Review In Microbiology

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Review In Microbiology

This 100-item multiple choice examination covers the basics of Microbiology. Included are some topics in Parasitology, Serology, and Immunology. You may answer this test for only 63 minutes. Please enter your first and last names in the field. Multiple attempts are allowed, just key in your name at every attempt.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is not a eukaryote?
    • A. 

      Fungus

    • B. 

      Virus

    • C. 

      Protozoan

    • D. 

      Arthropod

    • E. 

      Helminth

  • 2. 
    An aqueous or alcohol solution of a single basic dye is a
    • A. 

      Simple stain

    • B. 

      Mordant

    • C. 

      Counterstain

    • D. 

      Decolorizer

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 3. 
    Safranin red is used in Gram staining as a
    • A. 

      Decolorizer

    • B. 

      Primary stain

    • C. 

      Mordant

    • D. 

      Secondary stain

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 4. 
    The commonly employed negative staining procedure in the lab uses
    • A. 

      Dorner's stain

    • B. 

      Gram's iodine

    • C. 

      Nigrosin

    • D. 

      Levaditi silver impregnation

    • E. 

      Fulton-Schaffer's staining method

  • 5. 
    Assume that you are viewing a Gram-stained field of red cocci and blue bacilli through a microscope. You can safely conclude that you have
    • A. 

      Made a mistake in staining.

    • B. 

      Two different species.

    • C. 

      Old bacterial cells.

    • D. 

      Young bacterial cells.

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 6. 
    A specific antibiotic disrupts plasma membranes by combining with sterols. It will affect all of the following cells except
    • A. 

      Animal cells.

    • B. 

      Bacterial cells.

    • C. 

      Fungal cells.

    • D. 

      Mycoplasma cells.

    • E. 

      Plant cells.

  • 7. 
    The enzyme portion that serve as the binding site for regulator molecules is known as the
    • A. 

      Active site.

    • B. 

      Allosteric site.

    • C. 

      Holoenzyme.

    • D. 

      Cofactor

    • E. 

      Activator.

  • 8. 
    The following statements describe fermentation except that it
    • A. 

      Releases energy from sugars or other organic molecules such as amino acids, organic acids, purines, and pyrimidines

    • B. 

      Produces a great yield of ATP

    • C. 

      Uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor.

    • D. 

      Does not require the use of the Krebs cycle or an electron transport chain

    • E. 

      Does not require oxygen

  • 9. 
    The bacterial phase of growth wherein the microbial population is undergoing a period of intense metabolic activity involving, in particular, synthesis of enzymes and various molecules is the
    • A. 

      Lag phase.

    • B. 

      Logarithmic phase.

    • C. 

      Stationary phase.

    • D. 

      Death phase.

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 10. 
    All of the following are direct methods of measurement of bacterial growth except
    • A. 

      Plate count

    • B. 

      Pour plate and spread plate

    • C. 

      Turbidimetric method

    • D. 

      Petroff-Hausser cell counter

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 11. 
    The cultivation of anaerobic bacteria would require the use of
    • A. 

      General isolation medium

    • B. 

      Reducing medium

    • C. 

      Special medium

    • D. 

      Selective medium

    • E. 

      Differential medium

  • 12. 
    Which of the following statements is/are true regarding alcohol?
    • A. 

      A 70% isopropyl alcohol solution is a sterilizing agent.

    • B. 

      It denatures proteins and damages lipids thus altering membrane permeability.

    • C. 

      It kills all forms of microbial life including the endospores.

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is used to control microbial growth in foods?
    • A. 

      Organic acids

    • B. 

      Alcohols

    • C. 

      Aldehydes

    • D. 

      Heavy metals

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 14. 
    Specialized transduction would not be possible without
    • A. 

      Jumping genes.

    • B. 

      Pol gene.

    • C. 

      Bacteriophages.

    • D. 

      Oncogenes.

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 15. 
    Which among the following taxonomic groups is the most specific?
    • A. 

      Phylum

    • B. 

      Order

    • C. 

      Kingdom

    • D. 

      Family

    • E. 

      Class

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is not true about scientific nomenclature?
    • A. 

      Each name is specific.

    • B. 

      Names vary with geographical location.

    • C. 

      The names are standardized.

    • D. 

      Each name consists of a genus and a specific epithet.

    • E. 

      It was first designed by Linnaeus.

