Anesthesia Technology: Final Exam Review For Anesthesia Equipment 202

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Anesthesia Technology: Final Exam Review For Anesthesia Equipment 202 - Quiz

All information presented here is from the Anesthesia Technology Program through CCBC and Johns Hopkins in Baltimore, MD.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The most common perioperative neuropathy involves which peripheral nerve?

    • A.

      Median

    • B.

      Sciatic

    • C.

      Ulnar

    • D.

      Obturator

    Correct Answer
    C. Ulnar
    Explanation
    Ulnar neuropathy is the most common peripheral nerve involved in perioperative neuropathy. Perioperative neuropathy refers to nerve damage that occurs during or after surgery. The ulnar nerve is a major peripheral nerve that runs from the neck to the hand, providing sensory and motor function to the forearm and hand. Damage to the ulnar nerve can result in symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hand and fingers.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following my increase the risk of perioperative neuropathy?

    • A.

      Elbow flexion

    • B.

      Improperly positioned operating room equipment

    • C.

      Shoulder abduction

    • D.

      Head that has fallen off the pillow

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above may increase the risk of perioperative neuropathy. Elbow flexion can compress the ulnar nerve, leading to neuropathy. Improperly positioned operating room equipment can cause nerve compression or damage. Shoulder abduction can stretch or compress the brachial plexus, resulting in neuropathy. A head that has fallen off the pillow can cause nerve compression or stretching, leading to neuropathy. Therefore, all of these factors can contribute to an increased risk of perioperative neuropathy.

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  • 3. 

    A perioperative ulnar neuropathy that is associated with motor dysfunction (an inability to firmly close the little finger against the thumb - a motion of opposition) suggests a more significant ulnar nerve injury and will recover less quickly than a neuropathy with only sensory loss because _________________.

    • A.

      The motor fibers are damaged more easily than sensory fibers

    • B.

      Sensory fibers heal more quickly than motor fibers

    • C.

      A more significant ischemic injury has occurred if the motor fibers deep in the ulnar nerve are affected

    • D.

      The motor fibers are more superficial on the ulnar nerve

    Correct Answer
    C. A more significant ischemic injury has occurred if the motor fibers deep in the ulnar nerve are affected
    Explanation
    A perioperative ulnar neuropathy that is associated with motor dysfunction suggests a more significant ulnar nerve injury and will recover less quickly than a neuropathy with only sensory loss because a more significant ischemic injury has occurred if the motor fibers deep in the ulnar nerve are affected. Ischemic injury refers to a lack of blood supply to the nerve, which can cause more severe damage. Motor fibers, which control muscle movement, require more oxygen and nutrients compared to sensory fibers, which transmit sensory information. Therefore, when motor fibers are affected, it indicates a more significant injury that takes longer to recover.

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  • 4. 

    Which maneuver increases the risk of brachial plexopathy in a prone-positioned patient?

    • A.

      Abduction of the shoulder for greater than 90 degrees

    • B.

      Flexion of the elbow for greater than 90 degrees

    • C.

      Neutral position of the head

    • D.

      Placement of the arms at the side

    Correct Answer
    A. Abduction of the shoulder for greater than 90 degrees
    Explanation
    Abduction of the shoulder for greater than 90 degrees increases the risk of brachial plexopathy in a prone-positioned patient. The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that controls movement and sensation in the shoulder, arm, and hand. Abducting the shoulder beyond 90 degrees can stretch and compress the brachial plexus, leading to nerve damage and brachial plexopathy. This can result in symptoms such as pain, weakness, and numbness in the affected arm. Therefore, this maneuver should be avoided to minimize the risk of brachial plexopathy.

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  • 5. 

    Which joint maneuver increases the risk of obturator neuropathy in a patient who is placed in the lithotomy position?

    • A.

      Hip flexion for greater than 90 degrees

    • B.

      Full knee extension

    • C.

      Lumbar hyperextension

    • D.

