Anesthesia Technician Mock Test Quiz! Trivia

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  • 1/92 Questions

    A patient receives a nerve block with ropivacaine and IV lidocaine and subsequently starts having a seizure. What is the most likely cause of the seizure?

    • Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST)
    • Increased PaO2
    • Carbon monoxide poisoning
    • Propofol infusion syndrome
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About This Quiz

A person given this position at a medical facility is charged with ensuring that all the anesthetic machines are in top condition and are working as they should. Not only is the person expected to know about the different technology used but also know the techniques used in different patients. Do take up the quiz provided and see if you See morehave adequate knowledge to fill this position.

Anesthesia Technician Mock Test Quiz! Trivia - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A 74 yo male with hypertension is undergoing a knee replacement under GA. At some point intraoperatively, the BP and O2 saturation both unexpectedly drop significantly. Which of the following is a likely cause?

    • History of alcoholism

    • Bone cement implantation syndrome/fat embolism

    • The use of femoral and sciatic nerve blocks

    • Long-term use of convective warmers intraoperatively

    Correct Answer
    A. Bone cement implantation syndrome/fat embolism
    Explanation
    Bone cement implantation syndrome (BCIS) is a possible cause for the significant drop in blood pressure and oxygen saturation during knee replacement surgery. BCIS occurs when the bone cement used in joint replacement surgery leaks into the bloodstream and causes a systemic inflammatory response. This can lead to cardiovascular collapse, hypoxemia, and other complications. Given the patient's age, hypertension, and the invasive nature of knee replacement surgery, BCIS is a likely cause for the unexpected drop in vital signs. The other options, such as history of alcoholism, nerve blocks, and convective warmers, are less likely to cause such a significant and sudden decline in vital signs.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following represent ASA Standard Monitors?

    • EKG, pulse ox, NIBP Cuff, capnography, +/- temp

    • EKG, BIS, art line, capnography

    • Pulse ox, transesophageal echocaridography, NIBP cuff, capnography

    • Temp, EKG, BIS, capnography

    Correct Answer
    A. EKG, pulse ox, NIBP Cuff, capnography, +/- temp
  • 4. 

    What is the trade name for oxytocin?

    • Pitocin

    • Uteropres

    • Gynastrict

    • Pregozam

    Correct Answer
    A. Pitocin
    Explanation
    Pitocin is the correct trade name for oxytocin. Oxytocin is a hormone that is commonly used to induce labor or strengthen contractions during childbirth. Pitocin is a synthetic form of oxytocin that is administered through an IV. It helps to stimulate uterine contractions and can be used to induce labor or control bleeding after childbirth. Other options listed, such as Uteropres, Gynastrict, and Pregozam, are not trade names for oxytocin.

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  • 5. 

    The Diameter Index Safety System (DISS) is designed to:

    • Prevent connection of the wrong gas at the wall

    • Allow both ET tubes and LMA's to connect to the same-sized circuit

    • Ensure that a vaporizer isn't filled with the wrong volatile anesthetic

    • Ensure that tubing designed for IV infusions can't be connected to an epidural catheter

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent connection of the wrong gas at the wall
    Explanation
    The Diameter Index Safety System (DISS) is designed to prevent the connection of the wrong gas at the wall. This means that it ensures that the correct gas is being delivered to the appropriate equipment, preventing any potential mix-ups or accidents. By using the DISS, healthcare professionals can safely and accurately connect the gas supply to the correct equipment, ensuring patient safety and proper functioning of the medical devices.

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  • 6. 

    The clinical indication for administration of FFP is:

    • Need for increased oxygen-carrying capacity

    • Treatment of coagulopathy/administration of clotting factors

    • Reduced platelet function due to renal failure

    • High plasma osmolarity

    Correct Answer
    A. Treatment of coagulopathy/administration of clotting factors
    Explanation
    The clinical indication for administration of FFP is the treatment of coagulopathy or the administration of clotting factors. FFP, or fresh frozen plasma, contains various clotting factors that can help restore normal blood clotting in individuals with coagulation disorders or those who require additional clotting factors. This can be necessary in cases of bleeding disorders, liver disease, or during surgical procedures where there is a risk of excessive bleeding. FFP does not increase oxygen-carrying capacity, address reduced platelet function due to renal failure, or high plasma osmolarity.

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  • 7. 

    A patient is undergoing a neurosurgical procedure for removal of a brain tumor. The surgeon requests acute lowering of the ICP. Which of the following can facilitate that?

