but the secondary coil current is always larger than the primary coil current.

    • D.

      D) Is 1:2 or 1/2, the secondary coil voltage is two times larger than the primary coil voltage.

    • E.

      E) Is less than one, the voltages and currents in the primary and secondary coils are equal.

    Correct Answer
    D. D) Is 1:2 or 1/2, the secondary coil voltage is two times larger than the primary coil voltage.
    Explanation
    When the primary-to-secondary turns ratio in a transformer is 1:2 or 1/2, it means that for every one turn in the primary coil, there are two turns in the secondary coil. This results in a voltage ratio of 1:2, meaning that the secondary coil voltage is two times larger than the primary coil voltage.

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  • 26. 

    A semiconductor

    • A.

      A) Can be a fairly good conductor under certain conditions and yet function as a rather good insulator under a different set of conditions.

    • B.

      B) Always offers little opposition to current flow.

    • C.

      C) Is somewhat unsuitable for use in devices that can control the flow of current through a circuit and amplify electrical signals.

    • D.

      D) Uses fragile, bulky, and power-gobbling vacuum tubes.

    • E.

      E) Always offers a great deal of opposition to current flow.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Can be a fairly good conductor under certain conditions and yet function as a rather good insulator under a different set of conditions.
    Explanation
    Semiconductors have the unique property of being able to conduct electricity under certain conditions and act as insulators under different conditions. This property makes them suitable for use in devices that can control the flow of current through a circuit and amplify electrical signals. They are not as unsuitable as option C suggests. Option B is incorrect because semiconductors do offer some opposition to current flow. Option D is incorrect because semiconductors do not use vacuum tubes. Option E is also incorrect because semiconductors do not always offer a great deal of opposition to current flow.

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  • 27. 

    Line extenders can be powered from the cable system or from a 120 VAC source. Which of the following statements about line extender power sources is true?

    • A.

      A) Line extenders powered by the cable system can pass current to other devices.

    • B.

      B) The components of a linear power supply are smaller than the comparable components in a switching-mode power supply (SMPs).

    • C.

      C) MDU applications are usually powered by the cable system.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Line extenders powered by the cable system can pass current to other devices.
    Explanation
    Line extenders powered by the cable system can pass current to other devices. This means that they have the capability to provide power to other devices connected to them, allowing for a more efficient and streamlined power distribution system. This is a benefit of using line extenders powered by the cable system, as it eliminates the need for separate power sources for each device.

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  • 28. 

    To transmit AC power efficiently, what power line voltage-current combination would deliver the same amount of power as 10 amps and 10,000 volts, but with the least heat loss?

    • A.

      A) 100 amps and 1,000 volts.

    • B.

      B) 4 amps and 25,000 volts.

    • C.

      C) 50 amps and 2,000 volts.

    • D.

      D) 2 amps and 50,000 volts.

    • E.

      E) 25 amps and 4,000 volts.

    Correct Answer
    D. D) 2 amps and 50,000 volts.
    Explanation
    The power delivered by an electrical system is given by the formula P = IV, where P is the power in watts, I is the current in amps, and V is the voltage in volts. In order to minimize heat loss, we want to keep the power the same while minimizing the current. By increasing the voltage and decreasing the current, we can achieve the same power with less heat loss. Among the given options, option D) 2 amps and 50,000 volts has the lowest current and highest voltage, making it the most efficient choice for transmitting AC power.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is created by an amplifier module?

    • A.

      A) Slope.

    • B.

      B) Negative tilt.

    • C.

      C) Positive tilt.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Slope.
    Explanation
    An amplifier module is designed to increase the amplitude of a signal. The term "slope" is often used to describe the change in amplitude or frequency response of a signal. Therefore, it is likely that an amplifier module is responsible for creating the slope in this context.

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  • 30. 

    Capacitive reactance

    • A.

      A) Can never equal inductive reactance in an AC circuit that has both an inductor and a capacitor.

    • B.

      B) Decreases when the frequency decreases, in a capacitive AC circuit.

    • C.

      C) In a capacitive AC circuit is equal to 2 times pi times the frequency of the applied AC source voltage in hertz times the circuit inductance in henrys.

    • D.

      D) Is the opposition to current flow in an AC circuit caused by a capacitor.