      Hip abduction for greater than 30 degrees

    Correct Answer
    D. Hip abduction for greater than 30 degrees
    Explanation
    Hip abduction for greater than 30 degrees increases the risk of obturator neuropathy in a patient placed in the lithotomy position. This is because excessive hip abduction can stretch or compress the obturator nerve, which runs along the medial aspect of the thigh. Obturator neuropathy can cause symptoms such as pain, numbness, and weakness in the inner thigh and groin area. Therefore, it is important to avoid excessive hip abduction in order to prevent this complication.

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  • 6. 

    Which is the most common cause of perioperative peroneal neuropathy in a patient who is positioned in a lithotomy position?

    • A.

      Compression of a nerve by a leg holder as the nerve wraps around the fibular head

    • B.

      Hyperextension of the knee and ankle simultaneously 

    • C.

      Prolonged dorsiflexion of the foot in a leg holder

    • D.

      Excessive hip flexion when the lower extremity is placed in a leg holder

    Correct Answer
    A. Compression of a nerve by a leg holder as the nerve wraps around the fibular head
    Explanation
    Compression of the peroneal nerve by a leg holder as the nerve wraps around the fibular head is the most common cause of perioperative peroneal neuropathy in a patient positioned in lithotomy position. The peroneal nerve is vulnerable to compression at this site due to its superficial location and proximity to the fibular head. Prolonged compression can lead to nerve injury and subsequent neuropathy. Hyperextension of the knee and ankle simultaneously, prolonged dorsiflexion of the foot, and excessive hip flexion are not typically associated with perioperative peroneal neuropathy.

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  • 7. 

    Which is the primary reason to pad peripheral nerves when positioning patients?

    • A.

      The pad improves blood flow

    • B.

      The pad limits stretch of the nerve

    • C.

      The pad increase strain on the nerve

    • D.

      The pad distributes point pressure

    Correct Answer
    D. The pad distributes point pressure
    Explanation
    The primary reason to pad peripheral nerves when positioning patients is to distribute point pressure. By using a pad, the pressure is evenly spread across the area, reducing the concentration of pressure on a single point. This helps to prevent nerve damage or discomfort that can occur when excessive pressure is applied to a specific area.

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  • 8. 

    Nonintubating techniques available for laser surgery of the airway that remove the fire potential of an ETT include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Apneic oxygenation

    • B.

      Spontaneous ventilation

    • C.

      Venturi Jet Ventilation

    • D.

      Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. None of the above
    Explanation
    All 4 of these options represent nonintubating techniques for laser surgery of an airway.

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  • 9. 

    A fire in the operating room requires three components:

    • A.

      Match, plastic, and oxidizing source

    • B.

      Ignition source, plastic, and nitrous oxide

    • C.

      Fuel, nitrous oxide, and explosives

    • D.

      Fuel, oxidizing sourse, and ignition source

    • E.

      Oxidizing source, ignition source, and helium

    Correct Answer
    D. Fuel, oxidizing sourse, and ignition source
    Explanation
    The correct answer is fuel, oxidizing source, and ignition source. In order for a fire to occur in the operating room, there needs to be a fuel source, such as flammable materials or gases, an oxidizing source, which provides oxygen to support combustion, and an ignition source, which could be a spark or heat. Without any of these three components, a fire cannot start or sustain itself.

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  • 10. 

    Risks associated with jet ventilation include:

    • A.

      Eye injury

    • B.

      Burns

    • C.

      Aspiration of gastric contents

    • D.

      Infection 

    • E.

      Pain

    Correct Answer
    C. Aspiration of gastric contents
    Explanation
    Jet ventilation is a technique used to provide artificial respiration during certain medical procedures. It involves delivering a high-pressure stream of gas directly into the airway. One of the risks associated with this technique is the aspiration of gastric contents. This can occur if the high-pressure gas causes the stomach to empty its contents into the airway, leading to the inhalation of stomach acid and other gastric fluids. Aspiration of gastric contents can cause lung inflammation, infection, and other complications. Therefore, it is important to carefully monitor and manage the patient's gastric contents during jet ventilation to minimize this risk.