    • Esmolol

    • Mannitol

    • Hypoventilation (to PaCO2 50-60 mm Hg)

    • Use of LR's solution as the IV fluid

    Correct Answer
    A. Mannitol
    Explanation
    Mannitol can facilitate the acute lowering of intracranial pressure (ICP). Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing fluid from the brain tissue into the bloodstream, reducing brain swelling and therefore lowering ICP. This can be beneficial during neurosurgical procedures for the removal of a brain tumor, as it helps to create a safer surgical environment and minimize the risk of complications. Esmolol is a beta-blocker used for controlling heart rate and blood pressure, but it does not directly lower ICP. Hypoventilation can actually increase ICP, so it is not a suitable option in this case. The choice of IV fluid does not have a direct impact on ICP.

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  • 8. 

    Shortly after induction of GA with propofol, a patient is found to be difficult to mask ventilate and the clinician is unable to intubate the patient with direct laryngoscopy. The patient was well-pre oxygenated and the SpO2 is 98%. The next step should be:

    • Attempt to place an LMA

    • Use a retrograde intubation

    • Continue to attempt direct laryngoscopy until a total of 5 have been attempted

    • Avoid any muscle relaxation

    Correct Answer
    A. Attempt to place an LMA
    Explanation
    The next step should be to attempt to place an LMA. This is because the patient is difficult to mask ventilate and unable to be intubated with direct laryngoscopy. Placing an LMA can provide a patent airway and ensure adequate ventilation in the patient.

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  • 9. 

    A clinician is placing an epidural and notices an (unintentional) dural puncture. What issue is this patient most likely to subsequently experience?

    • Death

    • Headache

    • Lower extremity weakness that lasts for several days

    • Hypotension

    Correct Answer
    A. Headache
    Explanation
    When a clinician unintentionally punctures the dura during an epidural placement, it can lead to a leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This leakage can cause a condition known as post-dural puncture headache (PDPH). PDPH is characterized by a severe headache, which typically worsens when the patient is upright and improves when lying down. The headache can last for several days and may be accompanied by other symptoms such as neck stiffness, nausea, and blurred vision. It is the most likely issue that the patient will experience after an unintentional dural puncture during an epidural.

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  • 10. 

    Posterior fossa sciatic nerve blocks and ankle blocks would be most useful for which kinds of surgeries?

    • Hip fracture surgeries

    • Knee surgeries

    • Surgeries involving the distal femur

    • Foot surgeries

    Correct Answer
    A. Foot surgeries
    Explanation
    Posterior fossa sciatic nerve blocks and ankle blocks would be most useful for foot surgeries. These blocks provide anesthesia to the foot and ankle region, making them ideal for procedures involving the foot. Hip fracture surgeries, knee surgeries, and surgeries involving the distal femur would not require anesthesia specifically in the foot area, so these blocks would not be as useful for those types of surgeries.

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  • 11. 

    A patient had an accidental dural puncture on an epidural placement the day before. What would be the most effective treatment for her symptoms (headache, etc...)?

    • Atropine

    • Epidural blood patch

    • Dexmedetomidine infusion

    • Avoidance of lying flat

    Correct Answer
    A. Epidural blood patch
    Explanation
    An accidental dural puncture during epidural placement can lead to a condition called post-dural puncture headache (PDPH). The most effective treatment for PDPH is an epidural blood patch. This procedure involves injecting a small amount of the patient's own blood into the epidural space, which helps to seal the puncture site and alleviate the symptoms. Atropine is not indicated for treating PDPH. Dexmedetomidine infusion may be used for sedation, but it is not the primary treatment for PDPH. Avoidance of lying flat can provide temporary relief, but it is not a definitive treatment.

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  • 12. 

    A patient is on warfarin and requires emergent abdominal surgery. There is considerable bleeding during the procedure. What would be an appropriate way to counteract this patient's anticoagulation?

    • FFP

    • Vitamin C

    • Protamine

    • Hypothermia

    Correct Answer
    A. FFP
    Explanation
    FFP stands for Fresh Frozen Plasma, which is a blood product that contains various clotting factors. In this scenario, the patient is on warfarin, which is an anticoagulant medication that inhibits blood clotting. Since there is considerable bleeding during the surgery, administering FFP would be an appropriate way to counteract the patient's anticoagulation. FFP provides the necessary clotting factors that can help stop the bleeding and promote hemostasis.

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  • 13. 