    • E.

      E) Is considered negligible in all completely capacitive circuits.

    Correct Answer
    D. D) Is the opposition to current flow in an AC circuit caused by a capacitor.
    Explanation
    Capacitive reactance is the opposition to current flow in an AC circuit caused by a capacitor. It is a measure of how much the capacitor resists the flow of alternating current. As the frequency of the AC circuit increases, the capacitive reactance decreases. However, it can never equal the inductive reactance in a circuit that has both an inductor and a capacitor. In completely capacitive circuits, where there are no other components like inductors, the capacitive reactance is considered negligible.

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  • 31. 

    The total capacitance of individual capacitors

    • A.

      A) Connected in series is equal to the sum of the individual capacitances.

    • B.

      B) Connected in parallel is the same as the total capacitance of the same capacitors connected in series.

    • C.

      C) Connected in parallel is always smaller than the largest capacitor value.

    • D.

      D) Connected in series is always smaller than the smallest capacitor value.

    • E.

      E) Connected in parallel is always smaller than the smallest capacitor value.

    Correct Answer
    D. D) Connected in series is always smaller than the smallest capacitor value.
    Explanation
    When capacitors are connected in series, the total capacitance is always smaller than the smallest capacitor value. This is because when capacitors are connected in series, the total capacitance is inversely proportional to the individual capacitances. Therefore, the smallest capacitor value will have the greatest effect on the total capacitance, making it smaller than the smallest capacitor value.

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  • 32. 

    How is an AC resistive circuit the same as a DC resistive circuit?

    • A.

      A) They have similar Ohm's law and power relationships, with certain exceptions.

    • B.

      B) Both types of circuits have eddy currents.

    • C.

      C) Both types of circuits have skin-effect losses.

    • D.

      D) The voltage continuously changes in both types of circuits

    • E.

      E) The magnitude of current is constant in both types of circuits.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) They have similar Ohm's law and power relationships, with certain exceptions.
    Explanation
    An AC resistive circuit and a DC resistive circuit both follow Ohm's law and have similar power relationships, such as the relationship between voltage, current, and resistance. However, there are certain exceptions, such as the fact that in an AC circuit, the voltage continuously changes over time, while in a DC circuit, the voltage remains constant. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

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  • 33. 

    A time domain reflectometer (TDR) uses velocity of propagation, cable radar, and signal pulse width to determine the distance to the cable fault. Which of these factors determines the size of the blind spot?

    • A.

      A) Velocity of propagation.

    • B.

      B) Signal pulse width.

    • C.

      C) Cable radar.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Signal pulse width.
    Explanation
    The size of the blind spot in a time domain reflectometer (TDR) is determined by the signal pulse width. A longer pulse width results in a larger blind spot because it takes longer for the TDR to receive the reflected signal from the cable fault. This means that a longer section of the cable will be "invisible" to the TDR during the measurement. Therefore, the signal pulse width directly affects the accuracy and resolution of the TDR in locating cable faults.

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  • 34. 

    Leakage field strength meters and standard signal level meters

    • A.

      A) Always measure leakage in microvolts per meter.

    • B.

      B) Use a dipole antenna to take accurate measurements for cumulative leakage index (CLI) calculations.

    • C.

      C) Can only measure leakage in dBmV.

    • D.

      D) Provide leakage measurements in the required 137-225 MHz frequency band.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Always measure leakage in microvolts per meter.
    Explanation
    Leakage field strength meters and standard signal level meters are used to measure the strength of electromagnetic fields. The correct answer states that these meters always measure leakage in microvolts per meter. This means that the meters are calibrated to measure the strength of leakage in terms of microvolts per meter, which is a standard unit of measurement for electromagnetic fields. This answer suggests that these meters are reliable and accurate in measuring leakage.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is used to define the waveform of an optical signal?

    • A.

      A) Frequency.

    • B.

      B) Amplitude.

    • C.

      C) Cycle.

    • D.

      D) Wavelength.

    Correct Answer
    D. D) Wavelength.
    Explanation
    The wavelength is used to define the waveform of an optical signal. The wavelength represents the distance between two consecutive peaks or troughs of the waveform. It determines the color or frequency of the light wave. By measuring the wavelength, we can determine the characteristics of the optical signal, such as its frequency, amplitude, and cycle.

