Review In Microbiology

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Review In Microbiology - Quiz

This 100-item multiple choice examination covers the basics of Microbiology. Included are some topics in Parasitology, Serology, and Immunology. You may answer this test for only 63 minutes. Please enter your first and last names in the field. Multiple attempts are allowed, just key in your name at every attempt.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is not a eukaryote?

    • A.

      Fungus

    • B.

      Virus

    • C.

      Protozoan

    • D.

      Arthropod

    • E.

      Helminth

    Correct Answer
    B. Virus
  • 2. 

    An aqueous or alcohol solution of a single basic dye is a

    • A.

      Simple stain

    • B.

      Mordant

    • C.

      Counterstain

    • D.

      Decolorizer

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Simple stain
  • 3. 

    Safranin red is used in Gram staining as a

    • A.

      Decolorizer

    • B.

      Primary stain

    • C.

      Mordant

    • D.

      Secondary stain

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Secondary stain
  • 4. 

    The commonly employed negative staining procedure in the lab uses

    • A.

      Dorner's stain

    • B.

      Gram's iodine

    • C.

      Nigrosin

    • D.

      Levaditi silver impregnation

    • E.

      Fulton-Schaffer's staining method

    Correct Answer
    C. Nigrosin
  • 5. 

    Assume that you are viewing a Gram-stained field of red cocci and blue bacilli through a microscope. You can safely conclude that you have

    • A.

      Made a mistake in staining.

    • B.

      Two different species.

    • C.

      Old bacterial cells.

    • D.

      Young bacterial cells.

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Two different species.
  • 6. 

    A specific antibiotic disrupts plasma membranes by combining with sterols. It will affect all of the following cells except

    • A.

      Animal cells.

    • B.

      Bacterial cells.

    • C.

      Fungal cells.

    • D.

      Mycoplasma cells.

    • E.

      Plant cells.

    Correct Answer
    D. Mycoplasma cells.
  • 7. 

    The enzyme portion that serve as the binding site for regulator molecules is known as the

    • A.

      Active site.

    • B.

      Allosteric site.

    • C.

      Holoenzyme.

    • D.

      Cofactor

    • E.

      Activator.

    Correct Answer
    B. Allosteric site.
  • 8. 

    The following statements describe fermentation except that it

    • A.

      Releases energy from sugars or other organic molecules such as amino acids, organic acids, purines, and pyrimidines

    • B.

      Produces a great yield of ATP

    • C.

      Uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor.

    • D.

      Does not require the use of the Krebs cycle or an electron transport chain

    • E.

      Does not require oxygen

    Correct Answer
    B. Produces a great yield of ATP
  • 9. 

    The bacterial phase of growth wherein the microbial population is undergoing a period of intense metabolic activity involving, in particular, synthesis of enzymes and various molecules is the

    • A.

      Lag phase.

    • B.

      Logarithmic phase.

    • C.

      Stationary phase.

    • D.

      Death phase.

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Lag phase.
  • 10. 

    All of the following are direct methods of measurement of bacterial growth except

    • A.

      Plate count

    • B.

      Pour plate and spread plate

    • C.

      Turbidimetric method

    • D.

      Petroff-Hausser cell counter

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Turbidimetric method
  • 11. 

    The cultivation of anaerobic bacteria would require the use of

    • A.

      General isolation medium

    • B.

      Reducing medium

    • C.

      Special medium

    • D.

      Selective medium

    • E.

      Differential medium

    Correct Answer
    B. Reducing medium
  • 12. 

    Which of the following statements is/are true regarding alcohol?

    • A.

      A 70% isopropyl alcohol solution is a sterilizing agent.

    • B.

      It denatures proteins and damages lipids thus altering membrane permeability.

    • C.

      It kills all forms of microbial life including the endospores.

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. It denatures proteins and damages lipids thus altering membrane permeability.
  • 13. 

    Which of the following is used to control microbial growth in foods?

    • A.

      Organic acids

    • B.

      Alcohols

    • C.

      Aldehydes

    • D.