  • 17. 
    A patient suspected of UTI submitted a blue-green colored urine specimen for microbial analysis. The color of her urine gives a preliminary clue that the causative agent is
    • A. 

      Escherichia

    • B. 

      Pseudomonas

    • C. 

      Campylobacter

    • D. 

      Burkholderia

    • E. 

      Afipia

  • 18. 
    Multicellular fungi are
    • A. 

      Molds

    • B. 

      Yeasts

    • C. 

      Dimorphic

    • D. 

      Coenocytic

    • E. 

      Pathologic

  • 19. 
    Which is the causative agent of a fungal skin infecton characterized by hypopigmentation and fluorsecene under Wood's lamp?
    • A. 

      Malassezia furfur

    • B. 

      Coccidioides immitis

    • C. 

      Candida albicans

    • D. 

      Blastomyces dermatitidis

    • E. 

      Rhizopus

  • 20. 
    Protozoans with flagella are classified under
    • A. 

      Ciliophora

    • B. 

      Mastigophora

    • C. 

      Microspora

    • D. 

      Euglenozoa

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 21. 
    Which is/are (a) vector/s for Plasmodium parasites?
    • A. 

      Female Aedes mosquito

    • B. 

      Female Anopheles mosquito

    • C. 

      Female deer mouse

    • D. 

      Female Colorado tick

    • E. 

      A and B only

  • 22. 
    Which of the following is true regarding protozoans?
    • A. 

      The vegetative form of is the cyst.

    • B. 

      Protozoans are prokaryotic organisms.

    • C. 

      Sexual reproduction is by binary fission.

    • D. 

      Asexual reproduction can be achieved through schizogony.

    • E. 

      During ciliate conjugation, two haploid nuclei fuse to form a merozoite.

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is true regarding viral multiplication?
    • A. 

      Animal viruses do not undergo uncoating.

    • B. 

      Bacteriophages attach to plasma membrane proteins and glycoproteins.

    • C. 

      Biosynthesis of bacteriophages can take place in the host cell's DNA or RNA.

    • D. 

      Enveloped viruses bud out from its host animal cell.

    • E. 

      Lysogenic cycle always ends in the rupture of the host cell.

  • 24. 
    The ability of a virus to infect an organism is regulated by
    • A. 

      The host species.

    • B. 

      The type of cells.

    • C. 

      The availability of an attachment site.

    • D. 

      Cell factors necessary for viral replication.

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 25. 
    Gas gangrene is caused by
    • A. 

      Chromobacterium violaceum

    • B. 

      Virbio cholerae

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • D. 

      Chlamydia trichomatis

    • E. 

      Clostridium perfringens

  • 26. 
    The predominating type of leucocytes present in the circulation
    • A. 

      Neutrophils

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Basophils

    • D. 

      T cells

    • E. 

      Monocytes

  • 27. 
    The ID50 for Campylobacter sp. is 500 cells; the ID50 for Cryptosporidium sp. is 100 cells. Which of the following statements is not true?
    • A. 

      Both microbes are pathogens.

    • B. 

      Both microbes produce infections in 50% of the inoculated hosts.

    • C. 

      Cryptosporidium is more virulent than Campylobacter.

    • D. 

      Campylobacter and Cryptosporidium are equally virulent; they cause infections in the same number of test animals.

    • E. 

      The severity of infections caused by Campylobacter and Cryptosporidium cannot be determined by the information provided.

  • 28. 
    The earliest smallpox vaccines were infected crusts rubbed onto the skin of a healthy person. The recipient of such a vaccine usually developed a mild case of smallpox, recovered, and was immune thereafter. The most likely reason this vaccine did not kill more people is:
    • A. 

      Skin is the wrong portal of entry for small pox.

    • B. 

      The vaccine consisted of a mild form of the virus.

    • C. 

      Smallpox is normally transmitted by skin-to-skin contact.

    • D. 

      Smallpox is a virus.

    • E. 

      The virus mutated.

  • 29. 
    Which of the following host defenses is not considered as a secondary lymphoid organ?
    • A. 

      Adenoids

    • B. 

      Mucosal associated lymphoid tissues

    • C. 

      Thymus

    • D. 

      Lymph nodes

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is a double stranded RNA virus?
    • A. 

      Papovaviridae

    • B. 

      Caliciviridae

    • C. 

      Orthomyxoviridae

    • D. 

      Togaviridae

    • E. 

      Reoviridae

  • 31. 
    The following can produce endotoxins except
    • A. 

