B777 Flight Instruments, Displays

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B777 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What does the pitch limit indicator indicate?

    • A.

      Pitch angle for best climb speed

    • B.

      Pitch at which underspeed warning will sound

    • C.

      Stick shaker activation point for the existing flight conditions

    • D.

      Maximum pitch angle for takeoff

    Correct Answer
    C. Stick shaker activation point for the existing flight conditions
    Explanation
    The pitch limit indicator indicates the stick shaker activation point for the existing flight conditions. The stick shaker is a device that vibrates the control stick to warn the pilot of an impending stall. The pitch limit indicator helps the pilot to know the maximum pitch angle at which the stick shaker will activate, ensuring that the aircraft does not exceed its safe angle of attack and avoids a stall.

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  • 2. 

    What does the pitch limit indication displayed?

    • A.

      When the flaps are NOT up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up

    • B.

      Only when the flaps are Not in the up position

    • C.

      If airspeed is close to maximum

    • D.

      After takeoff until passing 1000 feet

    Correct Answer
    A. When the flaps are NOT up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up
    Explanation
    The pitch limit indication is displayed when the flaps are not in the up position or when the flaps are up but the aircraft is flying at slow speeds. This indication helps the pilot to maintain the appropriate pitch angle of the aircraft during these conditions. It is important to be aware of the pitch limit to prevent stalling or overloading the aircraft.

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  • 3. 

    When is the landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) removed during preflight?

    • A.

      After landing altitude is set on the pressurization panel

    • B.

      After the original airfield is entered on CDU route page

    • C.

      After correct local altimeter

    • D.

      Only after takeoff

    Correct Answer
    B. After the original airfield is entered on CDU route page
    Explanation
    The landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) is removed during preflight after the original airfield is entered on the CDU route page. This indicates that the aircraft's navigation system has been programmed with the correct destination and altitude information. The LDG ALT flag is likely removed at this point to ensure that the correct landing altitude is displayed and used for the remainder of the flight.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is not a condition that allows an excessive Localizer deviation alert to occur?

    • A.

      Low radio altitude

    • B.

      Autopilot or Flight Director engaged

    • C.

      Incorrect ILS frequency and course selected

    • D.

      LOC roil mode engaged

    Correct Answer
    C. Incorrect ILS frequency and course selected
    Explanation
    An excessive Localizer deviation alert occurs when the aircraft deviates significantly from the intended course during an ILS approach. This alert is triggered by various conditions, such as low radio altitude, autopilot or Flight Director engagement, and LOC roll mode engagement. However, selecting an incorrect ILS frequency and course does not directly contribute to the occurrence of this alert.

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  • 5. 

    When does an excessive glideslope deviation alert occur?

    • A.

      At low radio altitudes with the Autopilot or Flight Director engaged

    • B.

      Only after localizer capture

    • C.

      Any time deviation exceeds 1 dot

    • D.

      Any time after localizer capture

    Correct Answer
    A. At low radio altitudes with the Autopilot or Flight Director engaged
    Explanation
    An excessive glideslope deviation alert occurs at low radio altitudes with the Autopilot or Flight Director engaged. This means that when the aircraft is flying at low altitudes and the Autopilot or Flight Director is being used to control the aircraft's descent, if the aircraft deviates significantly from the glideslope, an alert will be triggered. This alert serves as a warning to the pilots that the aircraft is not descending as it should and corrective action may be needed to ensure a safe landing.

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  • 6. 

    (WXR & TCAS RANGE ARCS) When are range arcs displayed in the expanded VOR mode?

    • A.

      All the time

    • B.

      Only at 10, 20, and 40 mile ranges

    • C.

      With range scale tics

    • D.

      If weather radar or TCAS is selected

    Correct Answer
    D. If weather radar or TCAS is selected
    Explanation
    Range arcs are displayed in the expanded VOR mode if weather radar or TCAS is selected. This means that when the pilot chooses to view the weather radar or TCAS information on the display, the range arcs will be shown as well. The range arcs provide information about the distance from the aircraft to certain points, such as 10, 20, and 40 mile ranges. Therefore, if the pilot wants to see the range arcs, they need to select either weather radar or TCAS.

