Otterbein/Grant CRNA Basics Midterm Review - Machine

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CRNA Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The American Society for Testing and Materials Standard ______ provides guidelines for anesthesia workstations and components.

    Explanation
    The American Society for Testing and Materials Standard F1850 provides guidelines for anesthesia workstations and components. This standard outlines the specifications and requirements that these workstations and components must meet in order to ensure safety and effectiveness in anesthesia administration. By following the guidelines set forth in F1850, healthcare professionals can ensure that anesthesia equipment is properly designed, maintained, and used, ultimately promoting patient safety during medical procedures.

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  • 2. 

    The anesthesia machine checkout is standardized by the Department of Homeland Security.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Food & Drug Administration

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  • 3. 

    The pressure in the breathing circuit of an anesthesia machine is limited to:

    • A.

      14 kPa (140 cmH2O)

    • B.

      10 kPa (100 cmH2O)

    • C.

      12.5 kPa (125 cmH2O)

    • D.

      It is limited by the values set by the anesthetist.

    Correct Answer
    C. 12.5 kPa (125 cmH2O)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12.5 kPa (125 cmH2O). This is the limit to which the pressure in the breathing circuit of an anesthesia machine is set. It is important to maintain a safe and controlled pressure in the breathing circuit to ensure the patient's safety and prevent any harm. The anesthetist sets this limit to ensure that the pressure does not exceed a certain threshold that could be detrimental to the patient's respiratory system.

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  • 4. 

    One of the required components of flowmeters is:

    • A.

      Multiple controls for each gas.

    • B.

      Uniquely shaped O2 flow knob.

    • C.

      O2 flowmeter located to the left or upstream of the flowmeter bank.

    • D.

      Oxygen flowmeter knob will be blue in color.

    Correct Answer
    B. Uniquely shaped O2 flow knob.
    Explanation
    The required component of flowmeters is a uniquely shaped O2 flow knob. This suggests that the flow knob for oxygen flowmeters should have a distinct shape that sets it apart from other flow knobs. This is important for easy identification and differentiation of the oxygen flowmeter from other gas flowmeters.

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  • 5. 

    The oxygen flush valve provides flow of oxygen directly to the breathing circuit at 35-75L/min.  What else is true about utilizing O2 flush?

    • A.

      Should only be used during the inspiratory phase.

    • B.

      Increases risk of intraoperative awareness by diluting inhaled anesthetic agents.

    • C.

      Places patient at risk for barotrauma.

    • D.

      Is an optional feature that does not have to be present on all anesthesia machines.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Increases risk of intraoperative awareness by diluting inhaled anesthetic agents.
    C. Places patient at risk for barotrauma.
    Explanation
    The oxygen flush valve, while providing a high flow of oxygen, can increase the risk of intraoperative awareness by diluting inhaled anesthetic agents. This is because the high flow can wash out the anesthetic agents from the breathing circuit, potentially leading to inadequate anesthesia. Additionally, the high flow of oxygen from the flush valve can also place the patient at risk for barotrauma, which is an injury caused by excessive pressure in the lungs. Therefore, the use of the oxygen flush valve should be carefully monitored to minimize these risks.

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  • 6. 

    The American Society of Anesthesiologists makes guidelines for:

    • A.

      Anesthesia machine checkout

    • B.

      Anesthesia machine obsolescence

    • C.

      Anesthesia backstands

    • D.

      Keurig's in the break room

    Correct Answer
    B. Anesthesia machine obsolescence
    Explanation
    The American Society of Anesthesiologists makes guidelines for anesthesia machine obsolescence. This means that they provide recommendations or standards regarding the process of determining when an anesthesia machine is no longer usable or effective and should be replaced. These guidelines may include factors such as technological advancements, safety concerns, and regulatory requirements to ensure that healthcare facilities have up-to-date and reliable anesthesia equipment.

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  • 7. 

    The hanger yoke, yoke block with check valves, and the cylinder pressure gauge and regulators are part of which pressure system?

    • A.

      Intermediate pressure system

    • B.

      Low pressure system

    • C.

      Mapleson circuit

    • D.

