CVS Exam Trivia! Quiz
Are you ready for your CVS exam? Do you know ieverything there is to know about cardiovascular issues? This quiz will explain the most common dysrhythmia, when is cardiogenic pulmonary edema fatal, and is blood transported through the veins considered oxygenated or deoxygenated? You will also learn what is the primary cause of right-sided heart failure, and what does preload mean. This quiz will provide a considerable amount of information to help you prepare for your CVS exam.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following cause of death?
- A.
Ventricular fibrillation
- B.
Atrial fibrillation
- C.
Valve stenosis
- D.
Tricuspid stenosis
Correct Answer
A. Ventricular fibrillationExplanation
Ventricular fibrillation is a cause of death because it is a life-threatening arrhythmia that occurs when the heart's electrical signals become chaotic, causing the ventricles to quiver instead of pumping blood effectively. This can lead to a sudden loss of blood flow to the body and vital organs, resulting in cardiac arrest and death if not treated immediately. Atrial fibrillation, valve stenosis, and tricuspid stenosis are not typically direct causes of death, although they can contribute to other complications or conditions that may ultimately result in death.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which one is the most common dysrhythmia?
- A.
Atrial fibrillation
- B.
Ventricular fibrillation
- C.
Systolic dysfunction
- D.
Diastolic dysfunction
Correct Answer
A. Atrial fibrillationExplanation
Atrial fibrillation is the most common dysrhythmia, characterized by rapid and irregular electrical impulses in the atria of the heart. This leads to an irregular and often fast heart rate. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of blood clots, stroke, and other heart-related complications. Ventricular fibrillation, on the other hand, is a life-threatening dysrhythmia that occurs in the ventricles and can result in cardiac arrest. Systolic and diastolic dysfunction refer to abnormalities in the heart's pumping function, but they are not dysrhythmias themselves.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Primary cause of right-side heart failure is:
- A.
Eft-sided heart failure
- B.
Systolic dysfunction
- C.
Hypertension
- D.
Idiopathic
Correct Answer
A. Eft-sided heart failureExplanation
The primary cause of right-side heart failure is left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure occurs when the left side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the body. This can lead to a backup of blood in the lungs and an increase in pressure in the right side of the heart. Over time, this increased pressure can cause the right side of the heart to weaken and eventually fail. Therefore, left-sided heart failure is the primary cause of right-side heart failure.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema is a common and sometimes fatal cause of:
- A.
Acute respiratory distress
- B.
CHF
- C.
Acute MI
- D.
Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer
A. Acute respiratory distressExplanation
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema refers to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs due to heart failure. This condition can lead to acute respiratory distress, which is characterized by sudden and severe difficulty in breathing. It is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. While CHF (congestive heart failure), acute MI (myocardial infarction), and aortic stenosis are all cardiac conditions that can contribute to the development of cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the primary manifestation is acute respiratory distress.Rate this question:
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- 5.
According to physiological function of left atrium and body circulation, its:
- A.
Receive from pulmonary circulation and pump through aortic artery to systemic circulation
- B.
Receive from pulmonary circulation and pump through pulmonary artery to systemic circulation.
- C.
Receive from systemic circulation and pump through aortic artery to pulmonary circulation.
- D.
Receive from systemic circulation and pump through pulmonary artery to pulmonary circulation .
Correct Answer
A. Receive from pulmonary circulation and pump through aortic artery to systemic circulationExplanation
The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation, which is the circulation between the heart and the lungs. It then pumps this oxygenated blood through the aortic artery to the systemic circulation, which is the circulation that supplies oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The blood that transported in veins ………-blood, except in pulmonary veins its ……-blood.
- A.
Deoxygenated – oxygenated
- B.
Oxygenated – deoxygenated
- C.
Oxygenated – oxygenated
- D.
Deoxygenated – deoxygenated
Correct Answer
A. Deoxygenated – oxygenatedExplanation
The correct answer is "Deoxygenated - oxygenated". This is because veins carry deoxygenated blood from the body tissues back to the heart, except for the pulmonary veins which carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. Oxygenated blood is then pumped out of the heart to the rest of the body through arteries. Therefore, the blood transported in veins is deoxygenated, except in the case of pulmonary veins where it is oxygenated.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The correct pairs are:
- A.
All answers are true
- B.
Muscular artries – distribuation
- C.