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  • 11. 

    A laser beam of energy can be all of the following except:

    • A.

      Invisible

    • B.

      Multicolored

    • C.

      A distinct color

    • D.

      Derived from an active medium (solid, liquid, or gas)

    • E.

      Travel through a substance without affecting the substance at all

    Correct Answer
    C. A distinct color
    Explanation
    A laser beam of energy can be invisible, multicolored, derived from an active medium, and travel through a substance without affecting it. However, it cannot have a distinct color because laser beams are typically monochromatic, meaning they consist of only one specific wavelength or color.

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  • 12. 

    Benefits of laser over other surgical techniques include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Decreased pain

    • B.

      Expense

    • C.

      Decreased swelling

    • D.

      Decreased bleeding

    • E.

      Ability to target difficult-to-reach regions of the body

    Correct Answer
    B. Expense
    Explanation
    The benefits of laser over other surgical techniques include decreased pain, decreased swelling, decreased bleeding, and the ability to target difficult-to-reach regions of the body. However, the one benefit that laser does not have over other surgical techniques is expense. Laser surgery can be more expensive compared to traditional surgical methods due to the cost of the laser equipment and specialized training required for its use.

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  • 13. 

    RACE stands for:

    • A.

      Remove, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish 

    • B.

      Recover, Alarm, Cover, Evacuate

    • C.

      Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Evacuate

    • D.

      Respond, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Evacuate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Evacuate." In emergency situations, the first priority is to rescue any individuals in danger. The next step is to sound the alarm to alert others and emergency services. Then, efforts are made to contain the situation and prevent further damage or harm. Finally, evacuation is carried out to ensure the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 14. 

    As an Anesthesia Technician, you may be asked to assist with various types of fire, which may include:

    • A.

      Airway fires

    • B.

      OR fires

    • C.

      Surgical fires

    • D.

      Facility fires

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    As an Anesthesia Technician, it is part of your duties to assist with various types of fires that may occur in a medical setting. This can include airway fires, OR fires, surgical fires, and even facility fires. It is important for an Anesthesia Technician to be prepared and knowledgeable on how to respond and assist in these situations to ensure the safety of patients and staff.

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  • 15. 

    The recommended type of fire extinguisher for use in an OR is:

    • A.

      CO2

    • B.

      Pressurized Water

    • C.

      Halon

    • D.

      Dry Powder

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. CO2
    Explanation
    CO2 fire extinguishers are recommended for use in an operating room (OR) because they are effective in extinguishing fires caused by electrical equipment and flammable liquids, which are commonly found in an OR setting. CO2 extinguishers work by displacing oxygen, smothering the fire and preventing it from spreading. Additionally, CO2 extinguishers do not leave any residue behind, making them suitable for use in sensitive environments like an OR where cleanliness is crucial.

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  • 16. 

    In the event of a fire in the OR, it is important to turn off the flow of oxygen.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In the event of a fire in the operating room, it is crucial to turn off the flow of oxygen. Oxygen supports combustion, so if there is a fire, it can intensify and spread rapidly if the oxygen supply is not cut off. By turning off the flow of oxygen, the fire can be deprived of this fuel source, helping to control and extinguish the fire more effectively.

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  • 17. 

    All of the following statements apply when drying the hands and arms except:

    • A.

      Bend over slightly from the waist.

    • B.

      Begin drying with the hand and move up the arm

    • C.

      Dry thoroughly to avoid skin irritation

    • D.

      Roll the towel before discarding into the appropriate container.

    Correct Answer
    D. Roll the towel before discarding into the appropriate container.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Roll the towel before discarding into the appropriate container." This statement does not apply when drying the hands and arms. Rolling the towel before discarding it is not necessary or mentioned as a step in the drying process.

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  • 18. 

    The closed-glove technique is used:

    • A.

      Only when the hands have never passed through the gown cuffs

    • B.

      When regloving without assistance during the procedure

    • C.

      To assist a surgeon in donning sterile attire

    • D.