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  • 36. 

    Regarding diodes,

    • A.

      A) The magnitude of the current flowing through the diode with positive voltage is exactly the same as the magnitude of the current flowing through the diode with negative voltage across the diode.

    • B.

      B) Depending on the type of diode utilized, once the voltage across the diode reaches a certain level, the diode begins to conduct.

    • C.

      C) The P-type material in the diode is called the cathode, and the N-type material is called the anode.

    • D.

      D) A nonlinear relationship exists between the voltage dropped across the resistor and the current flowing through the resistor.

    • E.

      E) A negative voltage dropped across the resistor results in a greater amount of current flowing through the resistor as a positive voltage dropped across the resistor.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Depending on the type of diode utilized, once the voltage across the diode reaches a certain level, the diode begins to conduct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that the conduction of a diode depends on the type of diode used and the voltage applied across it. Once the voltage reaches a certain level, the diode starts to conduct. This is a fundamental property of diodes known as the forward voltage drop. When the forward voltage exceeds a certain threshold, the diode allows current to flow through it. This behavior is essential for various applications in electronics, such as rectification and signal modulation.

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  • 37. 

    The tunnel diode

    • A.

      A) Has relatively high barrier potential, yet electrons can be forced to "tunnel"through the thin depletion region.

    • B.

      B) Exhibits negative resistance effects that are of little use in high frequency oscillator circuits.

    • C.

      C) Is sometimes used as an electric switch, with the key feature in this application being its low switching speed and high power consumption.

    • D.

      D) Exhibits the negative-resistance region of its I-V curve, where an increase in forward voltage actually causes an increase in forward current.

    • E.

      E) Is manufactured with a high proportion of doping material and an especially thick depletion region.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Has relatively high barrier potential, yet electrons can be forced to "tunnel"through the thin depletion region.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A) Has relatively high barrier potential, yet electrons can be forced to "tunnel" through the thin depletion region. This is because a tunnel diode has a unique characteristic where it can allow electrons to tunnel through the depletion region, even though it has a high barrier potential. This tunneling effect allows for the diode to have a very fast response time and can be used in applications such as high-frequency oscillators and amplifiers.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following statements about instantaneous values is true?

    • A.

      A) The instantaneous value of an AC waveform may range from the least positive value to the average negative value.

    • B.

      B) An AC waveform contains only three instantaneous values because the sine wave crosses the horizontal (time) axis only three times.

    • C.

      C) The instantaneous value is the value of a single point on the AC waveform at a specific moment, or instant, of time.

    • D.

      D) The instantaneous value is another name for the effective value of an AC waveform.

    • E.

      E) The instantaneous value is an AC waveform is never used in the communications field for circuit analysis.

    Correct Answer
    C. C) The instantaneous value is the value of a single point on the AC waveform at a specific moment, or instant, of time.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The instantaneous value refers to the value of a single point on an AC waveform at a specific moment in time. It represents the voltage or current at a particular instant and can vary continuously as the waveform changes. This concept is important in understanding the behavior and analysis of AC circuits.

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  • 39. 

    Materials safety data sheets (MSDS) are available for any chemicals that are considered hazardous. Where should they be kept?

    • A.

      A) With the chemicals.

    • B.

      B) In the truck.

    • C.

      C) Where employees have access to them.

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Where employees have access to them.
    Explanation
    MSDS should be kept where employees have access to them because it is important for employees to have easy access to information about hazardous chemicals in order to ensure their safety. This allows employees to quickly and easily refer to the MSDS for information on handling, storage, and emergency procedures related to the chemicals they are working with. Keeping the MSDS in a location where employees can easily find and reference them promotes a safe working environment and helps employees make informed decisions regarding the use and handling of hazardous materials.

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  • 40. 

    To connect a coaxial cable to a 750 MHz amplifier, use a

    • A.

      To connect a coaxial cable to a 750 MHz amplifier, use a A) Three-piece or two-piece pin connector.

    • B.

      B) Feed-thru connector.

    • C.

      C) Three- or five-piece straight splice connector.

    • D.

      D) Housing-to-housing adapter.

    • E.

      E) Cable terminator.