      High pressure system

    Correct Answer
    D. High pressure system
    Explanation
    The hanger yoke, yoke block with check valves, and the cylinder pressure gauge and regulators are all components that are typically associated with a high pressure system. These components are designed to handle and regulate high pressure levels, which is why they are not part of the intermediate or low pressure systems. The Mapleson circuit is a different type of system altogether, so it is not the correct answer in this case.

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  • 8. 

    The _______ pressure system consists of everything distal to the flowmeter needle valve.

    Correct Answer
    Low
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "Low." In this context, the question is asking about the pressure system that includes everything beyond the flowmeter needle valve. The term "low" suggests that the pressure in this system is low, indicating that the pressure is reduced or regulated after passing through the flowmeter needle valve.

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  • 9. 

    List the 5 tasks of oxygen.

    Correct Answer
    Ventilator driving gas
    Flush valve
    Oxygen pressure failure alarm
    Oxygen pressure sensor shut-off valve (fail-safe)
    Flowmeters
    Explanation
    The given answer lists the 5 tasks of oxygen. These tasks include being used as a driving gas for ventilators, operating flush valves, triggering oxygen pressure failure alarms, controlling oxygen pressure sensor shut-off valves as a fail-safe mechanism, and operating flowmeters.

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  • 10. 

    In the event of a pipeline failure, what would you anticipate doing? 

    • A.

      Open cylinders, leaving pipeline connected to the wall.

    • B.

      Calculate time remaining on cylinders.

    • C.

      Consider using ambu-bag and switching to total IV anesthesia.

    • D.

      Increase FGF to maximize sedation from inhaled agents.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Calculate time remaining on cylinders.
    C. Consider using ambu-bag and switching to total IV anesthesia.
    Explanation
    In the event of a pipeline failure, it is important to assess the remaining time on the cylinders to determine how long the current supply will last. This will help in planning and making decisions regarding the next steps. Additionally, considering the use of an ambu-bag and switching to total IV anesthesia can be a suitable alternative to ensure continuous patient care and anesthesia delivery during the pipeline failure. Increasing the FGF to maximize sedation from inhaled agents may not be a feasible option as the pipeline is already compromised.

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  • 11. 

    Which pressure is lower?

    • A.

      Cylinder pressure after the 1st stage regulator.

    • B.

      Pipeline pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cylinder pressure after the 1st stage regulator.
    Explanation
    The cylinder pressure after the 1st stage regulator is lower compared to the pipeline pressure. This is because the 1st stage regulator is designed to reduce the pressure of the gas coming from the pipeline to a lower, more manageable level for use in the cylinder. The pipeline pressure, on the other hand, is the initial pressure of the gas before it goes through any regulation or reduction. Therefore, the cylinder pressure after the 1st stage regulator is lower than the pipeline pressure.

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  • 12. 

    This type of valve moves in the direction it is pushed by gas flow, preventing gas leaks from the system.  An example is a check valve.

    • A.

      Diaphragm

    • B.

      Ball and spring

    • C.

      Free floating

    Correct Answer
    C. Free floating
    Explanation
    A free floating valve is a type of valve that moves in the direction it is pushed by gas flow, preventing gas leaks from the system. Unlike other types of valves such as diaphragm or ball and spring valves, a free floating valve is not restricted by any mechanical components and can freely move with the gas flow. This allows it to effectively seal the system and prevent any gas leaks.

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  • 13. 

    The first and second stage regulators are examples of ________ valves.

    Correct Answer
    diaphragm
    Explanation
    The first and second stage regulators are examples of diaphragm valves because they use a flexible diaphragm to regulate the flow of gas. The diaphragm moves in response to changes in pressure, allowing gas to pass through the valve when the pressure is below a certain threshold and closing the valve when the pressure exceeds that threshold. This design ensures that the gas is delivered at a consistent pressure, making diaphragm valves suitable for applications where precise control is required.

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  • 14. 

    An E cylinder of N2O at 745 psi contains _____ L when full.

    Correct Answer
    1590
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1590. An E cylinder is a specific type of gas cylinder that is commonly used for medical purposes. It has a capacity of 1590 liters when full, which means that it can hold up to 1590 liters of N2O gas when it is pressurized at 745 psi. This information is important for medical professionals who need to accurately measure the amount of gas available in the cylinder for various procedures.