    A patient in the PACU requires a significant amount of hydromorphone for pain, and is later observed to desaturate (SpO2 approx 70%) and isn't breathing. Which medication would be appropriate to use to fix the problem?

    • Methylene Blue

    • Naloxone (Narcan)

    • Epinephrine

    • Steroids

    Correct Answer
    A. Naloxone (Narcan)
    Explanation
    Naloxone (Narcan) is the appropriate medication to use in this situation because it is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, including respiratory depression. The patient's desaturation and lack of breathing suggest that they are experiencing opioid overdose, which can be life-threatening. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors and blocking the effects of opioids, thereby restoring respiratory function and reversing the overdose. Methylene Blue, Epinephrine, and Steroids are not appropriate in this scenario as they do not specifically address opioid overdose and its associated respiratory depression.

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  • 14. 

    An inspector from the Joint Commission comes and asks you what prevents someone from connecting a nitrous oxide tank where an oxygen tank should be. How do you answer?

    • The Diameter Index Safety System (DISS)

    • The Pin Index Safety System (PISS)

    • Left-handed threads on oxygen tanks

    • Automated barcode analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. The Pin Index Safety System (PISS)
    Explanation
    The Pin Index Safety System (PISS) is the correct answer because it is a safety mechanism that prevents someone from connecting a nitrous oxide tank where an oxygen tank should be. The PISS involves using specific pins and corresponding holes on the tank and regulator to ensure that only the correct gas can be connected. This system helps to prevent dangerous mix-ups and ensures the proper use of gases in medical settings.

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  • 15. 

    A patient is undergoing a TURP procedure for an enlarged prostate and at some point intraoperatively the clinician feels that he may have TURP syndrome. This would be due to which of the following causes?

    • Carbon dioxide embolism

    • Fat Embolism

    • Hypernatremia from excessive sodium load

    • Extensive absorption of the irrigation fluid

    Correct Answer
    A. Extensive absorption of the irrigation fluid
    Explanation
    During a TURP procedure, irrigation fluid is used to maintain visibility and flush out debris. If there is extensive absorption of the irrigation fluid, it can lead to a condition called TURP syndrome. This occurs when the absorbed fluid, which contains electrolytes, is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream, causing an imbalance in the body's electrolyte levels. Symptoms of TURP syndrome can include hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level, as well as fluid overload, confusion, seizures, and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, the extensive absorption of the irrigation fluid can cause TURP syndrome in this scenario.

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  • 16. 

    A 28 yo female patient is involved in a car accident and brought emergently to the OR. She receives emergency release blood. What is the most appropriate blood type for transfusion of PRBC's in this context?

    • O +

    • O -

    • AB +

    • AB -

    Correct Answer
    A. O -
    Explanation
    In emergency situations where the patient's blood type is unknown, O- blood type is considered the universal donor. This means that O- blood can be safely transfused to patients of any blood type without causing a severe immune reaction. O- blood lacks both A and B antigens on the red blood cells, making it compatible with all blood types. Therefore, O- is the most appropriate blood type for transfusion of PRBCs in this context.

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  • 17. 

    A patient with a known pseudocholinesterase deficiency comes to the OR for elective surgery. Which medication's effects would be expected to be significantly prolonged in this patient?

    • Cisatracurium

    • Remifentanil

    • Midazolam

    • Succinylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. Succinylcholine
    Explanation
    Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that is rapidly hydrolyzed by pseudocholinesterase. In patients with pseudocholinesterase deficiency, the metabolism of succinylcholine is significantly impaired, leading to prolonged effects of the medication. Therefore, the effects of succinylcholine would be expected to be significantly prolonged in this patient.

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  • 18. 

    Lactated Ringer's, although compatible with PRBC administration under certain circumstances, is often avoided when transfusing PRBC's because:

    • The lactate in LR builds up because of the PRBC's

    • It results in hyperkalemia

    • The calcium in the LR can antagonize the citrate anticoagulant in the PRBC's and potentially result in clotting

    • The red blood cells in the PRBC's shrink because LR is hypertonic

    Correct Answer
    A. The calcium in the LR can antagonize the citrate anticoagulant in the PRBC's and potentially result in clotting
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that the reason Lactated Ringer's (LR) is often avoided when transfusing PRBC's (packed red blood cells) is because the calcium in LR can counteract the citrate anticoagulant present in the PRBC's. This interaction between calcium and citrate can potentially lead to clotting, which is an undesirable outcome during a blood transfusion.

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  • 19. 

