Lab Values And Medication Therapeutic Ranges
Normal lab value ranges, therapeutic medication ranges, antidotes, s/s r/t an abnormal range of lab value or medication toxicity.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
A patient is taking a normal therapeutic dose of Warfarin. What would the therapeutic INR be:
- A.
1.5 to 2
- B.
2 to 3
- C.
3 to 5
- D.
3 to 4
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 3Explanation
The therapeutic INR for a patient taking a normal dose of Warfarin would be 2 to 3. This range is considered optimal for preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, which is a measure of how long it takes for blood to clot. Warfarin is a medication used to thin the blood and prevent clotting, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range is important for its effectiveness and safety.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is the normal magnesium level of an adult:
- A.
6 to 20mg/dl
- B.
1.6 to 2.6mg/dl
- C.
4mg/dl
- D.
1mg/dl
Correct Answer
B. 1.6 to 2.6mg/dlExplanation
The normal magnesium level of an adult is typically between 1.6 to 2.6mg/dl. This range is considered normal because it represents the average magnesium levels found in healthy adults. Magnesium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including nerve and muscle function, blood pressure regulation, and protein synthesis. Maintaining the appropriate magnesium levels is important for overall health and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 3.
An adult male client has had laboratory work done as part of a routine physical examination. The nurse reviews the client's record and determines that the client may have a mild degree of renal insufficiency if which of the following serum creatinine levels is found:
- A.
1.6 mg/dl
- B.
1.1mg/dl
- C.
1.9mg/dl
- D.
3.5mg/dl
Correct Answer
C. 1.9mg/dlExplanation
A serum creatinine level of 1.9mg/dl indicates a mild degree of renal insufficiency. The normal range for serum creatinine in adult males is typically between 0.6-1.2mg/dl. A level of 1.9mg/dl suggests that the kidneys are not functioning at their optimal level and may be experiencing some degree of impairment. This could be an early sign of renal insufficiency, which is a condition where the kidneys are not able to effectively filter waste products from the blood. Regular monitoring and further evaluation may be necessary to assess the progression of renal function.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A creatinine level of 3.5mg/dl would be associated with(check all that apply)
- A.
Acute renal failure
- B.
Hepatotoxicity
- C.
Chronic renal failure
- D.
Bone marrow suppression
Correct Answer(s)
A. Acute renal failure
C. Chronic renal failureExplanation
A creatinine level of 3.5mg/dl is considered high and indicates kidney dysfunction. Acute renal failure refers to a sudden loss of kidney function, which can cause an increase in creatinine levels. Chronic renal failure, on the other hand, is a progressive and long-term decline in kidney function, leading to elevated creatinine levels. Therefore, both acute and chronic renal failure can be associated with a creatinine level of 3.5mg/dl. However, hepatotoxicity (liver damage) and bone marrow suppression are not directly related to creatinine levels and are not associated with a creatinine level of 3.5mg/dl.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A patient has a magnesium level of 6mg/dl. What should the nurse do:
- A.
Document the finding in the nurse's notes
- B.
Give the ordered dose of Calcium Carbonate
- C.
Notify the MD
- D.
Monitor for seizures and dysrhymias
Correct Answer
B. Give the ordered dose of Calcium CarbonateExplanation
A magnesium level of 6mg/dl indicates hypomagnesemia, which is a low level of magnesium in the blood. Calcium carbonate is not the appropriate treatment for this condition. Instead, the nurse should give the ordered dose of magnesium sulfate, which is the correct treatment for hypomagnesemia. The nurse should also document the finding in the nurse's notes, monitor for seizures and dysrhythmias, and notify the MD to ensure appropriate management of the patient's condition.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A client with diabetes mellitus has a sample for fating blood glucose drawn. The nurse identifies which of the following results as a critical value:
- A.
150dl/mg
- B.
220mg/dl
- C.
170mg/dl
- D.
340mg/dl
Correct Answer
D. 340mg/dlExplanation
A fasting blood glucose level of 340mg/dl is considered a critical value for a client with diabetes mellitus. This high level indicates uncontrolled blood sugar levels and puts the client at risk for complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. Immediate intervention is needed to bring the blood sugar levels down to a safe range.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The client has leukemia. The normal range of WBC is 4.5 to 11. What value is usually seen with this diagnosis.
