Anesthesia Technician Mock Test Quiz! Trivia

92 Questions | Total Attempts: 2269

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Anesthesia Quizzes & Trivia

A person given this position at a medical facility is charged with ensuring that all the anesthetic machines are in top condition and are working as they should. Not only is the person expected to know about the different technology used but also know the techniques used in different patients. Do take up the quiz provided and see if you have adequate knowledge to fill this position.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A patient receives Drug X, which increases contractility while maintaining the same preload and afterload. What would be the expected result to this drug?
    • A. 

      Decreased SV

    • B. 

      Increased SV

    • C. 

      Unchanged SV

    • D. 

      Decreased HR

  • 2. 
    Resistance represents:
    • A. 

      A way of measuring the HR

    • B. 

      The oxygen-carrying capacity

    • C. 

      Venous blood clots

    • D. 

      The opposition to fluid flow

  • 3. 
    A gremlin enters the OR during surgery and moves the art-line transducer (pressure sensor) to the floor, which places it well below the height of the patient. Which of the following is correct about the indicated arterial line blood pressure?
    • A. 

      The arterial line blood pressure will read higher than the patient's actual blood pressure

    • B. 

      The arterial line blood pressure will read lower than the patient's actual blood pressure

    • C. 

      The arterial line blood pressure will be accurate

    • D. 

      The arterial line MAP will be accurate, but not the systolic or diastolic pressures

  • 4. 
    An ICU patient is coming to the OR for an urgent procedure. This patient has the hepatorenal syndrome, meaning that both the liver and kidneys are failing. Which medication would most likely have its metabolism affected (and hence last longer than expected) in this patient?
    • A. 

      Cisatracurium

    • B. 

      Esmolol

    • C. 

      Vecuronium

    • D. 

      Succinylcholine

  • 5. 
    Lactated Ringer's, although compatible with PRBC administration under certain circumstances, is often avoided when transfusing PRBC's because:
    • A. 

      The lactate in LR builds up because of the PRBC's

    • B. 

      It results in hyperkalemia

    • C. 

      The calcium in the LR can antagonize the citrate anticoagulant in the PRBC's and potentially result in clotting

    • D. 

      The red blood cells in the PRBC's shrink because LR is hypertonic

  • 6. 
    Per ASA guidelines, patients on mechanical ventilation require all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Audible breathing circuit disconnect alarm

    • B. 

      Spontaneous breathing attempt alarm

    • C. 

      Inspired oxygen concentration monitor

    • D. 

      Qualified volume of air movement with each breath (tidal volume)

  • 7. 
    EKG electrodes work by using a combination of:
    • A. 

      Silver chloride and conducting gel

    • B. 

      Copper rings for decreased electrical resistance

    • C. 

      Calcium chloride solution

    • D. 

      Petroleum jelly layer for improved conductance with skin

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is the most favorable airway exam for intubation and ventilation?
    • A. 

      Oral excursion 1 fingerbreadth (1 FB), Mallampati 1, Thyromental distance 1 FB, Full neck range of motion

    • B. 

      Oral excursion 4 FB, Mallampati 1, Thyromental distance 4 FB, Full neck range of motion

    • C. 

      Oral excursion 4 FB, Mallampati 4, Thyromental distance 2 FB, Full neck range of motion

    • D. 

      Oral excursion 2 FB, Mallampati 3, Thyromental distance 3 FB, Limited neck range of motion

  • 9. 
    Which of the following ventilation strategies would be most likely to reduce the ICP?
    • A. 

      Increase PEEP to 15 cm H2O

    • B. 

      Keep ETCO2 50-60 mm Hg

    • C. 

      Keep FiO2 > 0.60 (60%)

    • D. 

      Keep ETCO2 20-30 mm Hg

  • 10. 
    Which of the following actions would be undertaken first in an airway fire?
    • A. 

      Irrigate the airway with saline

    • B. 

      Send someone to get the fire extinguisher

    • C. 

      Remove the ET tube

    • D. 

      Mask ventilate with air

  • 11. 
    A 26 yo male patient is stabbed in the chest several times and comes to the OR for emergency surgery. An ultrasound in the ER shows cardiac tamponade. The hemodynamic objective for this anesthetic would be:
    • A. 

      Keep the HR low

    • B. 

      Keep the HR high

    • C. 

      Maintain a very low BP

    • D. 

      Minimize IV fluids

  • 12. 
    A patient has the heart rhythm shown. What is the appropriate treatment?
    • A. 