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  • 7. 

    (WXR & TCAS RANGE ARCS) Which control(s) cause range marks to display in expanded VOR or APP?

    • A.

      Weather Radar (WXR) switch or ND Traffic (TFC) switch

    • B.

      ND Range Selector

    • C.

      ND Center ( CTR ) switch

    • D.

      ND Mode Selector

    Correct Answer
    A. Weather Radar (WXR) switch or ND Traffic (TFC) switch
    Explanation
    When the Weather Radar (WXR) switch or ND Traffic (TFC) switch is activated, range marks will display in expanded VOR or APP mode. These switches are responsible for enabling the display of range marks on the Navigation Display (ND). The range marks provide information about the distance from the aircraft to various points of interest, such as VOR stations or approach waypoints. Therefore, activating the WXR or TFC switch allows pilots to have a better understanding of their position relative to these points on the ND.

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  • 8. 

    What does the POS map switch display?

    • A.

      Latitude/Longitude data for all waypoint

    • B.

      ADIRU, GPS and raw VOR position data

    • C.

      ETA, Altitude at each waypoint

    • D.

      Waypoint ETA and altitude

    Correct Answer
    B. ADIRU, GPS and raw VOR position data
    Explanation
    The POS map switch displays the ADIRU, GPS, and raw VOR position data. This means that it shows the information related to the aircraft's position as determined by the ADIRU system, the GPS system, and the raw VOR data. This can be useful for pilots to have a clear visualization of their current position and to navigate accurately during a flight.

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  • 9. 

    What does the airplane symbol represent in ND Plan mode?

    • A.

      Predicted track

    • B.

      Waypoint selected by prompt on the LEGS page.

    • C.

      Active waypoint

    • D.

      Actual position and track along the flight plan route

    Correct Answer
    D. Actual position and track along the flight plan route
    Explanation
    The airplane symbol in ND Plan mode represents the actual position and track along the flight plan route. It shows the real-time location of the aircraft and the direction it is heading, allowing pilots to accurately monitor their progress along the planned route.

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  • 10. 

    When will the TRUE light illuminate in the heading reference (HDG REF) switch?

    • A.

      Any time true heading is in use.

    • B.

      Whenever the HDG REF switch is selected to the TRUE position

    • C.

      Above 82 degrees N/S latitude or in the vicinities of the magnetic poles.

    • D.

      When the ND is in the map mode.

    Correct Answer
    B. Whenever the HDG REF switch is selected to the TRUE position
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Whenever the HDG REF switch is selected to the TRUE position." This means that the TRUE light will illuminate only when the HDG REF switch is specifically set to the TRUE position. It will not illuminate when true heading is in use, when the aircraft is in high latitudes or near the magnetic poles, or when the ND is in the map mode. The TRUE light will only come on when the pilot intentionally selects the TRUE position on the HDG REF switch.

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  • 11. 

    When are the annunciations CDU L, C, or R displayed on the ND?

    • A.

      Repecteive navigation source switch in CDU

    • B.

      Only after a single FMC failure

    • C.

      Only after a GPS failure

    • D.

      While the ADIRU is in the align mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Repecteive navigation source switch in CDU
    Explanation
    The annunciations CDU L, C, or R are displayed on the ND when the respective navigation source switch in the CDU is selected. This means that when the pilot selects the left navigation source switch on the CDU, the CDU L annunciation will be displayed on the ND. Similarly, selecting the center or right navigation source switch will display the CDU C or R annunciations on the ND respectively.

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  • 12. 

    Which statement about the standby attitude indicator is true?

    • A.

      It displays roll and bank only

    • B.

      It displays pitch, bank and slip

    • C.

      It displays pitch and bank only

    • D.

      It displays pitch, bank and heading

    Correct Answer
    C. It displays pitch and bank only
    Explanation
    The standby attitude indicator is a backup instrument used in case of primary instrument failure. It is designed to display the aircraft's pitch and bank angles, providing essential information for maintaining level flight and executing turns. The standby attitude indicator does not display heading or slip information, making the statement "It displays pitch and bank only" true.

