Anesthesia Technology: Final Exam Review For Anesthesia Equipment 202

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1. As an Anesthesia Technician, you may be asked to assist with various types of fire, which may include:

Explanation

As an Anesthesia Technician, it is part of your duties to assist with various types of fires that may occur in a medical setting. This can include airway fires, OR fires, surgical fires, and even facility fires. It is important for an Anesthesia Technician to be prepared and knowledgeable on how to respond and assist in these situations to ensure the safety of patients and staff.

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About This Quiz
Anesthesia Technology: Final Exam Review For Anesthesia Equipment 202 - Quiz


All information presented here is from the Anesthesia Technology Program through CCBC and Johns Hopkins in Baltimore, MD.

2. In the event of a fire in the OR, it is important to turn off the flow of oxygen.

Explanation

In the event of a fire in the operating room, it is crucial to turn off the flow of oxygen. Oxygen supports combustion, so if there is a fire, it can intensify and spread rapidly if the oxygen supply is not cut off. By turning off the flow of oxygen, the fire can be deprived of this fuel source, helping to control and extinguish the fire more effectively.

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3. A fire in the operating room requires three components:

Explanation

The correct answer is fuel, oxidizing source, and ignition source. In order for a fire to occur in the operating room, there needs to be a fuel source, such as flammable materials or gases, an oxidizing source, which provides oxygen to support combustion, and an ignition source, which could be a spark or heat. Without any of these three components, a fire cannot start or sustain itself.

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4. Match the following

Explanation

There is no need to do a test dose in a spinal because the CSF coming back out into the syringe is basically the test dose.

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5. Spinal Pharmacology: Gravity has no affect on Local Anesthetics during spinal anesthesia.

Explanation

Local Anesthetics will actually move with gravity so patient positioning is very important to ensure the patient is properly anesthetized.

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6. Match the following
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7. Which of the following would not be required to be available during placement of a routine peripheral nerve block?

Explanation

During the placement of a routine peripheral nerve block, X-ray equipment (e.g., fluoroscopy) would not be required. Peripheral nerve blocks are typically performed using ultrasound guidance, which provides real-time visualization of the nerves and surrounding structures. Ultrasound machines with gel are necessary to create the images. Sterile prep is essential to maintain a sterile environment during the procedure. Basic monitoring equipment is needed to monitor the patient's vital signs. A peripheral nerve stimulator may be used to confirm the correct placement of the needle and nerve block. However, X-ray equipment is not necessary for routine peripheral nerve blocks as ultrasound guidance is sufficient.

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8. Anatomy review: There are 33 Vertebrae, match the number of vertebrae with the location:
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9. A _____________ mask is used when treating patients with TB.

Explanation

An N95 mask is used when treating patients with TB because it is designed to filter out at least 95% of airborne particles, including bacteria and viruses. TB is a highly contagious respiratory disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and it can be spread through the air when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. The N95 mask provides a high level of protection for healthcare workers by preventing the inhalation of TB bacteria and reducing the risk of transmission.

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10. Epidural anesthesia is slower in onset (10-20 mins) and may not be as dense as spinal anesthesia.

Explanation

M&M Ch 45 page 959

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11. Which is the primary reason to pad peripheral nerves when positioning patients?

Explanation

The primary reason to pad peripheral nerves when positioning patients is to distribute point pressure. By using a pad, the pressure is evenly spread across the area, reducing the concentration of pressure on a single point. This helps to prevent nerve damage or discomfort that can occur when excessive pressure is applied to a specific area.

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12. Vasoconstrictors to what to spinal blocks?

Explanation

Vasoconstrictors are substances that constrict or narrow blood vessels. When used in spinal blocks, vasoconstrictors can help prolong the duration of the block. This is because vasoconstriction reduces blood flow to the area, which in turn slows down the absorption and metabolism of the anesthetic agent used in the block. As a result, the effects of the spinal block last longer.

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13. All of the following statements are true except:

Explanation

The given answer is correct because femoral nerve blocks are not commonly used for hand surgeries. Femoral nerve blocks are typically used for knee surgeries to provide pain relief in the lower extremity. Hand surgeries usually require different types of nerve blocks, such as digital nerve blocks or ulnar nerve blocks.

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14. It is permissible to scrub without removing rings.

Explanation

Scrubbing refers to the act of cleaning or rubbing a surface vigorously. When scrubbing, it is not permissible to keep rings on as they can get damaged or cause harm. Hence, the statement "It is permissible to scrub without removing rings" is false.

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15. The dispersive pad for electrosurgery _______________.

Explanation

The dispersive pad for electrosurgery should be placed over a well-muscled area, such as the thigh. This is because a well-muscled area provides better conduction and dispersion of the electrical current, ensuring that the energy is evenly distributed and minimizing the risk of burns or tissue damage. Placing the pad over a bony prominence or a total hip replacement may not provide sufficient conduction, while placing it over the hairiest possible part of the body may interfere with the pad's adherence. The statement that the dispersive pad is not necessary most of the time is incorrect, as it is an essential safety measure in electrosurgery.