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  • 15. 

    Write the equation for the Ideal Gas Law.

    Correct Answer
    PV = nRT
    Explanation
    The equation PV = nRT represents the Ideal Gas Law, which relates the pressure (P), volume (V), number of moles (n), and temperature (T) of an ideal gas. This equation states that the product of pressure and volume is directly proportional to the number of moles and the absolute temperature of the gas. It is a fundamental equation used in thermodynamics and is applicable to ideal gases under certain conditions.

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  • 16. 

    What is the critical temperature of N2O in Celsius?

    Correct Answer
    39.5
    Explanation
    The critical temperature of a substance is the temperature above which it cannot exist as a liquid, regardless of the pressure applied. In this case, the critical temperature of N2O is 39.5 degrees Celsius. This means that at temperatures higher than 39.5 degrees Celsius, N2O will only exist as a gas, regardless of the pressure.

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  • 17. 

    What is the critical temperature of O2 in Celsius?

    Correct Answer
    -119
    Explanation
    The critical temperature of a substance is the highest temperature at which it can exist as a liquid. In this case, the critical temperature of O2 is -119 degrees Celsius. This means that at temperatures below -119 degrees Celsius, O2 can exist as a liquid, but at or above -119 degrees Celsius, it will either be a gas or a solid.

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  • 18. 

    When a compressed gas is allowed to escape freely, the process is adiabatic and cooling occurs.  What is this describing?

    • A.

      Magic

    • B.

      Joule-Thompson Effect

    • C.

      Newton's Third Law

    • D.

      Pouiselle's law

    Correct Answer
    B. Joule-Thompson Effect
    Explanation
    The given statement describes the Joule-Thompson Effect. When a compressed gas is allowed to escape freely, it undergoes an adiabatic process, meaning there is no exchange of heat with the surroundings. As the gas expands, it does work against the external pressure, causing a decrease in temperature. This phenomenon is known as the Joule-Thompson Effect, which is commonly observed in various applications such as refrigeration systems.

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  • 19. 

    This component of a medical gas cylinder only functions with excessive heat and excessive pressure.

    • A.

      Combination pressure relief device

    • B.

      Fusible plug

    • C.

      Rupture disc

    • D.

      Washer

    Correct Answer
    A. Combination pressure relief device
    Explanation
    A combination pressure relief device is designed to release excessive pressure and heat in a medical gas cylinder. It is a safety mechanism that helps prevent the cylinder from exploding or causing any harm. This device is specifically designed to respond to both excessive pressure and excessive heat, making it an effective safety measure in medical settings.

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  • 20. 

    What are hazards of central gas supplies?

    • A.

      Crosses pipelines

    • B.

      Hypoventilation

    • C.

      Damage to pipelines during construction

    • D.

      Foreign substances in pipeline

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Crosses pipelines
    C. Damage to pipelines during construction
    D. Foreign substances in pipeline
    Explanation
    The hazards of central gas supplies include crosses pipelines, damage to pipelines during construction, and foreign substances in the pipeline. Crosses pipelines can lead to leaks and accidents. Damage to pipelines during construction can cause gas leaks and potential explosions. Foreign substances in the pipeline can contaminate the gas supply and pose health risks.

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  • 21. 

    The oxygen pressure failure device aka fail-safe valve fully prevents hypoxic mixtures by sensing when oxygen flow falls to 25-26 psi.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The fail-safe valve does not detect the type of gas, it only sense a decrease in pressure, hypoxic mixture can still occur if crossed pipelines etc.

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  • 22. 

    The oxygen failure alarm:

    • A.

      Sounds a medium priority alarm when oxygen pressure is

    • B.

      Sounds a high priority alarm when oxygen pressure is

    Correct Answer
    A. Sounds a medium priority alarm when oxygen pressure is
    Explanation
    below the normal range and sounds a high priority alarm when oxygen pressure is above the normal range. This indicates that the oxygen failure alarm is designed to alert the user when there is a deviation from the normal oxygen pressure levels. The medium priority alarm is likely to indicate a potential issue with the oxygen supply, while the high priority alarm suggests a more urgent and critical situation where the oxygen pressure is dangerously high.

