Anesthesia Technician Mock Test Quiz! Trivia

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1. A patient receives a nerve block with ropivacaine and IV lidocaine and subsequently starts having a seizure. What is the most likely cause of the seizure?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the seizure in this scenario is Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST). LAST occurs when local anesthetic drugs, such as ropivacaine and lidocaine, are absorbed into the systemic circulation in excessive amounts. This can lead to central nervous system toxicity, causing seizures as one of the symptoms. Increased PaO2 and carbon monoxide poisoning are not directly related to the administration of local anesthetics, and propofol infusion syndrome is a rare complication of prolonged propofol infusion, not associated with nerve blocks or lidocaine administration.

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About This Quiz
Anesthesia Technician Mock Test Quiz! Trivia - Quiz

A person given this position at a medical facility is charged with ensuring that all the anesthetic machines are in top condition and are working as they should.... see moreNot only is the person expected to know about the different technology used but also know the techniques used in different patients. Do take up the quiz provided and see if you have adequate knowledge to fill this position. see less

2. A 74 yo male with hypertension is undergoing a knee replacement under GA. At some point intraoperatively, the BP and O2 saturation both unexpectedly drop significantly. Which of the following is a likely cause?

Explanation

Bone cement implantation syndrome (BCIS) is a possible cause for the significant drop in blood pressure and oxygen saturation during knee replacement surgery. BCIS occurs when the bone cement used in joint replacement surgery leaks into the bloodstream and causes a systemic inflammatory response. This can lead to cardiovascular collapse, hypoxemia, and other complications. Given the patient's age, hypertension, and the invasive nature of knee replacement surgery, BCIS is a likely cause for the unexpected drop in vital signs. The other options, such as history of alcoholism, nerve blocks, and convective warmers, are less likely to cause such a significant and sudden decline in vital signs.

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3. What is the trade name for oxytocin?

Explanation

Pitocin is the correct trade name for oxytocin. Oxytocin is a hormone that is commonly used to induce labor or strengthen contractions during childbirth. Pitocin is a synthetic form of oxytocin that is administered through an IV. It helps to stimulate uterine contractions and can be used to induce labor or control bleeding after childbirth. Other options listed, such as Uteropres, Gynastrict, and Pregozam, are not trade names for oxytocin.

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4. Which of the following represent ASA Standard Monitors?

Explanation

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5. The Diameter Index Safety System (DISS) is designed to:

Explanation

The Diameter Index Safety System (DISS) is designed to prevent the connection of the wrong gas at the wall. This means that it ensures that the correct gas is being delivered to the appropriate equipment, preventing any potential mix-ups or accidents. By using the DISS, healthcare professionals can safely and accurately connect the gas supply to the correct equipment, ensuring patient safety and proper functioning of the medical devices.

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6. A patient is undergoing a neurosurgical procedure for removal of a brain tumor. The surgeon requests acute lowering of the ICP. Which of the following can facilitate that?

Explanation

Mannitol can facilitate the acute lowering of intracranial pressure (ICP). Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing fluid from the brain tissue into the bloodstream, reducing brain swelling and therefore lowering ICP. This can be beneficial during neurosurgical procedures for the removal of a brain tumor, as it helps to create a safer surgical environment and minimize the risk of complications. Esmolol is a beta-blocker used for controlling heart rate and blood pressure, but it does not directly lower ICP. Hypoventilation can actually increase ICP, so it is not a suitable option in this case. The choice of IV fluid does not have a direct impact on ICP.

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7. The clinical indication for administration of FFP is:

Explanation

The clinical indication for administration of FFP is the treatment of coagulopathy or the administration of clotting factors. FFP, or fresh frozen plasma, contains various clotting factors that can help restore normal blood clotting in individuals with coagulation disorders or those who require additional clotting factors. This can be necessary in cases of bleeding disorders, liver disease, or during surgical procedures where there is a risk of excessive bleeding. FFP does not increase oxygen-carrying capacity, address reduced platelet function due to renal failure, or high plasma osmolarity.

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8. A patient is on warfarin and requires emergent abdominal surgery. There is considerable bleeding during the procedure. What would be an appropriate way to counteract this patient's anticoagulation?

Explanation

FFP stands for Fresh Frozen Plasma, which is a blood product that contains various clotting factors. In this scenario, the patient is on warfarin, which is an anticoagulant medication that inhibits blood clotting. Since there is considerable bleeding during the surgery, administering FFP would be an appropriate way to counteract the patient's anticoagulation. FFP provides the necessary clotting factors that can help stop the bleeding and promote hemostasis.

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9. A clinician is placing an epidural and notices an (unintentional) dural puncture. What issue is this patient most likely to subsequently experience?

Explanation

When a clinician unintentionally punctures the dura during an epidural placement, it can lead to a leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This leakage can cause a condition known as post-dural puncture headache (PDPH). PDPH is characterized by a severe headache, which typically worsens when the patient is upright and improves when lying down. The headache can last for several days and may be accompanied by other symptoms such as neck stiffness, nausea, and blurred vision. It is the most likely issue that the patient will experience after an unintentional dural puncture during an epidural.

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10. Shortly after induction of GA with propofol, a patient is found to be difficult to mask ventilate and the clinician is unable to intubate the patient with direct laryngoscopy. The patient was well-pre oxygenated and the SpO2 is 98%. The next step should be:

Explanation

The next step should be to attempt to place an LMA. This is because the patient is difficult to mask ventilate and unable to be intubated with direct laryngoscopy. Placing an LMA can provide a patent airway and ensure adequate ventilation in the patient.

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11. A patient had an accidental dural puncture on an epidural placement the day before. What would be the most effective treatment for her symptoms (headache, etc...)?

Explanation

An accidental dural puncture during epidural placement can lead to a condition called post-dural puncture headache (PDPH). The most effective treatment for PDPH is an epidural blood patch. This procedure involves injecting a small amount of the patient's own blood into the epidural space, which helps to seal the puncture site and alleviate the symptoms. Atropine is not indicated for treating PDPH. Dexmedetomidine infusion may be used for sedation, but it is not the primary treatment for PDPH. Avoidance of lying flat can provide temporary relief, but it is not a definitive treatment.