      Heavy metals

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Organic acids
  • 14. 

    Specialized transduction would not be possible without

    • A.

      Jumping genes.

    • B.

      Pol gene.

    • C.

      Bacteriophages.

    • D.

      Oncogenes.

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Bacteriophages.
  • 15. 

    Which among the following taxonomic groups is the most specific?

    • A.

      Phylum

    • B.

      Order

    • C.

      Kingdom

    • D.

      Family

    • E.

      Class

    Correct Answer
    D. Family
  • 16. 

    Which of the following is not true about scientific nomenclature?

    • A.

      Each name is specific.

    • B.

      Names vary with geographical location.

    • C.

      The names are standardized.

    • D.

      Each name consists of a genus and a specific epithet.

    • E.

      It was first designed by Linnaeus.

    Correct Answer
    B. Names vary with geographical location.
  • 17. 

    A patient suspected of UTI submitted a blue-green colored urine specimen for microbial analysis. The color of her urine gives a preliminary clue that the causative agent is

    • A.

      Escherichia

    • B.

      Pseudomonas

    • C.

      Campylobacter

    • D.

      Burkholderia

    • E.

      Afipia

    Correct Answer
    B. Pseudomonas
  • 18. 

    Multicellular fungi are

    • A.

      Molds

    • B.

      Yeasts

    • C.

      Dimorphic

    • D.

      Coenocytic

    • E.

      Pathologic

    Correct Answer
    A. Molds
  • 19. 

    Which is the causative agent of a fungal skin infecton characterized by hypopigmentation and fluorsecene under Wood's lamp?

    • A.

      Malassezia furfur

    • B.

      Coccidioides immitis

    • C.

      Candida albicans

    • D.

      Blastomyces dermatitidis

    • E.

      Rhizopus

    Correct Answer
    A. Malassezia furfur
  • 20. 

    Protozoans with flagella are classified under

    • A.

      Ciliophora

    • B.

      Mastigophora

    • C.

      Microspora

    • D.

      Euglenozoa

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Mastigophora
  • 21. 

    Which is/are (a) vector/s for Plasmodium parasites?

    • A.

      Female Aedes mosquito

    • B.

      Female Anopheles mosquito

    • C.

      Female deer mouse

    • D.

      Female Colorado tick

    • E.

      A and B only

    Correct Answer
    D. Female Colorado tick
  • 22. 

    Which of the following is true regarding protozoans?

    • A.

      The vegetative form of is the cyst.

    • B.

      Protozoans are prokaryotic organisms.

    • C.

      Sexual reproduction is by binary fission.

    • D.

      Asexual reproduction can be achieved through schizogony.

    • E.

      During ciliate conjugation, two haploid nuclei fuse to form a merozoite.

    Correct Answer
    D. Asexual reproduction can be achieved through schizogony.
  • 23. 

    Which of the following is true regarding viral multiplication?

    • A.

      Animal viruses do not undergo uncoating.

    • B.

      Bacteriophages attach to plasma membrane proteins and glycoproteins.

    • C.

      Biosynthesis of bacteriophages can take place in the host cell's DNA or RNA.

    • D.

      Enveloped viruses bud out from its host animal cell.

    • E.

      Lysogenic cycle always ends in the rupture of the host cell.

    Correct Answer
    D. Enveloped viruses bud out from its host animal cell.
  • 24. 

    The ability of a virus to infect an organism is regulated by

    • A.

      The host species.

    • B.

      The type of cells.

    • C.

      The availability of an attachment site.

    • D.

      Cell factors necessary for viral replication.

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
  • 25. 

    Gas gangrene is caused by

    • A.

      Chromobacterium violaceum

    • B.

      Virbio cholerae

    • C.

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • D.

      Chlamydia trichomatis

    • E.

      Clostridium perfringens

    Correct Answer
    E. Clostridium perfringens
  • 26. 

    The predominating type of leucocytes present in the circulation

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Eosinophils

    • C.

      Basophils

    • D.