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  • 13. 

    What does a rectangular white Icon next to an EICAS message indicate?

    • A.

      The non-normal condition is no longer present

    • B.

      There is no electronic checklist associated with this message

    • C.

      There is an electronic checklist with procedural steps, notes or other information that is complete.

    • D.

      There is an electronic checklist with procedural steps, notes or other information that is NOT complete.

    Correct Answer
    D. There is an electronic checklist with procedural steps, notes or other information that is NOT complete.
    Explanation
    The rectangular white icon next to an EICAS message indicates that there is an electronic checklist with procedural steps, notes, or other information that is not complete. This suggests that there are still actions or steps that need to be taken to resolve the non-normal condition indicated by the EICAS message.

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  • 14. 

    What does cyan color indicate on the electroni checklist line item?

    • A.

      The step must be reset.

    • B.

      The step must be repeated.

    • C.

      The step is inactive or overriden.

    • D.

      The step was performed wrong.

    Correct Answer
    B. The step must be repeated.
    Explanation
    The cyan color on the electronic checklist line item indicates that the step must be repeated. This means that the action or task associated with that step was not performed correctly or was incomplete, and it needs to be done again to ensure that it is done properly. The cyan color serves as a visual reminder to the user that this particular step requires attention and needs to be repeated.

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  • 15. 

    Which statement about the electronic checklist NORMAL and NON - NORMAL keys is not correct?

    • A.

      The NON - NORMAL key displays when additional incomplete Non-normal checklist exist/

    • B.

      The NON - NORMAL key is always displayed and recalls the last non-normal checklist completed

    • C.

      The NORMAL key displays the next incomplet normal checklist in the sequence

    • D.

      The NORMAL and NON - NORMAL keys are quickly acessed by placing a finger in an appropriate corner area of the cursor control device.

    Correct Answer
    B. The NON - NORMAL key is always displayed and recalls the last non-normal checklist completed
    Explanation
    The statement "The NON - NORMAL key is always displayed and recalls the last non-normal checklist completed" is not correct. The NON - NORMAL key is displayed only when additional incomplete Non-normal checklists exist, not always. It does not automatically recall the last non-normal checklist completed.

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  • 16. 

    Which statement about the non - normal checklist queue is true?

    • A.

      Each checklist in the queue must be completed in the order listed.

    • B.

      The queue displays checklists for messages that do not di have an icon.

    • C.

      While the queue is displaying, it continuously updates automatically each time a new EICAS message appears.

    • D.

      The checklist queue allows you to select and display the checklist corresponding to the title.

    Correct Answer
    D. The checklist queue allows you to select and display the checklist corresponding to the title.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the checklist queue allows the user to select and display the checklist corresponding to the title. This means that the user can choose a specific checklist from the queue based on the title and view it. The statement does not mention anything about completing the checklists in a specific order, displaying checklists without icons, or automatic updates when new messages appear.

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  • 17. 

    How do you display an unannuciated non-normal checklist?

    • A.

      Higlights and select the NON - NORMAL MENU key, then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS key.

    • B.

      Highlights and select the NORMAL MENU key, then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS key.

    • C.

      Highlights and select the NON - NORMAL CHECKLIST key.

    • D.

      Highlight and select the CHKL RESETS key, then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS key.

    Correct Answer
    A. Higlights and select the NON - NORMAL MENU key, then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS key.
    Explanation
    To display an unannunciated non-normal checklist, you need to highlight and select the NON - NORMAL MENU key, and then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS key. This sequence of actions will bring up the non-normal menu and allow you to access the unannunciated checklists.

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  • 18. 

    What does the Operational NOTES key do?

    • A.

      The NOTES key resets the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists during flight.

    • B.

      The NOTES key displays the operational note shown in non-normal checklists.

    • C.

      The NOTES key allows you to create a note for the displayed checklist.

    • D.

      The NOTES key adds the displayed checklist to the notes queue.