    An epidural test dose is used to determine which of the following?

    • That the epidural is in the lumbar region

    • The epidural isn't one-sided

    • The epidural catheter is not intravascular or intrathecal

    • That the epidural will function for surgical anesthesia

    Correct Answer
    A. The epidural catheter is not intravascular or intrathecal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the epidural catheter is not intravascular or intrathecal. An epidural test dose is administered to ensure that the catheter is correctly placed in the epidural space and not in a blood vessel or the spinal canal. This is important to prevent complications such as intravascular injection of medication or unintentional spinal anesthesia. By confirming that the catheter is in the epidural space, healthcare providers can safely administer medications for pain relief or anesthesia during surgery.

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  • 20. 

    Which is correct regarding proper patient arm positioning to reduce the risk of a nerve injury?

    • The palm should be facing downward

    • The area under the elbow should be padded

    • The arms should be extended at least 90 degrees

    • There can never be any straps holding the arm to the armboard

    Correct Answer
    A. The area under the elbow should be padded
    Explanation
    Proper patient arm positioning is crucial to reduce the risk of a nerve injury. Padding the area under the elbow helps to distribute pressure evenly and prevent compression of the nerves in that region. This ensures that the nerves are not compressed or stretched, reducing the risk of nerve injury.

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  • 21. 

    A patient is on a dexmedetomidine infusion for an awake fiberoptic intubation. What would be the most likely side effect of this infusion?

    • Tachycardia and hypertension

    • Bradycardia and hypotension

    • Acute agitation

    • Apnea

    Correct Answer
    A. Bradycardia and hypotension
    Explanation
    Dexmedetomidine is a sedative medication that is commonly used for awake fiberoptic intubation. It works by stimulating alpha-2 adrenergic receptors in the brain, leading to sedation and analgesia. One of the most common side effects of dexmedetomidine is bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, and hypotension, which is low blood pressure. This occurs because dexmedetomidine suppresses the sympathetic nervous system, which normally increases heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, the most likely side effect of dexmedetomidine infusion in this scenario would be bradycardia and hypotension.

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  • 22. 

    A normal ICP is typically:

    • 5-15 mm Hg

    • 20-40 mm Hg

    • 50-70 mm Hg

    • 100-140 mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    A. 5-15 mm Hg
    Explanation
    A normal ICP (intracranial pressure) is typically between 5-15 mm Hg. This means that the pressure inside the skull, specifically in the brain, is within a normal range. If the pressure exceeds this range, it can indicate various medical conditions or injuries such as a brain tumor, bleeding in the brain, or hydrocephalus. Monitoring and maintaining normal ICP levels are crucial for the proper functioning of the brain and overall neurological health.

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  • 23. 

    A patient is going to have a large spine surgery with both MEP and SSEP monitoring. What is true about an appropriate anesthetic for this case?

    • TIVA with an infusion of neuromuscular blocker to maintain about 2/4 twitches is a good choice of anesthetic

    • Avoidance of any NMBD's

    • Ketamine is contraindicated 

    • High-dose volatile anesthetic will improve the signals

    Correct Answer
    A. TIVA with an infusion of neuromuscular blocker to maintain about 2/4 twitches is a good choice of anesthetic
    Explanation
    TIVA (Total Intravenous Anesthesia) with an infusion of neuromuscular blocker to maintain about 2/4 twitches is a good choice of anesthetic for a patient undergoing large spine surgery with both MEP (Motor Evoked Potentials) and SSEP (Somatosensory Evoked Potentials) monitoring. This is because TIVA provides a stable and controlled anesthesia, while the infusion of a neuromuscular blocker helps maintain a sufficient level of muscle relaxation without completely blocking the signals. This allows the monitoring of MEP and SSEP signals to accurately assess the integrity of the spinal cord during the surgery.

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  • 24. 

    A patient receives a nerve block with ropivacaine and IV lidocaine, and subsequently starts having a seizure. Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST) is suspected. What is the appropriate treatment?

    • Flumanzenil

    • Naloxone

    • Methylene Blue

    • Intralipid

    Correct Answer
    A. Intralipid
    Explanation
    Intralipid is the appropriate treatment for Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST). LAST can occur when local anesthetics, such as ropivacaine and lidocaine, enter the bloodstream in high doses. Intralipid is a lipid emulsion that can help to bind the local anesthetic and remove it from the bloodstream, reducing its toxic effects. Flumanzenil is a medication used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not local anesthetics. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, not local anesthetics. Methylene Blue is used to treat methemoglobinemia, not LAST.