- A.
6
- B.
18
- C.
2.5
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 2.5Explanation
A normal range of white blood cell (WBC) count is 4.5 to 11. A value of 2.5 is lower than the normal range, indicating leukopenia, which is a lower than normal WBC count. Leukopenia is commonly seen in patients with leukemia, a type of cancer that affects the bone marrow and leads to abnormal production of white blood cells. Therefore, a value of 2.5 is usually seen with a diagnosis of leukemia.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is usually given to a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis:
- A.
Insulin
- B.
Potassium
- C.
Orange juice
- D.
A soda pop
Correct Answer
B. PotassiumExplanation
Patients with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) often have low potassium levels due to excessive urination and vomiting. Potassium is an essential electrolyte that plays a crucial role in maintaining proper heart function and nerve transmission. Therefore, administering potassium to a patient with DKA is necessary to restore and maintain normal potassium levels in the body. Insulin is also given to regulate blood sugar levels, but the primary concern in this scenario is addressing the potassium deficiency. Orange juice and soda pop, on the other hand, contain high amounts of sugar and are not appropriate for DKA treatment.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The patient has been taking Lasix and Digoxin. His potassium level is 6. What should the nurse do:
- A.
Get a crash cart
- B.
Add a banana to his supper tray
- C.
Chart the finding and monitor for cardiac arrest
- D.
Give the ordered Kayexalate(polystyrene sulfonate)
Correct Answer
D. Give the ordered Kayexalate(polystyrene sulfonate)Explanation
The patient's potassium level is high (6), which is indicative of hyperkalemia. Kayexalate (polystyrene sulfonate) is a medication used to treat high potassium levels by binding to potassium in the intestines and promoting its excretion through the stool. Therefore, giving the ordered Kayexalate would be the appropriate action to lower the patient's potassium level and prevent potential complications associated with hyperkalemia.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A client with diabetes mellitus has a glycosylated hemoglobin level of 8%. Based on this test result, the nurse plans to reinforce teching measures with the client about the need to:
- A.
Avoid infections
- B.
Take adequate fluids
- C.
Prevent hyperglycemia
- D.
Prevent hypoglycemia
Correct Answer
C. Prevent hyperglycemiaExplanation
A glycosylated hemoglobin level of 8% indicates that the client's average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months is elevated. Hyperglycemia refers to high blood glucose levels, which is a common problem in diabetes mellitus. Therefore, reinforcing teaching measures to prevent hyperglycemia would be appropriate for this client.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A critical Hgb A1c would be greater than what value:
- A.
Seven
- B.
Eight
- C.
Nine
- D.
Six
Correct Answer
C. NineExplanation
A critical Hgb A1c value refers to the level of glycated hemoglobin in the blood, which is used to measure long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. A value greater than nine indicates poor blood sugar control and suggests a higher risk of complications associated with diabetes, such as cardiovascular disease, kidney damage, and nerve damage. Therefore, a critical Hgb A1c would be greater than nine.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A postpartum client has an abnormally elevated H and H this would indicate what possiblity(Select all that apply)
- A.
Hypovolemia
- B.
Increase intercranical pressure
- C.
Hemorrhage
- D.
Low sodium level
Correct Answer(s)
A. Hypovolemia
C. HemorrhageExplanation
An abnormally elevated H and H (hemoglobin and hematocrit) in a postpartum client could indicate hypovolemia and hemorrhage. Hypovolemia refers to a decreased blood volume, which can occur due to excessive bleeding during or after childbirth. Hemorrhage, on the other hand, specifically indicates excessive bleeding. Both of these possibilities should be considered when a postpartum client presents with elevated H and H levels. Low sodium levels and increased intracranial pressure are not directly related to elevated H and H levels in this context.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the normal BUN range
- A.
8 to 26
- B.
10 to 20
- C.
2 to 3
- D.
1.5 to 2
Correct Answer
A. 8 to 26Explanation
The normal BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) range is 8 to 26. BUN is a measure of the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood, which is a waste product from the breakdown of proteins. The range indicates the normal levels of urea nitrogen in the blood, with values below or above this range potentially indicating kidney or liver problems.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A BUN of 36 in an older client would mean
- A.