      Rothia

    • B. 

      Escherichia

    • C. 

      Serratia

    • D. 

      Pantoea

    • E. 

      Ewingella

  • 32. 
    The causative agent of "kissing disease" commonly found among university students is
    • A. 

      Cytomegalovirus

    • B. 

      Human Herpes Virus - 6

    • C. 

      Human Papillomavirus - 8

    • D. 

      Epstein Barr Virus

    • E. 

      Coxsackie A virus

  • 33. 
    Which is/are considered as the first line of defense against pathogens?
    • A. 

      Phagocytosis

    • B. 

      Humoral immunity

    • C. 

      Cell mediated immunity

    • D. 

      Intact skin

    • E. 

      B and C

  • 34. 
    Chlamydia can prevent the formation of phagolysosomes and therefore can
    • A. 

      Avoid being phagocytized.

    • B. 

      Avoid destruction by complement.

    • C. 

      Prevent adherence.

    • D. 

      Avoid being digested.

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 35. 
    Toxoid administration is an example of what form of acquired immunity?
    • A. 

      Natural active

    • B. 

      Natural passive

    • C. 

      Artificial active

    • D. 

      Artifical passive

  • 36. 
    ABO blood typing can simply be performed by mixing capillary blood with different antisera of known specificity. This represents what serologic reaction?
    • A. 

      Flocculation

    • B. 

      Agglutination

    • C. 

      Enzyme immunoassay

    • D. 

      Neutralization

    • E. 

      Complement fixation

  • 37. 
    Which of the following is incorrect?
    • A. 

      IgG's protects the fetus and newborn.

    • B. 

      IgD stimulates the transformation of B cells to antibody forming cells.

    • C. 

      A single molecule of immunoglobulin has two anitgen binding fragments.

    • D. 

      IgE is most abundant in body fluids and secretions.

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 38. 
    Arragne the following in the correct sequence to elicit an antibody response: (1) T-helper cells recognizes B cells. (2) APC phagocytizes antigen. (3) Antigen fragment is exposed on surface of APC. (4) T-helper cell recognizes antigen digest and MHC. (5) B cell recognizes antigen.
    • A. 

      1, 2, 3, 4, 5

    • B. 

      5, 4, 3, 2, 1

    • C. 

      3, 4, 5, 1, 2

    • D. 

      2, 3, 4, 1, 5

    • E. 

      4, 5, 3, 1, 2

  • 39. 
    Patients with Chediak-Higashi syndrome suffer from various types of cancer. These patients are most likely lacking which of the following:
    • A. 

      TD cells

    • B. 

      TH cells

    • C. 

      B cells

    • D. 

      NK cells

    • E. 

      Ts cells

  • 40. 
    Patient's serum, influenza virus, sheep red blood cells, and antisheep red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza?
    • A. 

      Hemolysis

    • B. 

      Hemagglutination

    • C. 

      No hemagglutination

    • D. 

      No hemolysis

    • E. 

      Precipitin ring forms

  • 41. 
    Transfusion reaction due to incompatible patient and donor blood represents which type of hypersensitivity?
    • A. 

      Type I

    • B. 

      Type II

    • C. 

      Type III

    • D. 

      Type IV

    • E. 

      Type V

  • 42. 
    A graft from a mother to her child is a/an
    • A. 

      Autograft

    • B. 

      Allograft

    • C. 

      Xenograft

    • D. 

      Syngeneic graft

    • E. 

      Heterograft

  • 43. 
    An Rh negative woman became pregnant for the first time with an Rh negative baby. Which is/are most likely to occur?
    • A. 

      Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) would occur due to the maternal antibodies that would act on fetal red blood cells.

    • B. 

      The child will be born safely.

    • C. 

      There is a 50-50 chance of survival of the child.

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 44. 
    Antibacterial drugs that inhibit bacterial growth are
    • A. 

      Bactericidal

    • B. 

      Bacteriostatic

    • C. 

      A or B

    • D. 

      Neither

  • 45. 
    Which of the following drugs inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis?
    • A. 

      Penicillin V

    • B. 

      Erythromycin

    • C. 

      Amikacin

    • D. 

      Linezolid

    • E. 

      Polymyxin B

  • 46. 
    Which antifungal drug is active against superficial dermatophytic fungal infections of the hair and nails?
    • A. 

      Griseofulvin

    • B. 

      Echinocandins

    • C. 

      Flucytocine

    • D. 

      Nystatin

    • E. 