Capillaries – exchange
- D.
Veins – capacitance
Correct Answer
A. All answers are trueExplanation
The correct answer is "All answers are true". This means that all of the given pairs (Muscular arteries - distribution, Capillaries - exchange, Veins - capacitance) are correct and accurately describe the functions of these blood vessels. Muscular arteries are responsible for distributing blood to various parts of the body, capillaries facilitate the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and tissues, and veins have the ability to stretch and hold a large volume of blood, thus acting as capacitance vessels.Rate this question:
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- 8.
There are many factors affecting autorhythmicity, such as physical factors e.g increase temperature, that’s mean when your body increases 2 C, your heart rate will increase by:
- A.
30 beat/min
- B.
35 beat/min
- C.
15 beat/min
- D.
10 beat/min
Correct Answer
A. 30 beat/minExplanation
Increase in body temperature can affect the autorhythmicity of the heart. When the body temperature increases by 2 degrees Celsius, it leads to an increase in heart rate. The correct answer, 30 beat/min, suggests that a 2-degree Celsius increase in body temperature will cause the heart rate to increase by 30 beats per minute.Rate this question:
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- 9.
This graph shows – slow response action potential that occur in the non-contractile cardiac muscle which mean the muscle initiates its own impulse by:
- A.
Decreased potassium permeability and constant influx of sodium and calcium
- B.
Decreased calcium permeability and constant influx of sodium and potassium .
- C.
Decreased sodium permeability and constant influx of potassium and calcium
- D.
Increase potassium permeability and constant influx of sodium and calcium .
Correct Answer
A. Decreased potassium permeability and constant influx of sodium and calciumExplanation
In the non-contractile cardiac muscle, the slow response action potential is initiated by a decreased potassium permeability and constant influx of sodium and calcium. This means that the muscle allows less potassium to leave the cell, leading to a depolarization caused by the constant influx of sodium and calcium ions. This depolarization triggers the slow response action potential in the non-contractile cardiac muscle.Rate this question:
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- 10.
This graph shows fast-response action potential in contractile cardiac muscle, in which phase/phases the cardiac muscle lost its excitability:
- A.
Phase#1 , #2 , frist half#3
- B.
Phase#0 , #1 , #2
- C.
Phase#0 , #1
- D.
Phase#0 , #1 , #2 , first half #3
Correct Answer
D. Phase#0 , #1 , #2 , first half #3Explanation
In the given graph, the fast-response action potential in contractile cardiac muscle is shown. The phases in which the cardiac muscle lost its excitability are Phase 0, Phase 1, Phase 2, and the first half of Phase 3. This can be observed by looking at the graph and identifying the points where the action potential curve returns to the baseline or decreases significantly, indicating a loss of excitability in the muscle.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Cardiac muscle response to changes electrically and mechanically , mechanically = systole it coincides with:
- A.
Repolarization = phase #2
- B.
Depolarization = phase#0
- C.
Repolarization = phase #1
- D.
Repolarization = phase #3
Correct Answer
A. Repolarization = phase #2Explanation
The correct answer is Repolarization = phase #2. In cardiac muscle, repolarization occurs during phase #2 of the cardiac action potential. During this phase, the cell membrane potential returns to its resting state after depolarization. This is an important step in the cardiac cycle as it allows the heart muscle to relax and prepare for the next contraction.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The highest rate of discharge occurs in:
- A.
SAN
- B.
AVN
- C.
Purkinje fibers
- D.
None
Correct Answer
A. SANExplanation
The sinoatrial node (SAN) is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heart rate. It acts as the natural pacemaker of the heart and controls the rate at which the heart contracts. Therefore, the SAN has the highest rate of discharge compared to the other options listed (AVN, Purkinje fibers, None).Rate this question:
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- 13.
Preload mean:
- A.
Increase in initial length
- B.
Decrease in initial length
- C.
Increase in blood pressure .
- D.
Decrease in blood pressure .
Correct Answer
A. Increase in initial lengthExplanation
Preload refers to the degree of stretch on the heart muscle fibers just before contraction. An increase in preload means that the initial length of the heart muscle fibers is increased. This increased stretch allows for a more forceful contraction, resulting in an increased stroke volume and cardiac output. Therefore, an increase in initial length is the correct answer to the question.Rate this question:
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- 14.
This picture shows phase that present in cardiac cycle , according to valves , the phase is:
- A.