Renal failure
- B.
Renal insuffiency
- C.
Cirrhosis
- D.
UTI
Correct Answer
B. Renal insuffiencyExplanation
A BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) level of 36 in an older client suggests renal insufficiency. BUN is a measure of the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood, which is a waste product filtered by the kidneys. Elevated BUN levels indicate that the kidneys are not effectively removing urea from the blood, indicating a decrease in kidney function. Renal insufficiency refers to a partial loss of kidney function, which can occur in older individuals due to age-related changes or underlying health conditions. This condition may lead to a decrease in urine output and an accumulation of waste products in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A client's Dig level is 4. What is the nurse's action
- A.
Give Digibind as ordered
- B.
Hold the med and call the MD
- C.
Give the medication and monitor the HR
- D.
Hold the medication and give Digibind as ordered
Correct Answer
D. Hold the medication and give Digibind as orderedExplanation
The nurse's action should be to hold the medication and give Digibind as ordered. This is because a Dig level of 4 indicates that the client's Digoxin level is elevated, which can lead to toxicity. Digibind is the antidote for Digoxin toxicity, so it is important to withhold the medication and administer Digibind as ordered to reverse the effects of the elevated Dig level.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A client's serum ammonia level is 75. what should the nurse do:
- A.
Get an order of a liver biopsy
- B.
Force fluids
- C.
Give Lactalose as ordered
- D.
Elevated the head of the bed
Correct Answer
C. Give Lactalose as orderedExplanation
Lactulose is a medication commonly used to treat high ammonia levels in the blood. It works by drawing ammonia from the blood into the intestines, where it can be eliminated through bowel movements. Therefore, giving lactulose as ordered is the appropriate action for the nurse to take in order to lower the client's serum ammonia level. This medication helps to reduce the toxic effects of ammonia on the body and is often used in patients with liver disease or hepatic encephalopathy.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A patient urine specific gravity is 1.001. This could be related to what condition:
- A.
Diabetes Insipidus
- B.
Hyperthyroidism
- C.
UTI
- D.
Urinary retention
Correct Answer
A. Diabetes InsipidusExplanation
A urine specific gravity of 1.001 indicates a very low concentration of solutes in the urine. Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by the inability of the kidneys to properly concentrate urine, leading to excessive urine output and low urine specific gravity. This condition is caused by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or a lack of response to ADH. Hyperthyroidism, UTI, and urinary retention would not typically cause such a low urine specific gravity.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The client's Dilantin level in 30. Is this high or low:
- A.
Low
- B.
High
Correct Answer
B. HighExplanation
A Dilantin level of 30 is considered high. Dilantin is an anticonvulsant medication used to treat seizures. The therapeutic range for Dilantin levels is typically between 10-20 mcg/mL. Levels above this range may indicate potential toxicity and can lead to side effects such as dizziness, confusion, and coordination problems. Therefore, a Dilantin level of 30 is considered high and may require adjustment of the medication dosage.Rate this question:
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- 19.
An adult female has a hemoglobin of 10. This would indicate that she has
- A.
Anemia
- B.
Lack of iron in the diet
- C.
Low RBC count
- D.
High WBC count
Correct Answer
A. AnemiaExplanation
A hemoglobin level of 10 in an adult female indicates anemia. Anemia is a condition characterized by a low level of red blood cells or a low concentration of hemoglobin in the blood. It can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, chronic diseases, or genetic disorders. The given hemoglobin level suggests a decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, which is a characteristic feature of anemia.Rate this question:
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- 20.
An adult male has a hematocrit level of 60. This could indicate what condition
- A.
Hypovolemia
- B.
Renal insuffiency
- C.
Dehydration
- D.
Heart attack
Correct Answer
C. DehydrationExplanation
A hematocrit level of 60 in an adult male indicates dehydration. Hematocrit is the measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. When the body is dehydrated, the blood becomes more concentrated with fewer fluids, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Hypovolemia refers to low blood volume, renal insufficiency refers to impaired kidney function, and a heart attack is the result of a blockage in the coronary arteries. None of these conditions directly affect the hematocrit level.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Pick the most common treatment of hyperkalemia
- A.
1000ml of normal saline
- B.