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16. Which of the following are potential complications of nerve blocks?

Explanation

All of the options listed, including bleeding or infections, seizures, pneumothorax or diaphragm dysfunction, and nerve injury, are potential complications of nerve blocks. Nerve blocks involve the injection of medication near or directly into nerves to block pain signals. While nerve blocks can be effective in managing pain, there are risks associated with the procedure. Bleeding or infections can occur at the injection site, seizures can be triggered in some individuals, pneumothorax or diaphragm dysfunction can result from incorrect needle placement, and nerve injury can occur if the needle damages the nerves. Therefore, all of the options mentioned can be potential complications.

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17. The most common perioperative neuropathy involves which peripheral nerve?

Explanation

Ulnar neuropathy is the most common peripheral nerve involved in perioperative neuropathy. Perioperative neuropathy refers to nerve damage that occurs during or after surgery. The ulnar nerve is a major peripheral nerve that runs from the neck to the hand, providing sensory and motor function to the forearm and hand. Damage to the ulnar nerve can result in symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hand and fingers.

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18. What does LIM stand for?

Explanation

LIM do not help to protect against microshock.

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19. Preoperative fasting and surgical stress induce ______________ resistance.

Explanation

Preoperative fasting and surgical stress can lead to insulin resistance. During fasting, the body's glucose levels decrease, causing the pancreas to release glucagon and epinephrine, which stimulate the liver to produce glucose. This increased glucose production can result in insulin resistance, where the body's cells become less responsive to insulin. Surgical stress also triggers the release of stress hormones like cortisol, which can further contribute to insulin resistance. Insulin resistance can impair the body's ability to regulate blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hyperglycemia and other complications.

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20. Wearing artificial or acrylic nails in the surgical setting is:

Explanation

Wearing artificial or acrylic nails in the surgical setting is unacceptable because they may harbor microorganisms. This is because the surface of artificial or acrylic nails can easily trap and hold bacteria, making it difficult to effectively clean and sanitize the hands. These microorganisms can then be transferred to patients during surgical procedures, increasing the risk of infection. Therefore, it is important to avoid wearing artificial or acrylic nails in order to maintain a sterile and safe surgical environment.

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21. Which of the following my increase the risk of perioperative neuropathy?

Explanation

All of the above may increase the risk of perioperative neuropathy. Elbow flexion can compress the ulnar nerve, leading to neuropathy. Improperly positioned operating room equipment can cause nerve compression or damage. Shoulder abduction can stretch or compress the brachial plexus, resulting in neuropathy. A head that has fallen off the pillow can cause nerve compression or stretching, leading to neuropathy. Therefore, all of these factors can contribute to an increased risk of perioperative neuropathy.

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22. "Neuraxial blockade of nociceptive stimuli by epidural and spinal local anesthetics has been shown to blunt the metabolic and neuroendocrine stress response to surgery."

Explanation

M&M Ch 48 page 1093

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23. "Transverse adbominis plan (TAP) block has been used for ______________ surgery to facilitate postoperative analgesia and early return of bowel function."

Explanation

M&M Ch 48 page 1095

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24. Appropriate surgical attire for the scrub person includes:
  1. Headgear that covers all hair
  2. Protective eyewear
  3. A face mask
  4. Shoes that provide protection

Explanation

The appropriate surgical attire for the scrub person includes headgear that covers all hair, protective eyewear, a face mask, and shoes that provide protection. This is important to ensure a sterile environment and to prevent the spread of bacteria or other contaminants during surgery. The headgear helps to prevent hair from falling into the surgical field, protective eyewear protects the eyes from any splashes or debris, the face mask helps to prevent the spread of droplets or particles from the scrub person's mouth or nose, and the shoes provide protection and help maintain a clean environment.

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25. When taking off the gown at the end of the case, the gloves' cuffs usually turn down as the sleeves pass off the arms. The wearer removes the gloves using which one of the techniques listed below?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Glove-to-glove and then skin-to-skin." This technique is used to prevent contamination when removing gloves. By grasping the outside of one glove with the gloved hand, the wearer can peel it off and hold it in the palm of the gloved hand. Then, the wearer can insert fingers of the bare hand inside the remaining glove, and peel it off, turning it inside out as it is removed. This method ensures that the contaminated surfaces of the gloves are not touched, minimizing the risk of spreading any potential pathogens.