      Beta-blockers

    • B. 

      Magnesium

    • C. 

      Calcium-channel blockers

    • D. 

      Adenosine

  • 13. 
    Which of the following would be expected to increase contractility?
    • A. 

      Increased PEEP

    • B. 

      Administration of Calcium

    • C. 

      Adenosine

    • D. 

      Amiodarone

  • 14. 
    A normal ICP is typically:
    • A. 

      5-15 mm Hg

    • B. 

      20-40 mm Hg

    • C. 

      50-70 mm Hg

    • D. 

      100-140 mm Hg

  • 15. 
    A patient in the PACU becomes unresponsive and is found to be pulseless. The EKG shows sinus tachycardia with an HR of 115. Which of the following should be done first?
    • A. 

      CPR

    • B. 

      Synchronized cardioversion

    • C. 

      Administration of IV magnesium sulfate

    • D. 

      Administration of adenosine 6mg IV

  • 16. 
    Shortly after induction of GA with propofol, a patient is found to be difficult to mask ventilate and the clinician is unable to intubate the patient with direct laryngoscopy. The patient was well-pre oxygenated and the SpO2 is 98%. The next step should be:
    • A. 

      Attempt to place an LMA

    • B. 

      Use a retrograde intubation

    • C. 

      Continue to attempt direct laryngoscopy until a total of 5 have been attempted

    • D. 

      Avoid any muscle relaxation

  • 17. 
    An 82-year-old female patient has a past medical history that includes aortic stenosis. Her anesthetic strategy includes which of the following:
    • A. 

      Low HR

    • B. 

      High HR

    • C. 

      Only use Ketamine

    • D. 

      Maintain a very low BP

  • 18. 
    EKG lead II uses which electrodes?
    • A. 

      Left Arm (LA) and Right Arm (RA)

    • B. 

      Left Arm (LA) and Left Leg (LL)

    • C. 

      Right Arm (RA) and Left Leg (LL)

    • D. 

      Left Arm (LA) and Right Leg (RL)

  • 19. 
    A 54 yo Male with vocal cord lesions is having a suspension micro laryngoscopy with laser treatment of the vocal cord lesions. Which of the following ET tubes might be used for this procedure?
    • A. 

      Double-lumen

    • B. 

      Bronchial blocker

    • C. 

      A NIMS tube with electrodes for monitoring the vocal cords

    • D. 

      A metal-reinforced laser tube

  • 20. 
    A 74 yo male with hypertension is undergoing a knee replacement under GA. At some point intraoperatively, the BP and O2 saturation both unexpectedly drop significantly. Which of the following is a likely cause?
    • A. 

      History of alcoholism

    • B. 

      Bone cement implantation syndrome/fat embolism

    • C. 

      The use of femoral and sciatic nerve blocks

    • D. 

      Long-term use of convective warmers intraoperatively

  • 21. 
    A patient is undergoing a TURP procedure for an enlarged prostate and at some point intraoperatively the clinician feels that he may have TURP syndrome. This would be due to which of the following causes?
    • A. 

      Carbon dioxide embolism

    • B. 

      Fat Embolism

    • C. 

      Hypernatremia from excessive sodium load

    • D. 

      Extensive absorption of the irrigation fluid

  • 22. 
    What is bone cement implantation syndrome?
    • A. 

      Bone cement inappropriately sticking to RBC's, resulting in low SpO2

    • B. 

      A poorly defined syndrome of hypoxemia, hypotension, and/or altered mental status in patients with cementation

    • C. 

      Excessive adherence of bone to a newly placed joint hardware

    • D. 

      Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) caused by methyl methacrylate

  • 23. 
    Posterior fossa sciatic nerve blocks and ankle blocks would be most useful for which kinds of surgeries?
    • A. 

      Hip fracture surgeries

    • B. 

      Knee surgeries

    • C. 

      Surgeries involving the distal femur

    • D. 

      Foot surgeries

  • 24. 
    Interpret the following ABG: pH 7.24 / pCO2 60 / PO2 96 / HCO3 23
    • A. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • B. 

      Metabolic acidosis

    • C. 

      Respiratory alkalosis

    • D. 

      Respiratory acidosis

  • 25. 
    An epidural test dose is used to determine which of the following?
    • A. 

      That the epidural is in the lumbar region

    • B. 

      The epidural isn't one-sided

    • C. 

      The epidural catheter is not intravascular or intrathecal

    • D. 

      That the epidural will function for surgical anesthesia

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