Medical Review Quiz 21

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| By Mathewes48
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Mathewes48
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 2,450
Questions: 29 | Attempts: 1,089

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Medical Review Quizzes & Trivia

Medical review MA 225


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Standard Precautions are designed to be used for

    • A.

      Patients known to be infected

    • B.

      Patients suspected of being infected

    • C.

      All patients

    • D.

      Patients recovering from an infectious disease

    • E.

      Infected health care workers

    Correct Answer
    C. All patients
    Explanation
    Standard Precautions are a set of infection control practices that are designed to be used for all patients, regardless of their infection status. These precautions include hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment (such as gloves, masks, and gowns), safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of contaminated materials. By implementing these precautions for all patients, healthcare workers can reduce the risk of transmission of infectious agents and protect both themselves and their patients from potential infections.

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  • 2. 

    Disposable single-use gloves should be worn

    • A.

      When taking a blood pressure

    • B.

      When handling specimens

    • C.

      When performing venipuncture

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    E. B and C
    Explanation
    Disposable single-use gloves should be worn when handling specimens and when performing venipuncture. This is because these activities involve direct contact with bodily fluids, which may pose a risk of infection or contamination. Wearing gloves helps to protect both the healthcare worker and the patient from potential transmission of pathogens. Wearing gloves when taking a blood pressure is not necessary unless there is a risk of contact with bodily fluids. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C.

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  • 3. 

    Normal oral temperature, in degrees, is

    • A.

      96.8' F

    • B.

      97.6' F

    • C.

      98.6' F

    • D.

      36' C

    • E.

      38' C

    Correct Answer
    C. 98.6' F
    Explanation
    The normal oral temperature is typically considered to be 98.6' F.

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  • 4. 

    Normal respiratory rate for an adult is

    • A.

      10 to 16 breaths per minute

    • B.

      14 to 20 breaths per minute

    • C.

      20 to 26 breaths per minute

    • D.

      30 to 38 breaths per minute

    • E.

      30 to 60 breaths per minute

    Correct Answer
    B. 14 to 20 breaths per minute
    Explanation
    The normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically between 14 to 20 breaths per minute. This range indicates the average number of breaths a person takes within a minute. It is important for the respiratory rate to fall within this range as it signifies that the individual's breathing is within a healthy and normal range. A respiratory rate that is too low or too high may indicate an underlying health issue.

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  • 5. 

    The pulse rate is

    • A.

      Usually higher in adults than in children

    • B.

      Usually higher in children than in adults

    • C.

      The same for both

    • D.

      Lower at birth than at 1 year

    • E.

      Higher in adults over 60 than in a child under 7 years of age

    Correct Answer
    B. Usually higher in children than in adults
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Usually higher in children than in adults." This is because children have smaller hearts and their cardiovascular systems are still developing, so their hearts need to beat faster to pump enough blood to their bodies. As people age, their hearts become more efficient and don't need to work as hard, resulting in a lower pulse rate in adults compared to children.

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  • 6. 

    Pulse rate is decreased by

    • A.

      Sleep

    • B.

      Brain injury, causing increased pressure

    • C.

      Hypothyroidism

    • D.

      A and B

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the given options can cause a decrease in pulse rate. During sleep, the body's metabolism slows down, leading to a decrease in heart rate. Brain injury can cause increased pressure in the brain, which can result in a decrease in pulse rate. Hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, can also cause a decrease in pulse rate. Therefore, all of the above options can contribute to a decrease in pulse rate.

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  • 7. 

    A high fever occurs when the body temperature, in degrees, is

    • A.

      98' to 99' F

    • B.

      99' to 101' F

    • C.

      101' to 103' F

    • D.

      103' to 105' F

    • E.

      38.3' to 39.5' C

    Correct Answer
    D. 103' to 105' F
    Explanation
    A high fever occurs when the body temperature is between 103' to 105' F. This range indicates a significantly elevated body temperature, which is often a sign of an underlying illness or infection. It is important to monitor and manage high fevers as they can cause discomfort and potentially lead to complications.

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  • 8. 

    The pulse pressure is

    • A.

      The difference between the systolic and the diastolic blood pressure

    • B.

      An occasional missed beat

    • C.

      Absence of a carotid pulse

    • D.

      Alternating weak and strong beats

    • E.