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26. Risks associated with jet ventilation include:

Explanation

Jet ventilation is a technique used to provide artificial respiration during certain medical procedures. It involves delivering a high-pressure stream of gas directly into the airway. One of the risks associated with this technique is the aspiration of gastric contents. This can occur if the high-pressure gas causes the stomach to empty its contents into the airway, leading to the inhalation of stomach acid and other gastric fluids. Aspiration of gastric contents can cause lung inflammation, infection, and other complications. Therefore, it is important to carefully monitor and manage the patient's gastric contents during jet ventilation to minimize this risk.

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27. "Because neuraxial anesthesia techniques are commonly employed for many patients during major abdominal, vascular, thoracic and orthopedic surgery, appropriate timing and administration of of antithrombotic agents in these cases is of critical importance in order to avoid the risk of epidural _________________."

Explanation

M&M Ch 48, page 1092

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28. Benefits of laser over other surgical techniques include all of the following except:

Explanation

The benefits of laser over other surgical techniques include decreased pain, decreased swelling, decreased bleeding, and the ability to target difficult-to-reach regions of the body. However, the one benefit that laser does not have over other surgical techniques is expense. Laser surgery can be more expensive compared to traditional surgical methods due to the cost of the laser equipment and specialized training required for its use.

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29. What gland can be affected by radiation?

Explanation

Radiation can affect the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland is located in the neck and produces hormones that regulate metabolism. Exposure to radiation, such as during radiation therapy for cancer or nuclear accidents, can damage the cells in the thyroid gland and disrupt its normal functioning. This can lead to various thyroid disorders, including hypothyroidism or an overactive thyroid. Regular monitoring and appropriate treatment are necessary for individuals who have been exposed to radiation to prevent complications related to thyroid dysfunction.

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30. The proper response to a LIM alarm is to:

Explanation

The proper response to a LIM alarm is to unplug the equipment, one at a time, starting with the last item plugged in. This is the correct answer because a LIM alarm indicates a grounding problem. By unplugging the equipment one at a time, starting with the last item plugged in, it allows you to identify the specific equipment causing the grounding issue and address it accordingly. This approach helps to isolate the problem and prevent any further damage or safety hazards.

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31. The recommended type of fire extinguisher for use in an OR is:

Explanation

CO2 fire extinguishers are recommended for use in an operating room (OR) because they are effective in extinguishing fires caused by electrical equipment and flammable liquids, which are commonly found in an OR setting. CO2 extinguishers work by displacing oxygen, smothering the fire and preventing it from spreading. Additionally, CO2 extinguishers do not leave any residue behind, making them suitable for use in sensitive environments like an OR where cleanliness is crucial.

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32. A Thoracic Blockade (T1 - T4 Blockade) causes unopposed vagal stimulation and bradycardia.

Explanation

A Thoracic Blockade (T1 - T4 Blockade) refers to the blocking of nerve impulses in the thoracic region of the spinal cord. This blockade can lead to unopposed vagal stimulation, which means that the parasympathetic nervous system is activated without any counteracting sympathetic nervous system activity. Vagal stimulation is known to slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. Therefore, it is true that a Thoracic Blockade can cause unopposed vagal stimulation and bradycardia.

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33. Because of concerns of loss of power, essential equipment in the OR should be plugged into ______________.

Explanation

The essential equipment in the operating room should be plugged into red sockets because red sockets are typically connected to emergency power sources. This ensures that the equipment will continue to function in case of a power outage or loss of power.

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34. Which is the most common cause of perioperative peroneal neuropathy in a patient who is positioned in a lithotomy position?

Explanation

Compression of the peroneal nerve by a leg holder as the nerve wraps around the fibular head is the most common cause of perioperative peroneal neuropathy in a patient positioned in lithotomy position. The peroneal nerve is vulnerable to compression at this site due to its superficial location and proximity to the fibular head. Prolonged compression can lead to nerve injury and subsequent neuropathy. Hyperextension of the knee and ankle simultaneously, prolonged dorsiflexion of the foot, and excessive hip flexion are not typically associated with perioperative peroneal neuropathy.

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35. RACE stands for:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Evacuate." In emergency situations, the first priority is to rescue any individuals in danger. The next step is to sound the alarm to alert others and emergency services. Then, efforts are made to contain the situation and prevent further damage or harm. Finally, evacuation is carried out to ensure the safety of everyone involved.

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36. ______________________ have been used to blunt the sympathetic response during laryngoscopy and intubation and to attenuate the surgical stress-induced increase in circulating catecholamines.

Explanation

M&M Ch 48 page 1096

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37. Which maneuver increases the risk of brachial plexopathy in a prone-positioned patient?

Explanation

Abduction of the shoulder for greater than 90 degrees increases the risk of brachial plexopathy in a prone-positioned patient. The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that controls movement and sensation in the shoulder, arm, and hand. Abducting the shoulder beyond 90 degrees can stretch and compress the brachial plexus, leading to nerve damage and brachial plexopathy. This can result in symptoms such as pain, weakness, and numbness in the affected arm. Therefore, this maneuver should be avoided to minimize the risk of brachial plexopathy.