      Tolnaftate

  • 47. 
    Which of the following is/are incorrect?
    • A. 

      Antibiotic susceptibility test by disk diffusion method is a quantitative rather than a qualitative method.

    • B. 

      A microdilution or microtiter plate can be used for Kirby Bauer method.

    • C. 

      A broth dilution test is often useful in determining MBC only.

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 48. 
    Which is a severe adverse reaction to sulfonamides?
    • A. 

      Criggler Najar syndrome

    • B. 

      Steven Johnson syndrome

    • C. 

      Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

    • D. 

      Ototoxicity

    • E. 

      Reyes syndrome

  • 49. 
    Hereditary drug resistance factors are carried by
    • A. 

      Plasmids

    • B. 

      Transposons

    • C. 

      A and B

    • D. 

      Neither

  • 50. 
    Hand, foot, and mouth disease is caused by
    • A. 

      Enterovirus 72

    • B. 

      Coxsackievirus A

    • C. 

      Lymphocryptovirus

    • D. 

      Rotavirus

    • E. 

      Polyomavirus

  • 51. 
    Aseptic meningitis can be due to
    • A. 

      Neisseria

    • B. 

      Streptococcus

    • C. 

      Poliovirus

    • D. 

      Listeria

    • E. 

      Haemophilus

  • 52. 
    Oral polio vaccine is more preferred because
    • A. 

      It mimics the natural disease process.

    • B. 

      It is more effective though more expensive.

    • C. 

      Administration requires a highly trained healthcare personnel.

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      A, B, and C

  • 53. 
    Which of the following does not describe the pathology of rabies infection?
    • A. 

      Virus replicates in the brain of the victim.

    • B. 

      Virus ascends to the spinal cord.

    • C. 

      Virus enters tissue from saliva of a rabid animal.

    • D. 

      Virus descends to salivary glands and other organs of victim.

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 54. 
    Prions can infect the nervous system.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 55. 
    A lesion was swabbed from a patient suspected of leprosy. What staining method must be employed?
    • A. 

      Anthony's

    • B. 

      Ziehl Neelsen

    • C. 

      Gram stain

    • D. 

      Negative staining

    • E. 

      Fontana Tribondeau

  • 56. 
    Which causes common colds during the summer season?
    • A. 

      Coronavirus

    • B. 

      Norwalk agent

    • C. 

      Influenza A virus

    • D. 

      Rhinovirus

    • E. 

      Influenza B virus

  • 57. 
    Lyme disease is caused by
    • A. 

      Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

    • B. 

      Yersinia pestis

    • C. 

      Leptospira interrogans

    • D. 

      Borrelia burdorgferi

    • E. 

      Clostridium botulinum

  • 58. 
    OX2, OX19, and OXK are Proteus antigens used for the serodiagnosis of Rickettsial infections. OXK is most specific for Rickettsia tsutsugamushi that causes
    • A. 

      Ehrlichiosis

    • B. 

      Rickettsial pox

    • C. 

      Brill-Zinsser disease

    • D. 

      Rocky mountain spotted fever

    • E. 

      Scrub typhus

  • 59. 
    All of the following causes hemorrhagic fever except
    • A. 

      Yellow fever virus

    • B. 

      Dengue virus

    • C. 

      Hantavirus

    • D. 

      Marburg virus

    • E. 

      Vacuolating viruses

  • 60. 
    Which organism/s is/are commonly associated with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or Vincent's disease?
    • A. 

      Prevotella intermedia

    • B. 

      Sterptococcus mutans

    • C. 

      Lactobacillus spp.

    • D. 

      Morganella morganii

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 61. 
    Pathologic Staphylococcus species are
    • A. 

      Catalase positive

    • B. 

      Catalase negative

    • C. 

      Coagulase positive

    • D. 

      Coagulase negative

  • 62. 
    A spiral-shaped microaerophilic bacterium observed in the biopsied tissue of stomach ulcer patients is most probably
    • A. 

      Spirillum

    • B. 

      Helicobacter

    • C. 

      Yersinia

    • D. 

      Nocardia

    • E. 

      Treponema

  • 63. 
    Which hepatitis is caused by a DNA virus?
    • A. 

      Hepatitis A

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B

    • C. 

      Hepatitis C

    • D. 

      Hepatitis D

    • E. 

      Hepatitis E

  • 64. 
    Non-A-Non-B (NANB) hepatitis is a synonym for
    • A. 