    Correct Answer
    B. The NOTES key displays the operational note shown in non-normal checklists.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the second option, "The NOTES key displays the operational note shown in non-normal checklists." This means that when the NOTES key is pressed, it will show the operational note that is relevant to the non-normal checklist being displayed. This feature allows the pilot or operator to easily access and review any important notes or instructions related to the checklist, ensuring that necessary actions are taken during flight.

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  • 19. 

    Which Statement about Resets Menu Page is correct?

    • A.

      RESETS key resets all of the normsl cheklists.

    • B.

      RESETS key resets all of the non - normal checklists.

    • C.

      All checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key.

    • D.

      All checklists can be reset at once by using the NON- NORMAL MENU key followed by the RESET ALL key

    Correct Answer
    C. All checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that all checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key. This means that instead of resetting each checklist individually, the RESETS key allows for a simultaneous reset of all checklists, and the RESET ALL key confirms and completes the reset process.

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  • 20. 

    Which statement about checklist overrides is correct?

    • A.

      To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.

    • B.

      Closed loop steps cannot be overridden.

    • C.

      Steps that are overridden remain white,

    • D.

      To override a checklist it must first be reset.

    Correct Answer
    A. To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key." This statement explains the correct procedure for overriding a checklist. It states that in order to override a checklist, you need to first display the checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key. This implies that there is a specific process to follow in order to successfully override a checklist.

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  • 21. 

    What does the CHKL OVRD key do when selected?

    • A.

      Overrides the highlighted item on the checklists.

    • B.

      Overrides the displayed checklist and displays the next checklist to be overridden.

    • C.

      Displays the next checklist to be overridden.

    • D.

      Displays the last overridden checklist.

    Correct Answer
    B. Overrides the displayed checklist and displays the next checklist to be overridden.
    Explanation
    When the CHKL OVRD key is selected, it overrides the currently displayed checklist and shows the next checklist that needs to be overridden. This means that it allows the user to skip the current checklist and move on to the next one that requires attention or action.

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  • 22. 

    When using the Display Select Panel, what are the steps to select the status page on the left inboard display unit?

    • A.

      Select R INBD switch, then select STAT switch

    • B.

      Select LWR CTR switch, then select STAT switch

    • C.

      Select L INBD switch, then select STAT switch

    • D.

      Select L INBD switch, then select ENG switch

    Correct Answer
    C. Select L INBD switch, then select STAT switch
    Explanation
    To select the status page on the left inboard display unit using the Display Select Panel, the correct steps are to first select the L INBD switch and then select the STAT switch. This combination of switches will allow the user to access the desired status page on the left inboard display unit.

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  • 23. 

    What Display Select Panel steps displays the flight control synoptic on the right inboard display unit?

    • A.

      SeleSelect the R INBD switch, then select the FCTL switch

    • B.

      Select the FCTL switch, then select the R INBD switch

    • C.

      Select the L INBD switch, then select the FCTL switch

    • D.

      Select the R INBD switch, then select the CONT switch

    Correct Answer
    A. SeleSelect the R INBD switch, then select the FCTL switch
    Explanation
    To display the flight control synoptic on the right inboard display unit, the correct steps are to first select the R INBD switch and then select the FCTL switch. This sequence of selections will activate the necessary settings and configurations to show the flight control synoptic on the specified display unit.

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  • 24. 

    When and inboard display selector is in the EICAS position, Which switches on the Display Select Panel Affet that inboard display?

    • A.

      All display select panel operations are normal.

    • B.

      Inboard display unit can only display EICAS or the secondary engine display.

    • C.

      All display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR.

    • D.

      Any display select panel selection will be displayed on the lower center display unit.

    Correct Answer
    C. All display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR.
    Explanation
    When the inboard display selector is in the EICAS position, all display switches on the Display Select Panel become inoperative except for ENG, FUEL, and AIR. This means that only the engine, fuel, and air-related information will be displayed on the inboard display unit. Other display select panel selections will not have any effect on the inboard display.

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  • 25. 

    Which statement about the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is most correct?

    • A.

      It displays airplane attitude, airspeed and ILS information.

    • B.

      It displays airplane attitude, heading and airspeed information.

    • C.

      It is displays airplane attitude, altitude and ILS information.

    • D.