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38. During gowning, the circulating nurse can assists the scrub person by:

Explanation

During gowning, the circulating nurse can assist the scrub person by pulling the bottom edge of the front of the gown to eliminate blousing. This helps to ensure that the gown fits properly and reduces the risk of contamination. The circulating nurse can also help by pulling the shoulders up to get the creases out of the gown's sleeves, which again helps to maintain a proper fit and prevent contamination. Additionally, the circulating nurse can reach inside the gown and pull the inside seam, ensuring that the gown is properly aligned and secure. Therefore, all of the above options are correct ways in which the circulating nurse can assist the scrub person during gowning.

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39. _____________ refers to the density of a substance compared to the density of human cerebrospinal fluid.

Explanation

Baricity refers to the density of a substance compared to the density of human cerebrospinal fluid. This means that baricity determines whether a substance is more or less dense than cerebrospinal fluid. It is often used in medical procedures such as spinal anesthesia, where the baricity of the anesthetic agent is important to ensure proper distribution and effectiveness.

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40. Which of the following is false regarding spinal anesthesia?

Explanation

The statement "The spine should be as straight as possible to facilitate needle placement" is false regarding spinal anesthesia. In reality, the spine should be flexed or curved in order to create more space between the vertebrae, making it easier to insert the needle into the desired location. A straight spine would make needle placement more difficult.

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41. Where should the scrubbed person hold onto his or her gown when lifting it up to don it?

Explanation

When lifting up the gown to don it, the scrubbed person should hold onto the inside front of the gown just below the neckband. This ensures that the sterile exterior of the gown remains untouched and uncontaminated. Holding onto the inside front of the gown also allows for easy and proper positioning of the gown on the body, ensuring maximum protection and maintaining a sterile environment.

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42. Which of the following statements is false regarding a test dose of local anesthetic for an epidural catheter?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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43. ___________________ pain is defined as chronic pain that continues beyond the typical healing period of 1-2 months following surgery - or well past the normal period for post-op follow-up by anesthesia providers - is increasingly acknowledged as a common and significant issue following surgery.

Explanation

Persistent postsurgical pain is a term used to describe chronic pain that persists beyond the expected healing period after surgery. This pain continues for more than 1-2 months following the surgical procedure, or beyond the normal post-operative follow-up period. It is recognized as a common and significant problem that can occur after surgery. The term "persistent postsurgical" accurately describes this type of pain.

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44. Match the saggital sections:
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45. When performing a surgical scrub with an antimicrobial agent, how far up the arm must an individual scrub?

Explanation

During a surgical scrub with an antimicrobial agent, it is necessary for an individual to scrub up to two inches above the elbow. This ensures that the entire forearm, including the area where the surgical gown ends, is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected. Scrubbing up to this point helps to minimize the risk of introducing any harmful microorganisms into the surgical field, promoting a sterile environment for the procedure.

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46. What patient position is commonly compared to the "fetal position"?

Explanation

M&M ch 45 page 951

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47. "The scientific rational for ______________ analgesia is to combine different classes of medications, having different pharmacological mechanisms of action and additive or synergistic effects, to control multiple perioperative pathophsyiological factors that can lead to postoperative pain and its sequelae."

Explanation

M&M Ch 48 page 1098

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48. _____________ can cause spontaneous abortions if a pregnant woman comes in contact with them accidentally (most vulnerable in the 1st trimester)

Explanation

Volatile anesthetics can cause spontaneous abortions if a pregnant woman comes in contact with them accidentally, especially during the first trimester. These anesthetics are inhaled gases or vapors that are used to induce and maintain anesthesia during surgery. They can cross the placenta and potentially harm the developing fetus. It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to volatile anesthetics to prevent any potential risks to their pregnancy.

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49. A-line transducer bracket should be at level of patient's _______________.

Explanation

The A-line transducer bracket should be at the level of the patient's heart. This is important because it allows for accurate measurements of blood pressure and waveform. Placing the bracket at the heart level ensures that the transducer is at the same height as the heart, allowing for proper alignment and minimizing errors in pressure readings.

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50. Microshock occurs ____________.

Explanation

Microshock occurs in the electrically susceptible patient. This refers to a small amount of electric current that passes through the body during a medical procedure, such as during the insertion of a catheter or during cardiac surgery. The electrically susceptible patient is more vulnerable to the effects of this small amount of current, which can potentially cause harm or even death.

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51. A perioperative ulnar neuropathy that is associated with motor dysfunction (an inability to firmly close the little finger against the thumb - a motion of opposition) suggests a more significant ulnar nerve injury and will recover less quickly than a neuropathy with only sensory loss because _________________.