Rapid ventricular filling
- B.
Isometric contraction
- C.
Isometric relaxation
- D.
Maximum ejection .
Correct Answer
A. Rapid ventricular fillingExplanation
Based on the picture, the phase of the cardiac cycle shown is rapid ventricular filling. This can be determined by observing the valves in the picture and identifying the specific phase they are in.Rate this question:
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- 15.
This graph shows – ventricular pressure-volume loop , in which part the aortic valve will close:
- A.
C
- B.
A
- C.
B
- D.
D
Correct Answer
A. CExplanation
In the ventricular pressure-volume loop, the aortic valve closes during phase C. This is because phase C represents the isovolumetric relaxation phase, where the ventricles are relaxing and the pressure in the ventricles decreases. As the pressure in the ventricles drops below the pressure in the aorta, the aortic valve closes to prevent backflow of blood from the aorta into the ventricles.Rate this question:
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- 16.
In dicrotic wave, its caused by bouncing of blood which close:
- A.
Aortic valve
- B.
Tricuspid valve
- C.
Mitral valve
- D.
Pulmonary valve
Correct Answer
A. Aortic valveExplanation
The dicrotic wave is caused by the bouncing back of blood in the aorta after the closure of the aortic valve. This closure creates a brief increase in pressure, causing the blood to rebound and create the dicrotic wave.Rate this question:
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- 17.
In jugular venous pulse, the graph will show …. Positive waves, and … negative waves:
- A.
3 – 2
- B.
2 – 3
- C.
2 – 2
- D.
3 – 3
Correct Answer
A. 3 – 2Explanation
In jugular venous pulse, the graph will show 3 positive waves and 2 negative waves.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Venous return can be affected by:
- A.
All answers are true
- B.
Gravity
- C.
Blood Volume .
- D.
Muscle contraction .
Correct Answer
A. All answers are trueExplanation
All answers are true because venous return, which is the flow of blood back to the heart, can be affected by various factors. Gravity plays a role in venous return by assisting the blood flow from the lower extremities back to the heart. Blood volume also affects venous return, as an increase in blood volume can lead to increased venous return. Muscle contraction, especially in the legs, helps to squeeze the veins and propel blood back to the heart, thereby affecting venous return. Therefore, all of these factors can affect venous return.Rate this question:
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- 19.
This graph show jugular venous pulse – which wave happened during rapid filling of ventricular:
- A.
Wave Y
- B.
Wave V
- C.
Wave X
- D.
Wave A .
Correct Answer
A. Wave YExplanation
Wave Y represents the rapid filling of the ventricles. During this phase, blood from the atria is rapidly filling the ventricles, causing an increase in pressure in the jugular veins. This is reflected as a positive deflection in the jugular venous pulse waveform, known as Wave Y.Rate this question:
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- 20.
No external work “no blood ejection” will occur in which phase:
- A.
Isometric relaxation .
- B.
Isometric contraction
- C.
Ejection phase .
- D.
Atrial systole phase .
Correct Answer
A. Isometric relaxation .Explanation
During isometric relaxation, there is no blood ejection occurring. Isometric relaxation is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles are relaxed and the pressure in the ventricles is falling. This phase allows the ventricles to refill with blood from the atria in preparation for the next contraction. However, no blood is being ejected from the heart during this phase.Rate this question:
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- 21.
It is the ability of cardiac muscle to conduct the excitation wave to all parts of the heart is called:
- A.
Conductivity
- B.
Excitability
- C.
Autorhthmicity
- D.
Contractility
Correct Answer
A. ConductivityExplanation
Conductivity refers to the ability of the cardiac muscle to transmit the electrical impulses that cause the heart to contract. This allows the excitation wave to spread from the sinoatrial (SA) node, the natural pacemaker of the heart, to all parts of the heart, ensuring coordinated contractions and efficient pumping of blood.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The condition when Contraction occurs without relaxation in the cardiac muscle (Stop heart at systole) is called:
- A.
Ca++Rigor
- B.
Tetanus
- C.
Clonus
- D.
Heart fuilre
Correct Answer
A. Ca++RigorExplanation
Ca++Rigor refers to the condition when contraction occurs without relaxation in the cardiac muscle. This means that the muscle remains contracted and does not relax, leading to a state of rigidity. This can occur due to an imbalance in calcium ions (Ca++) within the muscle cells, which are responsible for initiating and regulating muscle contractions. When this balance is disrupted, the muscle is unable to relax properly, resulting in Ca++Rigor.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Increase venous return will increase EDV and preload and then Increasing the force of contraction. This is an application for:
- A.