      It displays airpane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading and ILS information.

    Correct Answer
    D. It displays airpane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading and ILS information.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) displays airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading, and ILS information. This means that the ISFD provides a comprehensive display of crucial flight information, including the aircraft's pitch, roll, and yaw (attitude), its speed through the air (airspeed), its height above sea level (altitude), its direction of travel (heading), and information related to the Instrument Landing System (ILS), which helps guide the aircraft during approaches and landings.

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  • 26. 

    What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS indictae?

    • A.

      Both PFDs are using the same dource for radio altitude display.

    • B.

      Both PFDs are receiving air data from the same single channel source.

    • C.

      Both PFDs are using the same source for flight director information.

    • D.

      A single source of display information is used by some or all display unit.

    Correct Answer
    D. A single source of display information is used by some or all display unit.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS indicates that a single source of display information is used by some or all display units. This means that the information displayed on multiple units, such as the PFDs and flight director, is sourced from a single channel or system. This message is likely to inform the pilots that the displayed information may be affected if there is an issue with the single source.

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  • 27. 

    What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE AIR DATA indicate?

    • A.

      Both AIR DATA/ATTITUDE source switches are in the ALTN position.

    • B.

      Both PFDs are receiving air data from the same single channel source.

    • C.

      Both PFDs are using the same source for flight director information.

    • D.

      A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.

    Correct Answer
    B. Both PFDs are receiving air data from the same single channel source.
    Explanation
    The EICAS Message SGL SOURCE AIR DATA indicates that both Primary Flight Displays (PFDs) are receiving air data from the same single channel source. This means that both PFDs are using the same source of air data information, ensuring consistency and accuracy in the displayed information on both displays.

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  • 28. 

    What does the EICAS Message DISPLAY SELECT PNL indicate?

    • A.

      Left, center or right CDU control of the Display Control Panel is active.

    • B.

      The Display Control Panel is in use.

    • C.

      Both PFDs are using the same source of air data information.

    • D.

      A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.

    Correct Answer
    A. Left, center or right CDU control of the Display Control Panel is active.
    Explanation
    The EICAS Message DISPLAY SELECT PNL indicates that either the left, center, or right CDU control of the Display Control Panel is active. This means that one of the CDUs is currently being used to control the Display Control Panel, allowing for the selection and management of various display units.

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  • 29. 

    What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE AIR DATA indicate?

    • A.

      Both AIR DATA/ATTITUDE source swithces are in the aLTN position.

    • B.

      Both PFDs are recieving air data from the same single channel source.

    • C.

      Both PFDs are using the same source for flight director information.

    • D.

      A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.

    Correct Answer
    B. Both PFDs are recieving air data from the same single channel source.
  • 30. 

    What does the EICAS Message BARO SET DISAGREE indicate?

    • A.

      The standby altimeter barometric setting does not agree with the Captain's PFD barometric setting.

    • B.

      A PFD barometric setting remains in the QNH mode above the transition altitude.

    • C.

      The captains and the first officers barometric settings disagree

    • D.

      Both PFDs are using STD but the preselected barometric settings disagree.

    Correct Answer
    C. The captains and the first officers barometric settings disagree
    Explanation
    The correct answer indicates that the barometric settings of both the captain and the first officer do not agree with each other. This can cause confusion and potential errors in altitude readings and instrument indications. It is important for both pilots to have the same barometric setting to ensure accurate altitude measurements and proper aircraft performance.

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  • 31. 

    Which statement is not correct about the Radio Altitude display on the PFD?

    • A.

      Display radio altitude belown 2500 feet AGL.

    • B.

      Turns amber when below radio altitude minimums.

    • C.

      The display box is highlighted in white for 10 seconds when passing below 1000 feet.

    • D.

      Indicate current ADIRS altitude below 2500 feet.

    Correct Answer
    D. Indicate current ADIRS altitude below 2500 feet.
    Explanation
    The statement "Indicate current ADIRS altitude below 2500 feet" is not correct about the Radio Altitude display on the PFD. The Radio Altitude display specifically shows the height above ground level (AGL) and not the ADIRS altitude. ADIRS altitude refers to the altitude calculated by the aircraft's Air Data Inertial Reference System, which may be different from the actual height above ground level.