Explanation

A perioperative ulnar neuropathy that is associated with motor dysfunction suggests a more significant ulnar nerve injury and will recover less quickly than a neuropathy with only sensory loss because a more significant ischemic injury has occurred if the motor fibers deep in the ulnar nerve are affected. Ischemic injury refers to a lack of blood supply to the nerve, which can cause more severe damage. Motor fibers, which control muscle movement, require more oxygen and nutrients compared to sensory fibers, which transmit sensory information. Therefore, when motor fibers are affected, it indicates a more significant injury that takes longer to recover.

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52. When one or both gloves must be changed without assistance, which one of the following methods listed below should be used?

Explanation

The open-glove technique should be used when one or both gloves must be changed without assistance. This technique involves removing the first glove by grasping the outside of the cuff and pulling it off, turning it inside out as it is removed. Then, using the bare hand that is now covered by the inside-out glove, the second glove can be removed in the same manner. This technique helps to minimize the risk of contamination and maintain a sterile environment.

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53. An LIM will protect against microshock.

Explanation

An LIM, or Line Isolation Monitor, is a device used to monitor the electrical isolation between the power supply system and the grounded surfaces of medical equipment. It does not protect against microshock directly. Microshock refers to the small electrical currents that can pass through a patient's body during medical procedures. To protect against microshock, additional measures such as grounding, insulation, and proper equipment design are required. Therefore, the statement that an LIM will protect against microshock is false.

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54. The scrub person may use the closed-glove method to change one or both gloves if they become contaminated.

Explanation

The scrub person may use the closed-glove method to change one or both gloves if they become contaminated. This statement is false. The closed-glove method is not used to change gloves if they become contaminated. It is used when the scrub person wants to change gloves without touching the outside of the gloves, for example, when they want to change gloves during a surgical procedure without contaminating their hands. If the gloves become contaminated, it is important to remove them properly and put on a new pair of gloves to maintain proper hygiene and prevent the spread of infection.

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55. When a team member other than the scrub nurse contaminates a glove during the surgical procedure, the scrub nurse regloves the team member using which one of the following methods?

Explanation

Assisted gloving is the method used by the scrub nurse to reglove a team member when their glove is contaminated during a surgical procedure. In assisted gloving, the scrub nurse helps the team member put on a new pair of gloves without contaminating them further. This ensures the sterility of the surgical environment is maintained and reduces the risk of infection or complications for the patient.

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56. Both clonidine and __________________ have anesthetic and analgesic properties and are both used in IV Alpha2-agonist therapy.

Explanation

M&M ch 48 page 1096

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57. All of the following statements apply when drying the hands and arms except:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Roll the towel before discarding into the appropriate container." This statement does not apply when drying the hands and arms. Rolling the towel before discarding it is not necessary or mentioned as a step in the drying process.

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58. The closed-glove technique is used:

Explanation

The closed-glove technique is used only when the hands have never passed through the gown cuffs. This technique ensures that the gloves remain sterile and uncontaminated. By putting on the gloves without passing through the gown cuffs, the risk of introducing pathogens or contaminants from the gown to the gloves is minimized. This is particularly important in sterile environments such as surgical procedures, where maintaining aseptic conditions is crucial to prevent infections.

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59. All of the options below are contraindications of spinal anesthesia, both Absolute and Relative. Which one(s) are Relative? (choose all that apply)

Explanation

The only Relative contraindication listed in class is to "use your best judgment". All of the other listed contraindications here are Absolute. The most serious of these is the "severe aortic or mitral stenosis" contraindication.

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60. "________________ with local anesthetics block afferent nociceptive pathways and are an excellent way to reduce incidence of opioid-related side effects and facilitate recovery."

Explanation

M&M Ch 48 page 1095

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61. Caudal epidural anesthesia is a common regional technique in ___________ patients.

Explanation

Caudal epidural anesthesia is commonly used in pediatric patients. This regional technique involves injecting anesthesia into the caudal epidural space, which is located at the lower end of the spine. Pediatric patients often require anesthesia for various procedures, and caudal epidural anesthesia is a safe and effective option for pain control during surgeries or other medical interventions in this population.

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62. Match the colors that these different monitor readings on the screen in the OR:

Explanation

Taken directly from A-line handout on BB

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63. "The mechanisms of spinal and epidural anesthesia remain speculative. The principal site of action for neuraxial blockade is believed to be the _____________."

Explanation

M&M Ch 45 page 945

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64. Performing a lumbar (subarachnoid) spinal puncture above L1 in an adult (L3 in a child) usually avoids potential needle trauma to the cord.

Explanation

It is actually when performing a lumbar BELOW L1 for an adult and L3 for a child, not above.

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65. "Deleterious cardiovascular effects should be anticipated and steps undertaken to minimize the degree of _______________."