      T cells

    • E.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Neutrophils
  • 27. 

    The ID50 for Campylobacter sp. is 500 cells; the ID50 for Cryptosporidium sp. is 100 cells. Which of the following statements is not true?

    • A.

      Both microbes are pathogens.

    • B.

      Both microbes produce infections in 50% of the inoculated hosts.

    • C.

      Cryptosporidium is more virulent than Campylobacter.

    • D.

      Campylobacter and Cryptosporidium are equally virulent; they cause infections in the same number of test animals.

    • E.

      The severity of infections caused by Campylobacter and Cryptosporidium cannot be determined by the information provided.

    Correct Answer
    D. Campylobacter and Cryptosporidium are equally virulent; they cause infections in the same number of test animals.
  • 28. 

    The earliest smallpox vaccines were infected crusts rubbed onto the skin of a healthy person. The recipient of such a vaccine usually developed a mild case of smallpox, recovered, and was immune thereafter. The most likely reason this vaccine did not kill more people is:

    • A.

      Skin is the wrong portal of entry for small pox.

    • B.

      The vaccine consisted of a mild form of the virus.

    • C.

      Smallpox is normally transmitted by skin-to-skin contact.

    • D.

      Smallpox is a virus.

    • E.

      The virus mutated.

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin is the wrong portal of entry for small pox.
  • 29. 

    Which of the following host defenses is not considered as a secondary lymphoid organ?

    • A.

      Adenoids

    • B.

      Mucosal associated lymphoid tissues

    • C.

      Thymus

    • D.

      Lymph nodes

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Thymus
  • 30. 

    Which of the following is a double stranded RNA virus?

    • A.

      Papovaviridae

    • B.

      Caliciviridae

    • C.

      Orthomyxoviridae

    • D.

      Togaviridae

    • E.

      Reoviridae

    Correct Answer
    E. Reoviridae
  • 31. 

    The following can produce endotoxins except

    • A.

      Rothia

    • B.

      Escherichia

    • C.

      Serratia

    • D.

      Pantoea

    • E.

      Ewingella

    Correct Answer
    A. Rothia
  • 32. 

    The causative agent of "kissing disease" commonly found among university students is

    • A.

      Cytomegalovirus

    • B.

      Human Herpes Virus - 6

    • C.

      Human Papillomavirus - 8

    • D.

      Epstein Barr Virus

    • E.

      Coxsackie A virus

    Correct Answer
    D. Epstein Barr Virus
  • 33. 

    Which is/are considered as the first line of defense against pathogens?

    • A.

      Phagocytosis

    • B.

      Humoral immunity

    • C.

      Cell mediated immunity

    • D.

      Intact skin

    • E.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    D. Intact skin
  • 34. 

    Chlamydia can prevent the formation of phagolysosomes and therefore can

    • A.

      Avoid being phagocytized.

    • B.

      Avoid destruction by complement.

    • C.

      Prevent adherence.

    • D.

      Avoid being digested.

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Avoid being digested.
  • 35. 

    Toxoid administration is an example of what form of acquired immunity?

    • A.

      Natural active

    • B.

      Natural passive

    • C.

      Artificial active

    • D.

      Artifical passive

    Correct Answer
    C. Artificial active
  • 36. 

    ABO blood typing can simply be performed by mixing capillary blood with different antisera of known specificity. This represents what serologic reaction?

    • A.

      Flocculation

    • B.

      Agglutination

    • C.

      Enzyme immunoassay

    • D.

      Neutralization

    • E.

      Complement fixation

    Correct Answer
    B. Agglutination
  • 37. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      IgG's protects the fetus and newborn.

    • B.

      IgD stimulates the transformation of B cells to antibody forming cells.

    • C.

      A single molecule of immunoglobulin has two anitgen binding fragments.

    • D.

      IgE is most abundant in body fluids and secretions.

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. IgE is most abundant in body fluids and secretions.
  • 38. 