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  • 25. 

    Resistance represents:

    • A way of measuring the HR

    • The oxygen-carrying capacity

    • Venous blood clots

    • The opposition to fluid flow

    Correct Answer
    A. The opposition to fluid flow
    Explanation
    Resistance represents the opposition to fluid flow. In the context of fluid dynamics, resistance refers to the force that hinders the movement of a fluid through a particular pathway. It is determined by factors such as the diameter of the pathway, the viscosity of the fluid, and the length of the pathway. Higher resistance means that it is more difficult for the fluid to flow through the pathway, while lower resistance indicates easier fluid flow. Resistance is commonly encountered in various systems, such as blood vessels, pipes, and electrical circuits.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following actions would be undertaken first in an airway fire?

    • Irrigate the airway with saline

    • Send someone to get the fire extinguisher

    • Remove the ET tube

    • Mask ventilate with air

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the ET tube
    Explanation
    In an airway fire, the first priority should be to remove the ET tube. This is because the ET tube can act as a conduit for the fire to spread into the lungs, causing further damage and potentially leading to respiratory distress. By removing the ET tube, the source of the fire is eliminated, reducing the risk of further harm to the patient. Once the ET tube is removed, other actions such as irrigating the airway, getting the fire extinguisher, and mask ventilating with air can be taken to address the situation.

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  • 27. 

    The MAC of a volatile anesthetic is defined as:

    • The point at which toxicity develops

    • The minimum concentration the vaporizer can be set to

    • The alveolar concentration where 95% of patients don't move to surgical stimulation

    • The alveolar concentration where 50% of patients don't move to surgical stimulation

    Correct Answer
    A. The alveolar concentration where 50% of patients don't move to surgical stimulation
    Explanation
    The MAC of a volatile anesthetic is the alveolar concentration where 50% of patients don't move to surgical stimulation. This means that at this concentration, half of the patients are effectively anesthetized and do not respond to surgical stimulation. It is a measure of the potency of the anesthetic and is used to determine the appropriate dosage for patients undergoing surgery.

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  • 28. 

    A patient is to undergo a thyroidectomy due to thyroid cancer. The surgeon requests a special type of endotracheal tube for nerve monitoring during the procedure. Which nerve is monitored due to concerns about injury during thyroid surgeries?

    • Lateral pharyngeal nerve

    • Glossopharyngeal nerve

    • Long thoracic nerve

    • Recurrent laryngeal nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
    Explanation
    During a thyroidectomy, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is monitored due to concerns about injury. This nerve innervates the muscles that control the vocal cords, and any damage to it can lead to vocal cord paralysis. Monitoring the recurrent laryngeal nerve helps the surgeon to avoid injury and preserve vocal cord function during the procedure.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of an anesthesia technician?

    • Assisting the anesthesia provider with intubation.

    • Performing a preoperative assessment of the patient. 

    • Cleaning and sterilizing anesthesia equipment. 

    • Maintaining the anesthesia workstation and supplies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Performing a preoperative assessment of the patient. 
    Explanation
    Preoperative assessments are typically conducted by the anesthesia provider (anesthesiologist or nurse anesthetist) and involve a thorough evaluation of the patient's medical history, physical condition, and medications to determine the appropriate anesthesia plan. Anesthesia technicians primarily focus on providing technical support and assistance during the administration of anesthesia.

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  • 30. 

    What is the trade name for propofol?

    • Diprivan

    • Versed

    • Sedapro

    • Amidate

    Correct Answer
    A. Diprivan
    Explanation
    Diprivan is the correct trade name for propofol. Propofol is a medication used for anesthesia and sedation during medical procedures. It is commonly known by its trade name Diprivan. The other options, Versed, Sedapro, and Amidate, are not trade names for propofol.

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  • 31. 

    A trauma patient comes to the OR. He has a small pneumothorax (punctured lung) on CT scan in the ER. Which inhaled anesthetic would be the least desirable to use in this context?

    • Isoflurane

    • Sevoflurane

    • Desflurane

    • Nitrous Oxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitrous Oxide
    Explanation
    Nitrous Oxide would be the least desirable inhaled anesthetic to use in this context because it is a known potent bronchodilator and can potentially increase the size of the pneumothorax, leading to further complications.

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  • 32. 
    In the shown lung volume tracing, letter "A" corresponds to which volume/capacity? - ProProfs

    In the shown lung volume tracing, letter "A" corresponds to which volume/capacity?

    • Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)

    • Reserve Volume (RV)

    • Vital Capacity (RV)

    • Tidal Volume (TV)

    Correct Answer
    A. Tidal Volume (TV)
    Explanation
    In the given lung volume tracing, letter "A" corresponds to Tidal Volume (TV). Tidal Volume is the volume of air that is inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing. It represents the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each breath.

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  • 33. 

    The most common causes of death from administration of blood products in the US are:

    • Citrate intoxication resulting in hypocalcemia and death

    • Zika Virus

    • Administration of Rh-negative blood to an Rh-positive patient

    • Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) and Tranfusion Related Cardiac Overload (TACO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) and Tranfusion Related Cardiac Overload (TACO)
    Explanation
    Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) and Transfusion Related Cardiac Overload (TACO) are the most common causes of death from administration of blood products in the US. TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication characterized by acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) following transfusion. It is caused by an immune response to donor antibodies present in the blood product. TACO, on the other hand, occurs due to fluid overload from the transfusion, leading to cardiac dysfunction and pulmonary edema. Both conditions can be life-threatening and require prompt recognition and management.

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  • 34. 

    A gremlin enters the OR during surgery and moves the art-line transducer (pressure sensor) to the floor, which places it well below the height of the patient. Which of the following is correct about the indicated arterial line blood pressure?

    • The arterial line blood pressure will read higher than the patient's actual blood pressure

    • The arterial line blood pressure will read lower than the patient's actual blood pressure

    • The arterial line blood pressure will be accurate

    • The arterial line MAP will be accurate, but not the systolic or diastolic pressures

    Correct Answer
    A. The arterial line blood pressure will read higher than the patient's actual blood pressure
    Explanation
    When the art-line transducer is moved to the floor, it is well below the height of the patient. This means that the hydrostatic pressure exerted by the column of blood in the transducer will be higher than the patient's actual blood pressure. As a result, the arterial line blood pressure reading will be higher than the patient's actual blood pressure.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is the most favorable airway exam for intubation and ventilation?

    • Oral excursion 1 fingerbreadth (1 FB), Mallampati 1, Thyromental distance 1 FB, Full neck range of motion

    • Oral excursion 4 FB, Mallampati 1, Thyromental distance 4 FB, Full neck range of motion

    • Oral excursion 4 FB, Mallampati 4, Thyromental distance 2 FB, Full neck range of motion

    • Oral excursion 2 FB, Mallampati 3, Thyromental distance 3 FB, Limited neck range of motion

    Correct Answer
    A. Oral excursion 4 FB, Mallampati 1, Thyromental distance 4 FB, Full neck range of motion
    Explanation
    The most favorable airway exam for intubation and ventilation is determined by several factors. In this case, the answer choice of Oral excursion 4 FB, Mallampati 1, Thyromental distance 4 FB, Full neck range of motion indicates that the patient has a good oral excursion, a Mallampati score of 1 (indicating a clear view of the uvula and tonsillar pillars), a good thyromental distance (indicating adequate space for intubation), and a full range of motion in the neck. These factors suggest that intubation and ventilation will be easier and more successful in this patient compared to the other answer choices.

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  • 36. 

    A patient in the PACU becomes unresponsive and is found to be pulseless. The EKG shows sinus tachycardia with an HR of 115. Which of the following should be done first?

    • CPR

    • Synchronized cardioversion

    • Administration of IV magnesium sulfate

    • Administration of adenosine 6mg IV

    Correct Answer
    A. CPR
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the patient is unresponsive and pulseless, indicating cardiac arrest. The priority in this situation is to initiate CPR immediately. CPR helps maintain blood flow to vital organs until advanced cardiac life support measures can be initiated. The other options, such as synchronized cardioversion, administration of IV magnesium sulfate, and administration of adenosine, may be appropriate interventions in specific cardiac rhythm disturbances, but they are not the first-line treatment for a pulseless patient.

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  • 37. 

    A 54 yo Male with vocal cord lesions is having a suspension micro laryngoscopy with laser treatment of the vocal cord lesions. Which of the following ET tubes might be used for this procedure?

    • Double-lumen

    • Bronchial blocker

    • A NIMS tube with electrodes for monitoring the vocal cords

    • A metal-reinforced laser tube

    Correct Answer
    A. A metal-reinforced laser tube
    Explanation
    A metal-reinforced laser tube might be used for this procedure because it provides protection against the heat generated by the laser during treatment. The metal reinforcement prevents the tube from melting or catching fire, ensuring the safety of the patient's airway.