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12. Posterior fossa sciatic nerve blocks and ankle blocks would be most useful for which kinds of surgeries?

Explanation

Posterior fossa sciatic nerve blocks and ankle blocks would be most useful for foot surgeries. These blocks provide anesthesia to the foot and ankle region, making them ideal for procedures involving the foot. Hip fracture surgeries, knee surgeries, and surgeries involving the distal femur would not require anesthesia specifically in the foot area, so these blocks would not be as useful for those types of surgeries.

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13. An inspector from the Joint Commission comes and asks you what prevents someone from connecting a nitrous oxide tank where an oxygen tank should be. How do you answer?

Explanation

The Pin Index Safety System (PISS) is the correct answer because it is a safety mechanism that prevents someone from connecting a nitrous oxide tank where an oxygen tank should be. The PISS involves using specific pins and corresponding holes on the tank and regulator to ensure that only the correct gas can be connected. This system helps to prevent dangerous mix-ups and ensures the proper use of gases in medical settings.

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14. A patient in the PACU requires a significant amount of hydromorphone for pain, and is later observed to desaturate (SpO2 approx 70%) and isn't breathing. Which medication would be appropriate to use to fix the problem?

Explanation

Naloxone (Narcan) is the appropriate medication to use in this situation because it is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, including respiratory depression. The patient's desaturation and lack of breathing suggest that they are experiencing opioid overdose, which can be life-threatening. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors and blocking the effects of opioids, thereby restoring respiratory function and reversing the overdose. Methylene Blue, Epinephrine, and Steroids are not appropriate in this scenario as they do not specifically address opioid overdose and its associated respiratory depression.

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15. A patient with a known pseudocholinesterase deficiency comes to the OR for elective surgery. Which medication's effects would be expected to be significantly prolonged in this patient?

Explanation

Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that is rapidly hydrolyzed by pseudocholinesterase. In patients with pseudocholinesterase deficiency, the metabolism of succinylcholine is significantly impaired, leading to prolonged effects of the medication. Therefore, the effects of succinylcholine would be expected to be significantly prolonged in this patient.

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16. A 28 yo female patient is involved in a car accident and brought emergently to the OR. She receives emergency release blood. What is the most appropriate blood type for transfusion of PRBC's in this context?

Explanation

In emergency situations where the patient's blood type is unknown, O- blood type is considered the universal donor. This means that O- blood can be safely transfused to patients of any blood type without causing a severe immune reaction. O- blood lacks both A and B antigens on the red blood cells, making it compatible with all blood types. Therefore, O- is the most appropriate blood type for transfusion of PRBCs in this context.

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17. Lactated Ringer's, although compatible with PRBC administration under certain circumstances, is often avoided when transfusing PRBC's because:

Explanation

The correct answer explains that the reason Lactated Ringer's (LR) is often avoided when transfusing PRBC's (packed red blood cells) is because the calcium in LR can counteract the citrate anticoagulant present in the PRBC's. This interaction between calcium and citrate can potentially lead to clotting, which is an undesirable outcome during a blood transfusion.

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18. A patient is undergoing a TURP procedure for an enlarged prostate and at some point intraoperatively the clinician feels that he may have TURP syndrome. This would be due to which of the following causes?

Explanation

During a TURP procedure, irrigation fluid is used to maintain visibility and flush out debris. If there is extensive absorption of the irrigation fluid, it can lead to a condition called TURP syndrome. This occurs when the absorbed fluid, which contains electrolytes, is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream, causing an imbalance in the body's electrolyte levels. Symptoms of TURP syndrome can include hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level, as well as fluid overload, confusion, seizures, and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, the extensive absorption of the irrigation fluid can cause TURP syndrome in this scenario.

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19. An epidural test dose is used to determine which of the following?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the epidural catheter is not intravascular or intrathecal. An epidural test dose is administered to ensure that the catheter is correctly placed in the epidural space and not in a blood vessel or the spinal canal. This is important to prevent complications such as intravascular injection of medication or unintentional spinal anesthesia. By confirming that the catheter is in the epidural space, healthcare providers can safely administer medications for pain relief or anesthesia during surgery.

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20. Which is correct regarding proper patient arm positioning to reduce the risk of a nerve injury?

Explanation

Proper patient arm positioning is crucial to reduce the risk of a nerve injury. Padding the area under the elbow helps to distribute pressure evenly and prevent compression of the nerves in that region. This ensures that the nerves are not compressed or stretched, reducing the risk of nerve injury.

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21. A patient is on a dexmedetomidine infusion for an awake fiberoptic intubation. What would be the most likely side effect of this infusion?

Explanation

Dexmedetomidine is a sedative medication that is commonly used for awake fiberoptic intubation. It works by stimulating alpha-2 adrenergic receptors in the brain, leading to sedation and analgesia. One of the most common side effects of dexmedetomidine is bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, and hypotension, which is low blood pressure. This occurs because dexmedetomidine suppresses the sympathetic nervous system, which normally increases heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, the most likely side effect of dexmedetomidine infusion in this scenario would be bradycardia and hypotension.

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22. A patient receives a nerve block with ropivacaine and IV lidocaine, and subsequently starts having a seizure. Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST) is suspected. What is the appropriate treatment?

Explanation

Intralipid is the appropriate treatment for Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST). LAST can occur when local anesthetics, such as ropivacaine and lidocaine, enter the bloodstream in high doses. Intralipid is a lipid emulsion that can help to bind the local anesthetic and remove it from the bloodstream, reducing its toxic effects. Flumanzenil is a medication used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not local anesthetics. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, not local anesthetics. Methylene Blue is used to treat methemoglobinemia, not LAST.

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23. A normal ICP is typically:

Explanation

A normal ICP (intracranial pressure) is typically between 5-15 mm Hg. This means that the pressure inside the skull, specifically in the brain, is within a normal range. If the pressure exceeds this range, it can indicate various medical conditions or injuries such as a brain tumor, bleeding in the brain, or hydrocephalus. Monitoring and maintaining normal ICP levels are crucial for the proper functioning of the brain and overall neurological health.