      The difference between apical and radial pulses

    Correct Answer
    A. The difference between the systolic and the diastolic blood pressure
    Explanation
    The pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure. Systolic blood pressure refers to the highest pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts, while diastolic blood pressure refers to the lowest pressure when the heart is at rest between beats. The pulse pressure is an indicator of the strength and elasticity of the arteries. A wider pulse pressure may indicate increased risk of cardiovascular disease, while a narrower pulse pressure may indicate reduced cardiac output.

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  • 9. 

    A patient who weighs 45kg also weighs how many pounds?

    • A.

      45

    • B.

      99

    • C.

      105

    • D.

      145

    • E.

      150

    Correct Answer
    B. 99
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99. To convert kilograms to pounds, you need to multiply the weight in kilograms by 2.2046. Therefore, 45 kilograms is equal to approximately 99 pounds.

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  • 10. 

    A patient who is 72 inches tall is

    • A.

      6 feet

    • B.

      6 feet, 2 inches

    • C.

      6 feet, 4 inches

    • D.

      5 feet, 2 inches

    • E.

      5 feet, 6 inches

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 feet
    Explanation
    The patient who is 72 inches tall is 6 feet in height. This is because there are 12 inches in a foot, so dividing 72 by 12 gives us 6 feet.

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  • 11. 

    During a physical examination, percussion is most commonly used to examine the

    • A.

      Chest and back

    • B.

      Mouth and Throat

    • C.

      Eyes and ears

    • D.

      Breasts

    • E.

      Nose and neck

    Correct Answer
    A. Chest and back
    Explanation
    During a physical examination, percussion is most commonly used to examine the chest and back. Percussion involves tapping on the body surface to produce sounds that can help assess the underlying structures. In the case of the chest and back, percussion can be used to evaluate the condition of the lungs, heart, and other organs in the thoracic cavity. By listening to the resulting sounds, healthcare professionals can gather information about the presence of fluid, air, or abnormalities in these areas. This technique is particularly useful in diagnosing conditions such as pneumonia, pleural effusion, or pneumothorax.

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  • 12. 

    A patient's reaction to stress, use of defense mechanisms, and resources for support would be recorded under

    • A.

      Chief complaint

    • B.

      Past history

    • C.

      History of present illness

    • D.

      Social history

    • E.

      Family history

    Correct Answer
    D. Social history
    Explanation
    The patient's reaction to stress, use of defense mechanisms, and resources for support would be recorded under social history. This section of the patient's medical record focuses on their social and environmental factors, including their relationships, living situation, employment, and support system. It provides important context for understanding the patient's overall well-being and how they cope with stressors in their life.

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  • 13. 

    Subjective findings include

    • A.

      How the patient feels

    • B.

      Information about the patient's family

    • C.

      Previous pregnancies

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because subjective findings in healthcare refer to information that is based on the patient's own experiences and perceptions. This includes how the patient feels, which is crucial in assessing their overall well-being and identifying any symptoms or concerns they may have. Additionally, information about the patient's family can provide valuable insights into their medical history and potential genetic factors that may impact their health. Previous pregnancies are also relevant as they can provide important information about the patient's reproductive health and any potential complications that may arise. Therefore, all of these options are considered subjective findings in healthcare.

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  • 14. 

    Visual acuity is

    • A.

      Pressure in the eyeball

    • B.

      Nearsightedness

    • C.

      Farsightedness

    • D.

      Color vision

    • E.

      Clearness of vision

    Correct Answer
    E. Clearness of vision
    Explanation
    Visual acuity refers to the sharpness and clarity of vision. It is a measure of how well a person can see details and distinguish between objects at a specific distance. The term is commonly used in optometry to assess the quality of a person's vision. A high visual acuity indicates clear and sharp vision, while a low visual acuity suggests blurry or unclear vision. Therefore, "clearness of vision" is the correct answer that accurately defines visual acuity.

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  • 15. 

    The purpose of a proctoscopy is to examine the

    • A.

      Prostate gland

    • B.

      Uterus

    • C.

      Rectum

    • D.

      Sigmoid colon

    • E.

      Esophagus

    Correct Answer
    C. Rectum
    Explanation
    A proctoscopy is a medical procedure used to examine the rectum. It involves inserting a thin, flexible tube called a proctoscope into the rectum to visualize the rectal lining and surrounding tissues. This procedure is commonly performed to diagnose and monitor conditions such as hemorrhoids, rectal bleeding, inflammation, and tumors in the rectum. By examining the rectum, doctors can assess its health and detect any abnormalities or diseases that may require further investigation or treatment.