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  • 32. 

    Which statement is true bout the Glideslope Pointer and scale on the PFD?

    • A.

      Indicate glideslope position relative to the airplane.

    • B.

      Fills in solid when the glideslope is captured.

    • C.

      Is it in view when the glideslope signal is received.

    • D.

      The scale is in view after the frequency is tuned and identified.

    Correct Answer
    A. Indicate glideslope position relative to the airplane.
    Explanation
    The Glideslope Pointer and scale on the PFD indicate the position of the glideslope relative to the airplane. This means that it shows whether the airplane is above or below the glideslope, helping the pilot maintain the correct descent path during an approach. The other statements are not correct because they do not accurately describe the function of the Glideslope Pointer and scale.

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  • 33. 

    When does the Localizer scale change to the expanded scale?

    • A.

      Displays when the autopilot or flight director is LOC mode and the airplane captures the glideslope, providing a more sensitive display.

    • B.

      Displays when the autopilot or flight director is LOC mode and the airplane is close to the runway center line, providing a more sensitive displays.

    • C.

      Displays when the autopilot captures the LOC mode, providing a more sensitive display.

    • D.

      Displays during LOC capture.

    Correct Answer
    B. Displays when the autopilot or flight director is LOC mode and the airplane is close to the runway center line, providing a more sensitive displays.
    Explanation
    The Localizer scale changes to the expanded scale when the autopilot or flight director is in LOC mode and the airplane is close to the runway center line. This provides a more sensitive display, allowing the pilot to accurately track the aircraft's position in relation to the runway.

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  • 34. 

    When the ND is in the Plan mode, what is the display orientation?

    • A.

      The Top of the display represents Magnetic North.

    • B.

      The top of the display represents True North.

    • C.

      The top of the display represents the airplane track.

    • D.

      The top of the displays represents the airplane heading.

    Correct Answer
    B. The top of the display represents True North.
    Explanation
    In the Plan mode, the display orientation on the ND (Navigation Display) is such that the top of the display represents True North. This means that the map on the ND is aligned with the Earth's geographic north pole. This orientation helps pilots accurately determine their position and navigate along their planned route.

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  • 35. 

    Which statement about the EFIS control panel Map switches is true?

    • A.

      WPT (waypoints) can be displayed up to the 320 NM range.

    • B.

      ARPT (airports) can be only be displayed simultaneously on a single ND

    • C.

      WXR can only be displayed on the 10, 20, or 40 NM ranges.

    Correct Answer
    B. ARPT (airports) can be only be displayed simultaneously on a single ND
    Explanation
    The EFIS control panel Map switches allow for the display of different information on the Navigation Display (ND) of the aircraft. The statement that "ARPT (airports) can only be displayed simultaneously on a single ND" means that the airports can only be shown on one ND at a time, rather than being displayed on multiple NDs simultaneously. This suggests that the EFIS control panel Map switches do not have the capability to show airports on multiple NDs at once.

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  • 36. 

    Which Display Select Panel switch displays the APU EGT?

    • A.

      ENG (secondary engine EICAS)

    • B.

      FUEL (fuel system synoptic)

    • C.

      AIR (air systems synoptic)

    • D.

      STAT (status page)

    Correct Answer
    D. STAT (status page)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is STAT (status page). The status page on the display select panel is responsible for displaying various system parameters and statuses, including the APU EGT (exhaust gas temperature). This page provides essential information about the aircraft's systems, allowing the pilot to monitor the APU and other critical components during flight.

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  • 37. 

    Which statement about the red MAximum Speed indicator on the PFD airspeed indicator is not correct?

    • A.

      Indicates maximum airspeed as limited by the spoilar placard speed.

    • B.

      Indicate maximum airspeed as limited by Vmo/Mmo.

    • C.

      Indicates maximum airspeed as limited by the landing gear placard speed.

    • D.

      Indicates maximum airspeed as limited by the flap placard speed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Indicates maximum airspeed as limited by the spoilar placard speed.
  • 38. 