      Hepatitis A

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B

    • C. 

      Hepatitis C

    • D. 

      Hepatitis D

    • E. 

      Hepatitis E

  • 65. 
    A patient developed hepatitis B infection and subsequent hepatitis D infection. This condition is known as
    • A. 

      Megainfection

    • B. 

      Coinfection

    • C. 

      Superinfection

    • D. 

      Septicemia

    • E. 

      Viremia

  • 66. 
    Ingestion of rye or cereal grains contaminated with ergot alkaloids is commonly associated with
    • A. 

      Aspergillus flavus

    • B. 

      Claviceps purpurea

    • C. 

      Cryptococcus neoformans

    • D. 

      Cryptosporidium parvum

    • E. 

      Trichophyton mentagrophytes

  • 67. 
    Periodontitis is caused by numerous bacteria, primarily
    • A. 

      Streptococcus

    • B. 

      Prevotella

    • C. 

      Proteus

    • D. 

      Porphyromonas

    • E. 

      Proprionibacterium

  • 68. 
    A streptococcal virulence factor that causes hemolysis of ertyhrocytes
    • A. 

      DNAse

    • B. 

      Streptokinase

    • C. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • D. 

      Streptolysin O

    • E. 

      Streptodornase

  • 69. 
    All are oncogenic DNA viruses except
    • A. 

      Adenoviridae

    • B. 

      Papovaviridae

    • C. 

      Poxviridae

    • D. 

      Herpesviridae

    • E. 

      Paramyxoviridae

  • 70. 
    Biohazardous wastes should be disposed in
    • A. 

      Yellow garbage bags

    • B. 

      Red garbage bags

    • C. 

      Green garbage bags

    • D. 

      Black garbage bags

    • E. 

      Gray garbage bags

  • 71. 
    Which is a characteristic of primary syphilis?
    • A. 

      Condylamata lata

    • B. 

      Gumma

    • C. 

      Chancre

    • D. 

      Hutchinson's tooth

    • E. 

      Nerve deafness

  • 72. 
    Bonds that link heavy-heavy chains and heavy-light chains in an immunoglobulin are called
    • A. 

      Covalent bonds

    • B. 

      Ionic bonds

    • C. 

      Disulfide bonds

    • D. 

      Peptide bonds

    • E. 

      Gylycosidic linkages

  • 73. 
    Which is a normal microbiota of the nasophaynx and oropharynx that can cause white creamy patches on the oral mucous membranes most commonly seen on the tongue of immunocompromised patients?
    • A. 

      Candida albicans

    • B. 

      Yersinia enterocolitica

    • C. 

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae

    • D. 

      Neisseria meningitidis

    • E. 

      Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans

  • 74. 
    Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by
    • A. 

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    • B. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • C. 

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 75. 
    What drug is indicated for methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus?
    • A. 

      Amphotericin

    • B. 

      Vancomycin

    • C. 

      Cilastatin

    • D. 

      Meropenem

    • E. 

      Trimethoprim

  • 76. 
    A distinguishing characteristic absent on a gram negative cell wall but present on a gram positive cell wall is/are
    • A. 

      Porin

    • B. 

      Murein layer

    • C. 

      Lipopolysaccharide

    • D. 

      Teichoic acids

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 77. 
    Which two statements are incorrect? (Select two answers)
    • A. 

      The periplasmic space is found only on a gram negative cell wall.

    • B. 

      Fungal and bacterial spores are primarily for reproduction.

    • C. 

      A bacterial cell entirely covered with flagella is referred to as peritrichous.

    • D. 

      Gram negative cell has no peptidoglycan layer.

  • 78. 
    Which HIV antigens interact with CD4 receptors on host cell membrane?
    • A. 

      Gp36

    • B. 

      P24

    • C. 

      Gp41

    • D. 

      Gp120

    • E. 

      Gp160

  • 79. 
    A gram positive bacteria with endospores occuring in soils and infect grazing animals, proliferating in blood; inhalation of endospores causes especially dangerous type
    • A. 

      Clostridium

    • B. 

      Bacillus

    • C. 

      Veillonella

    • D. 

      Planococcus

    • E. 

      Aerococcus

  • 80. 
    The picture shows the microsopic examination of a sputum smear prepared and stained using acid fast technique. The color imparted by acid fast bacilli is due to which stain?
    • A. 

      Methylene blue

    • B. 

      Safranin red

    • C. 

      Congo red

    • D. 