      As a method for correcting glove contamination

    Correct Answer
    A. Only when the hands have never passed through the gown cuffs
    Explanation
    The closed-glove technique is used only when the hands have never passed through the gown cuffs. This technique ensures that the gloves remain sterile and uncontaminated. By putting on the gloves without passing through the gown cuffs, the risk of introducing pathogens or contaminants from the gown to the gloves is minimized. This is particularly important in sterile environments such as surgical procedures, where maintaining aseptic conditions is crucial to prevent infections.

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  • 19. 

    When a scrub person assists another team member with gowning and gloving, he or she does all of the following except:

    • A.

      Protect gloved hands by forming a cuff of the neck and shoulder area

    • B.

      Release the gown when the team member’s hands are in the sleeves

    • C.

      Handle the glove on the inside only

    • D.

      Always offer the right glove first

    Correct Answer
    C. Handle the glove on the inside only
    Explanation
    The scrub person should handle the glove on the outside only, not on the inside. This is because the inside of the glove is considered contaminated and should not come into contact with the scrub person's hands. By handling the glove on the outside only, the scrub person can ensure that they maintain aseptic technique and prevent the spread of any potential pathogens.

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  • 20. 

    The sterile areas of the gown include the:
    1. Front from two inches below the neck to waist or table level
    2. Gloves and gown sleeve to two inches above the elbow
    3. Sides from axillae to waist or table level
    4. Back of a wraparound gown

    • A.

      1 and 2

    • B.

      1 and 3

    • C.

      1, 2, and 3

    • D.

      1, 2, 3, and 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 2
    Explanation
    The sterile areas of the gown include the front from two inches below the neck to waist or table level, and the gloves and gown sleeve to two inches above the elbow. This means that the front of the gown and the area around the gloves and sleeves are considered sterile.

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  • 21. 

    During gowning, the circulating nurse can assists the scrub person by:

    • A.

      Pulling the bottom edge of the front of the gown to eliminate blousing

    • B.

      Helping to get the creases out of the gown’s sleeves by pulling the shoulders up

    • C.

      Reaching inside the gown and pulling the inside seam

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    During gowning, the circulating nurse can assist the scrub person by pulling the bottom edge of the front of the gown to eliminate blousing. This helps to ensure that the gown fits properly and reduces the risk of contamination. The circulating nurse can also help by pulling the shoulders up to get the creases out of the gown's sleeves, which again helps to maintain a proper fit and prevent contamination. Additionally, the circulating nurse can reach inside the gown and pull the inside seam, ensuring that the gown is properly aligned and secure. Therefore, all of the above options are correct ways in which the circulating nurse can assist the scrub person during gowning.

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  • 22. 

    The use of a brush for surgical hand scrubs is not necessary.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that using a brush for surgical hand scrubs is not necessary. This means that it is not required or essential to use a brush during the surgical hand scrubbing process.

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  • 23. 

    When taking off the gown at the end of the case, the gloves’ cuffs usually turn down as the sleeves pass off the arms. The wearer removes the gloves using which one of the techniques listed below?

    • A.

      Pull off by fingers of each glove

    • B.

      Glove-to-glove and then skin-to-skin

    • C.

      Open-glove technique

    • D.

      Scrubbed person’s choice if gloves are not too dirty

    Correct Answer
    B. Glove-to-glove and then skin-to-skin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Glove-to-glove and then skin-to-skin." This technique is used to prevent contamination when removing gloves. By grasping the outside of one glove with the gloved hand, the wearer can peel it off and hold it in the palm of the gloved hand. Then, the wearer can insert fingers of the bare hand inside the remaining glove, and peel it off, turning it inside out as it is removed. This method ensures that the contaminated surfaces of the gloves are not touched, minimizing the risk of spreading any potential pathogens.

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  • 24. 

    When one or both gloves must be changed without assistance, which one of the following methods listed below should be used?

    • A.

      Double gloving

    • B.

      Open-glove technique

    • C.

      Barehanded gloving

    • D.