    Correct Answer
    A. To connect a coaxial cable to a 750 MHz amplifier, use a A) Three-piece or two-piece pin connector.
    Explanation
    A three-piece or two-piece pin connector is commonly used to connect coaxial cables to amplifiers. This type of connector provides a secure and reliable connection, ensuring that the signal is properly transmitted between the cable and the amplifier. It is specifically designed for coaxial cables and is capable of handling frequencies up to 750 MHz, making it suitable for connecting to a 750 MHz amplifier.

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  • 41. 

    Hardline RF splitter insertion loss

    • A.

      A) Is added to the input signal level at the same frequency to obtain the splitter's output signal level at each output port of a two-way splitter.

    • B.

      B) At the highest carrier frequency is slightly greater for a two-way splitter

    • C.

      C) For a three-way unbalanced splitter is the same on all three output ports.

    • D.

      D) Usually decreases with an increase in frequency, depending on manufacturer specifications.

    • E.

      E) Is the attenuation between the input port and an output port of an RF line splitter.

    Correct Answer
    E. E) Is the attenuation between the input port and an output port of an RF line splitter.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is E because insertion loss is the measure of the attenuation between the input port and an output port of an RF line splitter. It represents the decrease in signal level that occurs as the signal passes through the splitter.

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  • 42. 

    Unity gain is achieved when the signal strength along a cable is maintained at a specific level by the amplifiers. If the gain generated by an amplifier is too high, what will be the most likely result?

    • A.

      A) Signal distortion.

    • B.

      B) Signal slope.

    • C.

      C) Signal noise.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Signal distortion.
    Explanation
    When the gain generated by an amplifier is too high, it can result in signal distortion. This means that the amplified signal may become distorted or altered in some way, leading to a loss of accuracy or clarity. This can happen due to non-linearities in the amplifier's response or overloading of the amplifier.

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  • 43. 

    The return loss in trunk and feeder coaxial cable is

    • A.

      A) The ratio of the maximum value to the minimum value of alternating RMS voltage of the RF signal on the cable.

    • B.

      B) The larger the ratio value in dB, the larger the amount of reflected signal voltage.

    • C.

      C) Is the amount of damaged cable on a reel to be sent back to the factory.

    • D.

      D) The term given when the coaxial cable's physical structure has changed.

    • E.

      E) The difference in dB between the signal power applied to a terminated cable and the reflected signal power.

    Correct Answer
    E. E) The difference in dB between the signal power applied to a terminated cable and the reflected signal power.
    Explanation
    The return loss in trunk and feeder coaxial cable is the difference in dB between the signal power applied to a terminated cable and the reflected signal power. This means that it measures the amount of power that is reflected back towards the source due to impedance mismatches or other factors. A higher return loss value indicates that less power is being reflected, which is desirable for efficient signal transmission.

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  • 44. 

    You are measuring a 115 VAC using a standard digital multimeter (DMM). What factor does the DMM use to calculate the RMS reading?

    • A.

      A) 1.11.

    • B.

      B) 110.

    • C.

      C) 7.5.

    • D.

      D) 60.4.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) 1.11.
    Explanation
    The DMM uses a factor of 1.11 to calculate the RMS reading of the 115 VAC measurement.

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  • 45. 

    There are three filtering networks in a power inserter. What is the purpose of the high-pass filter (HPF)?

    • A.

      A) To prevent the 60 VAC or 90 VAC from passing between the two RF/AC ports.

    • B.

      B) To pass the 60 VAC or 90 VAC through the network.

    • C.

      C) To prevent RF signals from transmitting through the power supply.

    • D.

      D) To prevent the RF signals from transmitting through the power supply.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) To prevent the 60 VAC or 90 VAC from passing between the two RF/AC ports.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the high-pass filter (HPF) in a power inserter is to prevent the 60 VAC or 90 VAC from passing between the two RF/AC ports. This ensures that the power supply is isolated from the RF signals and prevents any interference or damage that could occur if the voltages were allowed to pass through.

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  • 46. 

    Regarding covalent bonding in semiconductor material,

    • A.

      A) A large amount of doping material made of tetravalent atoms is sometimes combined with extremely small amounts of highly purified trivalent and pentavalent atoms.

    • B.