    What happebs if he ADIRU switch is lft in then primary power is removed fro0m the airplane and the BATTERY switch is turned off?

    • A.

      The ON BAT light illuminates and the EICAS memo message ADIRU ON BAT displays.

    • B.

      The ON BAT light illuminates and the ground crew call horn sounds.

    • C.

      The ON BAT light extigueshes when the BATTERY switch is turned off.

    • D.

      Nothing. The ADIRU switch is always left on when securing the airplanes.

    Correct Answer
    B. The ON BAT light illuminates and the ground crew call horn sounds.
    Explanation
    If the ADIRU switch is left on and the primary power is removed from the airplane, and then the BATTERY switch is turned off, the ON BAT light will illuminate and the ground crew call horn will sound. This indicates that the ADIRU system is still receiving power from the battery even though the primary power has been removed.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following asbout the SET INERTIAL POS line on the POS INIT page is not correct?

    • A.

      A position can be entered at any time on the ground

    • B.

      A position can be entered before the ADIRU can enter the navigation mode.

    • C.

      A Position entry is optional when the ADIRU is in the automatic realign mode.

    • D.

      A position entry is not possible when the airplane is moving.

    Correct Answer
    A. A position can be entered at any time on the ground
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that a position entry is not possible when the airplane is moving. This means that the statement "A position can be entered at any time on the ground" is incorrect.

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  • 40. 

    Which message is displayed when the ADIRU is in the alignment mode?

    • A.

      EICAS alert message NAV ADIRU INERTIAL

    • B.

      EICAS memo message ADIRU ALIGN MODE

    • C.

      CDU scrachpad message ADIRU ALIGN

    • D.

      CDU scratchpad message ENTER ADIRU POSITION

    Correct Answer
    B. EICAS memo message ADIRU ALIGN MODE
    Explanation
    When the ADIRU (Air Data Inertial Reference Unit) is in the alignment mode, the EICAS (Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System) displays a memo message that says "ADIRU ALIGN MODE". This message indicates that the ADIRU is currently aligning itself and is not yet ready for navigation. It serves as a reminder to the crew that they should wait until the alignment process is complete before relying on the ADIRU for accurate navigation information.

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  • 41. 

    How often is a complete ADIRU alignment recommended?

    • A.

      Every 15 hours

    • B.

      Every 24 hours

    • C.

      Whenever the total time in the nivigation mode is expected to exceed 15 hours.

    • D.

      Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours.

    Correct Answer
    D. Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours.
    Explanation
    A complete ADIRU alignment is recommended whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours. This means that after 24 hours of continuous navigation mode operation, it is recommended to perform a complete ADIRU alignment to ensure accurate and reliable navigation data. This alignment helps maintain the accuracy and integrity of the aircraft's navigation system over extended periods of operation.

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  • 42. 

    The EXEC lights is illuminated and you push the DEP ARR key but do not see the desired destination ARRIVALS page.Which of the following actions will not display the DEP/ARR  INDEX page?

    • A.

      Push teh INTIT REF key and select the INDEX line selectkey (6L).

    • B.

      Push the ERASE prompt line select key (6L) then push the INDEX line select key (6L).

    • C.

      Push the EXEC key then push the INDEX line select key (6L).

    • D.

      When until traveling more than 400 NM from the ORIGN or more than half way to the destination before selecting the DEP/ARR key again.

    Correct Answer
    A. Push teh INTIT REF key and select the INDEX line selectkey (6L).
  • 43. 

    Which of the following are data sources for the ADIRU?

    • A.

      Static ports only

    • B.

      Air data modules,AOA sensors, and TAT probe

    • C.

      Air data modules only

    • D.

      AOA sensors and TAT probe only.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air data modules,AOA sensors, and TAT probe
    Explanation
    The ADIRU (Air Data Inertial Reference Unit) is a system in an aircraft that provides data regarding the aircraft's position, attitude, and airspeed. It receives information from various sources to calculate this data. The correct answer states that the data sources for the ADIRU include air data modules, AOA (Angle of Attack) sensors, and TAT (Total Air Temperature) probe. Air data modules provide information about the aircraft's air pressure, temperature, and airspeed. AOA sensors measure the angle between the aircraft's longitudinal axis and the oncoming airflow. The TAT probe measures the total air temperature. Therefore, these three sources provide crucial data for the ADIRU to accurately determine the aircraft's position and attitude.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following are data sources for the SAARU?