Insulin
- C.
Infusion of Sodium Bicarbonate
- D.
D5W with glucose
Correct Answer
C. Infusion of Sodium BicarbonateExplanation
Infusion of Sodium Bicarbonate is the most common treatment for hyperkalemia because it helps to shift potassium from the extracellular space into the cells, thereby reducing the levels of potassium in the blood. Sodium bicarbonate works by increasing the pH of the blood, which promotes the movement of potassium into the cells. This treatment is often used in emergency situations when hyperkalemia is severe and requires immediate intervention.Rate this question:
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- 22.
In Diabetic Ketoacidosis insulin is used to treat the elevated blood sugar, What lab value could be low:
- A.
Potassium
- B.
Bicarbonate
- C.
Urinary ketones
- D.
Urine specific gravity
Correct Answer
A. PotassiumExplanation
In Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), insulin is used to treat the elevated blood sugar. One possible lab value that could be low in this condition is potassium. DKA is characterized by high blood sugar levels and an acidic environment in the body. Insulin helps to lower blood sugar levels, but it can also cause potassium to shift from the bloodstream into the cells, leading to low potassium levels (hypokalemia). This can be dangerous as low potassium levels can affect various bodily functions, including muscle and nerve function. Therefore, monitoring and managing potassium levels is important in the treatment of DKA.Rate this question:
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- 23.
If a patient has been given an overdose of Insulin what is the treatment:
- A.
Infusion of potassium
- B.
D5W infusion
- C.
Glucotrol
- D.
Glucophage
Correct Answer
A. Infusion of potassiumExplanation
If a patient has been given an overdose of Insulin, the treatment would be an infusion of potassium. Insulin overdose can cause hypokalemia, which is a low level of potassium in the blood. Infusing potassium helps to restore the normal potassium levels in the body and prevent any potential complications associated with hypokalemia. This treatment is aimed at correcting the electrolyte imbalance caused by the insulin overdose.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The patient who is receiving a slow infusion of Potassium should closely be monitored for:
- A.
Blood sugar levels
- B.
Vomiting
- C.
Lethargy
- D.
Cardiac dysrhythmias
Correct Answer
D. Cardiac dysrhythmiasExplanation
When a patient is receiving a slow infusion of Potassium, close monitoring for cardiac dysrhythmias is necessary. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining normal heart rhythm, and any imbalance in its levels can lead to abnormal heart rhythms. Slow infusion of Potassium can cause an excessive increase in blood potassium levels, leading to cardiac dysrhythmias such as bradycardia, tachycardia, or even life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to closely monitor the patient's cardiac function to detect and manage any potential dysrhythmias promptly.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A patient is experiencing seizure activity due to his high alcohol intake. Which of the following could be used as anticonvulsant:
- A.
Elavil
- B.
Ativan
- C.
Magnesium Bromine
- D.
Sodium Bicarbonate
Correct Answer
C. Magnesium BromineExplanation
Magnesium bromine could be used as an anticonvulsant for a patient experiencing seizure activity due to high alcohol intake. Magnesium is known to have anticonvulsant properties and can help reduce the occurrence and severity of seizures. Bromine, on the other hand, is a sedative and can help calm the patient during a seizure. Therefore, the combination of magnesium and bromine in the form of magnesium bromine can be effective in treating seizures in this particular case.Rate this question:
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- 26.
During a female catheterization, you miss and the catheter tip has been inserted 5 inches without urine output. Where do you think the catheter tip is?
- A.
Needs to be inserted another 2 inches
- B.
It is probably in the vagina and the catheter should remain as a marker there as you attempt another insertion with a new catheter
- C.
Oops the order was for the male client
- D.
Pull out and try another angle
- E.
Anchor the uretheral opening with your thumb as it may be in the vagina
Correct Answer
B. It is probably in the vagina and the catheter should remain as a marker there as you attempt another insertion with a new catheterExplanation
The correct answer suggests that the catheter tip is probably in the vagina. In this situation, the catheter should be left in the vagina as a marker while attempting another insertion with a new catheter. This is because the catheter has not reached the bladder, indicated by the lack of urine output. By leaving the catheter in the vagina, it helps to guide the healthcare professional during the next insertion attempt.Rate this question:
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