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  • 38. 

    Interpret the following ABG: pH 7.24 / pCO2 60 / PO2 96 / HCO3 23

    • Metabolic alkalosis

    • Metabolic acidosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis

    • Respiratory acidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory acidosis
    Explanation
    The given ABG values show a pH of 7.24, pCO2 of 60, PO2 of 96, and HCO3 of 23. A pH below the normal range indicates acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the primary abnormality is an elevated pCO2, which is seen in this case. The elevated pCO2 suggests that there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, indicating a respiratory problem. The other values (PO2 and HCO3) are within the normal range, ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory acidosis.

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  • 39. 

    An ICU patient has been on propofol, dexmedetomidine, and LR's infusions for the past 3 days. He develops a severe, unexplained metabolic acidosis. What is a potential cause of this condition?

    • Decmedetomidine infusion syndrom (DIS)

    • Propofol-related infusion syndrome (PRIS)

    • Sodium toxicity from the LR's

    • Oxygen toxicity from being on FiO2 > 0.60 

    Correct Answer
    A. Propofol-related infusion syndrome (PRIS)
    Explanation
    Propofol-related infusion syndrome (PRIS) is a potential cause of the severe, unexplained metabolic acidosis in the ICU patient. PRIS is a rare but serious complication associated with prolonged, high-dose propofol infusion. It is characterized by metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, hyperlipidemia, cardiac dysfunction, and renal failure. The exact mechanism of PRIS is not completely understood, but it is thought to involve impaired mitochondrial function and fatty acid metabolism. Prompt recognition and discontinuation of propofol are crucial in managing PRIS to prevent further complications.

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  • 40. 

    EKG electrodes work by using a combination of:

    • Silver chloride and conducting gel

    • Copper rings for decreased electrical resistance

    • Calcium chloride solution

    • Petroleum jelly layer for improved conductance with skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Silver chloride and conducting gel
    Explanation
    EKG electrodes work by using a combination of silver chloride and conducting gel. Silver chloride is used as the electrode material because it is a good conductor of electricity and is also biocompatible, meaning it is safe to use on the skin. Conducting gel is applied to the electrode to ensure good contact with the skin and to reduce any impedance or resistance to the flow of electrical signals. Together, silver chloride and conducting gel help to accurately detect and transmit the electrical activity of the heart during an EKG procedure.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following ventilation strategies would be most likely to reduce the ICP?

    • Increase PEEP to 15 cm H2O

    • Keep ETCO2 50-60 mm Hg

    • Keep FiO2 > 0.60 (60%)

    • Keep ETCO2 20-30 mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep ETCO2 20-30 mm Hg
    Explanation
    Keeping the ETCO2 (end-tidal carbon dioxide) levels between 20-30 mm Hg would be most likely to reduce the intracranial pressure (ICP). High levels of carbon dioxide can cause cerebral vasodilation, leading to increased blood flow and increased ICP. By maintaining ETCO2 levels within the normal range, it helps to prevent excessive cerebral vasodilation and thus reduce ICP.

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  • 42. 

    The curve that relates the SV to preload is called:

    • The heart performance index (HPI)

    • The Starling Curve

    • The Giddings Curve

    • The pulsatility index

    Correct Answer
    A. The Starling Curve
    Explanation
    The Starling Curve is the correct answer because it is a graphical representation of the relationship between stroke volume (SV) and preload, which is the amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole. The curve demonstrates that as preload increases, SV also increases up to a certain point, after which further increases in preload do not result in a significant increase in SV. This curve is important in understanding the cardiac function and the ability of the heart to adapt to changes in preload.

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  • 43. 

    What is bone cement implantation syndrome?

    • Bone cement inappropriately sticking to RBC's, resulting in low SpO2

    • A poorly defined syndrome of hypoxemia, hypotension, and/or altered mental status in patients with cementation

    • Excessive adherence of bone to a newly placed joint hardware

    • Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) caused by methyl methacrylate

    Correct Answer
    A. A poorly defined syndrome of hypoxemia, hypotension, and/or altered mental status in patients with cementation
    Explanation
    Bone cement implantation syndrome is a poorly defined syndrome that occurs in patients undergoing cementation during surgery. It is characterized by symptoms such as hypoxemia (low oxygen levels), hypotension (low blood pressure), and altered mental status. The exact cause of this syndrome is not fully understood, but it is believed to be a result of the interaction between the bone cement and the patient's body. This syndrome can be potentially life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

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  • 44. 