      Closed-glove technique

    Correct Answer
    B. Open-glove technique
    Explanation
    The open-glove technique should be used when one or both gloves must be changed without assistance. This technique involves removing the first glove by grasping the outside of the cuff and pulling it off, turning it inside out as it is removed. Then, using the bare hand that is now covered by the inside-out glove, the second glove can be removed in the same manner. This technique helps to minimize the risk of contamination and maintain a sterile environment.

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  • 25. 

    When a team member other than the scrub nurse contaminates a glove during the surgical procedure, the scrub nurse regloves the team member using which one of the following methods?

    • A.

      Assisted gloving

    • B.

      Reverse gloving

    • C.

      Protected gloving

    • D.

      Open gloving

    Correct Answer
    A. Assisted gloving
    Explanation
    Assisted gloving is the method used by the scrub nurse to reglove a team member when their glove is contaminated during a surgical procedure. In assisted gloving, the scrub nurse helps the team member put on a new pair of gloves without contaminating them further. This ensures the sterility of the surgical environment is maintained and reduces the risk of infection or complications for the patient.

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  • 26. 

    When performing a surgical scrub with an antimicrobial agent, how far up the arm must an individual scrub?

    • A.

      Up to the armpit

    • B.

      Two inches above the elbow

    • C.

      To the elbow

    • D.

      Four inches above the wrist

    Correct Answer
    B. Two inches above the elbow
    Explanation
    During a surgical scrub with an antimicrobial agent, it is necessary for an individual to scrub up to two inches above the elbow. This ensures that the entire forearm, including the area where the surgical gown ends, is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected. Scrubbing up to this point helps to minimize the risk of introducing any harmful microorganisms into the surgical field, promoting a sterile environment for the procedure.

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  • 27. 

    The purpose of the surgical hand scrub is to:
    1. Remove normal skin flora
    2. Sterilize the skin
    3. Suppress growth of microorganisms
    4. Remove soil and debris.

    • A.

      1 and 3

    • B.

      2 and 3

    • C.

      3 and 4

    • D.

      1, 2, 3, and 4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 and 4
    Explanation
    The purpose of the surgical hand scrub is to remove soil and debris from the skin and suppress the growth of microorganisms. Sterilizing the skin is not the purpose of the surgical hand scrub, as it is not possible to completely sterilize the skin. Additionally, removing normal skin flora is not the purpose of the surgical hand scrub, as some normal skin flora is beneficial and helps protect against harmful microorganisms. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 and 4.

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  • 28. 

    Where should the scrubbed person hold onto his or her gown when lifting it up to don it?

    • A.

      The sterile exterior of the gown

    • B.

      The inside seams at armpits

    • C.

      The inside front of the gown just below the neckband

    • D.

      At the waist

    Correct Answer
    C. The inside front of the gown just below the neckband
    Explanation
    When lifting up the gown to don it, the scrubbed person should hold onto the inside front of the gown just below the neckband. This ensures that the sterile exterior of the gown remains untouched and uncontaminated. Holding onto the inside front of the gown also allows for easy and proper positioning of the gown on the body, ensuring maximum protection and maintaining a sterile environment.

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  • 29. 

    Resident microorganisms:
    1. Live on the skin’s surface
    2. Are easy to remove
    3. Live in hair follicles and sweat glands
    4. Are acquired by direct contact

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      1 and 2

    • C.

      3 only

    • D.

      2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 only
    Explanation
    Resident microorganisms are microorganisms that live in hair follicles and sweat glands. This means that they are not easy to remove and are not acquired by direct contact. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 only.

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  • 30. 

    Appropriate surgical attire for the scrub person includes:
    1. Headgear that covers all hair
    2. Protective eyewear
    3. A face mask
    4. Shoes that provide protection

    • A.

      1 and 3

    • B.

      1, 2, and 3

    • C.

      2, 3, and 4

    • D.