Starling’s law
- B.
Contractile law
- C.
Conductive law
- D.
Action potential law
Correct Answer
A. Starling’s lawExplanation
Increase in venous return leads to an increase in end-diastolic volume (EDV) and preload, which in turn increases the force of contraction. This phenomenon is explained by Starling's law, which states that the greater the stretch of cardiac muscle fibers during diastole, the stronger the subsequent contraction during systole. Therefore, the correct answer is Starling's law.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Parasympathetic stimulation has:
- A.
Negative inotropic action on starling’s law
- B.
Positive inotropic action on starling’s law
- C.
Positive chronotropy on starling’s law
- D.
Negative chronotropy on starling’s law
Correct Answer
A. Negative inotropic action on starling’s lawExplanation
Parasympathetic stimulation has a negative inotropic action on Starling's law. This means that it decreases the force of contraction of the heart muscle. Starling's law states that the force of contraction of the heart is directly proportional to the initial length of the muscle fibers. Parasympathetic stimulation reduces the force of contraction by inhibiting the release of acetylcholine, which decreases calcium influx into the muscle cells and ultimately leads to a decrease in contractility.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The transverse sinus of the pericardium is formed by breaking of:
- A.
Dorsal mesocardium
- B.
Ventral mesocardium
- C.
Ventral and dorsal mesocardium
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Dorsal mesocardiumExplanation
The transverse sinus of the pericardium is formed by the breaking of the dorsal mesocardium. The mesocardium is a double layer of pericardium that connects the heart to the dorsal body wall during early development. As the heart grows and rotates, the dorsal mesocardium breaks, forming the transverse sinus. The ventral mesocardium, on the other hand, connects the heart to the ventral body wall and does not play a role in the formation of the transverse sinus. Therefore, the correct answer is dorsal mesocardium.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The role of endocardial cushions:
- A.
All of the above
- B.
Divides the common A/V canal into: right and left A/V canals.
- C.
Participates in formation of the membrane portion of the IVS
- D.
Closure of the ostium primum
Correct Answer
A. All of the aboveExplanation
The endocardial cushions play multiple roles in the development of the heart. They help to divide the common atrioventricular (A/V) canal into separate right and left A/V canals. They also participate in the formation of the membrane portion of the interventricular septum (IVS). Additionally, they contribute to the closure of the ostium primum, a hole between the atria that needs to be closed during development. Therefore, all of the given statements are correct regarding the role of endocardial cushions.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The umbilical vein :
- A.
Carries oxygenated blood from the placenta .
- B.
Carries deoxygenated blood from the placenta.
- C.
Carries deoxygenated blood to the placenta .
- D.
Carries oxygenated blood to the placenta .
Correct Answer
A. Carries oxygenated blood from the placenta .Explanation
The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta. During fetal development, the umbilical vein is responsible for transporting oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to the developing fetus. This blood is rich in oxygen and nutrients, as it has been supplied by the mother's circulatory system. Once the blood reaches the fetus, it is distributed to various organs and tissues, providing them with the necessary oxygen and nutrients for growth and development.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Regarding fetal circulation all of the following are true, except:
- A.
Most of the oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein enters the portal circulation.
- B.
Oxygenated blood from the RT atrium goes to the LT atrium throw foramen ovale.
- C.
Oxygenated blood from the ascending aorta goes to coronary and carotid arteries to the brain
- D.
50% of the mixed blood goes to the placenta by umbilical arteries.
Correct Answer
A. Most of the oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein enters the portal circulation.Explanation
Fetal circulation is different from adult circulation. In fetal circulation, most of the oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein bypasses the liver through the ductus venosus and enters the inferior vena cava, mixing with deoxygenated blood from the lower body. This mixed blood then enters the right atrium and is shunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale. From the left atrium, it goes to the left ventricle and is pumped to the ascending aorta. Oxygenated blood from the ascending aorta supplies the coronary and carotid arteries, ensuring oxygen delivery to the brain. Only a small portion of the mixed blood goes to the placenta through the umbilical arteries.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Site of pulmonary valve:
- A.
3rd costal cartilage.