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24. A patient is going to have a large spine surgery with both MEP and SSEP monitoring. What is true about an appropriate anesthetic for this case?

Explanation

TIVA (Total Intravenous Anesthesia) with an infusion of neuromuscular blocker to maintain about 2/4 twitches is a good choice of anesthetic for a patient undergoing large spine surgery with both MEP (Motor Evoked Potentials) and SSEP (Somatosensory Evoked Potentials) monitoring. This is because TIVA provides a stable and controlled anesthesia, while the infusion of a neuromuscular blocker helps maintain a sufficient level of muscle relaxation without completely blocking the signals. This allows the monitoring of MEP and SSEP signals to accurately assess the integrity of the spinal cord during the surgery.

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25. A patient is to undergo a thyroidectomy due to thyroid cancer. The surgeon requests a special type of endotracheal tube for nerve monitoring during the procedure. Which nerve is monitored due to concerns about injury during thyroid surgeries?

Explanation

During a thyroidectomy, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is monitored due to concerns about injury. This nerve innervates the muscles that control the vocal cords, and any damage to it can lead to vocal cord paralysis. Monitoring the recurrent laryngeal nerve helps the surgeon to avoid injury and preserve vocal cord function during the procedure.

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26. Resistance represents:

Explanation

Resistance represents the opposition to fluid flow. In the context of fluid dynamics, resistance refers to the force that hinders the movement of a fluid through a particular pathway. It is determined by factors such as the diameter of the pathway, the viscosity of the fluid, and the length of the pathway. Higher resistance means that it is more difficult for the fluid to flow through the pathway, while lower resistance indicates easier fluid flow. Resistance is commonly encountered in various systems, such as blood vessels, pipes, and electrical circuits.

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27. Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of an anesthesia technician?

Explanation

Preoperative assessments are typically conducted by the anesthesia provider (anesthesiologist or nurse anesthetist) and involve a thorough evaluation of the patient's medical history, physical condition, and medications to determine the appropriate anesthesia plan. Anesthesia technicians primarily focus on providing technical support and assistance during the administration of anesthesia.

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28. A trauma patient comes to the OR. He has a small pneumothorax (punctured lung) on CT scan in the ER. Which inhaled anesthetic would be the least desirable to use in this context?

Explanation

Nitrous Oxide would be the least desirable inhaled anesthetic to use in this context because it is a known potent bronchodilator and can potentially increase the size of the pneumothorax, leading to further complications.

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29. What is the trade name for propofol?

Explanation

Diprivan is the correct trade name for propofol. Propofol is a medication used for anesthesia and sedation during medical procedures. It is commonly known by its trade name Diprivan. The other options, Versed, Sedapro, and Amidate, are not trade names for propofol.

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30. Which of the following actions would be undertaken first in an airway fire?

Explanation

In an airway fire, the first priority should be to remove the ET tube. This is because the ET tube can act as a conduit for the fire to spread into the lungs, causing further damage and potentially leading to respiratory distress. By removing the ET tube, the source of the fire is eliminated, reducing the risk of further harm to the patient. Once the ET tube is removed, other actions such as irrigating the airway, getting the fire extinguisher, and mask ventilating with air can be taken to address the situation.

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31. The MAC of a volatile anesthetic is defined as:

Explanation

The MAC of a volatile anesthetic is the alveolar concentration where 50% of patients don't move to surgical stimulation. This means that at this concentration, half of the patients are effectively anesthetized and do not respond to surgical stimulation. It is a measure of the potency of the anesthetic and is used to determine the appropriate dosage for patients undergoing surgery.

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32. In the shown lung volume tracing, letter "A" corresponds to which volume/capacity?

Explanation

In the given lung volume tracing, letter "A" corresponds to Tidal Volume (TV). Tidal Volume is the volume of air that is inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing. It represents the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each breath.

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33. An ICU patient has been on propofol, dexmedetomidine, and LR's infusions for the past 3 days. He develops a severe, unexplained metabolic acidosis. What is a potential cause of this condition?

Explanation

Propofol-related infusion syndrome (PRIS) is a potential cause of the severe, unexplained metabolic acidosis in the ICU patient. PRIS is a rare but serious complication associated with prolonged, high-dose propofol infusion. It is characterized by metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, hyperlipidemia, cardiac dysfunction, and renal failure. The exact mechanism of PRIS is not completely understood, but it is thought to involve impaired mitochondrial function and fatty acid metabolism. Prompt recognition and discontinuation of propofol are crucial in managing PRIS to prevent further complications.

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34. The most common causes of death from administration of blood products in the US are:

Explanation

Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) and Transfusion Related Cardiac Overload (TACO) are the most common causes of death from administration of blood products in the US. TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication characterized by acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) following transfusion. It is caused by an immune response to donor antibodies present in the blood product. TACO, on the other hand, occurs due to fluid overload from the transfusion, leading to cardiac dysfunction and pulmonary edema. Both conditions can be life-threatening and require prompt recognition and management.

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35. Interpret the following ABG: pH 7.24 / pCO2 60 / PO2 96 / HCO3 23

Explanation

The given ABG values show a pH of 7.24, pCO2 of 60, PO2 of 96, and HCO3 of 23. A pH below the normal range indicates acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the primary abnormality is an elevated pCO2, which is seen in this case. The elevated pCO2 suggests that there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, indicating a respiratory problem. The other values (PO2 and HCO3) are within the normal range, ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory acidosis.

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36. A gremlin enters the OR during surgery and moves the art-line transducer (pressure sensor) to the floor, which places it well below the height of the patient. Which of the following is correct about the indicated arterial line blood pressure?

Explanation

When the art-line transducer is moved to the floor, it is well below the height of the patient. This means that the hydrostatic pressure exerted by the column of blood in the transducer will be higher than the patient's actual blood pressure. As a result, the arterial line blood pressure reading will be higher than the patient's actual blood pressure.