      1, 2, 3, and 4

    Correct Answer
    D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
    Explanation
    The appropriate surgical attire for the scrub person includes headgear that covers all hair, protective eyewear, a face mask, and shoes that provide protection. This is important to ensure a sterile environment and to prevent the spread of bacteria or other contaminants during surgery. The headgear helps to prevent hair from falling into the surgical field, protective eyewear protects the eyes from any splashes or debris, the face mask helps to prevent the spread of droplets or particles from the scrub person's mouth or nose, and the shoes provide protection and help maintain a clean environment.

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  • 31. 

    It is permissible to scrub without removing rings.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Scrubbing refers to the act of cleaning or rubbing a surface vigorously. When scrubbing, it is not permissible to keep rings on as they can get damaged or cause harm. Hence, the statement "It is permissible to scrub without removing rings" is false.

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  • 32. 

    Wearing artificial or acrylic nails in the surgical setting is:

    • A.

      Permitted if they are in good repair

    • B.

      Unacceptable because they may harbor microorganisms

    • C.

      Permitted if polish is less than four days old

    • D.

      Unacceptable for aesthetic reasons

    Correct Answer
    B. Unacceptable because they may harbor microorganisms
    Explanation
    Wearing artificial or acrylic nails in the surgical setting is unacceptable because they may harbor microorganisms. This is because the surface of artificial or acrylic nails can easily trap and hold bacteria, making it difficult to effectively clean and sanitize the hands. These microorganisms can then be transferred to patients during surgical procedures, increasing the risk of infection. Therefore, it is important to avoid wearing artificial or acrylic nails in order to maintain a sterile and safe surgical environment.

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  • 33. 

    The scrub person may use the closed-glove method to change one or both gloves if they become contaminated.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The scrub person may use the closed-glove method to change one or both gloves if they become contaminated. This statement is false. The closed-glove method is not used to change gloves if they become contaminated. It is used when the scrub person wants to change gloves without touching the outside of the gloves, for example, when they want to change gloves during a surgical procedure without contaminating their hands. If the gloves become contaminated, it is important to remove them properly and put on a new pair of gloves to maintain proper hygiene and prevent the spread of infection.

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  • 34. 

    _____________ refers to the density of a substance compared to the density of human cerebrospinal fluid.

    • A.

      Baricity

    • B.

      Tonicity

    • C.

      Clarity

    • D.

      Concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. Baricity
    Explanation
    Baricity refers to the density of a substance compared to the density of human cerebrospinal fluid. This means that baricity determines whether a substance is more or less dense than cerebrospinal fluid. It is often used in medical procedures such as spinal anesthesia, where the baricity of the anesthetic agent is important to ensure proper distribution and effectiveness.

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  • 35. 

    Vasoconstrictors to what to spinal blocks?

    • A.

      Prolong the duration

    • B.

      Shorten the duration

    • C.

      Block the effects

    • D.

      Have no effect

    Correct Answer
    A. Prolong the duration
    Explanation
    Vasoconstrictors are substances that constrict or narrow blood vessels. When used in spinal blocks, vasoconstrictors can help prolong the duration of the block. This is because vasoconstriction reduces blood flow to the area, which in turn slows down the absorption and metabolism of the anesthetic agent used in the block. As a result, the effects of the spinal block last longer.

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  • 36. 

    Spinal Pharmacology: _____________ do not cause an increase in duration of lidocaine and bupivacaine, but there is a significant increase with tetracaine (double the duration actually).

    Correct Answer
    Vasoconstrictors
    Explanation
    Vasoconstrictors do not cause an increase in the duration of lidocaine and bupivacaine, but there is a significant increase with tetracaine (double the duration actually). This means that the addition of vasoconstrictors to lidocaine and bupivacaine does not affect the duration of their effects on the spinal cord. However, when vasoconstrictors are added to tetracaine, it significantly prolongs its duration of action.

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  • 37. 

    Spinal Pharmacology: Gravity has no affect on Local Anesthetics during spinal anesthesia.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Local Anesthetics will actually move with gravity so patient positioning is very important to ensure the patient is properly anesthetized.