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  • 23. 

    Flowmeter principles include _______ law that accounts for a pressure drop across a constriction.

    Correct Answer
    Bernoulli's
    Explanation
    The principle of Bernoulli's law states that as the velocity of a fluid increases, the pressure exerted by the fluid decreases. In the context of flowmeters, this principle is used to measure the flow rate of a fluid by creating a constriction in the flow path. As the fluid passes through the constriction, its velocity increases, resulting in a decrease in pressure. By measuring this pressure drop, the flow rate of the fluid can be determined. Therefore, Bernoulli's law is a fundamental principle utilized in flowmeter technology.

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  • 24. 

    You are administering 4L of N2O and 1L of O2 and 1L of air, what is your FiO2? Round to the nearest whole number.

    Correct Answer
    20
    Explanation
    The FiO2 (Fraction of Inspired Oxygen) is the percentage of oxygen in the inspired air. In this case, the total volume of gas administered is 4L of N2O, 1L of O2, and 1L of air, which amounts to 6L. Since the question does not specify the percentage of oxygen in the air, we assume it to be 21% (which is the normal concentration of oxygen in air). Therefore, the total volume of oxygen in the gas administered is 1L (from the O2) plus 0.21L (from the air), which equals 1.21L. To calculate the FiO2, we divide the volume of oxygen by the total gas volume and multiply by 100, resulting in a FiO2 of 20%.

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  • 25. 

    This law describes how an increase in the speed of a fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in pressure or a decrease in the fluid's potential energy.

    • A.

      Graham's

    • B.

      Pouisuelle's

    • C.

      Laplace

    • D.

      Bernoulli's

    Correct Answer
    D. Bernoulli's
    Explanation
    Bernoulli's law states that as the speed of a fluid increases, the pressure exerted by the fluid decreases. This is because the total energy of the fluid, which includes potential energy and kinetic energy, remains constant. As the fluid flows faster, its kinetic energy increases, leading to a decrease in potential energy. This decrease in potential energy is manifested as a decrease in pressure. Therefore, Bernoulli's law explains the relationship between fluid speed and pressure.

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  • 26. 

    During your machine check, you realize that the compliance of your circuit is 3 mL/1 cmH2O.  Your PIP is 30 cmH2O.  How many mL's of volume are being delivered to your circuit but not reaching your patient?

    Correct Answer
    90
    Explanation
    The compliance of the circuit is a measure of how easily it expands or contracts in response to pressure changes. In this case, the compliance is 3 mL/1 cmH2O, meaning that for every 1 cmH2O increase in pressure, the circuit expands by 3 mL. The PIP (Peak Inspiratory Pressure) is given as 30 cmH2O. To calculate the volume that is not reaching the patient, we can multiply the compliance by the PIP. So, 3 mL/1 cmH2O * 30 cmH2O = 90 mL. Therefore, 90 mL of volume is being delivered to the circuit but not reaching the patient.

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  • 27. 

    In which scenario will no rebreathing occur?

    • A.

      FGF < TV

    • B.

      FGF = TV

    • C.

      FGF > TV

    Correct Answer
    C. FGF > TV
    Explanation
    In the scenario where FGF (Fresh Gas Flow) is greater than TV (Tidal Volume), no rebreathing will occur. This means that the amount of fresh gas being supplied is sufficient to meet the patient's respiratory needs, and there is no need for the patient to inhale any exhaled gas. This helps prevent the accumulation of carbon dioxide and ensures an adequate supply of oxygen for the patient.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following are effect of rebreathing?

    • A.

      Decreased heat and moisture retention

    • B.

      Reduction in inspired O2 tension

    • C.

      Increased speed of induction and emergence

    • D.

      Increased CO2 tension w/o absorbent present.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Reduction in inspired O2 tension
    D. Increased CO2 tension w/o absorbent present.
    Explanation
    Rebreathing:
    Improves heat and moisture retention
    Prolongs induction
    Delays emergence

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  • 29. 