- B.
2nd costal cartilage
- C.
3rd costal space.
- D.
2nd costal space.
Correct Answer
A. 3rd costal cartilage.Explanation
The site of the pulmonary valve is located at the 3rd costal cartilage. This means that the valve is positioned at the junction between the 3rd rib and its corresponding cartilage. This location is important for medical professionals to accurately identify and assess the pulmonary valve during physical examinations or diagnostic procedures.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The left ventricle is:
- A.
Larger than right ventricle.
- B.
Smaller than left atrium.
- C.
Smaller than right atrium.
- D.
Same size as right atrium.
Correct Answer
A. Larger than right ventricle.Explanation
The left ventricle is larger than the right ventricle. This is because the left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, while the right ventricle only pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. The left ventricle needs to generate more force to push the blood throughout the body, so it is larger and more muscular than the right ventricle.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Smooth posterior part of the right atrium contains of opening of the following EXCEPT?
- A.
Psoterior caridac veins.
- B.
Coronary sinus.
- C.
Inferior vena cava.
- D.
Superior vena cava.
Correct Answer
A. Psoterior caridac veins.Explanation
The smooth posterior part of the right atrium contains the openings of the coronary sinus, inferior vena cava, and superior vena cava. The posterior cardiac veins do not open into the right atrium.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Cardiac plexus are formed by sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves, the parasympathetic comes from:
- A.
Vagus nerve.
- B.
Spiral nerve.
- C.
Azygus nerve.
- D.
Phrenic nerve.
Correct Answer
A. Vagus nerve.Explanation
The cardiac plexus is formed by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The parasympathetic nerves that contribute to the cardiac plexus come from the vagus nerve. The vagus nerve is responsible for regulating the heart rate and controlling the release of acetylcholine, which slows down the heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is Vagus nerve.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The floor of fossa ovalis is a derivative of:
- A.
Septum primum.
- B.
Primitive atrium.
- C.
Sinum venosum.
- D.
Septum Secondum.
Correct Answer
A. Septum primum.Explanation
The floor of the fossa ovalis is derived from the septum primum. During embryonic development, the septum primum grows from the roof of the primitive atrium towards the endocardial cushions. As it grows, a small opening called the ostium primum forms. Eventually, the septum primum fuses with the endocardial cushions, closing the ostium primum and forming the floor of the fossa ovalis. The septum secundum is a separate structure that develops on the right side of the septum primum and forms the majority of the interatrial septum. The sinum venosum is a part of the embryonic heart that gives rise to the smooth-walled part of the right atrium.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Sinus Venosum gives:
- A.
Smooth part of right atrium.
- B.
Rough part of right atrium.
- C.
Smooth part of left atrium.
- D.
Rough part of left atrium.
Correct Answer
A. Smooth part of right atrium.Explanation
The sinus venosum gives rise to the smooth part of the right atrium. This is because the sinus venosum is a part of the embryonic heart that receives deoxygenated blood from the venous system. As development progresses, the sinus venosum becomes incorporated into the right atrium and forms the smooth-walled part of the atrium. The rough part of the right atrium is formed by the incorporation of the primitive atrium.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Patent foramen ovale is due to:
- A.
Excessive destruction of septum premium.
- B.
Improper closure of ostium premium.
- C.
Excessive destruction of septum secondum.
- D.
Disturbance of endocardiac cushion.
Correct Answer
A. Excessive destruction of septum premium.Explanation
Excessive destruction of the septum premium is the cause of patent foramen ovale. The septum premium is a muscular wall that separates the left and right atria of the heart during fetal development. If this septum is excessively destroyed, it can result in a hole or opening between the atria, known as a patent foramen ovale. This allows blood to flow between the atria, bypassing the normal route through the lungs, which can lead to various complications.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Abnormal aorticopulmonary septum (spiral) gives one of the followings:
- A.
Tetralogy of Fallot.
- B.
Atrial septal defect.
- C.
Ventricular septal defect.
- D.
Transposition of great vessels.
Correct Answer
A. Tetralogy of Fallot.Explanation
The abnormal aorticopulmonary septum (spiral) is associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart defect characterized by four abnormalities: a ventricular septal defect (VSD), overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy. The abnormal aorticopulmonary septum is a key feature of this condition, as it causes the aorta to override the VSD and receive blood from both ventricles. This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to cyanosis and other symptoms associated with Tetralogy of Fallot.Rate this question:
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- 37.