Explanation

M&M Ch 45 page 946

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66. A laser beam of energy can be all of the following except:

Explanation

A laser beam of energy can be invisible, multicolored, derived from an active medium, and travel through a substance without affecting it. However, it cannot have a distinct color because laser beams are typically monochromatic, meaning they consist of only one specific wavelength or color.

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67. Match the spinal meninges:
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68. A recent meta-analysis found that preoperative ________________, for any type of surgery, reduced 

Explanation

The correct answer is smoking cessation. A recent meta-analysis discovered that before undergoing any type of surgery, quitting smoking reduced the risks and complications associated with the procedure. This suggests that patients who stop smoking prior to surgery have better outcomes and a lower chance of experiencing postoperative complications.

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69. Which joint maneuver increases the risk of obturator neuropathy in a patient who is placed in the lithotomy position?

Explanation

Hip abduction for greater than 30 degrees increases the risk of obturator neuropathy in a patient placed in the lithotomy position. This is because excessive hip abduction can stretch or compress the obturator nerve, which runs along the medial aspect of the thigh. Obturator neuropathy can cause symptoms such as pain, numbness, and weakness in the inner thigh and groin area. Therefore, it is important to avoid excessive hip abduction in order to prevent this complication.

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70. From the Patient Positioning Chapter (ch 19): Normal capillaries have a pressure between ___________ mm Hg. Supine patients on a hard surface routinely have a higher pressure.

Explanation

Normal capillaries have a pressure between 23-33 mm Hg. Supine patients on a hard surface routinely have a higher pressure.

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71. The Buie's (Jackknife) Position is typically used for what kind of procedures because position is the same for the site of injection and the procedure?

Explanation

M&M ch 45 page 951

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72. The use of a brush for surgical hand scrubs is not necessary.

Explanation

The statement suggests that using a brush for surgical hand scrubs is not necessary. This means that it is not required or essential to use a brush during the surgical hand scrubbing process.

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73. All 12 thoracic vertebrae articulate with their corresponding ____________.

Explanation

All 12 thoracic vertebrae have connections with their corresponding ribs. This is because the ribs are attached to the thoracic vertebrae through articulations called costovertebral joints. These joints allow for movement and flexibility in the thoracic spine, while also providing stability and support to the ribcage. The articulation between the thoracic vertebrae and ribs is important for maintaining proper posture and facilitating breathing movements.

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74. The purpose of the surgical hand scrub is to:
  1. Remove normal skin flora
  2. Sterilize the skin
  3. Suppress growth of microorganisms
  4. Remove soil and debris.

Explanation

The purpose of the surgical hand scrub is to remove soil and debris from the skin and suppress the growth of microorganisms. Sterilizing the skin is not the purpose of the surgical hand scrub, as it is not possible to completely sterilize the skin. Additionally, removing normal skin flora is not the purpose of the surgical hand scrub, as some normal skin flora is beneficial and helps protect against harmful microorganisms. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 and 4.

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75. Major contraindications to ______________ anesthesia include patient refusal, bleeding diathesis, severe hypovolemia, elevated ICP (particularly with an intracranial mass), and infection at the site of injection.

Explanation

M&M ch 45 page 947

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76. The sterile areas of the gown include the:
  1. Front from two inches below the neck to waist or table level
  2. Gloves and gown sleeve to two inches above the elbow
  3. Sides from axillae to waist or table level
  4. Back of a wraparound gown

Explanation

The sterile areas of the gown include the front from two inches below the neck to waist or table level, and the gloves and gown sleeve to two inches above the elbow. This means that the front of the gown and the area around the gloves and sleeves are considered sterile.

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77. Routine use of Beta Blockers, especially in patients at low risk, has been associated with an increased risk of ___________.

Explanation

Routine use of beta blockers, especially in patients at low risk, has been associated with an increased risk of stroke. Beta blockers are commonly prescribed to patients with high blood pressure, heart disease, and certain other conditions. While they are effective in reducing blood pressure and heart rate, they may also cause a decrease in cerebral blood flow, leading to an increased risk of stroke. This risk is particularly elevated in patients who are already at a low risk for stroke, as the potential benefits of beta blockers may not outweigh the potential harm.

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78. Acetaminophen - oral, rectal, and parenteral - is a common component of multimodal analgesia. Acetaminophen's analgesic effect is _______________ NSAIDs, but its pharnacological profile is safer.

Explanation

Acetaminophen's analgesic effect is 20-30% less than NSAIDs, but its pharmacological profile is safer.

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79. When a scrub person assists another team member with gowning and gloving, he or she does all of the following except:

Explanation

The scrub person should handle the glove on the outside only, not on the inside. This is because the inside of the glove is considered contaminated and should not come into contact with the scrub person's hands. By handling the glove on the outside only, the scrub person can ensure that they maintain aseptic technique and prevent the spread of any potential pathogens.

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80. ____________ blockade interrupts both somatic and visceral painful stimuli.