    In a circuit, when the FGF is very high the PaCO2 becomes ______ dependent such as during spontaneous respiration.

    Correct Answer(s)
    ventilation
    Explanation
    When the FGF (Fresh Gas Flow) is very high in a circuit, it means that a large amount of fresh gas is being delivered to the patient. This high FGF helps to remove the exhaled carbon dioxide (CO2) from the circuit more efficiently, resulting in a decrease in the partial pressure of CO2 in the patient's arterial blood (PaCO2). Therefore, when the FGF is high, the PaCO2 becomes more dependent on ventilation, particularly during spontaneous respiration. This means that the rate and depth of breathing play a crucial role in regulating the PaCO2 levels in the body.

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  • 30. 

    In a circuit, when minute ventilation exceeds FGF the PaCO2 is dependent on the ______.

    Correct Answer(s)
    FGF
    Explanation
    When minute ventilation exceeds the fresh gas flow (FGF) in a circuit, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) is dependent on the FGF. This means that the amount of carbon dioxide in the circuit is determined by the rate at which fresh gas is flowing into the system. If the FGF is lower than the minute ventilation, the PaCO2 will increase because the circuit is not able to remove carbon dioxide from the system as quickly as it is being produced. Therefore, the FGF plays a crucial role in regulating the PaCO2 levels in the circuit.

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  • 31. 

    Where is the most common site for disconnection in a breathing circuit?

    • A.

      Between the breathing tube and the Y piece.

    • B.

      Between the corrugated tubing and the ventilator.

    • C.

      The gas analyzer inlet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Between the breathing tube and the Y piece.
    Explanation
    The most common site for disconnection in a breathing circuit is between the breathing tube and the Y piece. This is because this connection is frequently manipulated during patient care, such as when changing the patient's position or adjusting the breathing tube. The frequent manipulation increases the risk of accidental disconnection at this site, leading to a potential interruption in the delivery of oxygen or ventilation to the patient.

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  • 32. 

    Turning the adjustable pressure-limiting valve counter-clockwise increases the pressure delivered to the patient.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The APL valve is the only control on the anesthesia machine that uses a clockwise rotation.

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  • 33. 

    You are providing general anesthesia for your intubated patient.  As you are celebrating your intubation, your preceptor notices that your inspired CO2 level is greater than 0 and wonders how long it will take for you to notice.  Just kidding, you notice right away because you are the best SRNA the world has ever seen.  What is your first intervention?

    • A.

      Switch from ventilator to APL mode.

    • B.

      Increase FGF.

    • C.

      Replace your CO2 granules.

    • D.

      Activate ECMO STAT.

    Correct Answer
    B. Increase FGF.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to increase FGF. FGF stands for Fresh Gas Flow, which refers to the amount of fresh gas delivered to the patient during anesthesia. Increasing the FGF helps to flush out the excess CO2 and maintain a lower inspired CO2 level. This intervention is necessary to ensure proper ventilation and prevent complications associated with elevated CO2 levels. Switching to APL mode, replacing CO2 granules, or activating ECMO STAT are not appropriate interventions in this scenario.

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  • 34. 

    How full should your CO2 absorbent canister be?

    • A.

      75%

    • B.

      50%

    • C.

      100%

    • D.

      25%

    Correct Answer
    B. 50%
    Explanation
    The CO2 absorbent canister should be filled up to 50% of its capacity. This is because the canister needs to have enough space to absorb the carbon dioxide efficiently. If the canister is filled completely, there won't be enough room for the CO2 to be absorbed, and if it is filled too little, the absorption capacity will be underutilized. Therefore, filling the canister up to 50% ensures optimal absorption of CO2.

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  • 35. 

    What are the ultimate end products of the CO2 absorbent reaction?

    • A.

      Heat

    • B.

      Water

    • C.

      Calcium carbonate

    • D.

      Sodium bicarbonate

    • E.

      NaOH or KOH depending on absorbent material

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Heat
    B. Water
    C. Calcium carbonate
    E. NaOH or KOH depending on absorbent material
    Explanation
    The ultimate end products of the CO2 absorbent reaction are heat, water, calcium carbonate, and either NaOH or KOH depending on the absorbent material used.