All of the following drugs are used in dilatation of the arteries , EXCEPT :
- A.
Atenolol
- B.
Hydralazine
- C.
Quanipril
- D.
Nitrates
Correct Answer
A. AtenololExplanation
Atenolol is a beta blocker medication that primarily acts on the beta receptors in the heart, reducing the heart rate and cardiac output. It is not used for dilatation of the arteries. Hydralazine is a direct vasodilator that relaxes the smooth muscles in the arteries, leading to arterial dilatation. Quanipril is an ACE inhibitor that also helps in dilating the arteries by blocking the production of angiotensin II. Nitrates, such as nitroglycerin, are commonly used for arterial dilatation as they relax and widen the blood vessels. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which antihyperlipidemic drug is the most effective in increasing HDL?
- A.
Colestipol
- B.
Niacin
- C.
Statins
- D.
Fibrates
Correct Answer
B. NiacinExplanation
Niacin is the most effective antihyperlipidemic drug in increasing HDL levels. Niacin, also known as vitamin B3, has been shown to significantly raise HDL cholesterol levels while also lowering LDL cholesterol and triglyceride levels. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of HDL particles, leading to an increase in their concentration in the bloodstream. Colestipol, statins, and fibrates are also used to treat hyperlipidemia, but they are not as effective as niacin in increasing HDL levels.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following drugs is considered a late treatment of CHF?
- A.
Carvidelol
- B.
Isosorbide
- C.
Digoxin
- D.
Hydralazine
Correct Answer
C. DigoxinExplanation
Digoxin is considered a late treatment of congestive heart failure (CHF) because it is typically prescribed when other treatments have not been effective in managing the symptoms of CHF. It is a medication that helps to strengthen the heart's contractions and regulate the heart rhythm, which can improve symptoms such as shortness of breath and fatigue. Digoxin is often used in combination with other medications to provide additional relief for patients with advanced or severe CHF. Carvidelol, Isosorbide, and Hydralazine are other medications commonly used in the treatment of CHF, but they are not specifically considered late treatments.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following drugs transiently compete with aspirin for the inhibition of COX1?
- A.
Iduprofen
- B.
Ticlopidine
- C.
Abcciximab
- D.
Prasugrel
Correct Answer
A. IduprofenExplanation
Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1). Aspirin also inhibits COX-1, and both drugs compete for the same binding site on the enzyme. This competition is transient, meaning that it is temporary and reversible. Therefore, ibuprofen transiently competes with aspirin for the inhibition of COX-1.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The lipoprotein system evolved to solve the problems of transporting vitamins in the plasma.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The lipoprotein system did not evolve to solve the problems of transporting vitamins in the plasma. While the lipoprotein system does play a role in transporting lipids, including fat-soluble vitamins, in the bloodstream, its primary function is to transport cholesterol and triglycerides. The system also helps regulate lipid metabolism and plays a role in cardiovascular health. Therefore, the statement is false.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Genetic classification of lipoprotein disorders is not effective.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given answer "True" suggests that the genetic classification of lipoprotein disorders is not effective. This means that using genetic information to categorize and understand lipoprotein disorders is not a reliable or accurate method. It implies that genetic factors may not provide sufficient information or may not be the primary determinant of these disorders.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Troponin is a late cardiac marker of the acute coronary syndrome.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Troponin is a protein found in cardiac muscle cells. During an acute coronary syndrome, such as a heart attack, the blood flow to the heart is reduced or blocked, leading to damage of the cardiac muscle cells. Troponin is released into the bloodstream as a result of this damage. Therefore, troponin is considered a late cardiac marker, as it takes some time for it to be detectable in the blood after the onset of symptoms. Hence, the given statement that troponin is a late cardiac marker of acute coronary syndrome is true.Rate this question:
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- 44.
regulation of excess extracellular free cholesterol is achieved by (ACAT).
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because the regulation of excess extracellular free cholesterol is not achieved by ACAT (acyl-CoA:cholesterol acyltransferase). ACAT is responsible for converting excess cholesterol into cholesterol esters for storage within cells, rather than regulating extracellular cholesterol levels.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which one of the following function as transporting cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver:
- A.
Low density lipoprotein
- B.
High density lipoprotein
- C.
Chylomicrons
- D.