    • A.

      Air data modules only

    • B.

      Static ports only

    • C.

      Air data modules, AOA sensors, and TAT probe

    • D.

      AOA sensors and TAT probe only.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air data modules, AOA sensors, and TAT probe
    Explanation
    The SAARU (Standby Attitude and Air Data Reference Unit) requires data from various sources to function properly. These sources include air data modules, AOA (Angle of Attack) sensors, and TAT (Total Air Temperature) probe. These components provide essential information such as airspeed, altitude, angle of attack, and temperature to the SAARU, allowing it to accurately calculate and display attitude and air data information to the pilot. Therefore, the correct answer is air data modules, AOA sensors, and TAT probe.

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  • 45. 

    What is the altitude source for transponder altittude reporting when the ALT SOURCE selector is in the ALTN position?

    • A.

      ADIRU

    • B.

      Air data modules

    • C.

      The master FMC

    • D.

      SAARU

    Correct Answer
    D. SAARU
    Explanation
    When the ALT SOURCE selector is in the ALTN position, the altitude source for transponder altitude reporting is SAARU.

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  • 46. 

    Which one of the following is inoperative with dual FMC failure?

    • A.

      LNAV

    • B.

      VNAV

    • C.

      MAP display

    • D.

      Both CDUs

    Correct Answer
    B. VNAV
    Explanation
    With dual FMC failure, the VNAV (Vertical Navigation) function becomes inoperative. The FMC is responsible for calculating and controlling the aircraft's vertical navigation, including altitude and vertical speed. Without functioning FMCs, the aircraft is unable to accurately manage vertical navigation, making the VNAV inoperative. LNAV (Lateral Navigation) and MAP display are not directly dependent on the FMCs and may still be operational. The CDUs (Control Display Units) are input devices for the FMCs and would also be inoperative without functioning FMCs.

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  • 47. 

    When will the FMC not automatically sequence the active waypoint in flight?

    • A.

      When more than 21 NM off the active route and not on an offset.

    • B.

      When more than 2.5 NM off the active route and not on an offset.

    • C.

      When passing over the waypoiny in HDG SEL.

    • D.

      When passing over the PROCEDURE HOLD waypoint on an approach.

    Correct Answer
    A. When more than 21 NM off the active route and not on an offset.
    Explanation
    The FMC (Flight Management Computer) will not automatically sequence the active waypoint in flight when the aircraft is more than 21 NM (nautical miles) off the active route and not on an offset. In other words, if the aircraft deviates significantly from the planned route and is not following any offset procedures, the FMC will not automatically advance to the next waypoint. This is likely to prevent the aircraft from continuing on an incorrect path and to ensure the pilots are aware of the deviation and can take appropriate action.

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  • 48. 

    What color is the VOR data on the NAV RADIO page?

    • A.

      Magenta

    • B.

      Cyan

    • C.

      Green

    • D.

      White

    Correct Answer
    C. Green
    Explanation
    The VOR data on the NAV RADIO page is displayed in green.

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  • 49. 

    What color is the ADF frequency data on the NAV RADIO page?

    • A.

      Magenta

    • B.

      Cyan

    • C.

      Green

    • D.

      White

    Correct Answer
    B. Cyan
    Explanation
    The ADF frequency data on the NAV RADIO page is displayed in cyan.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following statements about waypoint altitude constraints is not correct?

    • A.

      The active altitude constraint is displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page.

    • B.

      The active altitude constraint is displayed in mageta.

    • C.

      The active altitude constraint is displayed on the ND map

    • D.

      The active altitude constraint can be displayed on the CLB, CRZ asnd DES pages.

    Correct Answer
    A. The active altitude constraint is displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the active altitude constraint is displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page. This statement is not correct because the active altitude constraint is not displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 01, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Gtd
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