Explanation

M&M ch 45 page 945

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81. Resident microorganisms:
  1. Live on the skin's surface
  2. Are easy to remove
  3. Live in hair follicles and sweat glands
  4. Are acquired by direct contact

Explanation

Resident microorganisms are microorganisms that live in hair follicles and sweat glands. This means that they are not easy to remove and are not acquired by direct contact. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 only.

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82. "Using the _____________ approach, a needle passes through an oval space between the bony lamina and spinous processes of adjacent vertebra."

Explanation

M&M Ch 45 page 942

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83. In spinal anesthesia, a sudden loss of resistance (to injection of air or saline) is encountered as the needle passes through the ligamentum flavum and enters the epidural space.

Explanation

No, this is true of EPIDURAL anesthesia, not spinal. With spinal you are looking for the swirl of CSF.

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84. "Direct alpha-adrenergic agonists (such as phenylephrine) primarily produce arteriolar constriction and my reflexively increase _______________, increasing systemic vascular resistance."

Explanation

M&M ch 45 page 946

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85. Spinal Pharmacology: _____________ do not cause an increase in duration of lidocaine and bupivacaine, but there is a significant increase with tetracaine (double the duration actually).

Explanation

Vasoconstrictors do not cause an increase in the duration of lidocaine and bupivacaine, but there is a significant increase with tetracaine (double the duration actually). This means that the addition of vasoconstrictors to lidocaine and bupivacaine does not affect the duration of their effects on the spinal cord. However, when vasoconstrictors are added to tetracaine, it significantly prolongs its duration of action.

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86. Nonintubating techniques available for laser surgery of the airway that remove the fire potential of an ETT include all of the following except:

Explanation

All 4 of these options represent nonintubating techniques for laser surgery of an airway.

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87. __________________ has analgesic, anti-hyperalgesic, and anti-inflammatory properties. 

Explanation

M&M Ch 48 page 1096

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88. Put the following steps in order regarding calibrating, or "zeroing", an A-line:

Explanation

Directly from the handout on BB

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89. The following are what type of contraindication of neuraxial blockade?
  • infection at the site of injection
  • patient refusal
  • coagulopathy or other bleeding diathesis
  • severe hypovolemia
  • increased ICP
  • severe aortic stenosis
  • severe mitral stenosis

Explanation

There is a chart on page 948 from M&M Ch 45 that goes over this.

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90. We have to know the Dermatomes. Match the Dermatome below with the Application:
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91. The following are what type of contraindication of neuraxial blockade?
  • sepsis
  • uncooperative patient
  • preexisting neurological deficits 
  • demyelinating lesions
  • stenotic valvular heart lesions
  • left ventricular outflow obstruction (hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy)
  • severe spinal deformity

Explanation

M&M ch 45 page 948

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92. What supplies are needed to set up an A-line (from the list below)? (Choose all that apply)

Explanation

To set up an A-line, the following supplies are needed: arterial catheter (arrow catheter or the 20 gauge angio-cath) to access the artery, a wire (straight- Arrow brand or Cook brand - circular wire) to cannulate the line if needed, sterile gauze to clean the site, Tegaderm dressing to cover the insertion site, Chora-prep to disinfect the area, flushing syringe 10cc to flush the line, and a "pig-tail" to prevent blood backflow. These supplies are necessary for the proper insertion and maintenance of an A-line.

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93. "With knowledge of the sensory _______________, the extent of sensory block can be assessed by a blunted needle."

Explanation

M&M ch 45 page 954

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94. What items, from the list below, are needed to make a transducer set-up for an A-line? (choose all that apply)

Explanation

To set up an A-line transducer, you would need a 500cc bag of Normal Saline (0.9%) to provide the fluid for the transducer system. A pressure bag is required to maintain pressure in the system. A trifuricated transducer set is needed to connect the transducer to the patient's arterial line. A transducer bracket is necessary to secure the transducer in place. A 10cc flush syringe is used to flush the arterial line and ensure accurate readings. Labels for the fluid bag and transducer line are needed for proper identification.

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95. Examples of patients that would be considered ____________ ___________ (2 words) patients are those with a pacemaker or saline-filled catheter.

Explanation

These are patients that are susceptible to microshock, for instance.

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96. The following are what type of contraindication of neuraxial blockade?
  • prior back surgery at the site of injection
  • complicated surgery
  • prolonged operation
  • major blood loss
    • maneuvers that compromise respiration

Explanation

M&M ch 45 page 948

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97. Put the steps of the surgical hand scrub procedure in order (this is not a complete list and does not include gowning - this comes from the handout):

Explanation

Following this you would proceed to the sterile gowning and gloving technique.