    Arragne the following in the correct sequence to elicit an antibody response: (1) T-helper cells recognizes B cells. (2) APC phagocytizes antigen. (3) Antigen fragment is exposed on surface of APC. (4) T-helper cell recognizes antigen digest and MHC. (5) B cell recognizes antigen.

    • A.

      1, 2, 3, 4, 5

    • B.

      5, 4, 3, 2, 1

    • C.

      3, 4, 5, 1, 2

    • D.

      2, 3, 4, 1, 5

    • E.

      4, 5, 3, 1, 2

    Correct Answer
    D. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
  • 39. 

    Patients with Chediak-Higashi syndrome suffer from various types of cancer. These patients are most likely lacking which of the following:

    • A.

      TD cells

    • B.

      TH cells

    • C.

      B cells

    • D.

      NK cells

    • E.

      Ts cells

    Correct Answer
    E. Ts cells
  • 40. 

    Patient's serum, influenza virus, sheep red blood cells, and antisheep red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza?

    • A.

      Hemolysis

    • B.

      Hemagglutination

    • C.

      No hemagglutination

    • D.

      No hemolysis

    • E.

      Precipitin ring forms

    Correct Answer
    C. No hemagglutination
  • 41. 

    Transfusion reaction due to incompatible patient and donor blood represents which type of hypersensitivity?

    • A.

      Type I

    • B.

      Type II

    • C.

      Type III

    • D.

      Type IV

    • E.

      Type V

    Correct Answer
    B. Type II
  • 42. 

    A graft from a mother to her child is a/an

    • A.

      Autograft

    • B.

      Allograft

    • C.

      Xenograft

    • D.

      Syngeneic graft

    • E.

      Heterograft

    Correct Answer
    B. Allograft
  • 43. 

    An Rh negative woman became pregnant for the first time with an Rh negative baby. Which is/are most likely to occur?

    • A.

      Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) would occur due to the maternal antibodies that would act on fetal red blood cells.

    • B.

      The child will be born safely.

    • C.

      There is a 50-50 chance of survival of the child.

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. The child will be born safely.
  • 44. 

    Antibacterial drugs that inhibit bacterial growth are

    • A.

      Bactericidal

    • B.

      Bacteriostatic

    • C.

      A or B

    • D.

      Neither

    Correct Answer
    B. Bacteriostatic
  • 45. 

    Which of the following drugs inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis?

    • A.

      Penicillin V

    • B.

      Erythromycin

    • C.

      Amikacin

    • D.

      Linezolid

    • E.

      Polymyxin B

    Correct Answer
    A. Penicillin V
  • 46. 

    Which antifungal drug is active against superficial dermatophytic fungal infections of the hair and nails?

    • A.

      Griseofulvin

    • B.

      Echinocandins

    • C.

      Flucytocine

    • D.

      Nystatin

    • E.

      Tolnaftate

    Correct Answer
    A. Griseofulvin
  • 47. 

    Which of the following is/are incorrect?

    • A.

      Antibiotic susceptibility test by disk diffusion method is a quantitative rather than a qualitative method.

    • B.

      A microdilution or microtiter plate can be used for Kirby Bauer method.

    • C.

      A broth dilution test is often useful in determining MBC only.

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
  • 48. 

    Which is a severe adverse reaction to sulfonamides?

    • A.

      Criggler Najar syndrome

    • B.

      Steven Johnson syndrome

    • C.

      Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

    • D.

      Ototoxicity

    • E.

      Reyes syndrome

    Correct Answer
    B. Steven Johnson syndrome
  • 49. 

    Hereditary drug resistance factors are carried by

    • A.

      Plasmids

    • B.

      Transposons

    • C.

      A and B

    • D.

      Neither

    Correct Answer
    C. A and B
  • 50. 

    Hand, foot, and mouth disease is caused by

    • A.

      Enterovirus 72

    • B.

      Coxsackievirus A

    • C.

      Lymphocryptovirus

    • D.

      Rotavirus

    • E.

      Polyomavirus

    Correct Answer
    B. Coxsackievirus A

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 26, 2012
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 22, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Mmtech_18
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