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  • 16. 

    A patient in the Sims' position is lying on the

    • A.

      Right side, with left leg flexed

    • B.

      Left side and chest, with right leg flexed

    • C.

      Back with both legs bent

    • D.

      Right side, with right leg flexed

    • E.

      Left side, with left leg flexed

    Correct Answer
    B. Left side and chest, with right leg flexed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is left side and chest, with right leg flexed. The Sims' position is a side-lying position where the patient lies on their left side with the right leg flexed. This position is commonly used for procedures such as rectal exams, enemas, and sigmoidoscopy. It allows for easy access to the rectal area while providing comfort and stability for the patient.

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  • 17. 

    A patient lying flat on the abdoment is in the

    • A.

      Dorsal position

    • B.

      Lithotomy position

    • C.

      Supine position

    • D.

      Prone position

    • E.

      Fowler's position

    Correct Answer
    D. Prone position
    Explanation
    A patient lying flat on the abdomen is in the prone position. In this position, the patient's body is facing downwards, with the abdomen and chest resting on the bed or surface. This position is commonly used for procedures or examinations that require access to the back or spine. It allows for better visualization and access to the posterior aspect of the body.

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  • 18. 

    The physician uses which of the following to examine the patient's eye?

    • A.

      Ophthalmoscope

    • B.

      Percussion hammer

    • C.

      Tonometer

    • D.

      Otoscope

    • E.

      Speculum

    Correct Answer
    A. Ophthalmoscope
    Explanation
    The physician uses an ophthalmoscope to examine the patient's eye. An ophthalmoscope is a medical device that allows the physician to view the interior structures of the eye, including the retina, optic disc, and blood vessels. It consists of a light source and a set of lenses that enable the physician to magnify and focus on different parts of the eye. By using an ophthalmoscope, the physician can assess the health of the eye and detect any abnormalities or conditions that may be present.

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  • 19. 

    The patient should be placed in which of the following positions for examination of the head and neck?

    • A.

      Standing

    • B.

      Sitting

    • C.

      Prone

    • D.

      Supine

    • E.

      Sims'

    Correct Answer
    B. Sitting
    Explanation
    The patient should be placed in a sitting position for examination of the head and neck. This position allows for a better view and access to the head and neck area, making it easier for the healthcare professional to examine and assess any abnormalities or issues. Additionally, the sitting position allows the patient to be more comfortable and relaxed during the examination.

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  • 20. 

    For an obstetics examination, urine is routinely checked for the presence of

    • A.

      Glucose and protein

    • B.

      Glucose and ketones

    • C.

      Human chrionic gonadotrophin (HCG)

    • D.

      Protein and ketones

    • E.

      Blood and glucose

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucose and protein
    Explanation
    During an obstetrics examination, urine is routinely checked for the presence of glucose and protein. This is because the presence of glucose in urine can indicate gestational diabetes, a condition that can develop during pregnancy. Protein in urine can be a sign of preeclampsia, a potentially dangerous condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs such as the liver and kidneys. Therefore, checking for the presence of both glucose and protein in urine helps monitor the health of the mother and the baby during pregnancy.

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  • 21. 

    A patient should be taught that the best time to perform breast self-examination is approximately

    • A.

      1 week after her period

    • B.

      The sixth day of every month

    • C.

      1 week before her period

    • D.

      2 weeks after her period

    • E.

      2 weeks before her period

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 week after her period
    Explanation
    Performing breast self-examination 1 week after her period is the best time because the breasts are less likely to be swollen or tender at this time. Swelling and tenderness can make it more difficult to detect any abnormalities or changes in the breast tissue. Therefore, performing the examination when the breasts are not as sensitive can help ensure a more accurate and thorough examination.

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  • 22. 

    An infection that has a rapid onset, severe symptoms, and subsides in a short period is called

    • A.

      Acute

    • B.

      Chronic

    • C.

      Local

    • D.

      Systemic

    • E.

      Contagious

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute
    Explanation
    An infection that has a rapid onset, severe symptoms, and subsides in a short period is called acute. This term is used to describe infections that develop quickly, have intense symptoms, and typically resolve within a short period of time. Acute infections are often caused by viruses or bacteria and can affect various parts of the body. Unlike chronic infections, which last for a long time, acute infections are characterized by their short duration.