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  • 36. 

    CO2 + H2O = H2CO3 is also referred to as the _____ neutralization reaction.

    Correct Answer(s)
    First
    Explanation
    The given equation CO2 + H2O = H2CO3 represents the reaction between carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid. This reaction is commonly known as the first neutralization reaction because it involves the combination of an acid (CO2) and a base (H2O) to form a new compound (H2CO3) which is considered neutral.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following does not affect Compound A formation?

    • A.

      FGF rate

    • B.

      Sevoflurane concentration

    • C.

      Granule size

    • D.

      Absorbent composition

    Correct Answer
    C. Granule size
    Explanation
    Compound A formation:
    Decreased with higher flows
    More is produced with potassium or sodium hydroxide absorbents compared to calcium
    Increased sevo concentration and length of case produces more compound A.
    Dehydrated absorbent increases compound A production.

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  • 38. 

    Carbon monoxide formation occurs when which volatile agents are passed through a dry absorbent containing a strong alkali:

    • A.

      Des

    • B.

      Iso

    • C.

      Sevo

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Des
    B. Iso
    Explanation
    Prevent CO formation by:
    Turning off flows between cases
    Turning off vaporizers when not in use
    Changing absorbent routinely
    Using absorbents that do not degrade

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  • 39. 

    Your inspired CO2 is reading 10.  You have increased your FGF and noticed that the inspired CO2 has returned to 0.  You suspect that the problem was an exhausted absorbent, not your unidirectional valve.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Increasing the FGF (fresh gas flow) helps to remove the expired CO2 from the breathing system and replace it with fresh gas. If the inspired CO2 reading returns to 0 after increasing the FGF, it suggests that the problem was an exhausted absorbent. The absorbent in the breathing system is responsible for removing CO2, and when it becomes exhausted, it cannot effectively remove CO2 from the inspired gas. Therefore, the statement "You suspect that the problem was an exhausted absorbent, not your unidirectional valve" is true.

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  • 40. 

    What are signs of CO2 absorbent exhaustion?

    • A.

      Increased PaCO2

    • B.

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C.

      Respiratory acidosis

    • D.

      Hyperventilation

    • E.

      Increased HR

    • F.

      Hypotension

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Increased PaCO2
    C. Respiratory acidosis
    D. Hyperventilation
    E. Increased HR
    Explanation
    The signs of CO2 absorbent exhaustion include increased PaCO2, respiratory acidosis, hyperventilation, and increased heart rate. When the CO2 absorbent in a breathing system becomes exhausted, the patient's ability to eliminate CO2 from their body is compromised. This leads to an increase in PaCO2 levels, resulting in respiratory acidosis. In response to the acidosis, the patient may start hyperventilating to try to compensate for the imbalance. The increased heart rate is a physiological response to the acidosis and hyperventilation, as the body tries to maintain adequate oxygenation.

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  • 41. 

    The vanometer is always on the inspiratory side of the ventilator.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Vanometer = expiratory
    Inspired O2 analyzer = Inspiratory

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  • 42. 

    As liquid is vaporized, heat is lost.  As liquid temperature decreases, vapor pressure decreases.  How do we compensate for this?

    • A.

      Keeping the OR warm

    • B.

      Add electronic heat to the system.

    • C.

      Alter the splitting ratio via bimetallic strip.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Add electronic heat to the system.
    C. Alter the splitting ratio via bimetallic strip.
    Explanation
    When liquid is vaporized, heat is lost, which causes a decrease in liquid temperature and vapor pressure. To compensate for this, two actions can be taken. First, electronic heat can be added to the system to counterbalance the heat loss and maintain the desired temperature. Second, the splitting ratio can be altered via a bimetallic strip. This means adjusting the ratio of liquid and vapor in the system to maintain the desired pressure. Both of these actions help to compensate for the heat loss and ensure that the system operates effectively.

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  • 43. 

    The Tec 6 vaporizer heats desflurane to ____ degrees Celsius and pressurized to ____ mmHg.

    Correct Answer(s)
    39
    1500
    Explanation
    The Tec 6 vaporizer heats desflurane to a temperature of 39 degrees Celsius and pressurizes it to 1500 mmHg.