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  • 38. 

    A Thoracic Blockade (T1 - T4 Blockade) causes unopposed vagal stimulation and bradycardia.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A Thoracic Blockade (T1 - T4 Blockade) refers to the blocking of nerve impulses in the thoracic region of the spinal cord. This blockade can lead to unopposed vagal stimulation, which means that the parasympathetic nervous system is activated without any counteracting sympathetic nervous system activity. Vagal stimulation is known to slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. Therefore, it is true that a Thoracic Blockade can cause unopposed vagal stimulation and bradycardia.

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  • 39. 

    All of the options below are contraindications of spinal anesthesia, both Absolute and Relative. Which one(s) are Relative? (choose all that apply)

    • A.

      Use your best judgement

    • B.

      Refusal

    • C.

      Infection

    • D.

      Coagulopathy

    • E.

      Severe hypovolemia

    • F.

      Increased ICP

    • G.

      Severe aortic or mitral stenosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Use your best judgement
    Explanation
    The only Relative contraindication listed in class is to "use your best judgment". All of the other listed contraindications here are Absolute. The most serious of these is the "severe aortic or mitral stenosis" contraindication.

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  • 40. 

    A _____________ mask is used when treating patients with TB.

    Correct Answer
    N95
    Explanation
    An N95 mask is used when treating patients with TB because it is designed to filter out at least 95% of airborne particles, including bacteria and viruses. TB is a highly contagious respiratory disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and it can be spread through the air when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. The N95 mask provides a high level of protection for healthcare workers by preventing the inhalation of TB bacteria and reducing the risk of transmission.

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  • 41. 

    What gland can be affected by radiation?

    Correct Answer
    Thyroid
    Explanation
    Radiation can affect the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland is located in the neck and produces hormones that regulate metabolism. Exposure to radiation, such as during radiation therapy for cancer or nuclear accidents, can damage the cells in the thyroid gland and disrupt its normal functioning. This can lead to various thyroid disorders, including hypothyroidism or an overactive thyroid. Regular monitoring and appropriate treatment are necessary for individuals who have been exposed to radiation to prevent complications related to thyroid dysfunction.

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  • 42. 

    _____________ can cause spontaneous abortions if a pregnant woman comes in contact with them accidentally (most vulnerable in the 1st trimester)

    • A.

      Volatile Anesthetics

    • B.

      Opiods

    • C.

      Local Anethetics

    • D.

      NMBD's

    Correct Answer
    A. Volatile Anesthetics
    Explanation
    Volatile anesthetics can cause spontaneous abortions if a pregnant woman comes in contact with them accidentally, especially during the first trimester. These anesthetics are inhaled gases or vapors that are used to induce and maintain anesthesia during surgery. They can cross the placenta and potentially harm the developing fetus. It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to volatile anesthetics to prevent any potential risks to their pregnancy.

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  • 43. 

    From the Patient Positioning Chapter (ch 19): Normal capillaries have a pressure between ___________ mm Hg. Supine patients on a hard surface routinely have a higher pressure.

    • A.

      23-33

    • B.

      33-43

    • C.

      13-23

    • D.

      23-43

    Correct Answer
    A. 23-33
    Explanation
    Normal capillaries have a pressure between 23-33 mm Hg. Supine patients on a hard surface routinely have a higher pressure.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is false regarding spinal anesthesia?

    • A.

      For placement the patient is placed in a sitting or lateral position

    • B.

      The needle is placed at the level of the lumbar spine

    • C.

      The patient should have basic monitors placed prior to the injection of local anesthetic

    • D.

      A "high spinal" may result in severe hypotension or apnea

    • E.

      The spine should be as straight as possible to facilitate needle placement

    Correct Answer
    E. The spine should be as straight as possible to facilitate needle placement
    Explanation
    The statement "The spine should be as straight as possible to facilitate needle placement" is false regarding spinal anesthesia. In reality, the spine should be flexed or curved in order to create more space between the vertebrae, making it easier to insert the needle into the desired location. A straight spine would make needle placement more difficult.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following would not be required to be available during placement of a routine peripheral nerve block?