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37. A 54 yo Male with vocal cord lesions is having a suspension micro laryngoscopy with laser treatment of the vocal cord lesions. Which of the following ET tubes might be used for this procedure?

Explanation

A metal-reinforced laser tube might be used for this procedure because it provides protection against the heat generated by the laser during treatment. The metal reinforcement prevents the tube from melting or catching fire, ensuring the safety of the patient's airway.

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38. EKG electrodes work by using a combination of:

Explanation

EKG electrodes work by using a combination of silver chloride and conducting gel. Silver chloride is used as the electrode material because it is a good conductor of electricity and is also biocompatible, meaning it is safe to use on the skin. Conducting gel is applied to the electrode to ensure good contact with the skin and to reduce any impedance or resistance to the flow of electrical signals. Together, silver chloride and conducting gel help to accurately detect and transmit the electrical activity of the heart during an EKG procedure.

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39. Which of the following is the most favorable airway exam for intubation and ventilation?

Explanation

The most favorable airway exam for intubation and ventilation is determined by several factors. In this case, the answer choice of Oral excursion 4 FB, Mallampati 1, Thyromental distance 4 FB, Full neck range of motion indicates that the patient has a good oral excursion, a Mallampati score of 1 (indicating a clear view of the uvula and tonsillar pillars), a good thyromental distance (indicating adequate space for intubation), and a full range of motion in the neck. These factors suggest that intubation and ventilation will be easier and more successful in this patient compared to the other answer choices.

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40. The curve that relates the SV to preload is called:

Explanation

The Starling Curve is the correct answer because it is a graphical representation of the relationship between stroke volume (SV) and preload, which is the amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole. The curve demonstrates that as preload increases, SV also increases up to a certain point, after which further increases in preload do not result in a significant increase in SV. This curve is important in understanding the cardiac function and the ability of the heart to adapt to changes in preload.

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41. A patient in the PACU becomes unresponsive and is found to be pulseless. The EKG shows sinus tachycardia with an HR of 115. Which of the following should be done first?

Explanation

In this scenario, the patient is unresponsive and pulseless, indicating cardiac arrest. The priority in this situation is to initiate CPR immediately. CPR helps maintain blood flow to vital organs until advanced cardiac life support measures can be initiated. The other options, such as synchronized cardioversion, administration of IV magnesium sulfate, and administration of adenosine, may be appropriate interventions in specific cardiac rhythm disturbances, but they are not the first-line treatment for a pulseless patient.

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42. What is the trade name for cefazolin?

Explanation

Ancef is the trade name for cefazolin.

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43. The failsafe in an anesthesia machine is designed to:

Explanation

The failsafe in an anesthesia machine is designed to avoid hypoxic mixtures if the pipeline oxygen pressure drops. This means that if there is a decrease in the oxygen pressure from the pipeline, the failsafe mechanism will ensure that the patient does not receive a mixture of gases that is low in oxygen, which could lead to hypoxia. This is an important safety feature to prevent oxygen deprivation during anesthesia administration.

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44. The high pressure system in an anesthesia machine consists of:

Explanation

The high pressure system in an anesthesia machine consists of the tanks mounted to the back of the anesthesia machine. These tanks contain the compressed gases, such as oxygen and nitrous oxide, which are essential for the anesthesia process. The tanks are designed to withstand high pressure and are securely attached to the machine to ensure safe and reliable delivery of the gases. The flowmeters, wall gas connectors, and APL valve are all components of the anesthesia machine, but they are not part of the high pressure system.

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45. Which of the following ventilation strategies would be most likely to reduce the ICP?

Explanation

Keeping the ETCO2 (end-tidal carbon dioxide) levels between 20-30 mm Hg would be most likely to reduce the intracranial pressure (ICP). High levels of carbon dioxide can cause cerebral vasodilation, leading to increased blood flow and increased ICP. By maintaining ETCO2 levels within the normal range, it helps to prevent excessive cerebral vasodilation and thus reduce ICP.

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46. The most common nerve injury for patients in lithotomy position is:

Explanation

The most common nerve injury for patients in lithotomy position is a common peroneal nerve injury. The lithotomy position, which involves the patient lying on their back with their legs elevated and supported in stirrups, can put pressure on the nerves in the legs. The common peroneal nerve, which runs along the outside of the knee, is particularly vulnerable to injury in this position. This can result in symptoms such as numbness, tingling, weakness, and difficulty walking. Prompt recognition and management of this injury is important to prevent long-term complications.

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47. The appropriate initial dose of dantrolene is:

Explanation

The appropriate initial dose of dantrolene is 2.5 mg/kg. This dosage is determined based on the patient's weight, with the recommended dose being 2.5 mg for every kilogram of body weight. This dosage ensures that the patient receives an appropriate amount of the medication based on their individual characteristics.

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48. Malignant hyperthermia is:

Explanation

Malignant hyperthermia is a disorder of calcium regulation in cells, specifically muscle cells. This condition is triggered by certain medications used during anesthesia, causing an abnormal release of calcium in muscle cells. This leads to a rapid increase in body temperature, muscle rigidity, and potentially life-threatening complications. It is not caused by giving anesthesia to a patient with a fever, a sudden release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, or hyperthyroidism.

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49. What is bone cement implantation syndrome?

Explanation

Bone cement implantation syndrome is a poorly defined syndrome that occurs in patients undergoing cementation during surgery. It is characterized by symptoms such as hypoxemia (low oxygen levels), hypotension (low blood pressure), and altered mental status. The exact cause of this syndrome is not fully understood, but it is believed to be a result of the interaction between the bone cement and the patient's body. This syndrome can be potentially life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

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50. Per ASA guidelines, patients on mechanical ventilation require all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Patients on mechanical ventilation do not require a spontaneous breathing attempt alarm because they are not expected to initiate their own breaths. Mechanical ventilation provides breaths for the patient, so there is no need for an alarm to alert for spontaneous breathing attempts. The other options are necessary for patient safety and monitoring during mechanical ventilation.

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51. What is the design that modern vaporizers use?