      Crystal violet

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 81. 
    The picture shows a fungal infection caused by Trichophyton rubrum, T. mentagrophytes, or Epidermophyton floccosum. What type of cutaneous mycoses does this represent?
    • A. 

      Tinea flava

    • B. 

      Tinea corporis

    • C. 

      Tinea pedis

    • D. 

      Tinea imbricata

    • E. 

      Tinea capitis

  • 82. 
    The picture shows the setup for which test?
    • A. 

      Precipitation test by radial immunodiffusion

    • B. 

      Microdilution test

    • C. 

      MBC/MIC test

    • D. 

      McFarlane test

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 83. 
    Bacterial spores are mainly composed of
    • A. 

      Osmic acid

    • B. 

      Calcium dipocolinic acid

    • C. 

      NAG and NAM

    • D. 

      Amino acids

    • E. 

      A, B, and C

  • 84. 
    Which product/s is/are part of the cell mediated immune response?
    • A. 

      Cytokines

    • B. 

      Properdin

    • C. 

      Interferon-alpha

    • D. 

      Beta lysine

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 85. 
    Hemorrhagic fever caused by Hantavirus is transmitted through
    • A. 

      Moquitoes

    • B. 

      Deer mouse droppings

    • C. 

      Horses

    • D. 

      Cattles

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 86. 
    The viral genome can be a DNA, an RNA, or both.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 87. 
    Which is the causative agent of cat-scratch disease?
    • A. 

      Bartonella baciliformis

    • B. 

      Bartonella quintana

    • C. 

      Bartonella henselae

    • D. 

      Bartonella elizabethae

    • E. 

      Bartonella clarridgeiae

  • 88. 
    Which Bordetella species can cause whooping cough?
    • A. 

      B. pertussis

    • B. 

      B. parapertussis

    • C. 

      B. bronchiseptica

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      A and C only

  • 89. 
    A solid culture medium contains ____ agar.
    • A. 

      1.5 - 3%

    • B. 

      10 - 15%

    • C. 

      0.5 - 1%

    • D. 

      4.5 - 6%

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 90. 
    Which among the following enhancements can be used for the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria?
    • A. 

      Sodium thiomerzal

    • B. 

      Sodium caprylate

    • C. 

      Sodium thioglycolate

    • D. 

      Sodium azide

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 91. 
    Which bacterial structures are most resistant to physical and chemical agents?
    • A. 

      Vegetative cells

    • B. 

      Endospores

    • C. 

      Flagella

    • D. 

      Capsule

    • E. 

      Slime layer

  • 92. 
    When stained by Gram staining method, acid fast bacilli will stain
    • A. 

      Pink to red, gram negative

    • B. 

      Violet to blue, gram negative

    • C. 

      Pink to red, gram positive

    • D. 

      Violet to blue, gram positive

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 93. 
    The concentration of nutrient agar (to be used as a solid tubed medium) after reconstitution must be
    • A. 

      34.2 g/L

    • B. 

      28.0 g/L

    • C. 

      25.0 g/L

    • D. 

      30.5 g/L

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 94. 
    Which special stain is used to demonstrate cell wall deficient bacteria?
    • A. 

      Hiss stain

    • B. 

      Dienes stain

    • C. 

      India ink negative staining

    • D. 

      Methylene blue

    • E. 

      Muir stain

  • 95. 
    Bacilli can divide both on their long and short axes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 96. 
    Bacteria with tapered ends are called
    • A. 

      Palisading

    • B. 

      Fusiform

    • C. 

      Fastidious

    • D. 

      Pleomorphic

    • E. 

      Any of the above

  • 97. 
    Which is a round shaped bacteria that divides into two planes and results to cells that remain in groups of four?
    • A. 

      Sarcina

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus

    • C. 

      Gaffkya

    • D. 

      Neisseria

    • E. 

      Heliococcus

  • 98. 
    The mordant incorporated in the primary stain of the Ziehl Neelsen staining method for acid fast bacilli is
    • A. 

      Phenol

    • B. 

      Steam

    • C. 

      Lugol's Iodine

    • D. 

      Gram's iodine

    • E. 

      A and B

  • 99. 
    Which feature differentiates Chlamydia and Rickettsia from viruses?
    • A. 

      Obligate intracellular parasitism

    • B. 

      Cultivation in living tissues

    • C. 

      Genome

    • D. 

      A, B, and C

    • E. 

      None of the above