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  • 44. 

    Isoflurane was accidentally placed into a sevoflurane vaporizer.  Gas output would be _____ because iso's vapor pressure is ______ than sevo's.

    Correct Answer(s)
    Higher, more, greater
    Higher, more, greater
    Explanation
    When isoflurane is placed into a sevoflurane vaporizer, the gas output would be higher because isoflurane has a higher vapor pressure than sevoflurane. In other words, isoflurane evaporates more easily and at a greater rate compared to sevoflurane, resulting in a higher gas output.

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  • 45. 

    Ascending bellows provide a PEEP due to the weight of the bellow itself.  What is the pressure of this PEEP?

    • A.

      1-2 cmH2O

    • B.

      2-4 cmH2O

    • C.

      6 cmH2O

    • D.

      8 cmH2O

    Correct Answer
    B. 2-4 cmH2O
    Explanation
    Ascending bellows provide a positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) due to the weight of the bellows itself. This means that during expiration, the bellows exerts a constant pressure on the patient's airways to prevent them from collapsing completely. The pressure of this PEEP is typically between 2-4 cmH2O.

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  • 46. 

    The National Fire Protection Association regulated piped vaccum systems.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) is a regulatory body that sets standards and guidelines for fire safety. They have regulations in place for various systems and equipment, including piped vacuum systems. Therefore, it is true that the NFPA regulates piped vacuum systems.

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  • 47. 

    Your patients saturations are decreasing, you have ensured there are no circuit disconnects, suctioned, and increased your FiO2. What are some causes of hypoxia?

    • A.

      Pipeline - crossover in machine? Wrong gas?

    • B.

      Cylinders - incorrectly labeled? Cap not removed?

    • C.

      Machine malfuctioning and delivering more or less gas than stated

    • D.

      Inaccuracy in flowmeters d/t dirt, grease, or oil

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Pipeline - crossover in machine? Wrong gas?
    B. Cylinders - incorrectly labeled? Cap not removed?
    C. Machine malfuctioning and delivering more or less gas than stated
    D. Inaccuracy in flowmeters d/t dirt, grease, or oil
    Explanation
    The given answer includes possible causes of hypoxia in relation to the scenario described. These causes include a pipeline crossover in the machine or the wrong gas being used, cylinders being incorrectly labeled or the cap not being removed, the machine malfunctioning and delivering more or less gas than stated, and inaccuracy in flowmeters due to dirt, grease, or oil. These factors can contribute to a decrease in patient saturations despite the steps taken to address circuit disconnects, suctioning, and increased FiO2.

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  • 48. 

    With a recirculating OR ventilation system, how often are complete fresh air changes completed per hour?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      15-20

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    A recirculating OR ventilation system completes three complete fresh air changes per hour. This means that the air in the operating room is completely replaced with fresh air three times every hour. This is important for maintaining a clean and sterile environment, as it helps to remove any potential contaminants or pathogens from the air. By continuously circulating and replacing the air, the recirculating OR ventilation system helps to ensure the safety and well-being of patients and healthcare professionals in the operating room.

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  • 49. 

    There are allowable trace gas levels in the OR.  N2O is allowed 25 ppm while halogenated agents are allowed 2 ppm.  However if there is a mixture of the two, N2O is allowed 25 ppm and halogenated agents are allowed _____ ppm.

    Correct Answer
    0.5
    Explanation
    When there is a mixture of N2O and halogenated agents in the OR, the allowable trace gas level for N2O remains the same at 25 ppm. However, the allowable trace gas level for halogenated agents decreases to 0.5 ppm.

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  • 50. 

    AANA & ASA state that assessment of ______ is a standard of care, creating the fifth vital sign.

    Correct Answer
    oxygenation
    pulse oximetry
    Explanation
    The correct answer is pulse oximetry. According to AANA and ASA, the assessment of pulse oximetry is considered a standard of care and is referred to as the fifth vital sign. This means that regularly monitoring a patient's oxygen saturation levels through pulse oximetry is essential in providing optimal care and ensuring their overall well-being.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 07, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Alainad3
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