Explanation

Modern vaporizers use a design called variable bypass. This design allows the user to adjust the amount of air that flows through the vaporizer, which in turn affects the temperature and vapor production. By controlling the bypass, users can customize their vaping experience to their preferences. This design is preferred by many because it offers flexibility and control over the vaporizer's performance.

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52. A postop patient is found to have a new-onset adrenal insufficiency, diagnosed with a low plasma cortisol concentration. Which medication did the patient likely receive to cause this?

Explanation

Etomidate is a medication commonly used for anesthesia induction. It works by inhibiting the production of cortisol in the adrenal glands, leading to adrenal insufficiency. This can result in low plasma cortisol concentration. Ketamine, propofol, and sugammadex do not have this effect on cortisol production and are not associated with adrenal insufficiency.

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53. A patient is having laparoscopic surgery. The abdomen is insufflated to a certain pressure. At what insufflation pressure does the preload generally start to decrease?

Explanation

During laparoscopic surgery, the abdomen is insufflated with gas to create space for the surgeon to operate. Insufflation pressure refers to the pressure of the gas inside the abdomen. As the insufflation pressure increases, it can compress the blood vessels, leading to a decrease in preload, which is the amount of blood returning to the heart. Therefore, at an insufflation pressure of 15 mm Hg, the preload generally starts to decrease.

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54. 1% propofol is being infused through an IV pump. The pump indicates that it is running at 5- mL/hr. How many milligrams per hour (mg/hr) of the propofol is the patient currently receiving?

Explanation



To calculate the number of milligrams per hour (mg/hr) of propofol the patient is receiving, we can use the following steps:

Identify the concentration of propofol: 1% propofol is equivalent to 10 mg/mL.

Multiply the concentration (mg/mL) by the flow rate (mL/hr) to find the dosing rate (mg/hr):

Dosing rate = 10 mg/mL \* 5 mL/hr

Calculate the result:

Dosing rate = 50 mg/hr

Therefore, the patient is currently receiving 50 mg/hr of propofol.
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55. An 80 kg, 180 cm patient has the following intraoperative ABG: pH 7.29 / pCO2 55 / PO2 265 / HCO3 25. How should the ventilator settings be adjusted?

Explanation

The patient's ABG values indicate respiratory acidosis, as the pH is below the normal range and the pCO2 is elevated. To correct respiratory acidosis, the respiratory rate should be increased to help eliminate excess carbon dioxide. Increasing the respiratory rate will increase the amount of breaths taken per minute, allowing for more efficient removal of CO2. This adjustment will help to normalize the ABG values and improve the patient's respiratory status.

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56. All of the following contribute to increased ICP in robotic surgeries EXCEPT:

Explanation

Profound muscle relaxation does not contribute to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in robotic surgeries. The other options listed, such as hypercarbia from insufflation of CO2, Trendelenberg position, and elevated intra-abdominal pressure from the pneumoperitoneum, can all increase ICP. However, profound muscle relaxation does not directly affect ICP and is therefore the exception among the given options.

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57. Which of the following would be expected to increase contractility?

Explanation

Administration of calcium would be expected to increase contractility because calcium is an essential ion involved in the process of muscle contraction. When calcium ions enter the cardiac muscle cells, they bind to troponin, causing a conformational change in the troponin-tropomyosin complex. This allows the myosin heads to bind to actin, leading to the sliding of the filaments and muscle contraction. Therefore, by increasing the availability of calcium, the force of contraction of the cardiac muscle would be enhanced, resulting in increased contractility.

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58. Which patient as at highest risk for ischemic optic neuropathy (ION)?

Explanation

The obese male patient with 5 L blood loss using the Wilson Frame is at the highest risk for ischemic optic neuropathy (ION). This is because the patient has a significant amount of blood loss, which can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the optic nerve and subsequent damage. The Wilson Frame is used for spine surgeries, which can further increase the risk of ION due to prolonged surgery time and positioning. Obesity may also contribute to the risk as it is associated with impaired blood flow and increased susceptibility to ischemic events.

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59. A patient is emergently brought from the ICU to the OR for sepsis and dead bowel. The patient is hypotensive and on a norepinephrine infusion. The ABG is: pH 7.02 / PCO2 36 / PO2 108 / HCO3 12. Which medication might be considered to help with the BP in this context?

Explanation

Vasopressin might be considered to help with the blood pressure in this context because it is a potent vasoconstrictor that can increase systemic vascular resistance and improve blood pressure. The patient is hypotensive and in sepsis, which can cause vasodilation and decreased vascular tone. Vasopressin can help restore vascular tone and increase blood pressure.

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60. A patient comes to the OR from the ICU. He is on a heparin infusion. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate to determine the degree of anticoagulation from the heparin?

Explanation

The most appropriate test to determine the degree of anticoagulation from heparin is the PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) test. This test measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood, and the PTT test can assess the level of anticoagulation by measuring the time it takes for the blood to clot in the presence of heparin.

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61. Which medication is a pure alpha-1 agonist?

Explanation

Phenylephrine is a pure alpha-1 agonist, meaning it specifically binds to and activates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the body. This leads to vasoconstriction, or the narrowing of blood vessels, which can be useful in conditions such as hypotension or nasal congestion. Norepinephrine and dopamine also have alpha-1 agonist activity, but they also have activity at other receptor types. Ephedrine, on the other hand, is a mixed-acting sympathomimetic drug that stimulates both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors.

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62. A patient is suspected to have MH intraoperatively. Early signs of MH include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Early signs of malignant hyperthermia (MH) include a dramatic increase in ETCO2, mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis, and increased temperature. Bradycardia is not typically associated with MH. MH is a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur during general anesthesia, characterized by a hypermetabolic state leading to increased body temperature, muscle rigidity, and potentially fatal complications such as cardiac arrest.