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As an Anesthesia Technician, you may be asked to assist with various...
In the event of a fire in the OR, it is important to turn off the flow...
A fire in the operating room requires three components:
Match the following
Spinal Pharmacology: Gravity has no affect on Local Anesthetics during...
Match the following
Which of the following would not be required to be available...
Anatomy review: There are 33 Vertebrae, match the number of vertebrae...
A _____________ mask is used when treating patients with TB.
Epidural anesthesia is slower in onset (10-20 mins) and may not be as...
Which is the primary reason to pad peripheral nerves when positioning...
Vasoconstrictors to what to spinal blocks?
All of the following statements are true except:
It is permissible to scrub without removing rings.
The dispersive pad for electrosurgery _______________.
Which of the following are potential complications of nerve blocks?
The most common perioperative neuropathy involves which peripheral...
What does LIM stand for?
Preoperative fasting and surgical stress induce ______________...
Wearing artificial or acrylic nails in the surgical setting is:
Which of the following my increase the risk of perioperative...
"Neuraxial blockade of nociceptive stimuli by epidural and spinal...
"Transverse adbominis plan (TAP) block has been used for...
Appropriate surgical attire for the scrub person includes: ...
When taking off the gown at the end of the case, the gloves' cuffs...
Risks associated with jet ventilation include:
"Because neuraxial anesthesia techniques are commonly employed...
Benefits of laser over other surgical techniques include all of the...
What gland can be affected by radiation?
The proper response to a LIM alarm is to:
The recommended type of fire extinguisher for use in an OR is:
A Thoracic Blockade (T1 - T4 Blockade) causes unopposed vagal...
Because of concerns of loss of power, essential equipment in the OR...
Which is the most common cause of perioperative peroneal neuropathy in...
RACE stands for:
______________________ have been used to blunt the sympathetic...
Which maneuver increases the risk of brachial plexopathy in a...
During gowning, the circulating nurse can assists the scrub person by:
_____________ refers to the density of a substance compared to...
Which of the following is false regarding spinal anesthesia?
Where should the scrubbed person hold onto his or her gown when...
Which of the following statements is false regarding a test...
___________________ pain is defined as chronic pain that continues...
Match the saggital sections:
When performing a surgical scrub with an antimicrobial agent, how far...
What patient position is commonly compared to the "fetal...
"The scientific rational for ______________ analgesia is to...
_____________ can cause spontaneous abortions if a pregnant woman...
A-line transducer bracket should be at level of patient's...
Microshock occurs ____________.
A perioperative ulnar neuropathy that is associated with motor...
When one or both gloves must be changed without assistance, which one...
An LIM will protect against microshock.
The scrub person may use the closed-glove method to change one or both...
When a team member other than the scrub nurse contaminates a glove...
Both clonidine and __________________ have anesthetic and analgesic...
All of the following statements apply when drying the hands and arms...
The closed-glove technique is used:
All of the options below are contraindications of spinal anesthesia,...
"________________ with local anesthetics block afferent...
Caudal epidural anesthesia is a common regional technique in...
Match the colors that these different monitor readings on the screen...
"The mechanisms of spinal and epidural anesthesia remain...
Performing a lumbar (subarachnoid) spinal puncture above L1 in an...
"Deleterious cardiovascular effects should be anticipated and...
A laser beam of energy can be all of the following except:
Match the spinal meninges:
A recent meta-analysis found that preoperative ________________, for...
Which joint maneuver increases the risk of obturator neuropathy in a...
From the Patient Positioning Chapter (ch 19): Normal capillaries have...
The Buie's (Jackknife) Position is typically used for what kind of...
The use of a brush for surgical hand scrubs is not necessary.
All 12 thoracic vertebrae articulate with their corresponding...
The purpose of the surgical hand scrub is to: ...
Major contraindications to ______________ anesthesia include patient...
The sterile areas of the gown include the: ...
Routine use of Beta Blockers, especially in patients at low risk, has...
Acetaminophen - oral, rectal, and parenteral - is a common component...
When a scrub person assists another team member with gowning and...
____________ blockade interrupts both somatic and visceral painful...
Resident microorganisms: ...
"Using the _____________ approach, a needle passes through an...
In spinal anesthesia, a sudden loss of resistance (to injection of air...
"Direct alpha-adrenergic agonists (such as phenylephrine)...
Spinal Pharmacology: _____________ do not cause an increase in...
Nonintubating techniques available for laser surgery of the airway...
__________________ has analgesic, anti-hyperalgesic, and...
Put the following steps in order regarding calibrating, or...
The following are what type of contraindication of neuraxial...
We have to know the Dermatomes. Match the Dermatome below with the...
The following are what type of contraindication of neuraxial...
What supplies are needed to set up an A-line (from the list below)?...
"With knowledge of the sensory _______________, the extent of...
What items, from the list below, are needed to make a transducer...
Examples of patients that would be considered ____________ ___________...
The following are what type of contraindication of neuraxial...
Put the steps of the surgical hand scrub procedure in order (this is...
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