    Malignant hyperthermia is:

    • The consequence of giving anesthesia to a patient when they have a fever

    • A sudden release of epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal glands

    • Hyperthyroidism (high thyroid hormone production)

    • A disorder of calcium regulation in cells (specifically muscle cells)

    Correct Answer
    A. A disorder of calcium regulation in cells (specifically muscle cells)
    Explanation
    Malignant hyperthermia is a disorder of calcium regulation in cells, specifically muscle cells. This condition is triggered by certain medications used during anesthesia, causing an abnormal release of calcium in muscle cells. This leads to a rapid increase in body temperature, muscle rigidity, and potentially life-threatening complications. It is not caused by giving anesthesia to a patient with a fever, a sudden release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, or hyperthyroidism.

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  • 45. 

    The most common nerve injury for patients in lithotomy position is:

    • Spinal injury

    • Sciatic nerve injury

    • Gluteal nerve injury

    • Common peroneal nerve injury

    Correct Answer
    A. Common peroneal nerve injury
    Explanation
    The most common nerve injury for patients in lithotomy position is a common peroneal nerve injury. The lithotomy position, which involves the patient lying on their back with their legs elevated and supported in stirrups, can put pressure on the nerves in the legs. The common peroneal nerve, which runs along the outside of the knee, is particularly vulnerable to injury in this position. This can result in symptoms such as numbness, tingling, weakness, and difficulty walking. Prompt recognition and management of this injury is important to prevent long-term complications.

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  • 46. 

    The failsafe in an anesthesia machine is designed to:

    • Prevent the accidental delivery of 100% oxygen

    • Prevent excessive pressures in the breathing circuit

    • Avoid rebreathing of carbon dioxide

    • Avoid hypoxic mixtures if the pipeline oxygen pressure drops

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoid hypoxic mixtures if the pipeline oxygen pressure drops
    Explanation
    The failsafe in an anesthesia machine is designed to avoid hypoxic mixtures if the pipeline oxygen pressure drops. This means that if there is a decrease in the oxygen pressure from the pipeline, the failsafe mechanism will ensure that the patient does not receive a mixture of gases that is low in oxygen, which could lead to hypoxia. This is an important safety feature to prevent oxygen deprivation during anesthesia administration.

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  • 47. 

    The high pressure system in an anesthesia machine consists of:

    • The flowmeters

    • The wall gas connectors

    • The tanks mounted to the back of the anesthesia machine

    • The APL valve

    Correct Answer
    A. The tanks mounted to the back of the anesthesia machine
    Explanation
    The high pressure system in an anesthesia machine consists of the tanks mounted to the back of the anesthesia machine. These tanks contain the compressed gases, such as oxygen and nitrous oxide, which are essential for the anesthesia process. The tanks are designed to withstand high pressure and are securely attached to the machine to ensure safe and reliable delivery of the gases. The flowmeters, wall gas connectors, and APL valve are all components of the anesthesia machine, but they are not part of the high pressure system.

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  • 48. 

    Per ASA guidelines, patients on mechanical ventilation require all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Audible breathing circuit disconnect alarm

    • Spontaneous breathing attempt alarm

    • Inspired oxygen concentration monitor

    • Qualified volume of air movement with each breath (tidal volume)

    Correct Answer
    A. Spontaneous breathing attempt alarm
    Explanation
    Patients on mechanical ventilation do not require a spontaneous breathing attempt alarm because they are not expected to initiate their own breaths. Mechanical ventilation provides breaths for the patient, so there is no need for an alarm to alert for spontaneous breathing attempts. The other options are necessary for patient safety and monitoring during mechanical ventilation.

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  • 49. 

    A patient is having laparoscopic surgery. The abdomen is insufflated to a certain pressure. At what insufflation pressure does the preload generally start to decrease?

    • 5 mm Hg

    • 10 mm Hg

    • 15 mm Hg

    • 25 mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 mm Hg
    Explanation
    During laparoscopic surgery, the abdomen is insufflated with gas to create space for the surgeon to operate. Insufflation pressure refers to the pressure of the gas inside the abdomen. As the insufflation pressure increases, it can compress the blood vessels, leading to a decrease in preload, which is the amount of blood returning to the heart. Therefore, at an insufflation pressure of 15 mm Hg, the preload generally starts to decrease.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 13, 2025 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 13, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 07, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Brandon Dailey

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