    • A.

      Ultrasound machine with gel

    • B.

      Sterile prep

    • C.

      X-ray equipment (eg; flouroscopy)

    • D.

      Basic monitoring equipment

    • E.

      Peripheral nerve stimulator

    Correct Answer
    C. X-ray equipment (eg; flouroscopy)
    Explanation
    During the placement of a routine peripheral nerve block, X-ray equipment (e.g., fluoroscopy) would not be required. Peripheral nerve blocks are typically performed using ultrasound guidance, which provides real-time visualization of the nerves and surrounding structures. Ultrasound machines with gel are necessary to create the images. Sterile prep is essential to maintain a sterile environment during the procedure. Basic monitoring equipment is needed to monitor the patient's vital signs. A peripheral nerve stimulator may be used to confirm the correct placement of the needle and nerve block. However, X-ray equipment is not necessary for routine peripheral nerve blocks as ultrasound guidance is sufficient.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following are potential complications of nerve blocks?

    • A.

      Bleeding or infections

    • B.

      Seizures

    • C.

      Pneumothorax or diaphragm dysfunction

    • D.

      Nerve injury

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options listed, including bleeding or infections, seizures, pneumothorax or diaphragm dysfunction, and nerve injury, are potential complications of nerve blocks. Nerve blocks involve the injection of medication near or directly into nerves to block pain signals. While nerve blocks can be effective in managing pain, there are risks associated with the procedure. Bleeding or infections can occur at the injection site, seizures can be triggered in some individuals, pneumothorax or diaphragm dysfunction can result from incorrect needle placement, and nerve injury can occur if the needle damages the nerves. Therefore, all of the options mentioned can be potential complications.

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  • 47. 

    All of the following statements are true except:

    • A.

      Femoral nerve blocks are commonly used for knee surgery

    • B.

      Femoral nerve blocks are commonly used for hand surgeries

    • C.

      Brachial plexus blocks are commonly used for upper extremity surgery

    • D.

      Epidurals are commonly used for lower extremity surgery

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Femoral nerve blocks are commonly used for hand surgeries
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because femoral nerve blocks are not commonly used for hand surgeries. Femoral nerve blocks are typically used for knee surgeries to provide pain relief in the lower extremity. Hand surgeries usually require different types of nerve blocks, such as digital nerve blocks or ulnar nerve blocks.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following statements is false regarding a test dose of local anesthetic for an epidural catheter?

    • A.

      The test dose will detect a pneumothorax

    • B.

      The test should not cause a high spinal

    • C.

      The test dose is used to detect intrathecal injection

    • D.

      The test dose is used to detect intravascular injection

    • E.

      The test dose will often contain epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. The test dose will detect a pneumothorax
  • 49. 

    An LIM will protect against microshock.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    An LIM, or Line Isolation Monitor, is a device used to monitor the electrical isolation between the power supply system and the grounded surfaces of medical equipment. It does not protect against microshock directly. Microshock refers to the small electrical currents that can pass through a patient's body during medical procedures. To protect against microshock, additional measures such as grounding, insulation, and proper equipment design are required. Therefore, the statement that an LIM will protect against microshock is false.

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  • 50. 

    The proper response to a LIM alarm is to:

    • A.

      Shut off power to the OR

    • B.

      Silence the alarm and go about your business

    • C.

      Notify the power company that there is a grounding problem

    • D.

      Unplug the equipment, one at a time, starting with the last item plugged in

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Unplug the equipment, one at a time, starting with the last item plugged in
    Explanation
    The proper response to a LIM alarm is to unplug the equipment, one at a time, starting with the last item plugged in. This is the correct answer because a LIM alarm indicates a grounding problem. By unplugging the equipment one at a time, starting with the last item plugged in, it allows you to identify the specific equipment causing the grounding issue and address it accordingly. This approach helps to isolate the problem and prevent any further damage or safety hazards.

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