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63. All of the following can increase the MAC of a volatile anesthetic EXCEPT:

Explanation

The MAC (minimum alveolar concentration) of a volatile anesthetic refers to the concentration required to prevent movement in 50% of patients in response to a surgical stimulus. In general, females tend to have a slightly lower MAC compared to males, meaning they require a lower concentration of the anesthetic to achieve the desired effect. Therefore, the presence of a female patient would not increase the MAC of a volatile anesthetic.

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64. For the laminar flow of a fluid through a tube, which of the following would not be expected to increase the flow?

Explanation

Increasing the length of the tube would not be expected to increase the flow for laminar flow of a fluid. In laminar flow, the fluid moves in parallel layers with minimal mixing between them. Increasing the length of the tube would increase the resistance to flow, as there would be more surface area for the fluid to come into contact with. This would result in a decrease in flow rate.

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65. A patient has high acute blood loss in the OR and receives 7 PRBC's. What electrolyte abnormalities might be expected as a result of the multiple PRBC transfusions?

Explanation

Multiple PRBC transfusions can lead to high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) due to the release of potassium from the red blood cells. This is because stored blood has high levels of potassium. On the other hand, transfusions can also result in low calcium levels (hypocalcemia) due to the citrate anticoagulant present in the blood products. Citrate binds to calcium, leading to a decrease in ionized calcium levels. Therefore, high potassium and low calcium can be expected as electrolyte abnormalities following multiple PRBC transfusions.

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66. Dantrolene should be reconstituted using:

Explanation

Dantrolene should be reconstituted using sterile water because it is a pure and non-pyrogenic solution that does not contain any additives or preservatives. Using sterile water ensures the integrity and stability of the medication, minimizing the risk of contamination or adverse reactions. Other options such as normal saline, 5% dextrose in water, or albumin may not be suitable for reconstitution as they may alter the chemical composition or stability of the drug.

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67. Which type of blood product has the highest risk of bacterial contamination?

Explanation

Platelets have the highest risk of bacterial contamination compared to other blood products. This is because platelets are stored at room temperature, creating an optimal environment for bacterial growth. Additionally, platelets are often collected through apheresis, which involves multiple donors, increasing the chances of bacterial contamination. Strict monitoring and testing protocols are in place to minimize this risk, but it remains the highest among the given options.

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68. Which IV fluid is considered physiologically hypotonic?

Explanation

Lactated Ringer's is considered physiologically hypotonic because it has a lower concentration of sodium and chloride ions compared to the body's extracellular fluid. This allows for the movement of water from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, helping to hydrate cells and restore fluid balance. Additionally, Lactated Ringer's contains lactate, which can be metabolized by the liver to produce bicarbonate ions, helping to buffer acidosis.

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69. Which of the following has the most effect on the preload?

Explanation

Blood volume status refers to the amount of blood present in the circulatory system. Preload is the amount of blood that fills the ventricles of the heart during diastole, before contraction. Therefore, blood volume status has the most effect on preload because the more blood volume there is, the greater the preload. If blood volume is low, there will be less blood available to fill the ventricles, resulting in a lower preload.

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70. A patient is in the recovery room after having a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Suddenly he develops a narrow-complex tachyarrhythmia with an HR of 180. BP is 60/40. What is the appropriate treatment?

Explanation

In this scenario, the patient is experiencing a narrow-complex tachyarrhythmia with a high heart rate and low blood pressure. Synchronized cardioversion is the appropriate treatment because it involves delivering a synchronized electrical shock to the patient's heart in order to restore normal sinus rhythm. Esmolol and Diltiazem are medications used to control heart rate, but they may not be effective in this acute situation. Magnesium is typically used for certain types of arrhythmias, such as torsades de pointes, which is not the case here. Therefore, synchronized cardioversion is the most appropriate intervention to quickly restore the patient's normal heart rhythm and stabilize their blood pressure.

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71. OR's have isolated electrical supplies due to:

Explanation

Isolation transformers are used to provide electrical isolation between the power source and the load. They have separate windings for the input and output sides, which effectively isolates the electrical supply. This isolation helps to protect sensitive equipment and prevent electrical noise or interference from affecting the load. Isolation transformers also provide protection against electrical faults, such as short circuits, by preventing the fault current from flowing back to the power source. Therefore, the use of isolation transformers ensures a safe and isolated electrical supply for ORs.

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72. A patient comes to the ER and has an EKG that shows "prominent U waves". Which of the following would be the most likely result of their plasma potassium level?

Explanation

A plasma potassium level of 1.8 mEq/L would be the most likely result for a patient with prominent U waves on an EKG. Prominent U waves are often seen in hypokalemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the electrical activity of the heart, and low levels can lead to abnormal heart rhythms and changes in the EKG. Therefore, a low plasma potassium level of 1.8 mEq/L is the most likely explanation for the prominent U waves observed in this patient.

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73. A patient receives Drug X, which increases contractility while maintaining the same preload and afterload. What would be the expected result to this drug?

Explanation

When a patient receives Drug X, which increases contractility while maintaining the same preload and afterload, the expected result would be an increased stroke volume (SV). Contractility refers to the force of contraction of the heart muscle, and an increase in contractility leads to a stronger contraction, which in turn increases the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat. Since preload and afterload remain the same, the increased contractility will result in a higher SV.

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74. EKG lead II uses which electrodes?

Explanation

EKG lead II uses the Right Arm (RA) and Left Leg (LL) electrodes. These electrodes are placed on specific locations of the body to measure the electrical activity of the heart. The RA electrode is placed on the right arm, while the LL electrode is placed on the left leg. This configuration allows for the recording of electrical signals in a specific direction, providing valuable information about the heart's functioning and any potential abnormalities.

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75. As patients get more acidotic, the plasma potassium concentration trends:

Explanation

As patients get more acidotic, the plasma potassium concentration trends higher. Acidosis can lead to a shift of potassium ions from inside the cells to the extracellular fluid, resulting in an increase in plasma potassium concentration. This shift occurs due to the exchange of hydrogen ions for potassium ions in the kidneys, as well as the movement of potassium out of cells in exchange for hydrogen ions. Therefore, as acidosis worsens, there is a tendency for the plasma potassium concentration to increase.

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76. Which of the following patients in most at risk for microshock?