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  • 23. 

    Sterile-wrapped items can be safely stored, and considered sterile, for up to

    • A.

      7 to 14 days

    • B.

      14 to 21 days

    • C.

      21 to 28 days

    • D.

      28 to 30 days

    • E.

      Indefinitely

    Correct Answer
    C. 21 to 28 days
    Explanation
    Sterile-wrapped items can be safely stored for 21 to 28 days. This means that the items are free from any microorganisms or contaminants that could cause infection. After this time period, there is a higher risk of contamination, so the items should not be considered sterile anymore. It is important to adhere to these storage guidelines to maintain the integrity and safety of the items.

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  • 24. 

    When removing a pack from the autoclave, you notice that the sterilization indicator has not changed color.  You should:

    • A.

      Do nothing

    • B.

      Place the pack back in the autoclave and resterilize

    • C.

      Place a new indicator on the pack and resterilize

    • D.

      Place the pack back in the autoclave but in a different location

    • E.

      Unwrap the pack, rewrap the pack, replace the indicator, and resterilize

    Correct Answer
    E. Unwrap the pack, rewrap the pack, replace the indicator, and resterilize
    Explanation
    If the sterilization indicator has not changed color, it indicates that the pack has not been properly sterilized. To ensure sterilization, it is necessary to unwrap the pack, rewrap it, replace the indicator, and resterilize it. This process will help to ensure that the pack is properly sterilized and safe for use.

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  • 25. 

    Scrubbing an item with soap and water before sterilization is

    • A.

      Cleaning

    • B.

      Sanitization

    • C.

      Disinfection

    • D.

      Sterilization

    • E.

      Antisepsis

    Correct Answer
    B. Sanitization
    Explanation
    Scrubbing an item with soap and water before sterilization is considered sanitization. Sanitization is the process of reducing the number of microorganisms on a surface to a safe level, thereby preventing the spread of infection. Scrubbing with soap and water helps to physically remove dirt, debris, and some microorganisms from the item, making it cleaner and reducing the risk of contamination. However, it is important to note that sanitization alone may not completely eliminate all microorganisms, which is why sterilization is often required for complete disinfection.

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  • 26. 

    The type of immunity that develops from having the disease is

    • A.

      Natural active

    • B.

      Natural passive

    • C.

      Acquired active

    • D.

      Acquired passive

    • E.

      Congenital

    Correct Answer
    C. Acquired active
    Explanation
    Acquired active immunity refers to the immune response that develops in an individual after being exposed to a pathogen or receiving a vaccine. This type of immunity is characterized by the production of antibodies and memory cells that provide long-term protection against future infections. In the context of the given question, acquiring immunity from having the disease implies that the individual's immune system has responded to the pathogen and developed a specific immune response, leading to acquired active immunity.

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  • 27. 

    The finest suture material of the following list is

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      00

    • C.

      000

    • D.

      4-0

    • E.

      8-0

    Correct Answer
    E. 8-0
    Explanation
    The answer 8-0 is the finest suture material in the given list. The numbers represent the size of the suture material, with smaller numbers indicating finer threads. Therefore, 8-0 is smaller and finer compared to 4-0, 000, 00, and 0.

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  • 28. 

    When opening a sterile pack, the top flap should be opened

    • A.

      Toward the body

    • B.

      Away from the body

    • C.

      Toward the right side

    • D.

      Toward the left side

    • E.

      In any direction

    Correct Answer
    B. Away from the body
    Explanation
    When opening a sterile pack, it is important to open the top flap away from the body. This is to prevent any potential contamination from the body to the sterile contents of the pack. By opening the flap away from the body, any particles or microorganisms that may be present on the body are less likely to come into contact with the sterile items. Opening the flap in any other direction could increase the risk of contamination and compromise the sterility of the pack.

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  • 29. 

    A type of instrument that is used to grasp or hold tissues or objects is a

    • A.

      Probe

    • B.

      Scalpel

    • C.

      Scissors

    • D.

      Forceps

    • E.

      Retractor

    Correct Answer
    D. Forceps
    Explanation
    Forceps are a type of instrument that is used to grasp or hold tissues or objects. They are commonly used in medical and surgical procedures to hold and manipulate tissues, remove foreign objects, or assist in suturing. Forceps are designed with two blades that can be locked in place, allowing for a secure grip on the tissue or object. They come in various sizes and shapes, each suited for specific tasks.

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