      B) Pentavalent atoms always form bond with four other identical atoms.

    • C.

      C) Holes from missing electrons are left when creating covalent bonds between four trivalent atoms and one tetravalent atom.

    • D.

      D) Covalent bonds are two-dimensional, forming a crystalline molecule, or lattice, that is shaped like a square.

    • E.

      E) A pentavalent atom bonding with a tetravalent atom leaves an extra electron in the bonding arrangement.

    Correct Answer
    E. E) A pentavalent atom bonding with a tetravalent atom leaves an extra electron in the bonding arrangement.
    Explanation
    In covalent bonding in semiconductor materials, a pentavalent atom (an atom with five valence electrons) forms a bond with a tetravalent atom (an atom with four valence electrons). This results in the sharing of electrons between the atoms, but since the pentavalent atom has one extra electron, there is an extra electron in the bonding arrangement. This extra electron is responsible for the conductivity of the semiconductor material.

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  • 47. 

    The FCC requires that signal leakage of a certain magnitude must be logged and repaired. How strong must the signal leak be before the FCC requires that it be logged and repaired?

    • A.

      A) 20 µV/m

    • B.

      B) 80 µV/m

    • C.

      C) 50 µV/m

    Correct Answer
    A. A) 20 µV/m
    Explanation
    The FCC requires that signal leakage of a certain magnitude must be logged and repaired. The correct answer is A) 20 µV/m because this is the minimum strength of signal leakage that the FCC requires to be logged and repaired.

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  • 48. 

    When you use a digital signal analyzer to examine a digital signal, one of the values you should check is the symbol rate. What should be the symbol rate setting be for a 256-QAM signal specified by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) in ITU-T J.83 Annex B?

    • A.

      A) 5.056941 megasymbols per second (MS/s).

    • B.

      B) 5.360537megasymbols per second (MS/s).

    • C.

      C) 5.12 megasymbols per second (MS/s).

    • D.

      D) 6.952 megasymbols per second (MS/s).

    Correct Answer
    B. B) 5.360537megasymbols per second (MS/s).
    Explanation
    The correct symbol rate setting for a 256-QAM signal specified by the ITU in ITU-T J.83 Annex B is 5.360537 megasymbols per second (MS/s).

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  • 49. 

    Certain ways of using a time domain reflectometer (TDR) are considered best practices, and are most likely to give you the most accurate results in the shortest amount of time. If you want to check a coaxial cable for faults and measure its length using the best practice, how would you set the pulse width?

    • A.

      A) Start with the default pulse width.

    • B.

      B) Start with the shortest pulse width.

    • C.

      C) Start with the widest pulse width.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Start with the shortest pulse width.
    Explanation
    To get the most accurate results in the shortest time when checking a coaxial cable for faults and measuring its length using a TDR, it is best to start with the shortest pulse width. This is because a shorter pulse width allows for better resolution and can help identify smaller faults or inconsistencies in the cable. Starting with the shortest pulse width also helps to reduce the time it takes to complete the measurement process.

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  • 50. 

    The center conductor of trunk and feeder coaxial cable

    • A.

      A) Is typically bonded to the dielectric with a polymer adhesive coating or center conductor treatment to inhibit moisture migration and corrosion.

    • B.

      B) Causes one-third of the total cable attenuation.

    • C.

      The center conductor of trunk and feeder coaxial cable A) Is typically bonded to the dielectric with a polymer adhesive coating or center conductor treatment to inhibit moisture migration and corrosion. B) Causes one-third of the total cable attenuation. C) Size has no effect on the cable attenuation.

    • D.

      E) When made of solid copper is lighter and has a higher DC resistance than a center conductor made from copper-clad aluminum.

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Is typically bonded to the dielectric with a polymer adhesive coating or center conductor treatment to inhibit moisture migration and corrosion.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the center conductor of trunk and feeder coaxial cable is typically bonded to the dielectric with a polymer adhesive coating or center conductor treatment to inhibit moisture migration and corrosion. This is important because moisture migration and corrosion can degrade the performance and lifespan of the cable. By bonding the center conductor to the dielectric with a polymer adhesive coating or treatment, the cable is protected from these issues, ensuring better signal transmission and longevity.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 14, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jan 28, 2014
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