Explanation

A patient with a central line is most at risk for microshock. Microshock refers to the passage of small amounts of electrical current through the body, which can be dangerous and potentially fatal. A central line is a catheter that is inserted into a large vein, typically in the neck, chest, or groin, and it is used to administer medication or fluids directly into the bloodstream. This increases the risk of microshock because the central line provides a direct pathway for electrical current to pass through the body.

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77. The nitrous oxide tank can't have both liquid and gas phases present if:

Explanation

If the temperature in the tank is greater than the critical temperature, the nitrous oxide will exist only in the gas phase and not in the liquid phase. Above the critical temperature, the substance cannot be liquefied regardless of the pressure. Therefore, if the temperature is higher than the critical temperature, there can't be both liquid and gas phases present in the nitrous oxide tank.

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78. All of the following are risk factors for carbon monoxide formation in the anesthesia breathing system EXCEPT:

Explanation

Moist absorbent is not a risk factor for carbon monoxide formation in the anesthesia breathing system. The other options listed are all risk factors. The use of desflurane instead of sevoflurane can increase the production of carbon monoxide. Non-use of the absorber for 2 or more days can result in the accumulation of carbon monoxide. Low fresh gas flowrates can cause rebreathing of exhaled gases, including carbon monoxide. However, moist absorbent does not directly contribute to carbon monoxide formation.

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79. Anectine is the trade name for which medication?

Explanation

Succinylcholine is the trade name for Anectine.

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80. The line isolation monitor outside of an OR shows a leakage current of 8 mA. This most likely indicates:

Explanation

The given answer suggests that a leakage current of 8 mA is not a normal value for an operating room. It implies that there is likely a device within the OR that has a wiring fault, which is causing the leakage current. This could be a potential safety hazard and should be investigated and addressed to ensure the proper functioning of the equipment and the safety of the patients and staff in the OR.

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81. An ICU patient is coming to the OR for an urgent procedure. This patient has the hepatorenal syndrome, meaning that both the liver and kidneys are failing. Which medication would most likely have its metabolism affected (and hence last longer than expected) in this patient?

Explanation

The hepatorenal syndrome is a condition where both the liver and kidneys are failing. In this patient, the metabolism of drugs is likely to be affected due to the compromised liver function. Vecuronium is a medication that is primarily metabolized by the liver, so its metabolism would be impaired in this patient. As a result, vecuronium would last longer than expected in the patient's system.

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82. A patient has the heart rhythm shown. What is the appropriate treatment?

Explanation

The appropriate treatment for the patient's heart rhythm is magnesium. Magnesium is commonly used to treat various cardiac arrhythmias, including torsades de pointes, which is characterized by a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Magnesium helps stabilize the electrical activity of the heart and can effectively terminate or prevent these abnormal rhythms. Beta-blockers and calcium-channel blockers are also used in the treatment of certain arrhythmias, but they may not be the most appropriate choice in this particular case. Adenosine is typically used to treat supraventricular tachycardias, which is not indicated by the given ECG.

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83. A patient is referred to medication allergy testing at Bayview and is found to have a true allergy to bupivacaine. Which local anesthetic could the patient safely receive?

Explanation

Chloroprocaine is the correct answer because it is an ester-type local anesthetic, while bupivacaine is an amide-type local anesthetic. Allergy to one type of local anesthetic does not necessarily mean an allergy to all types. Since chloroprocaine belongs to a different class, the patient could safely receive it despite having a true allergy to bupivacaine.

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84. You don't like your neighbor, so you get a voodoo doll of him and use it to constrict his aorta. This will be expected to acutely cause an increase in:

Explanation

Using a voodoo doll to constrict the neighbor's aorta would lead to an increase in afterload. Afterload refers to the resistance that the heart must overcome to pump blood out of the left ventricle and into the systemic circulation. By constricting the aorta, the voodoo doll would increase the resistance against which the heart has to pump, resulting in an increased afterload. This would make it more difficult for the heart to eject blood, leading to an acute increase in afterload.

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85. Identify the EKG rhythm shown:

Explanation

The correct answer is 2nd Degree AV Block, Mobitz type I (Wenkebach). This is because the EKG rhythm shown exhibits a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a P wave is not conducted, followed by a dropped QRS complex. This pattern is characteristic of Mobitz type I, also known as Wenkebach, which is a form of second-degree atrioventricular block. In this type of AV block, there is a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, leading to intermittent dropped beats.

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86. What is the trade name for remifentanil?

Explanation

Ultiva is the trade name for remifentanil.

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87. Hospital-grade electrical outlets are identified by:

Explanation

Hospital-grade electrical outlets are identified by a green circle. This symbol indicates that the outlet meets specific safety standards required for use in healthcare facilities. The green color signifies that the outlet has been tested and approved for use in environments where patient safety is a priority. The circle shape is likely used to easily distinguish hospital-grade outlets from other types of outlets.

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88. According to Bernoulli's Principle, a fast-flowing fluid has _________ pressure compared to a slower-flowing fluid.

Explanation

According to Bernoulli's Principle, a fast-flowing fluid has lower pressure compared to a slower-flowing fluid. This is because as the fluid flows faster, the velocity of the fluid increases, causing a decrease in pressure. This principle is commonly observed in various situations, such as the lift generated by an airplane wing or the flow of blood in our circulatory system. Therefore, the correct answer is "Lower."

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89. A 26 yo male patient is stabbed in the chest several times and comes to the OR for emergency surgery. An ultrasound in the ER shows cardiac tamponade. The hemodynamic objective for this anesthetic would be:

Explanation

In the case of cardiac tamponade, where there is an accumulation of fluid or blood in the pericardial sac, maintaining a high heart rate is essential. This is because a high heart rate helps to compensate for the decreased cardiac output caused by the compression of the heart by the accumulated fluid. By keeping the heart rate high, the anesthetic aims to ensure an adequate amount of blood is being pumped out of the heart to maintain organ perfusion and prevent further deterioration of the patient's condition.

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90. What is the trade name for fentanyl?