Lipoprotein lipase
Correct Answer
B. High density lipoproteinExplanation
High density lipoprotein (HDL) functions as transporting cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver. HDL is often referred to as "good cholesterol" because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream and transports it back to the liver for processing and excretion. This process is known as reverse cholesterol transport and plays a crucial role in maintaining cholesterol balance in the body. HDL is considered beneficial for cardiovascular health as it helps prevent the buildup of cholesterol in the arteries, reducing the risk of heart disease.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Patients with high level of……….. are at risk to develop atheromatous plaques in their blood vessels:
- A.
Low density lipoprotein
- B.
High density lipoprotein
- C.
Chylomicrons
- D.
Lipoprotein lipase
Correct Answer
A. Low density lipoproteinExplanation
High levels of low density lipoprotein (LDL) in the blood can lead to the development of atheromatous plaques in blood vessels. LDL is often referred to as "bad cholesterol" because it can accumulate in the walls of arteries, leading to the formation of plaques that can restrict blood flow and increase the risk of cardiovascular diseases such as heart attack and stroke. On the other hand, high density lipoprotein (HDL) is often referred to as "good cholesterol" because it helps remove LDL from the bloodstream, reducing the risk of plaque formation. Chylomicrons and lipoprotein lipase are not directly associated with the development of atheromatous plaques.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Regarding anti-atherogenic process , choose the correct statement:
- A.
Elevated level of HDL-cholesterol confirm it.
- B.
Elevated level of VLDL-cholesterol confirm it.
- C.
Is all about returning lipid to the tissues
- D.
Is all about forming bile salts.
Correct Answer
A. Elevated level of HDL-cholesterol confirm it.Explanation
The correct statement regarding anti-atherogenic process is that an elevated level of HDL-cholesterol confirms it. HDL (high-density lipoprotein) is often referred to as "good cholesterol" because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream and transport it back to the liver for processing and elimination. This process, known as reverse cholesterol transport, plays a crucial role in preventing the buildup of cholesterol in the arteries, which can lead to atherosclerosis. Therefore, an elevated level of HDL-cholesterol is indicative of a healthy anti-atherogenic process.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Lipoprotein a elevation indicates:
- A.
Fibrinogenesis
- B.
Hypolipoproteinemia
- C.
Thrombogenesis
- D.
Ataxia
Correct Answer
C. ThrombogenesisExplanation
Lipoprotein(a) is a type of lipoprotein that is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases. Elevated levels of lipoprotein(a) can lead to the formation of blood clots, a process known as thrombogenesis. These blood clots can block blood vessels and increase the risk of heart attacks and strokes. Therefore, an elevation in lipoprotein(a) indicates an increased risk of thrombogenesis.Rate this question:
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- 49.
All of the following are derived from cholesterol except:
- A.
Steroid hormones
- B.
Vitamin D
- C.
Bile salts
- D.
NADPH
Correct Answer
D. NADPHExplanation
NADPH is not derived from cholesterol. It is a coenzyme that plays a crucial role in various metabolic reactions, including fatty acid synthesis and detoxification processes. On the other hand, steroid hormones, vitamin D, and bile salts are all derived from cholesterol. Steroid hormones, such as cortisol and testosterone, are synthesized from cholesterol in the adrenal glands and gonads. Vitamin D is produced in the skin through a series of reactions involving cholesterol, and bile salts are synthesized from cholesterol in the liver and are essential for the digestion and absorption of dietary fats.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The lab findings of a patient who admitted in the ER with severe chest pain and dyspnea showed elevation of cardiac troponin I (cTnI) , this may indicate that the patient has:
- A.
Acute myocardial infarction.
- B.
Avulsion fraction
- C.
Myositis
- D.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Correct Answer
A. Acute myocardial infarction.Explanation
Elevation of cardiac troponin I (cTnI) is a specific marker for myocardial damage. In the context of severe chest pain and dyspnea, it strongly suggests acute myocardial infarction (AMI), which is commonly known as a heart attack. AMI occurs when there is a blockage in the blood supply to the heart, leading to the death of heart muscle cells. The release of cTnI into the bloodstream indicates the extent of myocardial damage and is used as a diagnostic tool for AMI. The other options, avulsion fraction, myositis, and rhabdomyosarcoma, are not associated with elevated cTnI levels.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 05, 2015Quiz Created by
Masaheer
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