Explanation

Sublimaze is the correct answer because it is the trade name for fentanyl. Fentanyl is a potent synthetic opioid used for pain relief and anesthesia. It is often administered in medical settings and is known for its strong analgesic properties. Versed, Sufenta, and Norcuron are not trade names for fentanyl and are used for different purposes such as sedation or muscle relaxation during surgery.

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91. An 82-year-old female patient has a past medical history that includes aortic stenosis. Her anesthetic strategy includes which of the following:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Low HR" because in a patient with aortic stenosis, the narrowing of the aortic valve restricts blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body. A low heart rate helps to maintain adequate blood flow by allowing more time for the blood to pass through the narrowed valve. This can be achieved through the use of medications that slow down the heart rate or by avoiding medications that increase heart rate.

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92. Which of the following medications can be reversed by sugammadex? 

Explanation

Sugammadex is a medication used to reverse the effects of certain muscle relaxants, called neuromuscular blocking agents, used during surgery. It specifically targets a class of muscle relaxants called steroidal non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, which includes Rocuronium and Vecuronium. Cisatracurium and Succinylcholine are not in this class and therefore cannot be reversed by sugammadex.

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A patient receives a nerve block with ropivacaine and IV lidocaine and...
A 74 yo male with hypertension is undergoing a knee replacement under...
What is the trade name for oxytocin?
Which of the following represent ASA Standard Monitors?
The Diameter Index Safety System (DISS) is designed to:
A patient is undergoing a neurosurgical procedure for removal of a...
The clinical indication for administration of FFP is:
A patient is on warfarin and requires emergent abdominal surgery....
A clinician is placing an epidural and notices an (unintentional)...
Shortly after induction of GA with propofol, a patient is found to be...
A patient had an accidental dural puncture on an epidural placement...
Posterior fossa sciatic nerve blocks and ankle blocks would be most...
An inspector from the Joint Commission comes and asks you what...
A patient in the PACU requires a significant amount of hydromorphone...
A patient with a known pseudocholinesterase deficiency comes to the OR...
A 28 yo female patient is involved in a car accident and brought...
Lactated Ringer's, although compatible with PRBC administration...
A patient is undergoing a TURP procedure for an enlarged prostate and...
An epidural test dose is used to determine which of the following?
Which is correct regarding proper patient arm positioning to reduce...
A patient is on a dexmedetomidine infusion for an awake fiberoptic...
A patient receives a nerve block with ropivacaine and IV lidocaine,...
A normal ICP is typically:
A patient is going to have a large spine surgery with both MEP and...
A patient is to undergo a thyroidectomy due to thyroid cancer. The...
Resistance represents:
Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of an...
A trauma patient comes to the OR. He has a small pneumothorax...
What is the trade name for propofol?
Which of the following actions would be undertaken first in...
The MAC of a volatile anesthetic is defined as:
In the shown lung volume tracing, letter "A" corresponds to...
An ICU patient has been on propofol, dexmedetomidine, and LR's...
The most common causes of death from administration of blood products...
Interpret the following ABG: pH 7.24 / pCO2 60 / PO2 96 / HCO3 23
A gremlin enters the OR during surgery and moves the art-line...
A 54 yo Male with vocal cord lesions is having a suspension micro...
EKG electrodes work by using a combination of:
Which of the following is the most favorable airway exam for...
The curve that relates the SV to preload is called:
A patient in the PACU becomes unresponsive and is found to be...
What is the trade name for cefazolin?
The failsafe in an anesthesia machine is designed to:
The high pressure system in an anesthesia machine consists of:
Which of the following ventilation strategies would be most likely...
The most common nerve injury for patients in lithotomy position is:
The appropriate initial dose of dantrolene is:
Malignant hyperthermia is:
What is bone cement implantation syndrome?
Per ASA guidelines, patients on mechanical ventilation require all of...
What is the design that modern vaporizers use?
A postop patient is found to have a new-onset adrenal insufficiency,...
A patient is having laparoscopic surgery. The abdomen is insufflated...
1% propofol is being infused through an IV pump. The pump indicates...
An 80 kg, 180 cm patient has the following intraoperative ABG: pH...
All of the following contribute to increased ICP in robotic...
Which of the following would be expected to increase contractility?
Which patient as at highest risk for ischemic optic neuropathy (ION)?
A patient is emergently brought from the ICU to the OR for sepsis and...
A patient comes to the OR from the ICU. He is on a heparin infusion....
Which medication is a pure alpha-1 agonist?
A patient is suspected to have MH intraoperatively. Early signs of MH...
All of the following can increase the MAC of a volatile anesthetic...
For the laminar flow of a fluid through a tube, which of the following...
A patient has high acute blood loss in the OR and receives 7...
Dantrolene should be reconstituted using:
Which type of blood product has the highest risk of bacterial...
Which IV fluid is considered physiologically hypotonic?
Which of the following has the most effect on the preload?
A patient is in the recovery room after having a laparoscopic...
OR's have isolated electrical supplies due to:
A patient comes to the ER and has an EKG that shows "prominent U...
A patient receives Drug X, which increases contractility while...
EKG lead II uses which electrodes?
As patients get more acidotic, the plasma potassium concentration...
Which of the following patients in most at risk for microshock?
The nitrous oxide tank can't have both liquid and gas phases...
All of the following are risk factors for carbon monoxide formation in...
Anectine is the trade name for which medication?
The line isolation monitor outside of an OR shows a leakage current of...
An ICU patient is coming to the OR for an urgent procedure. This...
A patient has the heart rhythm shown. What is the appropriate...
A patient is referred to medication allergy testing at Bayview and is...
You don't like your neighbor, so you get a voodoo doll of him and...
Identify the EKG rhythm shown:
What is the trade name for remifentanil?
Hospital-grade electrical outlets are identified by:
According to Bernoulli's Principle, a fast-flowing fluid has...
A 26 yo male patient is stabbed in the chest several times and comes...
What is the trade name for fentanyl?
An 82-year-old female patient has a past medical history that includes...
Which of the following medications can be reversed by...
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